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315 Cards in this Set

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RESPIRATORY ARREST
standing orders
(1) Tension Pneumo
(2) Tube
(3) Monitor
(4) IV
RESPIRATORY ARREST
medical control options
pre-intubation sedation
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam
(3) Etomidate
OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders
(1) Larygoscopy
(2) Tube
(3) Cricothyrotomy
VF/PULSLESS VT
standing orders
(1) CPR
(2) DEFIBRILLATION
(3) TUBE
(4) IV
(5) EPI or VASO
(6) Amiodarone
VF/PULSLESS VT
standing order drugs
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Amiodarone
VF/PULSLESS VT
medical control drugs
(1) Amiodarone
(2) Bicarb
(3) Magnesium
(4) Calcium
PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing orders
(1) CPR
(2) Tension Pneumo
(3) Tube
(4) IV
(5) Epi or Vaso
(6) Atropine
PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing order drugs
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Atropine
PEA/ASYSTOLE
medical control options
(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride
(3) Fluid
Name the two drugs that are in both PEA and VF medical control options.
(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride
Name the four initial steps taken with suspected AMI patients.
(1) Monitor
(2) Twelve Lead
(3) IV
(4) Vital Signs
AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
standing order drugs
(1) Nitro
(2) Aspirin
AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
medical control drugs
(1) Morphine
(2) Nitro
AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing order drugs
none
AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options
(1) Fluid
(2) Dopamine
True or False:
Cardiogenic Shock gets a 12 lead EKG.
True, but only if the patient is hemodynamically stable (BP greater than 90 mmHg).
Name the three initial steps taken for patients presenting with dysrhythmias.
(1) Monitor
(2) IV
(3) Vitals
SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
standing orders
(1) Cardiovert (unstable)
(2) Adenocard (stable)
SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
medical control options
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Cardiovert
(3) Amiodarone
(4) Diazepam or Midazolam
True or False:
Amiodarone is given for SVT under standing orders.
False.
But it can be given as a medical control option.
True or False:
Diltiazem can be administered under medical control options for SVT.
True.
True or False:
Adenosine may be used under standing orders to control a stable case of Rapid A-fib.
False.
Adenocard is not indicated for A-fib or A-flutter.
True or False:
Amiodarone can be used for A-flutter under medical control options.
True.
ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
standing orders
Cardiovert
ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
medical control options
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone
(3) Diazempam or Midazolam
True or False:
Medical control options for A-fib/flutter include calling for repeat cardioversion.
False.
True or False:
Medical control options for SVT include calling for repeat cardioversion.
True.
What are the two drugs that can be used for controlling both SVT and A-fib/flutter under medical control options?
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone
Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control SVT?
Adenocard
Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control A-fib/A-flutter?
none.
True or False:
You can call for fluids for VF under medical control options.
False.
V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
standing orders
(1) Cardioversion
(2) Amiodarone
Name the standing order drug that can be used to treat V-tach with a pulse.
Amiodarone
V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
medical control options
(1) Cardioversion
(2) Magnesium Sulfate
(3) Calcium Chloride
(4) Bicarb
(5) Diazepam or Midazolam
True or False:
Sodium Bicarbonate may be given for V-tach with a pulse under medical control options.
True.
True or False.
You may call for Amiodarone under medical control options for V-tach with a pulse.
False.
Amio is a standing order only for V-tach with pulse.
Besides sodium bicarb, name the drugs that can be given to V-tach with a pulse under medical control options.
(1) Magnesium Sulfate
(2) Calcium Chloride
BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
standing orders
(1) Atropine
(2) Pacing
BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
medical control options
(1) Atropine
(2) Dopamine
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Sodium Bicarb
(6) Diazepam or Midazolam
True or False:
Medical control options for Bradycardia include epinephrine.
True.
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
standing orders
(1) Nitro
(2) Furosemide
(3) CPAP
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
standing order drugs
(1) Nitro
(2) Furosemide
ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
medical control options
(1) Morphine
(2) Nitro
True or False:
Repeat Furosemide can be requested under medical control options for acute pulmonary edema.
False.
Furosemide is a standing order only for APE cases.
ASTHMA/WHEEZING
standing orders drugs
(1) Abuterol
(2) Metaproterenol
(3) Epi
(4) Magnesium
(5) Methylprednisolone
(6) Dexamethazone
ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control drugs
(1) Albuterol
(2) Metaproterenol
(3) Epinephrine
True or False:
Epi may be administered in adult asthma cases on standing orders.
True.
COPD
standing orders
(1) Albuterol
(2) Metaproterenol
(3) Methylprednisolone
(4) Dexamethazone
What two drugs are present in the standing orders for Asthma but not COPD?
(1) Epi
(2) Magnesium
COPD
medical control options
Repeat Albuterol/Metaproterenol
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing orders
(1) Tube
(2) Epi IM
(3) Albuterol (bronchospasms)
(4) Vitals
(5) Monitor
(6) IV
(4) Epi IV & Fluids (decomp)
(5) Diphenhydramine (no shock)
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing order drugs
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Albuterol
(3) Diphenhydramine
ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control drugs
(1) Epi
(2) Dopamine
(3) Methylpredisolone
(4) Dexamethazone
(5) Diazepam/Midazolam/Etomidate
True or False:
Methypredisolone is a standing order in asthma.
True.
True or False:
Methypredisolone is a standing order in anaphylaxis.
False.
It is a medical contol option.
True or False:
Dopamine is under medical control options for anaphylaxis.
True.
ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs
(1) Dextrose
(2) Thiamine
(3) Glucagon
(4) Naloxone
ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options
Naloxone
SEIZURES
standing order drugs
(1) Dextrose
(2) Lorazepam
(3) Diazepam
(4) Midazolam
(5) Thiamine
SEIZURES
medical control drugs
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam
(3) Midazolam
True or False.
You can give Diazepam to sedate a statep seizure patient without calling medical control.
True.
True or False:
You can give Dextrose to a seizure patient under standing orders.
True.
NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing orders
(1) Tension Pneumo
(2) IV
(3) Fluids
(4) Monitor
True or False:
You should place a cardiac monitor on non-cardiogenic shock patient per standing orders.
True.
NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options
Fluids

