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315 Cards in this Set
- Front
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|
RESPIRATORY ARREST
standing orders |
(1) Tension Pneumo
(2) Tube (3) Monitor (4) IV |
|
RESPIRATORY ARREST
medical control options |
pre-intubation sedation
(1) Diazepam (2) Midazolam (3) Etomidate |
|
OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders |
(1) Larygoscopy
(2) Tube (3) Cricothyrotomy |
|
VF/PULSLESS VT
standing orders |
(1) CPR
(2) DEFIBRILLATION (3) TUBE (4) IV (5) EPI or VASO (6) Amiodarone |
|
VF/PULSLESS VT
standing order drugs |
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Vasopressin (3) Amiodarone |
|
VF/PULSLESS VT
medical control drugs |
(1) Amiodarone
(2) Bicarb (3) Magnesium (4) Calcium |
|
PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing orders |
(1) CPR
(2) Tension Pneumo (3) Tube (4) IV (5) Epi or Vaso (6) Atropine |
|
PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing order drugs |
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Vasopressin (3) Atropine |
|
PEA/ASYSTOLE
medical control options |
(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride (3) Fluid |
|
Name the two drugs that are in both PEA and VF medical control options.
|
(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride |
|
Name the four initial steps taken with suspected AMI patients.
|
(1) Monitor
(2) Twelve Lead (3) IV (4) Vital Signs |
|
AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
standing order drugs |
(1) Nitro
(2) Aspirin |
|
AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
medical control drugs |
(1) Morphine
(2) Nitro |
|
AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing order drugs |
none
|
|
AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options |
(1) Fluid
(2) Dopamine |
|
True or False:
Cardiogenic Shock gets a 12 lead EKG. |
True, but only if the patient is hemodynamically stable (BP greater than 90 mmHg).
|
|
Name the three initial steps taken for patients presenting with dysrhythmias.
|
(1) Monitor
(2) IV (3) Vitals |
|
SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
standing orders |
(1) Cardiovert (unstable)
(2) Adenocard (stable) |
|
SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
medical control options |
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Cardiovert (3) Amiodarone (4) Diazepam or Midazolam |
|
True or False:
Amiodarone is given for SVT under standing orders. |
False.
But it can be given as a medical control option. |
|
True or False:
Diltiazem can be administered under medical control options for SVT. |
True.
|
|
True or False:
Adenosine may be used under standing orders to control a stable case of Rapid A-fib. |
False.
Adenocard is not indicated for A-fib or A-flutter. |
|
True or False:
Amiodarone can be used for A-flutter under medical control options. |
True.
|
|
ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
standing orders |
Cardiovert
|
|
ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
medical control options |
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone (3) Diazempam or Midazolam |
|
True or False:
Medical control options for A-fib/flutter include calling for repeat cardioversion. |
False.
|
|
True or False:
Medical control options for SVT include calling for repeat cardioversion. |
True.
|
|
What are the two drugs that can be used for controlling both SVT and A-fib/flutter under medical control options?
|
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone |
|
Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control SVT?
|
Adenocard
|
|
Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control A-fib/A-flutter?
|
none.
|
|
True or False:
You can call for fluids for VF under medical control options. |
False.
|
|
V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
standing orders |
(1) Cardioversion
(2) Amiodarone |
|
Name the standing order drug that can be used to treat V-tach with a pulse.
|
Amiodarone
|
|
V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
medical control options |
(1) Cardioversion
(2) Magnesium Sulfate (3) Calcium Chloride (4) Bicarb (5) Diazepam or Midazolam |
|
True or False:
Sodium Bicarbonate may be given for V-tach with a pulse under medical control options. |
True.
|
|
True or False.
You may call for Amiodarone under medical control options for V-tach with a pulse. |
False.
Amio is a standing order only for V-tach with pulse. |
|
Besides sodium bicarb, name the drugs that can be given to V-tach with a pulse under medical control options.
|
(1) Magnesium Sulfate
(2) Calcium Chloride |
|
BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
standing orders |
(1) Atropine
(2) Pacing |
|
BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
medical control options |
(1) Atropine
(2) Dopamine (3) Epinephrine (4) Calcium Chloride (5) Sodium Bicarb (6) Diazepam or Midazolam |
|
True or False:
Medical control options for Bradycardia include epinephrine. |
True.
|
|
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
standing orders |
(1) Nitro
(2) Furosemide (3) CPAP |
|
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
standing order drugs |
(1) Nitro
(2) Furosemide |
|
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
medical control options |
(1) Morphine
(2) Nitro |
|
True or False:
Repeat Furosemide can be requested under medical control options for acute pulmonary edema. |
False.
