- Shuffle
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Alphabetize
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Front First
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Both Sides
Toggle OnToggle Off
Front
How to study your flashcards.
Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key
Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key
H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
278 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What does the localizer shelter contain?
|
The shelter houses power switching, lighting, environmental controls, and two equipment cabinets containing the ILS electronic equipment and a workbench with electrical outlets.
|
|
How is primary power fed from the external junction box to the inside of the shelter?
|
Via conduit! What are you a dumbass?
|
|
What are the primary power requirements for the localizer?
|
115/225 VAC ±10 percent, 50 ±3 Hz or 60 ±3 Hz, and 3 phase at 100 amperes.
|
|
How many log-periodic dipole antennas are used in the antenna array?
|
14
|
|
How are transmitting and monitoring signals routed to and from the antenna?
|
Via the antenna distribution box.
|
|
Where can you find a detailed discussion of the AN/GRN-30 technical characteristics?
|
Chapter 1 of TO 31R4-2GRN30-2.
|
|
Within what frequency range is the localizer capable of operating?
|
108 to 112 MHz.
|
|
What signals modulate the carrier of the localizer, and at what depth of modulation?
|
The carrier is modulated with 90 Hz, 150 Hz, and 1,020 Hz AM with a depth of modulation of 20 percent, 20 percent, and 5 percent respectively.
|
|
What output status tones does the control indicator produce?
|
705 Hz, 1,410 Hz, 2,820 Hz, and 2,256 Hz.
|
|
If an alarm occurs in the localizer, what is the actual time delay from main transmitter shutdown to standby transmitter on?
|
20.3 seconds.
|
|
What are the three basic operations of the localizer station?
|
(1) Radiate the pattern
(2) monitor the pattern (3) control the transmitter. |
|
How are the station DC power supplies connected and why?
|
In parallel, so that one power supply can power the entire station if necessary.
|
|
Your localizer assigned frequency is 111.9 MHz. What is the frequency of the course and clearance transmitters?
|
Course: 111.90475 MHz, clearance: 111.89525 MHz.
|
|
What are the functions of the changeover unit?
|
Measure the output signals power and switch which transmitter is routed to the distribution unit.
|
|
Why won’t the course and clearance signals combine in space?
|
Because they are at different frequencies.
|
|
Describe integral monitoring.
|
The signals that will be radiated by the localizer are monitored before they are radiated.
|
|
Which localizer unit is responsible for automatic transfer of the transmitters?
|
The control unit.
|
|
Which localizer unit is responsible for control of the CLR transmitters?
|
The CRS transmitters.
|
|
Where is the detected signal in the antenna distribution unit sent?
|
To the CRS and CLR monitors.
|
|
What is the only localizer unit not tied into the control unit?
|
The distribution unit.
|
|
What is the purpose of the dual power supply in the ILS?
|
To provide all regulated DC power for the electronic components of the localizer station and keep the backup batteries charged.
|
|
What are the normal CSB and SBO powers for the localizer?
CSB - Carrier plus Sideband SBO - Sideband Only |
CSB = 15 watts, SBO = 360 milliwatts.
CSB - Carrier plus Sideband SBO - Sideband Only |
|
What is the 1,020 Hz signal used for in the course transmitter?
|
To modulate the CSB signal for station identification.
|
|
What produces the RF frequency for the CRS transmitter?
|
SFS - Synthesized-frequency source
|
|
Where is the output of the SFS - Synthesized-frequency source sent?
|
Diode switching network.
|
|
What is the crystal-controlled oscillator frequency in the 90 and 150 Hz generator assembly?
|
460.8 kHz.
|
|
What happens in the 90- and 150-Hz generator assembly if there is a phase difference in the 15-Hz signals?
|
An output occurs to reset the divider chain, thus the proper phase relationship between the 90 and 150 Hz signals is assured.
|
|
What is the purpose of the absolute value circuit in the modulator assembly?
|
To change the input waveform such that all negative swings are changed to positive.
|
|
What are the two functions of the diode switching network?
|
Routing and switching.