(3 additional liters for a total of 6)
TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing orders
(1) Transport!
(2) Tension Pneumo
(3) Tube
(4) IV Fluids
TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options
Fluids

(additional 3 for total of 6 liters)
HEAD INJURIES
standing order drugs
Lidocaine
True or False:
You can give Diazepam to a head injury patient on standing orders.
False.
You must call for Diazepam for preintubation sedation.
Name the drugs in the medical control options for head injuries that is used to control associated seizures.
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam

midazolam is only listed under preintubation sedation in this protocol
HEAD INJURIES
medical control drugs
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam
(3) Midazolam
(4) Etomidate
CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
medical control options
none
CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
standing orders
(1) remove contacts
(2) Proparacaine/Tetracaine
BURNS
standing orders
(1) Tube (airway burns)
(2) Monitor (electrical)
(3) IV
(4) Fluids
BURNS
medical control options
(1) Morphine
(2) Diazepam
(3) Midazolam
(4) Etomidate
PAIN MANAGEMENT
medical control options
none.
(standing orders for pain control)
PAIN MANAGEMENT
standing orders
(1) monitor
(2) oximetry
(3) IV
(4) Vitals
(5) Morphine
True or False:
You can give Morphine on standing orders for pain management in the case of an isolated extremity injury.
True.
OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
standing orders
none - IV only
(all medical control options)
OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
medical control options
(1) Magnesium Sulfate
(2) Oxytocin & Fluid
True or False:
You can give Oxytocin to a post-partum hemorrhage without contacting medical control.
False.
What should be done before initiating resuscitation on a newborn with meconium.
Tube and withdraw while suctioning three times.
NEONATE RESUSCITATION (NO MECONIUM)
standing orders
(1) CPR
(2) TUBE PRN
(3) Transport
(4) NG/OG Tube PRN
(5) Epi via ET
Name the one drug given during a neonate resuscitation on standing orders.
Epinephrine
NEONATE RESUSCITATION (NO MECONIUM)
medical control options
(1) Epi
(2) IV/IO
(3) Fluid
True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in the case of a neonate resuscitation.
False:
You must call for an IV/IO in cases of neonate resuscitation.
PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
standing orders
(1) Tube
(2) Tension Pneumo
(3) Transport
(4) Naloxone
(5) NG/OG tube PRN
What drug is given on standing orders for pediatric respiratory arrest cases?
Naloxone
PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
medical control options
(1) IV/IO
(2) Naloxone
True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in pediatric respiratory arrest.
False.
It is a medical control option.
What is the only drug in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol?
Naloxone
What drug is given under medical control options for pediatric respiratory arrest cases?
Naloxone
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
medical control options
none
(all standing orders)
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders
(1) Direct Laryngoscopy (Magills)
(2) Tube (if no epiglottitis)
(3) Cricothyrotomy PRN
True or False:
You must call medical control to obtain permission to perform a crycothyrotomy on a pediatric obstructed airway.
False.
It is a standing order.
PEDIATRIC CROUP/EPIGLOTTITIS
standing orders
(1) Do NOT intubate
(2) Transport
(3) NG/OG Tube PRN
True or False:
Passage of an NG/OG Tube is contraindicated in cases of pediatric epiglottitis.
False.
It's a standing order.
True or False:
Intubation is contraindicated in cases of pediatric croup/epiglottitis.
True.
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing orders
(1) Monitor
(2) Shock
(3) CPR
(4) Tube
(5) Xport
(6) Epi (ET)
(7) NG/OG Tube PRN
(8) IV/IO
(9) Amiodarone
(10) Epi
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing order drugs
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Amiodarone
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options
(1) Repeat Standing
(2) Naloxone
(3) Dextrose
(4) Bicarb
(5) Magnesium
(6) Fluids
True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is in the medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest.
True.
It is used for Torsades de Points
What is Magnesium used for in the pediatric arrest protocol?
Torsades
PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
standing orders
(1) Albuterol
(2) Epi IM
True or False:
You can administer Metaproterenol on standing orders in pediatric asthma.
False.
Only Albuterol is used for pediatric asthma. Metaproterenol is no longer in the protocol.
PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control options