Furosemide is a standing order only for APE cases. |
|
ASTHMA/WHEEZING
standing orders drugs |
(1) Abuterol
(2) Metaproterenol (3) Epi (4) Magnesium (5) Methylprednisolone (6) Dexamethazone |
|
ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control drugs |
(1) Albuterol
(2) Metaproterenol (3) Epinephrine |
|
True or False:
Epi may be administered in adult asthma cases on standing orders. |
True.
|
|
COPD
standing orders |
(1) Albuterol
(2) Metaproterenol (3) Methylprednisolone (4) Dexamethazone |
|
What two drugs are present in the standing orders for Asthma but not COPD?
|
(1) Epi
(2) Magnesium |
|
COPD
medical control options |
Repeat Albuterol/Metaproterenol
|
|
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing orders |
(1) Tube
(2) Epi IM (3) Albuterol (bronchospasms) (4) Vitals (5) Monitor (6) IV (4) Epi IV & Fluids (decomp) (5) Diphenhydramine (no shock) |
|
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing order drugs |
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Albuterol (3) Diphenhydramine |
|
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control drugs |
(1) Epi
(2) Dopamine (3) Methylpredisolone (4) Dexamethazone (5) Diazepam/Midazolam/Etomidate |
|
True or False:
Methypredisolone is a standing order in asthma. |
True.
|
|
True or False:
Methypredisolone is a standing order in anaphylaxis. |
False.
It is a medical contol option. |
|
True or False:
Dopamine is under medical control options for anaphylaxis. |
True.
|
|
ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs |
(1) Dextrose
(2) Thiamine (3) Glucagon (4) Naloxone |
|
ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options |
Naloxone
|
|
SEIZURES
standing order drugs |
(1) Dextrose
(2) Lorazepam (3) Diazepam (4) Midazolam (5) Thiamine |
|
SEIZURES
medical control drugs |
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam (3) Midazolam |
|
True or False.
You can give Diazepam to sedate a statep seizure patient without calling medical control. |
True.
|
|
True or False:
You can give Dextrose to a seizure patient under standing orders. |
True.
|
|
NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing orders |
(1) Tension Pneumo
(2) IV (3) Fluids (4) Monitor |
|
True or False:
You should place a cardiac monitor on non-cardiogenic shock patient per standing orders. |
True.
|
|
NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options |
Fluids
(3 additional liters for a total of 6) |
|
TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing orders |
(1) Transport!
(2) Tension Pneumo (3) Tube (4) IV Fluids |
|
TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options |
Fluids
(additional 3 for total of 6 liters) |
|
HEAD INJURIES
standing order drugs |
Lidocaine
|
|
True or False:
You can give Diazepam to a head injury patient on standing orders. |
False.
You must call for Diazepam for preintubation sedation. |
|
Name the drugs in the medical control options for head injuries that is used to control associated seizures.
|
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam midazolam is only listed under preintubation sedation in this protocol |
|
HEAD INJURIES
medical control drugs |
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam (3) Midazolam (4) Etomidate |
|
CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
medical control options |
none
|
|
CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
standing orders |
(1) remove contacts
(2) Proparacaine/Tetracaine |
|
BURNS
standing orders |
(1) Tube (airway burns)
(2) Monitor (electrical) (3) IV (4) Fluids |
|
BURNS
medical control options |
(1) Morphine
(2) Diazepam (3) Midazolam (4) Etomidate |
|
PAIN MANAGEMENT
medical control options |
none.
(standing orders for pain control) |
|
PAIN MANAGEMENT
standing orders |
(1) monitor
(2) oximetry (3) IV (4) Vitals (5) Morphine |
|
True or False:
You can give Morphine on standing orders for pain management in the case of an isolated extremity injury. |
True.
|
|
OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
standing orders |
none - IV only
(all medical control options) |
|
OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
medical control options |
(1) Magnesium Sulfate
(2) Oxytocin & Fluid |
|
True or False:
You can give Oxytocin to a post-partum hemorrhage without contacting medical control. |
False.
|
|
What should be done before initiating resuscitation on a newborn with meconium.
|
Tube and withdraw while suctioning three times.
|
|
NEONATE RESUSCITATION (NO MECONIUM)
standing orders |
(1) CPR
(2) TUBE PRN (3) Transport (4) NG/OG Tube PRN (5) Epi via ET |
|
Name the one drug given during a neonate resuscitation on standing orders.
|
Epinephrine
|
|
NEONATE RESUSCITATION (NO MECONIUM)
medical control options |
(1) Epi
(2) IV/IO (3) Fluid |
|
True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in the case of a neonate resuscitation. |
False:
You must call for an IV/IO in cases of neonate resuscitation. |
|
PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
standing orders |
(1) Tube
(2) Tension Pneumo (3) Transport (4) Naloxone (5) NG/OG tube PRN |
|
What drug is given on standing orders for pediatric respiratory arrest cases?
|
Naloxone
|
|
PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
medical control options |
(1) IV/IO
(2) Naloxone |
|
True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in pediatric respiratory arrest. |
False.