|
|
What is the output of the 4A5 RF amplifier?
|
Sideband only.
|
|
What is the nominal power setting of the clearance CSB and SBO?
|
CSB = 10 watts, SBO = 300 milliwatts.
|
|
Where is the CLR transmitter ID signal generated?
|
In the course transmitter.
|
|
What is the output frequency of the SFS assembly?
|
4.75 kHz below the station assigned frequency.
|
|
Name the two services the localizer changeover unit provides?
|
RF transfer and RF measurement.
|
|
What can be monitored by the selection of the RF signals by S1 in the changeover unit?
|
Power measurement by meter M1, or waveform observation at waveform jack J2.
|
|
What is the purpose of the localizer antenna distribution unit?
|
To distribute the course and clearance transmitter outputs to the antenna array in the proper phase and amplitude.
|
|
What is the phase relationship of the course SBO to CSB at the input to the antennas?
|
90°
|
|
Where are the outputs of the clearance distribution unit connected?
|
To antenna pairs one thru five.
|
|
What is the gain of the localizer antenna array?
|
About 10 dB.
|
|
What is the advantage of a broad bandwidth LPD (Log periodic dipole)?
|
It allows for minimal environmental effects.
|
|
What ensures the nulls are eliminated within the area of coverage for a single frequency localizer?
|
The antenna a-spacing.
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the clearance transmitter?
|
Mask nulls formed by additional lobes of the course transmitter.
|
|
What determines if a simpler antenna system is sufficient to meet the minimum standards for safe approach of an aircraft?
|
If the forward terrain in the coverage area of the localizer is free of major structures and terrain problems.
|
|
In the Dual Frequency RF Detector unit (RDU), where are the samples of CSB from the course and clearance transmitter taken?
|
Sampling points in the interlock assembly.
|
|
What principle is used to down-convert the carrier frequencies before they are combined and adjusted to become monitor input signals?
|
Heterodyning.
|
|
What is the primary difference between the dual-frequency RDU and the single frequency RDU?
|
There is no clearance transmitter to assist in producing the intermediate frequency.
|
|
Name the two separate monitor units that make up the localizer monitor system?
|
Course monitor and clearance monitor.
|
|
Which monitor activates an alarm if there is a short in an antenna feedline?
|
Course monitor.
|
|
What is the frequency of the clock pulse used by the course monitor timing assembly?
|
460.8 kHz.
|
|
Where is the master oscillator that is used in the measurement assembly located?
|
In the timing assembly.
|
|
When is the program counter of the measurement assembly reset?
|
After the completion of the last measurement routine of the program.
|
|
Which lines do you use to determine decimal placement in the digital readout display?
|
DP2 and DP4 lines from the display selector switch.
|
|
How is a DC signal used by the antenna cable fault assembly to signal a short in an antenna feedline?
|
The DC signal stops the 600-Hz signal which in turn activates the alarm system.
|
|
What is the difference between the course monitor and clearance monitor?
|
Clearance monitor checks clearance frequency; course monitor does not.
|
|
Which assembly processes the signal from the localizer clearance detector?
|
Clearance assembly.
|
|
What is the purpose of the glide slope station?
|
To provide final approach glide path information to landing aircraft.
|
|
What are the two RF signals generated by the null-reference glide slope?
|
An RF carrier signal modulated at 90 and 150 Hz and a sideband only signal modulated by 90 and 150 Hz.
|
|
What conditions cause abnormal indications on the control indicator but does not initiate equipment transfer?
|
Abnormal primary power, abnormal shelter temperature, abnormal battery charge/discharge current, power supply fault, and single monitor alarms.
|
|
What is the purpose of the alarm-monitors?
|
To continuously monitor the navigational components of the glide slope RF signal and activate an alarm circuit should these components vary outside preset limits.
|
|
What is an image-type antenna?
|
An antenna that utilizes the ground plane in front of the antennas to reflect signal, thereby forming nulls as if a mirror image antenna of opposite phase were buried below the tower.
|
|
What is the purpose of the glide slope station?