(1) Albuterol
(2) Ipratropium Bromide
(3) Epi (or Terbutaline)
(4) IV/IO
True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on standing orders in cases of pediatric asthma.
False.
You must call medical control for IV/IO in cases of pediatric asthma.
How is Ipratropium Bromide administered in pediatric asthma cases?
It is mixed with Albuterol and administered by nebulizer.
PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing orders
(1) Tube
(2) Epi ET (no tube? Epi IM)
(3) transport
(4) NG/OG tube PRN
What is the one drug given for pediatric anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine
PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control options
(1) Repeat Standing (Epi)
(2) IV/IO
(3) Fluid (20 ml/kg)
(4) Epi
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders for a pediatric patient in anaphylactic shock.
False.
You must call medical contol.
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing orders
(1) Transport
(2) Glucagon
(3) IV/IO
(4) Dextrose
(5) Naloxone
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs
(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose
(3) Naloxone
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric altered mental status on standing orders.
True
True or False:
Thiamine is administered after Dextrose to pediatric altered mental status patients.
False.
No thiamine is given at all in pediatric AMS cases.
True or False:
Thiamine is administered after Dextrose to altered mental status patients.
True.
But not to pediatric cases.
True or False:
You can administer Metaproterenol on standing orders for anaphylactic reactions.
False.
Only Albuterol is used for anaphylactic reactions.
True or False:
Albuterol is used for bronchospasm in pediatric anaphylactic reactions.
False.
Albuterol is used only for adult anaphylaxis.
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options
repeat standing orders
PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
standing orders
(1) Transport
(2) Glucagon
(3) IV/IO
(4) Dextrose
True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on a pediatric stat-ep without contacting medical control.
True.
Standing order.
True or False:
You can administer rectal Diazepam on standing orders in the case of a pediatric stat-ep.
False.
It is a medical control option.
PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
medical control options
(1) Diazepam (IV/IO/Rectal)
(2) Lorazepam
(3) Midazolam
What three medical control option drugs are used to control seizures in pediatric patients?
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam
(3) Midazolam
PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
standing orders
(1) monitor (no hypovolemia)
(2) transport
(3) IV/IO
(4) Fluid (20 ml/kg)
True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric patient in decompensated shock without contacting medical control.
True.
PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
medical control options
(1) Fluid (20 ml/kg)
(2) Cardiovert and SVT
(3) Adenocard
True or false:
Amiodarone is in the pediatric decompensated shock medical contol options.
False.
But Adenocard is.
PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST
standing orders
(1) Transport
(2) Tube
(3) Tension Pneumo
(4) IV/IO
(5) Fluid
(6) NG/OG Tube PRN
PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST
medical control options
Fluid
True or False:
You must call for IV/IO in pediatric traumatic cardiac arrest.
False.
Name the pediatric protocols in which IV/IO may be established on standing orders.
(1) Non-Traumatic Cardiac Arrest
(2) Altered Mental Status
(3) Seizures
(4) Decompensated Shock
(5) Traumatic Arrest
Name the pediatric protocols in which you must call medical control to obtain permission to establish IV/IO access.
(1) Neonate Resuscitation
(2) Respiratory Arrest
(3) Asthma
(4) Anaphylaxis
True or False:
For both pediatric "cardiac arrests" (traumatic and non-traumatic), it is permissible to establish an IV/IO on standing orders.
True
True or False:
For neonate resuscitation, it is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders.
False
True or False:
For the "big three" pediatric respiratory emergencies,
(1) Respiratory Arrest
(2) Asthma
(3) Anaphylaxis
you must call medical control before starting an IV/IO.
True
In addition to the "big three" pediatric respiratory emergencies, what is the only other time you must call medical control for permission to start an IV/IO?
neonate resuscitation
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg +2Xage
OR
"The Three C's"
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg +2Xage
OR
"The Three C's"
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Centrally Weak Pulses
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
70 + (2xage)