It is a medical control option. |
|
What is the only drug in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol?
|
Naloxone
|
|
What drug is given under medical control options for pediatric respiratory arrest cases?
|
Naloxone
|
|
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
medical control options |
none
(all standing orders) |
|
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders |
(1) Direct Laryngoscopy (Magills)
(2) Tube (if no epiglottitis) (3) Cricothyrotomy PRN |
|
True or False:
You must call medical control to obtain permission to perform a crycothyrotomy on a pediatric obstructed airway. |
False.
It is a standing order. |
|
PEDIATRIC CROUP/EPIGLOTTITIS
standing orders |
(1) Do NOT intubate
(2) Transport (3) NG/OG Tube PRN |
|
True or False:
Passage of an NG/OG Tube is contraindicated in cases of pediatric epiglottitis. |
False.
It's a standing order. |
|
True or False:
Intubation is contraindicated in cases of pediatric croup/epiglottitis. |
True.
|
|
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing orders |
(1) Monitor
(2) Shock (3) CPR (4) Tube (5) Xport (6) Epi (ET) (7) NG/OG Tube PRN (8) IV/IO (9) Amiodarone (10) Epi |
|
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing order drugs |
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Amiodarone |
|
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options |
(1) Repeat Standing
(2) Naloxone (3) Dextrose (4) Bicarb (5) Magnesium (6) Fluids |
|
True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is in the medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest. |
True.
It is used for Torsades de Points |
|
What is Magnesium used for in the pediatric arrest protocol?
|
Torsades
|
|
PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
standing orders |
(1) Albuterol
(2) Epi IM |
|
True or False:
You can administer Metaproterenol on standing orders in pediatric asthma. |
False.
Only Albuterol is used for pediatric asthma. Metaproterenol is no longer in the protocol. |
|
PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control options |
(1) Albuterol
(2) Ipratropium Bromide (3) Epi (or Terbutaline) (4) IV/IO |
|
True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on standing orders in cases of pediatric asthma. |
False.
You must call medical control for IV/IO in cases of pediatric asthma. |
|
How is Ipratropium Bromide administered in pediatric asthma cases?
|
It is mixed with Albuterol and administered by nebulizer.
|
|
PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing orders |
(1) Tube
(2) Epi ET (no tube? Epi IM) (3) transport (4) NG/OG tube PRN |
|
What is the one drug given for pediatric anaphylaxis?
|
Epinephrine
|
|
PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control options |
(1) Repeat Standing (Epi)
(2) IV/IO (3) Fluid (20 ml/kg) (4) Epi |
|
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders for a pediatric patient in anaphylactic shock. |
False.
You must call medical contol. |
|
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing orders |
(1) Transport
(2) Glucagon (3) IV/IO (4) Dextrose (5) Naloxone |
|
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs |
(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose (3) Naloxone |
|
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric altered mental status on standing orders. |
True
|
|
True or False:
Thiamine is administered after Dextrose to pediatric altered mental status patients. |
False.
No thiamine is given at all in pediatric AMS cases. |
|
True or False:
Thiamine is administered after Dextrose to altered mental status patients. |
True.
But not to pediatric cases. |
|
True or False:
You can administer Metaproterenol on standing orders for anaphylactic reactions. |
False.
Only Albuterol is used for anaphylactic reactions. |
|
True or False:
Albuterol is used for bronchospasm in pediatric anaphylactic reactions. |
False.
Albuterol is used only for adult anaphylaxis. |
|
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options |
repeat standing orders
|
|
PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
standing orders |
(1) Transport
(2) Glucagon (3) IV/IO (4) Dextrose |
|
True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on a pediatric stat-ep without contacting medical control. |
True.
Standing order. |
|
True or False:
You can administer rectal Diazepam on standing orders in the case of a pediatric stat-ep. |
False.
It is a medical control option. |
|
PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
medical control options |
(1) Diazepam (IV/IO/Rectal)
(2) Lorazepam (3) Midazolam |
|
What three medical control option drugs are used to control seizures in pediatric patients?
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam (3) Midazolam |
|
PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
standing orders |
(1) monitor (no hypovolemia)
(2) transport (3) IV/IO (4) Fluid (20 ml/kg) |
|
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric patient in decompensated shock without contacting medical control. |
True.
|
|
PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
medical control options |
(1) Fluid (20 ml/kg)
(2) Cardiovert and SVT (3) Adenocard |
|
True or false:
Amiodarone is in the pediatric decompensated shock medical contol options. |
False.