|
To provide final approach glide path information to landing aircraft.
|
|
What are the two RF signals generated by the null-reference glide slope?
|
An RF carrier signal modulated at 90 and 150 Hz and a sideband only signal modulated by 90 and 150 Hz.
|
|
What conditions cause abnormal indications on the control indicator but does not initiate equipment transfer?
|
Abnormal primary power, abnormal shelter temperature, abnormal battery charge/discharge current, power supply fault, and single monitor alarms.
|
|
What is the purpose of the alarm-monitors?
|
To continuously monitor the navigational components of the glide slope RF signal and activate an alarm circuit should these components vary outside preset limits.
|
|
What is an image-type antenna?
|
An antenna that utilizes the ground plane in front of the antennas to reflect signal, thereby forming nulls as if a mirror image antenna of opposite phase were buried below the tower.
|
|
How can the glide slope station be controlled?
|
Locally, from the site, or remotely, from the control tower or RAPCON.
|
|
What degree of glide angle can the glide slope provide?
|
The system provides an adjustable glide path between 2 and 4 degrees, depending on the individual installation.
|
|
What output status tones does the control unit use?
|
705 Hz, 1,410 Hz, 2,820 Hz, and 2,256 Hz.
|
|
To what input control frequencies does the control unit respond? What is each used for?
|
900 Hz, the interlock frequency
1,175 Hz, the remote control frequency. |
|
What is the purpose of the null-reference glide slope station?
|
It provides final approach glide path information to landing aircraft.
|
|
What two RF frequencies are generated by the glide slope station?
|
RF carrier signal modulated at 90 and 150 Hz (CSB) and a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal modulated at 90 and 150 Hz (SBO).
|
|
What happens if the limits are exceeded in the monitor?
|
An alarm signal is sent to the control unit that initiates a transfer to the standby transmitter.
|
|
What function does the control unit perform?
|
Provides automatic control of the glide slope station transmitter used to select either transmitter 1 or 2 as the main transmitter, initiates transfer from main to standby if both monitors detect a radiated fault, and displays and provides a status signal to the RC/DU.
|
|
What information is derived from the integral detectors?
|
The detected path and width signals.
|
|
What is the result of an alarm indication from the standby transmitter?
|
The station being turned off.
|
|
Name the three units of glide slope equipment that are identical to those used in the localizer.
|
Control unit, changeover unit, and power supply.
|
|
What is required to interchange monitor cards (other than A3 and A8) between the localizer and glide slope?
|
Alignment.
|
|
Is the diode switching network operation identical with that in the localizer? Why or why not?
|
Yes the operation is the same, instead of 180 degree length of line in the localizer, it is three times or 540 degrees in the glide slope.
|
|
What is the normal output power of the glide slope CSB and SBO signal?
|
CSB = 3 watts, SBO = 45 milliwatts.
|
|
Which function of the glide slope control unit allows maintenance to be performed on the standby unit without disturbing the radiating unit?
|
Station transfer bypass.
|
|
The localizer equipment shelter is generally painted what colors?
|
International orange and white.
|
|
Approximately how many feet is the localizer equipment shelter offset from the center of the localizer array?
|
200
|
|
How can the localizer station be controlled?
|
Locally from the site or remotely from the control tower or radar approach control (RAPCON).
|
|
How many channels do the radios in the localizer equipment station have?
|
1 - Single-Channel
|
|
In megahertz (MHz), the frequency range of the transmitters in the localizer equipment station is
|
108 to 112.
|
|
What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the course
transmitter in the localizer? |
15 - Course
|
|
What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer?
|
10 - Clearance
|
|
The nautical mile coverage limits of the localizer within ± 10 of the runway centerline is
|
18
|
|
In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the course (CRS) carrier transmitted?
|
SAF +4.75.
|
|
In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the clearance (CLR) carrier
transmitted? |
SAF –4.75.
|
|
The hertz (Hz) frequency of the coded tone to provide the station identification (ID) is
|
1,020
|
|
Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?
|
Frequency difference.
|
|
How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?