central
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
70 +2Xage

central
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak
What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?
(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg
OR
"The Three C's"
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak
In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
70 + (2x age)

central
In pediatrics, IV/IO may be established under standing orders for 3 ______ and 2 ______ emergencies.
circulatory

CNS
Name the three pediatric circulatory emergecies that call for IV/IO on standing orders.
(1) Cardiac Arrest
(2) Traumatic Arrest
(3) Decompensated Shock
Name the two pediatric CNS emergecies that call for IV/IO on standing orders.
(1) Seizures
(2) Altered Mental Status
Aside from the "big three" respiratory emergencies, what is the only other case in which IV/IO requires prior approval of medical control?
neonate resuscitation
EMOTIONALLY DISTURBED PATIENT
standing orders
(1) Underlying conditions
(2) IV
(3) Monitor
(4) Oximetry
EMOTIONALLY DISTURBED PATIENT
medical control options
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam
(3) Lorazepam
True or False:
You may chemically restrain an EDP without consulting medical control.
False.
You must contact medical control first.
CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION
standing orders
There are no standing orders. This protocol can only be used with prior approval of medical control or at an MCI for which a class order has been issued.
CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION
medical control or class order
(1) Tube
(2) IV x2 and Bloods
(3) Hydroxocobalamin
(4) Sodium Thiosulfate
(5) Medical Control
(6) Dopamine
(7) Diazepam
(8) Midazolam
(9) Etomidate
You have a class order for the cyanide poisoning at an MCI, but you have a patient that needs RSI. Do you need to call medical control for sedation?
Yes.
True or False:
Dopamine is a medical control option in the Cyanide Poisioning protocol.
True.
In suspected cyanide poisonings, prior to administration of Hyroxocobalamin, if possible, obtain ______.
three blood samples
(tubes in cyanide kit)
For suspected cyanide poisoning, in the event that only one IV line is established, administer only ______.
Hydroxocobalamin
Sodium Thiosulfate, Dopamine, and Diazepam may not be administered via the same line as ______.
Hydroxocobalamin
______ is a white crystalline powder that must be mixed in saline prior to administration.
Hydroxocobalamin
You've exhausted standing orders for PEA/Asystole and are about to call medical control. What are the three conditions that should cross your mind that may be treatable under medical control options?
(1) Acidosis
(2) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD
(3) Hypovolemia (Fluid Loss)
You've exhausted standing orders for a refractory V-fib. Aside from more Amiodarone for the arrhythmia itself, what other three conditions should cross your mind as potentially treatable through medical control options?
(1) Acidosis/TCA OD
(2) Hypomagnesemia/TCA OD (Torsades)
(3) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD
What two drugs appear in the medical control options for both V-fib and PEA/Asystole?
(1) Sodium Bicarbonate
(2) Calcium Chloride
______ must be treated prior to initiation of a 12 lead EKG.
An unstable arrhythmia
In cases of suspected MI, perform, record and evaluate a 12-lead EKG on any patient that is ______ (i.e., systolic BP greater than ______).
hemodynamically stable