But Adenocard is. |
|
PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST
standing orders |
(1) Transport
(2) Tube (3) Tension Pneumo (4) IV/IO (5) Fluid (6) NG/OG Tube PRN |
|
PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST
medical control options |
Fluid
|
|
True or False:
You must call for IV/IO in pediatric traumatic cardiac arrest. |
False.
|
|
Name the pediatric protocols in which IV/IO may be established on standing orders.
|
(1) Non-Traumatic Cardiac Arrest
(2) Altered Mental Status (3) Seizures (4) Decompensated Shock (5) Traumatic Arrest |
|
Name the pediatric protocols in which you must call medical control to obtain permission to establish IV/IO access.
|
(1) Neonate Resuscitation
(2) Respiratory Arrest (3) Asthma (4) Anaphylaxis |
|
True or False:
For both pediatric "cardiac arrests" (traumatic and non-traumatic), it is permissible to establish an IV/IO on standing orders. |
True
|
|
True or False:
For neonate resuscitation, it is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders. |
False
|
|
True or False:
For the "big three" pediatric respiratory emergencies, (1) Respiratory Arrest (2) Asthma (3) Anaphylaxis you must call medical control before starting an IV/IO. |
True
|
|
In addition to the "big three" pediatric respiratory emergencies, what is the only other time you must call medical control for permission to start an IV/IO?
|
neonate resuscitation
|
|
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Central Pulses Weak |
|
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg +2Xage
OR "The Three C's" (1) Coma or AMS (2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Central Pulses Weak |
|
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Central Pulses Weak |
|
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg +2Xage
OR "The Three C's" (1) Coma or AMS (2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Centrally Weak Pulses |
|
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
|
70 + (2xage)
central |
|
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
|
70 +2Xage
central |
|
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Central Pulses Weak |
|
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
|
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg
OR "The Three C's" (1) Coma or AMS (2) Cyanotic Extremities (3) Central Pulses Weak |
|
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
|
70 + (2x age)
central |
|
In pediatrics, IV/IO may be established under standing orders for 3 ______ and 2 ______ emergencies.
|
circulatory
CNS |
|
Name the three pediatric circulatory emergecies that call for IV/IO on standing orders.
|
(1) Cardiac Arrest
(2) Traumatic Arrest (3) Decompensated Shock |
|
Name the two pediatric CNS emergecies that call for IV/IO on standing orders.
|
(1) Seizures
(2) Altered Mental Status |
|
Aside from the "big three" respiratory emergencies, what is the only other case in which IV/IO requires prior approval of medical control?
|
neonate resuscitation
|
|
EMOTIONALLY DISTURBED PATIENT
standing orders |
(1) Underlying conditions
(2) IV (3) Monitor (4) Oximetry |
|
EMOTIONALLY DISTURBED PATIENT
medical control options |
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam (3) Lorazepam |
|
True or False:
You may chemically restrain an EDP without consulting medical control. |
False.
You must contact medical control first. |
|
CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION
standing orders |
There are no standing orders. This protocol can only be used with prior approval of medical control or at an MCI for which a class order has been issued.
|
|
CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION
medical control or class order |
(1) Tube
(2) IV x2 and Bloods (3) Hydroxocobalamin (4) Sodium Thiosulfate (5) Medical Control (6) Dopamine (7) Diazepam (8) Midazolam (9) Etomidate |
|
You have a class order for the cyanide poisoning at an MCI, but you have a patient that needs RSI. Do you need to call medical control for sedation?
|
Yes.
|
|
True or False:
Dopamine is a medical control option in the Cyanide Poisioning protocol. |
True.
|
|
In suspected cyanide poisonings, prior to administration of Hyroxocobalamin, if possible, obtain ______.
|
three blood samples
(tubes in cyanide kit) |
|
For suspected cyanide poisoning, in the event that only one IV line is established, administer only ______.
|
Hydroxocobalamin
|
|
Sodium Thiosulfate, Dopamine, and Diazepam may not be administered via the same line as ______.
|
Hydroxocobalamin
|
|
______ is a white crystalline powder that must be mixed in saline prior to administration.
|
Hydroxocobalamin
|
|
You've exhausted standing orders for PEA/Asystole and are about to call medical control. What are the three conditions that should cross your mind that may be treatable under medical control options?
|
(1) Acidosis
(2) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD (3) Hypovolemia (Fluid Loss) |
|
You've exhausted standing orders for a refractory V-fib. Aside from more Amiodarone for the arrhythmia itself, what other three conditions should cross your mind as potentially treatable through medical control options?
|
(1) Acidosis/TCA OD
(2) Hypomagnesemia/TCA OD (Torsades) (3) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD |
|
What two drugs appear in the medical control options for both V-fib and PEA/Asystole?
|
(1) Sodium Bicarbonate
(2) Calcium Chloride |
|
______ must be treated prior to initiation of a 12 lead EKG.
|
An unstable arrhythmia
|
|
In cases of suspected MI, perform, record and evaluate a 12-lead EKG on any patient that is ______ (i.e., systolic BP greater than ______).