|
2
|
|
What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?
|
Course transmitters.
|
|
In watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively, what is the nominal localizer course
transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) power? |
15, 360.
|
|
Which unit of the localizer course transmitter provides a means of suppressing the carrier in the sideband only (SBO)?
|
Diode-switching network.
|
|
What is the nominal clearance sideband only (SBO) milliwatt (mW) power in the localizer?
|
300.
|
|
From where does the 90/150 hertz (Hz) control assembly in the clearance transmitter
receive its 90- and 150-Hz signals? |
Course transmitter.
|
|
The left antennas at the localizer are fed sideband only (SBO) signals that is at what degrees out of phase compared to the SBO fed to the right antenna?
|
180
|
|
Localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)signals are fed to which antennas?
|
Pairs 1–5.
|
|
When might a single frequency localizer be installed?
|
When the forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems.
|
|
In a single-frequency localizer using 8 antennas, what is the sideband only (SBO) and carrier-plus sideband (CSB) phase relationship between the two antennas of each pair?
|
SBO is 180 degrees out of phase; CSB is in phase.
|
|
Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?
|
Frequency separation.
|
|
What is the kilohertz (kHz) frequency of the clock pulse generated by the timing assembly in a localizer course monitor?
|
460.8.
|
|
Which monitor assembly displays the measured parameters?
|
Digital readout.
|
|
In kilohertz (kHz), what is the frequency difference between the localizer course (CRS) and the clearance (CLR) radio frequency (RF) signals?
|
9.5.
|
|
Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope?
|
Ident percent of modulation.
|
|
The glide slope carrier frequency is modulated with what percent of depth of modulation per tone?
|
40
|
|
Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?
|
C - is NOT an output status tone of the Control Unit.
a. 705. b. 1,410. C. 2,350. d. 2,820. |
|
Which glide slope unit provides manual and automatic control of the station?
|
Control unit.
|
|
In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna?
|
Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only.
|
|
In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the upper antenna?
|
Sideband only (SBO) only.
|
|
In the glide slope, what happens if the main transmitter is on and both monitors detect a radiated fault?
|
Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on.
|
|
What is the null-reference glide slope’s nominal power, in watts and milliwatts respectively, for the carrier-plus-sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)?
|
3, 45.
|
|
The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope differs from the 4A9 in the localizer, when considering their length of line, because the glide slope is
|
three times that of the localizer.
|
|
When the aircraft is on the glide path, the airborne indicator shows what deflection?
|
None.
|
|
The glide slope monitors use exactly the same cards as the localizer course monitor except for the
|
near-field path signal processor and clearance assembly.
|
|
What changes are required when the VOR and TACAN systems are placed in the VORTAC configuration?
|
The VOR monitors must be wired into the local PC and the VOR key input is wired into the TACAN transponder
|
|
Which VORTAC system is provided with battery backup power?
|
VOR system.
|
|
What operations can you perform utilizing either the local or remote PCs with the VORTAC?
|
Collect, display, and print measured parameter data, turn on/off the transmitter, ID, and alarm bypass.
|
|
What are the two main windows into which the PC displays are divided with the VORTAC?
|
System status window and the master menu window.
|
|
How would you activate a submenu on the local and remote PC on the VORTAC?
|
Clicking specific buttons on the menus.
|
|
Explain the data from the monitors being displayed on the PC for the VORTAC.
|
Data from both monitors is displayed along with the upper and lower limits of each parameter.
|
|
VOR/TACAN
What is the purpose of the control indicator? |
To provide remote start and stop control and status indications for VOR and TACAN installations.
|
|
VOR/TACAN
What three functions does the control indicator perform? |
(1) Converts control panel inputs into signals that can be transmitted to the VOR and TACAN sites.
(2) Monitors return signals from these sites. (3) Provides both control signals and operating power to status indicators and audible alarm. |
|
VOR/TACAN
What adjustments are ATC personnel allowed to perform? |
Audio volume control and indicator brightness.
|
|
VOR/TACAN
What are the four basic areas of the CODEC circuitry? |
(1) The VOR transmit/receive circuits.