90 mm Hg
12-lead EKG only appears in what three protocols?
(1) Suspected AMI
(2) Myocardial Ischemia
(3) Cardiogenic Shock
Before each administration of Nitroglycerin, check the patient's ______ and ______ to ensure the patient is ______.
pulse
BP
hemodynamically stable
Nitro may NOT be administered to patients with a systolic BP of less than ______ unless...
100 mm Hg

...unless an IV/Saline Lock is in place.
STEMI patients are those that have ST elevation in ______ leads (___mm in the limb leads, ___mm in the chest leads), or a new ______.
2 contiguous
1 mm
2 mm
LBBB
Following Morphine administration, if ______ developes, administer Naloxone.
hypoventillation
Etomidate is used for ______.
Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)
Each time Etomidate is used for RSI, it can be followed by ______ or ______ for continued sedation.
Diazepam

Lorazepam
Each time Etomidate appears in a protocol, ______ and ______ are ammended to it for continued sedation.
Diazepam

Lorazepam
Which two drugs always appear as an adjunct to Etomidate?
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam
Whenever Etomidate is indicated, what two drugs follow as part of the same medical control option.
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam
Whenever Morphine is indicated, which PRN drug option will appear next?
Naloxone
When administering Dopamine, if there is ______ in hemodynamic status, the infusion rate may be increased until ______ or ______.
insufficient improvement