|
hemodynamically stable
90 mm Hg |
|
12-lead EKG only appears in what three protocols?
|
(1) Suspected AMI
(2) Myocardial Ischemia (3) Cardiogenic Shock |
|
Before each administration of Nitroglycerin, check the patient's ______ and ______ to ensure the patient is ______.
|
pulse
BP hemodynamically stable |
|
Nitro may NOT be administered to patients with a systolic BP of less than ______ unless...
|
100 mm Hg
...unless an IV/Saline Lock is in place. |
|
STEMI patients are those that have ST elevation in ______ leads (___mm in the limb leads, ___mm in the chest leads), or a new ______.
|
2 contiguous
1 mm 2 mm LBBB |
|
Following Morphine administration, if ______ developes, administer Naloxone.
|
hypoventillation
|
|
Etomidate is used for ______.
|
Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)
|
|
Each time Etomidate is used for RSI, it can be followed by ______ or ______ for continued sedation.
|
Diazepam
Lorazepam |
|
Each time Etomidate appears in a protocol, ______ and ______ are ammended to it for continued sedation.
|
Diazepam
Lorazepam |
|
Which two drugs always appear as an adjunct to Etomidate?
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam |
|
Whenever Etomidate is indicated, what two drugs follow as part of the same medical control option.
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam |
|
Whenever Morphine is indicated, which PRN drug option will appear next?
|
Naloxone
|
|
When administering Dopamine, if there is ______ in hemodynamic status, the infusion rate may be increased until ______ or ______.
|
insufficient improvement
desired therapeutic effects adverse effects |
|
In a patient with ______ SVT, perform synchonized cardioversion.
|
unstable
|
|
In a patient with ______ SVT, administer adenocard.
|
stable
|
|
Acronym for identifying unstable arrhythmias in adults.
|
HAPSA
|
|
List the components of HAPSA for identifying unstable arrhythmias in adults.
|
Hypotention (<90)
AMS (agitation, confusion) Pain (in chest) Shortness of Breath AMI/APE/CHF |
|
List the components of HAD for identifying unstable arrhythmias in pediatrics.
|
Hypotension (<70+2Xage)
Absent peripheral pulses Depressed mental status |
|
Acronym for identifying unstable arrhythmias in pediatrics.
|
HAD
|
|
What are the only two differences between the SVT and A-fib/A-flutter protocols?
|
SVT only:
(1) Adenocard (2) Cardioversion reattempt under Med. Ctrl. |
|
What is the initial treatement for unstable SVT?
|
Cardioversion
|
|
What is the initial treatment for stable SVT?
|
Adenosine
|
|
What is the initial treatment for unstable A-fib/A-flutter?
|
Cardioversion
|
|
What is the initial treatment for stable A-fib/A-flutter?
|
Contact Medical Control for
Diltiazem or Amiodarone, but only if the rate is above 150. (Otherwise, don't treat.) |
|
True or False:
Stable A-fib/flutter can only be treated under medical control options. |
True.
|
|
Name the two methods of treating STABLE A-fib/flutter.
|
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone |
|
What is the first line of treatment for stable bradycardia?
|
Not specified. The protocol applies only to Bradycardia with signs of decompensated shock.
|
|
What is the first treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block with decompensated shock?
|
atropine (one dose)
|
|
What is the second treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block wih decompensated shock?
|
transcutaneous pacing
(consider prior sedation) |
|
In cases of adult asthma, administer epinephrine on standing orders to patients with signs of ______.
|
impending respiratory failure
|
|
True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is given on standing orders in cases of adult asthma. |
True.
(to patients with persistent, severe respiratory distress) |
|
True or False:
Methylprednisolone and Dexamethazone are in the medical control options in the adult asthma protocol. |
False.
They are now standing orders, to be given to patients with persistent, severe respiratory distress. |
|
True or False:
Epi may be given on standing orders to patients with excacerbation of COPD. |
False.
No epi whatsoever is in the protocol for COPD, either in standing orders or medical control options. |
|
True or False:
Epi is intially given down the ET tube in adult anaphylaxis. |
False.
Epi down the tube for adult anaphylaxis is no longer indicated. However, it IS indicated in pediatric anaphylaxis. |
|
What is the first drug treatment option under standing orders in adult anaphylaxis.
|
Epi IM
|
|
In adult anaphylaxis, what can be done under standing orders for the patient with bronchospasms?
|
nebulized Albuterol
|
|
True or False:
Nebulized Metaproterenol may be given under standing orders in adult anaphylaxis. |
False.