(2) The TACAN transmit/receive circuits. (3) The display/alarm sense circuits. (4) The oscillator (alarm)/audio amplifier circuits. |
|
VOR/TACAN
Which frequency is produced by placing the start/stop switch in the start position? In the stop position? |
Start = 74 Hz. Stop = 66 Hz.
|
|
VOR/TACAN
What do the binary signals produced by the VOR and TACAN receive circuits on the CODEC card reflect? |
The actual ON or OFF status of the remote transmitters.
|
|
VOR/TACAN
What is the purpose of BT1 and BT2 in the control-indicator power supply? |
To assume the operating load of the control indicator in a power failure or rectifier/filter shutdown.
|
|
VOR
How long can the VOR facility operate at full power on backup batteries? |
A minimum of two hours.
|
|
VOR
What’s the frequency range of the radio transmitter? |
108 to 118 MHz, 0.001%.
|
|
VOR
Describe the monitor’s fail-safe operation. |
Any internal monitor malfunction will cause an alarm, but will not cause system shutdown.
|
|
VOR
What are the identification alarm limits? |
An alarm will occur within six seconds for continuous ID or 30 seconds for absent ID.
|
|
VOR
What two signals does the integral goniometer produce? |
Sideband 1 and sideband 2.
|
|
VOR
From what device does the VOR transmitter receive on/off control signals? |
The control indicator located in the ATC facility.
|
|
VOR
What ground check error parameters do the monitors check? |
Octantal, quadrantal, and duantal.
|
|
VOR
Why does the VOR test generator provide outputs? |
For monitor calibration, integrity checks, and fault isolation.
|
|
VOR
What three DC voltages does power supply 2 provide? |
+18V, –18V, and +9V.
|
|
TACAN
What’s the purpose of the TACAN? |
To provide bearing and distance information for up to 100 aircraft at a distance of up to 200 nautical miles.
|
|
TACAN
What’s the TACAN’s frequency range? |
962 to 1213 MHz.
|
|
TACAN
List the TACAN parameters that are continuously monitored. |
Reply delay, pulse spacing, efficiency, output pulse rate, identification, mod gen status, north reference burst, auxiliary reference burst, and antenna scan rate
|
|
TACAN
Which transponder outputs have the highest priority of transmission? |
North and auxiliary reference burst pulse pairs.
|
|
TACAN
Describe the X mode north reference azimuth group. |
12 pulse pairs (12 us between pulses of a pair) spaced 30 us apart.
|
|
TACAN
What four outputs does the power supply provide? |
+65 VDC, +17.5 VDC, 17.5 VDC, and +10 VDC.
|
|
TACAN
What does the RFA do with the 400W RF DRIVE? |
Amplifies the drive signal to 3kW peak.
|
|
TACAN
With what triggers are azimuth reference group pulses present in the 400W RF DRIVE synchronized? |
NORTH TRIGGER and AUX TRIGGER.
|
|
TACAN
Which component generates the station Morse code identity? |
The primary monitor, normally monitor A.
|
|
TACAN
What component controls the overall reply delay? |
The monitor.
|
|
TACAN
What determines the controlling monitor? |
The state of the monitor A CPU MAL signal.
|
|
TACAN
What information does the SOLID STATE ANTENNA STATUS lines provide? |
They tell the monitor that a solid state antenna is present, and indicate if a soft fail, hard fail, or clock fail condition exists.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is the pulse pair spacing for X mode? |
12μs.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
Which parts make up the pulsed output of the TACAN? How many pulses per second comprise each? |
(1) North reference burst; 360 pulse/second.