desired therapeutic effects

adverse effects
In a patient with ______ SVT, perform synchonized cardioversion.
unstable
In a patient with ______ SVT, administer adenocard.
stable
Acronym for identifying unstable arrhythmias in adults.
HAPSA
List the components of HAPSA for identifying unstable arrhythmias in adults.
Hypotention (<90)
AMS (agitation, confusion)
Pain (in chest)
Shortness of Breath
AMI/APE/CHF
List the components of HAD for identifying unstable arrhythmias in pediatrics.
Hypotension (<70+2Xage)
Absent peripheral pulses
Depressed mental status
Acronym for identifying unstable arrhythmias in pediatrics.
HAD
What are the only two differences between the SVT and A-fib/A-flutter protocols?
SVT only:
(1) Adenocard
(2) Cardioversion reattempt under Med. Ctrl.
What is the initial treatement for unstable SVT?
Cardioversion
What is the initial treatment for stable SVT?
Adenosine
What is the initial treatment for unstable A-fib/A-flutter?
Cardioversion
What is the initial treatment for stable A-fib/A-flutter?
Contact Medical Control for
Diltiazem or Amiodarone, but only if the rate is above 150.
(Otherwise, don't treat.)
True or False:
Stable A-fib/flutter can only be treated under medical control options.
True.
Name the two methods of treating STABLE A-fib/flutter.
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone
What is the first line of treatment for stable bradycardia?
Not specified. The protocol applies only to Bradycardia with signs of decompensated shock.
What is the first treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block with decompensated shock?
atropine (one dose)
What is the second treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block wih decompensated shock?
transcutaneous pacing
(consider prior sedation)
In cases of adult asthma, administer epinephrine on standing orders to patients with signs of ______.
impending respiratory failure
True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is given on standing orders in cases of adult asthma.
True.
(to patients with persistent, severe respiratory distress)
True or False:
Methylprednisolone and Dexamethazone are in the medical control options in the adult asthma protocol.
False.
They are now standing orders, to be given to patients with persistent, severe respiratory distress.
True or False:
Epi may be given on standing orders to patients with excacerbation of COPD.
False.
No epi whatsoever is in the protocol for COPD, either in standing orders or medical control options.
True or False:
Epi is intially given down the ET tube in adult anaphylaxis.
False.
Epi down the tube for adult anaphylaxis is no longer indicated.
However, it IS indicated in pediatric anaphylaxis.
What is the first drug treatment option under standing orders in adult anaphylaxis.
Epi IM
In adult anaphylaxis, what can be done under standing orders for the patient with bronchospasms?
nebulized Albuterol
True or False:
Nebulized Metaproterenol may be given under standing orders in adult anaphylaxis.
False.
Only Albuterol appears in the protocol.
IV epinephrine and fluids are given to adult anaphylaxis patients under standing orders if the patient has signs of ______.
decompensated shock
Diphenhydramine may be given on standing orders in the adult anaphylaxis patient provided...
the patient has no signs of shock.
In adult anaphylaxis, ______ and ______ drips may be given under ______ to improve hemodynamic status.
Epinephrine
Dopamine
Medical Control Options
A glucometer (if available) may be used to document blood glucose level... (when)
...prior to Dextrose administration.
If the glucometer reading is above ______, dextrose may be withheld.
120 mg/dl
True or False:
Always administer thiamine along with Glucagon.
False.
Thiamine is not indicated with Glucagon.
What is the one drug that may be repeated under medical control options for Adult Altered Mental Status?
Naloxone
In Adult Altered Mental Status, Naloxone may be administered ____ or ____ if IV access has not been established.
IM
IN
True or False:
Naloxone may be administered IN to pediatric AMS.
False.
It is not in the protocol.
What is the first drug given for ongoing or recurring seizures in adults?
Dextrose
The adult seizure protocol applies to seizures that are ______ or ______.
ongoing
recurring
What is the second drug given in the adult seizure protocol?
There are three standing order options:
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam
(3) Midazolam
True or False:
Etomidate may be used to treat adult seizures.
False.
Etomidate is for pre-intubation sedation, not seizure control.
True or False:
You must call for Valium to treat ongoing seizure activity.
False.
Diazepam is a standing order, repeatable under medical control options.
True or False:
Midazolam IV may be given for ongoing seizures under standing orders.
False.
In the adult seizure protocol, Midazolam may be given IM (not IV) under both standing orders and medical control options.
For ongoing seizures, when is Midazolam given and by what route?
In the Seizure protocol, Midazolam is given IM only when IV access cannot be established for Lorazepam or Diazepam.
True or False.
Thiamine may be given to adult seizure patients.
True
True or False.
Lorazepam, Diazepam and Midazolam may all be given IM to a seizure patient in the event that IV access is unavailable.
False.
Only Lorazepam and Midazolam can be given IM; Diazepam is given IV bolus.
True or False.
In adult seizure cases, Lorazepam may be given by either IV or IM.
True
In patients in traumatic cardiac arrest, ______ is the highest priority!
rapid transport
In cases of traumatic arrest, excluding patients with ______, begin cardiac monitoring.
penetrating chest trauma
You would not place the monitor on a patient in traumatic cardiac arrest if ______ is present.
penetratic chest trauma
If V-fib or pulseless V-tach are present in traumatic cardiac arrest, you would...
treat them under their respective protocols, including defibrillation and drugs, as long as there is no penetrating chest trauma.
What are the two cardiac arrhythmias in traumatic arrest that may be medically treated?
(1) V-fib
(2) Pulseless V-tach
The Head Injuries protocol applies to patients with head trauma who have a Glascow Coma Scale score of ___ or lower.
13
According to the Head Injuries protocol, you should intubate patients with a Glascow Coma Score of less than ___, if less invasive methods of airway management are ineffective.
8
Lidocaine is given immediately ______ intubation in head injury cases to minimize the increase in intracranial pressure.

(before/after)
before
In the Head Injuries protocol, name the two drugs used to control seizures.
(1) Diazepam
(2) Lorazepam

(midazolam is listen under RSI section only, right above etomidate)
In the Head Injuries protocol, Diazepam/Lorazepam may be given on standing orders to control seizures.
False.
In the Head Injuries protocol, name the three drugs used for RSI.
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam
(3) Etomidate
In the Head Injuries protocol, Diazepam/Lorazepam may be given if seizure activity ______ or ______.
persists
recurs
In the Chemical Eye Injury protocol, Proparacaine or Tetracaine administered for the purpose of...
facilitating irrigation in the patient who is agitated or unable to hold his eyelid open.
In the Burns protocol, perform RSI when these two situations are anticipated.
(1) upper airway burns
(2) upper airway compromise
In the Burns protocol, perform cardiac monitoring for patients with ______.
electrical burns
In the Burns protocol, Morphine is given for the purpose of ______.
analgesia
True or False:
In the Burns protocol, Morphine is given on standing orders.
False.
It is a medical control option.
Morphine may be administered for severe pain management of an isolated extremities injury provided the systolic BP is greater than ______ mm Hg.
110
In the Emotionally Disturbed Patient protocol, in order to protect the patient's airway, consider placing the patient in a ______ position.
lateral recumbent
Name the three drug options for chemically restraining an Emotionally Disturbed Patient.
(1) Diazepam
(2) Midazolam
(3) Lorazepam
Severe pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher and a diastolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher.
160
110
Name the drug used to treat pre-eclampsia.
Magnesium Sulfate
Name the drug used to treat post-partum hemorrhage.
Oxytocin
True or False:
In patients with pre-eclampsia and a sever post-partum hemorrage, you should administer Oxytocin first.
False.
Do not administer Oxytocin if signs of pre-eclampsia are present.
Do not administer Oxytocin if ______ has not been expelled.
the placenta
Failure to respond to Oxytocin may indicate that ______ or ______ remain within the uterus.
placental remnants