Only Albuterol appears in the protocol. |
|
IV epinephrine and fluids are given to adult anaphylaxis patients under standing orders if the patient has signs of ______.
|
decompensated shock
|
|
Diphenhydramine may be given on standing orders in the adult anaphylaxis patient provided...
|
the patient has no signs of shock.
|
|
In adult anaphylaxis, ______ and ______ drips may be given under ______ to improve hemodynamic status.
|
Epinephrine
Dopamine Medical Control Options |
|
A glucometer (if available) may be used to document blood glucose level... (when)
|
...prior to Dextrose administration.
|
|
If the glucometer reading is above ______, dextrose may be withheld.
|
120 mg/dl
|
|
True or False:
Always administer thiamine along with Glucagon. |
False.
Thiamine is not indicated with Glucagon. |
|
What is the one drug that may be repeated under medical control options for Adult Altered Mental Status?
|
Naloxone
|
|
In Adult Altered Mental Status, Naloxone may be administered ____ or ____ if IV access has not been established.
|
IM
IN |
|
True or False:
Naloxone may be administered IN to pediatric AMS. |
False.
It is not in the protocol. |
|
What is the first drug given for ongoing or recurring seizures in adults?
|
Dextrose
|
|
The adult seizure protocol applies to seizures that are ______ or ______.
|
ongoing
recurring |
|
What is the second drug given in the adult seizure protocol?
|
There are three standing order options:
(1) Lorazepam (2) Diazepam (3) Midazolam |
|
True or False:
Etomidate may be used to treat adult seizures. |
False.
Etomidate is for pre-intubation sedation, not seizure control. |
|
True or False:
You must call for Valium to treat ongoing seizure activity. |
False.
Diazepam is a standing order, repeatable under medical control options. |
|
True or False:
Midazolam IV may be given for ongoing seizures under standing orders. |
False.
In the adult seizure protocol, Midazolam may be given IM (not IV) under both standing orders and medical control options. |
|
For ongoing seizures, when is Midazolam given and by what route?
|
In the Seizure protocol, Midazolam is given IM only when IV access cannot be established for Lorazepam or Diazepam.
|
|
True or False.
Thiamine may be given to adult seizure patients. |
True
|
|
True or False.
Lorazepam, Diazepam and Midazolam may all be given IM to a seizure patient in the event that IV access is unavailable. |
False.
Only Lorazepam and Midazolam can be given IM; Diazepam is given IV bolus. |
|
True or False.
In adult seizure cases, Lorazepam may be given by either IV or IM. |
True
|
|
In patients in traumatic cardiac arrest, ______ is the highest priority!
|
rapid transport
|
|
In cases of traumatic arrest, excluding patients with ______, begin cardiac monitoring.
|
penetrating chest trauma
|
|
You would not place the monitor on a patient in traumatic cardiac arrest if ______ is present.
|
penetratic chest trauma
|
|
If V-fib or pulseless V-tach are present in traumatic cardiac arrest, you would...
|
treat them under their respective protocols, including defibrillation and drugs, as long as there is no penetrating chest trauma.
|
|
What are the two cardiac arrhythmias in traumatic arrest that may be medically treated?
|
(1) V-fib
(2) Pulseless V-tach |
|
The Head Injuries protocol applies to patients with head trauma who have a Glascow Coma Scale score of ___ or lower.
|
13
|
|
According to the Head Injuries protocol, you should intubate patients with a Glascow Coma Score of less than ___, if less invasive methods of airway management are ineffective.
|
8
|
|
Lidocaine is given immediately ______ intubation in head injury cases to minimize the increase in intracranial pressure.
(before/after) |
before
|
|
In the Head Injuries protocol, name the two drugs used to control seizures.
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam (midazolam is listen under RSI section only, right above etomidate) |
|
In the Head Injuries protocol, Diazepam/Lorazepam may be given on standing orders to control seizures.
|
False.
|
|
In the Head Injuries protocol, name the three drugs used for RSI.
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam (3) Etomidate |
|
In the Head Injuries protocol, Diazepam/Lorazepam may be given if seizure activity ______ or ______.
|
persists
recurs |
|
In the Chemical Eye Injury protocol, Proparacaine or Tetracaine administered for the purpose of...
|
facilitating irrigation in the patient who is agitated or unable to hold his eyelid open.
|
|
In the Burns protocol, perform RSI when these two situations are anticipated.
|
(1) upper airway burns
(2) upper airway compromise |
|
In the Burns protocol, perform cardiac monitoring for patients with ______.
|
electrical burns
|
|
In the Burns protocol, Morphine is given for the purpose of ______.
|
analgesia
|
|
True or False:
In the Burns protocol, Morphine is given on standing orders. |
False.