(2) Auxiliary reference burst; 1440 pulse/second. (3) Identification; 5400 pulse/second. (4) DME interrogation; random. (5) Squitter; (2700 - DME) X 2, 5400 maximum. |
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is likely the problem, of the TACAN duty cycle, if the beacon output is 5,760 pulses per second? |
No auxiliary reference bursts.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
Your station is located near a busy airport; the pulse count is varying between 1,800 pulses/second and nearly full pulse output. What is the likely trouble? |
Loss of squitter pulses, but continued passage of DME interrogations and ID.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is the first likely result of a severe decrease in beacon duty cycle? |
Holes in the output pattern and 135 Hz instability in the aircraft receiver.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
How does any interrogating aircraft recognize its reply from the replies to the other aircraft in the area? |
The aircraft will be able to recognize their own replies by the pulse spacing between pair groups.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is the principal method used to minimize co-channel interference? |
TACAN stations within 400 miles of each other are not assigned adjacent frequencies.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
List the functions of the antenna group. |
Power divider, azimuth feeds, vertical columns, and the multiplexer.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is the modulation generator? |
Makes NRB and ARB triggers, which are used to produce NRBs and ARBs in the transponder, the 15 and 135 Hz modulation, and causes the radiation pattern to appear to rotate.
|
|
TACAN signal characteristics
What is the only card in the antenna/modulation generator that requires alignment? |
Modulation generator microprocessor card.
|
|
What is the only card in the antenna/modulation generator that requires alignment?
|
40.5.
|
|
Which unit will absorb the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or short circuit?
|
A high power RF termination load.
|
|
From initial fault detection, how long does the tactical air navigation (TACAN) monitors require to shut down the transmitter?
|
14 seconds.
|
|
In case of a primary power loss, how many hours will the very high frequency omnidirectional and radio range (VOR) battery assembly provide backup power?
|
2
|
|
When utilizing either of the personal computers (PC), which of the following operations can the operator perform?
|
Turn the transmitter on or off.
|
|
How many main windows is the personal computer (PC) display divided into VOR/TACAN?
|
2
|
|
The personal computer (PC) displays data from how many monitors?
|
2
|
|
What is connected to the local personal computer (PC) to interface it with the remote PC?
|
Modem
|
|
Which of the following adjustments are air traffic control (ATC) personnel allowed to make to the control indicator?
|
Volume control of the audio.
|
|
The output of the transmit section of the coder and decoder (CODEC) is controlled by the
|
START/STOP switch.
|
|
VOR
The visual status lamps on the control indicator show the |
actual status of the remote site.
|
|
The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) watt output power range of the carrier signal is
|
25 to 100.
|
|
The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) monitor alarm limits are set to cause an alarm if continuous identification (ID) is present for how many seconds?
|
6.
|
|
What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the VOR antenna?
|
108 to 118.
|
|
The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) transmitter receives
ON/OFF control signals from the |
control indicator.
|
|
Which of the following is not a function of the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) test generator?
|
Establishing fault limits.
|
|
During normal operation, the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) power monitor sensor provides what reference volts direct current (VDC) to the control indicator?
|
20
|
|
The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system can provide bearing and distance information for up to how many aircraft at any given time?
|
100.
|
|
On how many channels can the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system operate in the X mode?
|
126
|
|
What parameter is not continuously monitored by the tactical air navigation (TACAN)
system monitors? |
Input pulse rate.
|
|
Which tactical air navigation (TACAN) system power supply output, in volts direct current, is over current and over voltage protected?
|
Plus +65
|
|
In the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) tactical air control
(VORTAC) configuration, the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system monitor generates station Morse code identity when it receives |
VOR KEY INPUT.
|
|
How many monitors must fail or detect a fault for the tactical air navigation (TACAN)
system to shutdown? |
Two
|
|
What type failure is not provided by the TACAN SOLID STATE ANTENNA STATUS
lines? |
Modulator.
|
|
The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system uses pulse coding to
|
discriminate against interference.
|
|
The microsecond spacing between the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system pulses in the X mode is
|
12
|
|
What is the total number of pulse pairs transmitted by the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system?
|
3,600
|
|
How do aircraft recognize their own replies?
|
Pulse spacing between pair groups.
|
|
If an aircraft receives signals from two ground beacons operating on the same frequency
|
the weaker signal is almost totally rejected.
|
|
What does a category I ILS provide?