an undelivered twin
For neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, directly suction the ET tube via a ______ while slowly withdrawing the ET tube.
Meconium Aspirator/Adapter
In neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, repeat suctioning procedure until...
...the ET tube is clear.
(max three times)
In neonate resuscitation with thick meconium, do NOT replace the ET tube once the airway has been cleared unless the neonate remains...
...limp, apneic or pulseless.
Perform airway clearing procedures of thick meconium for neonates requiring resuscitation who are...
limp, apneic or pulseless.
Do not intubate the neonate unless other methods of airways management are...
...not effective.
(I.e., heart rate cannot be successfully increased.)
If abdominal distention occurs during neonate resuscitation...
...pass an NG tube. If unsuccessful, pass an OG tube.
In neonate resuscitation, if CPR has been initiated, and the heart rate remains less than ___ beats per minute and not rapidly increasing after ___ seconds of CPR, perform ___.
60
30
intubation
What is the only drug used in neonate resuscitation?
epinephrine
What is the first drug administered on standing orders for neonate resuscitation?
epi by ET
Summarize the essence of the medical control options for neonate resuscitation.
Give more ET epi and/or administer IV/IO epi and fluids.
The pediatric respiratory arrest protocol applies to pediatric patients in actual or impending respiratory arrest, OR those who are ______ and ____.
unconscious

cannot be adequately ventilated
What is the only drug used in the Pediatric Respiratory Arrest protocol?
Naloxone
True or False:
You must call for sedation to perform RSI on a pediatric respiratory arrest.
False.
There is no option for sedation in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol.
True or False:
There are no provisions for sedation for intubation, cardioversion or pacing in any of the pediatric protocols.
True.
A pediatric patient has SVT. What can be done?
Under Pediatric Decompensated Shock, call for orders to cardiovert or to administer adenosine if the defibrillator cannot deliver a calculated dose. There are no provisions for sedation.
Can a pediatric patient be paced?
No. Pediatric pacing does not appear in any of the protocols.
A pediatric patient has V-tach with a pulse. What can be done?
Cardiovert under Pediatric Decompensated Shock protocol at calculated does without sedation.
Since there is no bradyarrhythmia protocol for children, what should be done for a child with a hemodynamically unstable bradyarrhythmia?
Perform CPR in children under the age of 9 with a rate below 60 and signs of decompensated shock; treat as an arrest.
For infants and children under 9 years of age with a heart rate of less than 60 and signs of inadequate central perfusion...
perform CPR.
For ______ and ______ with a heart rate of less than 60 and signs of inadequate central perfusion, perform CPR.
infants
children under 9
In cases of croup/epiglottitis, do NOT attempt ______. Use ______ ventillation.
intubation

high pressure BVM
In cases of croup/epiglottitis, pass an NG/OG tube if distention occurs, but do NOT attempt to pass an NG/OG tube in a ______ patient.
conscious
In pediatric non-traumatic cardiac arrest, if the defibrillator is unable to deliver the recommended dose...
...use the lowest available setting.
What is the first drug administered in pediatric non-traumatic arrest?
Epi via ET
(no ET access? Amio upon establishing IV/IO)
Name the five conditions you would be looking to treat under medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest.
(1) Narcotic OD
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Acidosis
(4) Hypomagnesemia/Torsades
(5) Hypovolemia
In the Pediatric Asthma protocol, epinephrine may be administered to patients ___ year of age and older with _____, _____ or _____.
1