It is a medical control option. |
|
Morphine may be administered for severe pain management of an isolated extremities injury provided the systolic BP is greater than ______ mm Hg.
|
110
|
|
In the Emotionally Disturbed Patient protocol, in order to protect the patient's airway, consider placing the patient in a ______ position.
|
lateral recumbent
|
|
Name the three drug options for chemically restraining an Emotionally Disturbed Patient.
|
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam (3) Lorazepam |
|
Severe pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher and a diastolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher.
|
160
110 |
|
Name the drug used to treat pre-eclampsia.
|
Magnesium Sulfate
|
|
Name the drug used to treat post-partum hemorrhage.
|
Oxytocin
|
|
True or False:
In patients with pre-eclampsia and a sever post-partum hemorrage, you should administer Oxytocin first. |
False.
Do not administer Oxytocin if signs of pre-eclampsia are present. |
|
Do not administer Oxytocin if ______ has not been expelled.
|
the placenta
|
|
Failure to respond to Oxytocin may indicate that ______ or ______ remain within the uterus.
|
placental remnants
an undelivered twin |
|
For neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, directly suction the ET tube via a ______ while slowly withdrawing the ET tube.
|
Meconium Aspirator/Adapter
|
|
In neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, repeat suctioning procedure until...
|
...the ET tube is clear.
(max three times) |
|
In neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, do NOT replace the ET tube once the airway has been cleared unless the neonate remains...
|
...limp, apneic or pulseless.
|
|
Perform airway clearing procedures of thick meconium for neonates requiring resuscitation who are...
|
limp, apneic or pulseless.
|
|
Do not intubate the neonate unless other methods of airways management are...
|
...not effective.
(I.e., heart rate cannot be successfully increased.) |
|
If abdominal distention occurs during neonate resuscitation...
|
...pass an NG tube. If unsuccessful, pass an OG tube.
|
|
In neonate resuscitation, if CPR has been initiated, and the heart rate remains less than ___ beats per minute and not rapidly increasing after ___ seconds of CPR, perform ___.
|
60
30 intubation |
|
What is the only drug used in neonate resuscitation?
|
epinephrine
|
|
What is the first drug administered on standing orders for neonate resuscitation?
|
epi by ET
|
|
Summarize the essence of the medical control options for neonate resuscitation.
|
Give more ET epi and/or administer IV/IO epi and fluids.
|
|
The pediatric respiratory arrest protocol applies to pediatric patients in actual or impending respiratory arrest, OR those who are ______ and ____.
|
unconscious
cannot be adequately ventilated |
|
What is the only drug used in the Pediatric Respiratory Arrest protocol?
|
Naloxone
|
|
True or False:
You must call for sedation to perform RSI on a pediatric respiratory arrest. |
False.
There is no option for sedation in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol. |
|
True or False:
There are no provisions for sedation for intubation, cardioversion or pacing in any of the pediatric protocols. |
True.
|
|
A pediatric patient has SVT. What can be done?
|
Under Pediatric Decompensated Shock, call for orders to cardiovert or to administer adenosine if the defibrillator cannot deliver a calculated dose. There are no provisions for sedation.
|
|
Can a pediatric patient be paced?
|
No. Pediatric pacing does not appear in any of the protocols.
|
|
A pediatric patient has V-tach with a pulse. What can be done?
|
Cardiovert under Pediatric Decompensated Shock protocol at calculated does without sedation.
|
|
Since there is no bradyarrhythmia protocol for children, what should be done for a child with a hemodynamically unstable bradyarrhythmia?
|
Perform CPR in children under the age of 9 with a rate below 60 and signs of decompensated shock; treat as an arrest.
|
|
For infants and children under 9 years of age with a heart rate of less than 60 and signs of inadequate central perfusion...
|
perform CPR.
|
|
For ______ and ______ with a heart rate of less than 60 and signs of inadequate central perfusion, perform CPR.
|
infants
children under 9 |
|
In cases of croup/epiglottitis, do NOT attempt ______. Use ______ ventillation.
|
intubation
high pressure BVM |
|
In cases of croup/epiglottitis, pass an NG/OG tube if distention occurs, but do NOT attempt to pass an NG/OG tube in a ______ patient.
|
conscious
|
|
In pediatric non-traumatic cardiac arrest, if the defibrillator is unable to deliver the recommended dose...
|
...use the lowest available setting.
|
|
What is the first drug administered in pediatric non-traumatic arrest?
|
Epi via ET
(no ET access? Amio upon establishing IV/IO) |
|
Name the five conditions you would be looking to treat under medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest.
|
(1) Narcotic OD
(2) Hypoglycemia (3) Acidosis (4) Hypomagnesemia/Torsades (5) Hypovolemia |
|
In the Pediatric Asthma protocol, epinephrine may be administered to patients ___ year of age and older with _____, _____ or _____.
|
1
severe respiratory distress respiratory failure decreased breath sounds |
|
Name the four findings that characterize severe respiratory distress in children.
|
TADS
(1) Tripod position (2) Agitation (severe) (3) Dyspnea (4) Supra/substernal retractions |
|
What does TADS stand for?
|
Severe Pediatric Resp. Distress
(1) Tripod position (2) Agitation (severe) (3) Dyspnea (4) Supra/substernal retractions |
|
What acronym is used to remember the characteristics of severe respiratory distress in pediatrics?
|
TADS
|
|
In a child, ______ is an ominous sign that indicates that respiratory failure and arrest are imminent.
|
a silent chest
|
|
In the medical control options for Pediatric Asthma, what drug can be optionally administered in place of the repeat dose of IM Epi?
|
Terbutaline (SC)
|
|
True or False:
A Bradycardic and decompensated pediatric being treated as an arrest can be given Atropine to increase the heart rate. |
False.