|
Acceptable guidance information from the point where the pilot intercepts the ILS to the point where the localizer course line intersects the glide path at a height of 100 feet above the horizontal plane containing the runway threshold.
|
|
How far from the runway threshold is ILS point A located?
|
4 nautical miles.
|
|
Which ILS point is located 2,000 feet from the stop end of the runway?
|
Point E.
|
|
Which ILS approach zone changes, depending on the category of ILS involved?
|
Zone 3.
|
|
ILS
Once the detected audio level in sector 1 reaches a level of 0.175 DDM, what level should it maintain or exceed to the end of sector 1? |
0.180 DDM.
DDM - Difference in depth of modulation |
|
ILS
What is the minimum detected audio level in sector 2? |
.155 DDM.
DDM - Difference in depth of modulation |
|
ILS
Which localizer clearance sector includes the area located between 35 degrees off-center to a point 90 degrees off centerline? |
Sector 3.
|
|
What are the five basic types of flight inspections?
|
(1) Site evaluation
(2) commissioning (3) periodic (4) special (5) surveillance. |
|
When is a commissioning flight inspection performed?
|
Before commissioning all newly installed NAVAID equipment.
|
|
Under what circumstances is a special flight inspection performed?
|
Equipment malfunctions, changes in terrain, aircraft accident involving NAVAIDs, and any major maintenance or modification to the equipment.
|
|
When does a surveillance inspection become a special inspection?
|
If an out-of-tolerance condition is found.
|
|
What does the classification unrestricted mean?
|
The facility is fully usable within its service area and meets all tolerances.
|
|
How is a facility classified that does not meet its established tolerances in specific areas?
|
Restricted
|
|
If a flight inspector finds a facility to be unsafe, how would that individual classify the facility?
|
Unusable.
|
|
What are the basic responsibilities of a flight inspector in performing a flight inspection?
|
To make sure that all airborne equipment is calibrated, ground personnel is briefed of intended actions, the flight inspection crew is briefed, and pertinent flight information is obtained.
|
|
At what time does the work center supervisor make sure that all ground calibrations are performed?
|
Before the flight check aircraft arrives.
|
|
Describe the responsibilities of the flight inspection technician.
|
This individual gathers and analyzes the data being transmitted by your facility and determines its usability.
|
|
Explain the automatic flight inspection system (AFIS).
|
AFIS is a method of inspecting a facility by using an on-board inertial navigation system (INS) as a reference and global positioning system (GPS). The INS tells the flight inspection computer where it is. The computer analyzes the difference between this information and what is received from your facility to
determine the results. |
|
Which altitude or altitudes are reported for flight inspections?
|
Mean sea level (MSL).
|
|
What are bends?
|
Slow excursions of the course.
|
|
Describe course width (course sensitivity).
|
The angular deviation required in order to produce a full-scale course deviation indication of the airborne navigational instrument.
|
|
Explain roughness.
|
Rapid irregular excursions of the electromagnetic course or path.
|
|
Explain structure.
|
Structure describes the excursion characteristics of a navigation on-course or on-path signal which includes bends, scalloping, roughness and other aberrations.
|
|
Name the four flight check runs accomplished by FAA?
|
Low approach, normal width, course wide/clearance wide, and normal width and symmetry run.
|
|
Why is the course wide/clearance wide run done?
|
Performed to make sure the monitors detect an alarm condition (resulting in shutdown) before the radiated signal goes out of tolerance.
|
|
Name the three flight check runs accomplished by FAA.
|
Wide alarm, advance and retard phase, and normal width/angle/symmetry/structure below path run.
|
|
What should the monitors read during a wide alarm run?
|
0.155 DDM.
|
|
What elements make up structure?
|
Roughness, bends, or scalloping.
|
|
Instrument landing system flight inspection report form entries
What blocks are in “Field 1”? |
Ident, owner, state, country, region, inspection date(s), location, inspection type, category, and runway.
|
|
Instrument landing system flight inspection report form entries
What fields have the same information required for both the localizer and the glide slope? |
1, 2, 4, and 5.