severe respiratory distress
respiratory failure
decreased breath sounds
Name the four findings that characterize severe respiratory distress in children.
TADS
(1) Tripod position
(2) Agitation (severe)
(3) Dyspnea
(4) Supra/substernal retractions
What does TADS stand for?
Severe Pediatric Resp. Distress
(1) Tripod position
(2) Agitation (severe)
(3) Dyspnea
(4) Supra/substernal retractions
What acronym is used to remember the characteristics of severe respiratory distress in pediatrics?
TADS
In a child, ______ is an ominous sign that indicates that respiratory failure and arrest are imminent.
a silent chest
In the medical control options for Pediatric Asthma, what drug can be optionally administered in place of the repeat dose of IM Epi?
Terbutaline (SC)
True or False:
A Bradycardic and decompensated pediatric being treated as an arrest can be given Atropine to increase the heart rate.
False.
Atropine is not in the pediatric arrest protocol, but Epinephrine may be given.
In pediatric asthma, ______ may be mixed with Albuterol as a medical control option.
Ipratropium Bromide
What is the first drug administered in Pediatric Anaphylaxis?
Epi ET
(IM if no ET)

Epi also happens to be THE ONLY drug in this protocol.
When is diphenhydramine administered in pediatric anaphylaxis?
Never.
When is diphenhydramine administered in adult anaphylaxis?
Only if the patient has no signs of shock.
Describe the essence of the medical control options for pediatric anaphylaxis?
Start a line and give more epi and fluids.
"IV-Fluids-Epi"
The Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol applies to pediatric patients in a ______, with evolving ______, or with ______ of unknown etiology.
coma
neurological deficits
altered mental status
What is always the first priority, according to the Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol?
maintenance of normal respiratory and circulatory function
Any AMS secondary to what five conditions does the Pediatric AMS protocol state should be treated under other protocols?
(1) Resp. Failure/Arrest
(2) Obstructed Airway
(3) Shock Trauma
(4) Near Drowning
(5) Other Anoxic/Hypoxic Injury
What pharmocologic trio forms the basis for the pediatric AMS protocol?
(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose
(3) Naloxone
True or False:
Thiamine appears in the Pediatric AMS protocol.
False.
Under what protocol is Thiamine administered to children?
None.
What drugs can be given in a Pediatric AMS case with no IV access?
(1) Glucagon IM
(2) Naloxone IM
Describe the medical control options for Pediatric AMS.
Repeat standing orders.
What is the very first drug administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
Glucagon.
What is a simple word to describe the essence of the standing orders for pediatric seizures?
sugar
What is a simple word to describe the essence of the medical control options for pediatric seizures?
sedation
Name the three drugs that may be used to sedate a pediatric seizure patient.
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam
(3) Midazolam
By which route(s) may Lorazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
IV/IO
By which route(s) may Diazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
IV/IO/Rectal
By which route(s) may Midazolam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
IM
In pediatric patients, do not administer Lorazepam, Diazepam, or Midazolam if...
...the seizures have stopped.
Patients in ______ shock should not be treated under the Pediatric Decompensated Shock protocol.
compensated
In cases of pediatric decompensated shock, if signs of hemorrhage or dehydration are NOT present, begin ______.
cardiac monitoring
If a child is in decompensated shock due to bleeding or dehydration, you should skip ______.
cardiac monitoring
What two possible situations may be treated under the medical control options for Pediatric Decompensated Shock?
(1) hypovolemia
(2) tachycardia
Do not perform cardioversion in pediatric patients unless...
the defibrillator is able to deliver a calculated dose.
What is the highest priority for the pediatric patient in traumatic cardiac arrest?
rapid transport
True or False:
A needle decompression can be performed on children and infants under standing orders.
True.
According to the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest protocol, do NOT pass an NG tube in patients with ______.
craniofacial trauma
In Pediatric Traumatic Arrest, attempt to obtain vascular access no more than ______.
twice
Use one world to describe the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest medical control options.
Fluids.
What is the appropriate joule setting for neonate defibrillation?
Neonates are not defibrillated.
What is the difference between the treatment of PEA/Asystole versus VF/VT in the neonate?
Nothing. Cardiac rhythm is of no consequence in neonate resuscitation.
True or False:
There is no cardiac monitoring in neonate resuscitation.
True.
How is cardiac rhythm assessed and treated in neonate resuscitation?
It is not. Resuscitation is aimed at simply increasing heart activity with compressions, ventillations, and epinephrine.