Atropine is not in the pediatric arrest protocol, but Epinephrine may be given. |
|
In pediatric asthma, ______ may be mixed with Albuterol as a medical control option.
|
Ipratropium Bromide
|
|
What is the first drug administered in Pediatric Anaphylaxis?
|
Epi ET
(IM if no ET) Epi also happens to be THE ONLY drug in this protocol. |
|
When is diphenhydramine administered in pediatric anaphylaxis?
|
Never.
|
|
When is diphenhydramine administered in adult anaphylaxis?
|
Only if the patient has no signs of shock.
|
|
Describe the essence of the medical control options for pediatric anaphylaxis?
|
Start a line and give more epi and fluids.
"IV-Fluids-Epi" |
|
The Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol applies to pediatric patients in a ______, with evolving ______, or with ______ of unknown etiology.
|
coma
neurological deficits altered mental status |
|
What is always the first priority, according to the Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol?
|
maintenance of normal respiratory and circulatory function
|
|
Any AMS secondary to what five conditions does the Pediatric AMS protocol state should be treated under other protocols?
|
(1) Resp. Failure/Arrest
(2) Obstructed Airway (3) Shock Trauma (4) Near Drowning (5) Other Anoxic/Hypoxic Injury |
|
What pharmocologic trio forms the basis for the pediatric AMS protocol?
|
(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose (3) Naloxone |
|
True or False:
Thiamine appears in the Pediatric AMS protocol. |
False.
|
|
Under what protocol is Thiamine administered to children?
|
None.
|
|
What drugs can be given in a Pediatric AMS case with no IV access?
|
(1) Glucagon IM
(2) Naloxone IM |
|
Describe the medical control options for Pediatric AMS.
|
Repeat standing orders.
|
|
What is the very first drug administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
|
Glucagon.
|
|
What is a simple word to describe the essence of the standing orders for pediatric seizures?
|
sugar
|
|
What is a simple word to describe the essence of the medical control options for pediatric seizures?
|
sedation
|
|
Name the three drugs that may be used to sedate a pediatric seizure patient.
|
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam (3) Midazolam |
|
By which route(s) may Lorazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
|
IV/IO
|
|
By which route(s) may Diazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
|
IV/IO/Rectal
|
|
By which route(s) may Midazolam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
|
IM
|
|
In pediatric patients, do not administer Lorazepam, Diazepam, or Midazolam if...
|
...the seizures have stopped.
|
|
Patients in ______ shock should not be treated under the Pediatric Decompensated Shock protocol.
|
compensated
|
|
In cases of pediatric decompensated shock, if signs of hemorrhage or dehydration are NOT present, begin ______.
|
cardiac monitoring
|
|
If a child is in decompensated shock due to bleeding or dehydration, you should skip ______.
|
cardiac monitoring
|
|
What two possible situations may be treated under the medical control options for Pediatric Decompensated Shock?
|
(1) hypovolemia
(2) tachycardia |
|
Do not perform cardioversion in pediatric patients unless...
|
the defibrillator is able to deliver a calculated dose.
|
|
What is the highest priority for the pediatric patient in traumatic cardiac arrest?
|
rapid transport
|
|
True or False:
A needle decompression can be performed on children and infants under standing orders. |
True.
|
|
According to the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest protocol, do NOT pass an NG tube in patients with ______.
|
craniofacial trauma
|
|
In Pediatric Traumatic Arrest, attempt to obtain vascular access no more than ______.
|
twice
|
|
Use one world to describe the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest medical control options.
|
Fluids.
|
|
What is the appropriate joule setting for neonate defibrillation?
|
Neonates are not defibrillated.
|
|
What is the difference between the treatment of PEA/Asystole versus VF/VT in the neonate?
|
Nothing. Cardiac rhythm is of no consequence in neonate resuscitation.
|
|
True or False:
There is no cardiac monitoring in neonate resuscitation. |
True.
|
|
How is cardiac rhythm assessed and treated in neonate resuscitation?
|
It is not. Resuscitation is aimed at simply increasing heart activity with compressions, ventillations, and epinephrine.
|