|
|
TACAN flight check procedures and tolerance principles
What are the two items accomplished before flight check? |
First, make sure your radio for communicating with the flight check aircraft is working properly and set up at the site. Secondly, make printouts of the TACAN’s monitored parameters, and make certain everything is
well within normal parameters. |
|
TACAN flight check procedures and tolerance principles
When an orbit is flown, at what distance is it and what is being checked? |
20 mile radius from station; if coverage signal levels are adequate, and if there are any unusable sectors.
|
|
TACAN flight check procedures and tolerance principles
During a ground receiver check, what are the azimuth and DME tolerances? |
1.5 degrees; 0.2 miles.
|
|
TACAN flight check procedures and tolerance principles
Name the TACAN signal parameters? |
Antenna rotation speed, squitter rate, north reference burst, auxiliary reference burst, auxiliary reference burst count, modulation, and percent range replies.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
In what two ways does a flight inspection technician monitor received data? |
Checks meters and hard copy recording of the meter indications.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What does the crosspointer meter indicate? |
How far the aircraft is off a selected course.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What’s the coverage for L, H, and T class facilities? |
L = 40 miles, H = 40 miles, T = 25 miles.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
How is the presence of undesired vertical polarization checked? |
By the attitude effect.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What is the upper limit of tolerable frequency interference? |
The point at which it becomes loud enough to seriously interfere with the average pilot’s ability to understand the identification of the desired station.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What two common types of orbits are flown when flight checking a VOR? |
Alignment or coverage orbits.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What determines the accuracy of the omnirange courses? |
The modulation of the reference and variable signals.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
How is the VOR’s course sensitivity adjusted? |
By varying the power output of the sideband card.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What is the optimum modulation level for the 30-Hz AM, 30-Hz FM, and 9,960 Hz? |
30 percent
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
During an airborne receiver check, what are the azimuth and DME tolerances? |
1.5 degrees; .2NM.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
What is the maximum deviation of the course caused by the effects of vertical polarization? |
2.0.
|
|
VOR aircraft indications/flight check and tolerance principles
When must the monitors alarm? |
When the course shifts more than 1.0 degree from the alignment established for the reference checkpoint.
|
|
Which technical order contains the requirements for facility certification?
|
TO 00–33A–1001 General Communications Activities Management Procedures and Practice Requirements.
|
|
What is facility certification?
|
The act of validating your current facility’s performance based on a comparison with the facility reference data.
|
|
Normally, who performs the annual facility certification?
|
A task qualified work center supervisor.
|
|
How often must all navigational aids (NAVAIDs) facilities be certified?
|
Every 365 days.
|
|
What happens if the facility certification can’t be performed within the time frame allowed?
|
The facility must be considered unusable until the certification is completed.
|
|
When do you perform a facility repair/adjustment certification?
|
After repairs or adjustments are made to any subassembly that affects monitored parameters.
|
|
How does a special certification differ from an annual or repair/adjustment certification?
|
Some outside event triggers a special certification.
|
|
Which form do we use to document a facility certification?
|
AFT0 Form 499.
|
|
In the “Type Verification” section of the facility certification form, what are the three choices?
|
Annual, Equipment Repair/Adjustment, and Special.
|
|
What goes in the “Comments” section of the facility certification form?
|
Why you did the certification, what you did, and the results of the comparison with the reference data.
|
|
When operating an instrument landing system (ILS) as category II, the pilot must be able to fly inbound to a point of interception where the localizer course line intersects the glide path at a point
|
above the runway threshold.
|
|
Instrument landing system (ILS) points A, B, C, D, and E are used to define the limits of
|
the approach zone.
|
|
The instrument landing system (ILS) point A is located where in reference to the runway threshold?
|
4 nautical miles.
|
|
Which flight inspection is required if there is a major equipment modification or an
accident? |
Special
|
|
Which Air Force manual (AFMAN) contains tolerances and definitions used during a flight inspection?
|
11–225
|
|
Of the flight check personnel, who is often referred to as the panel operator?
|
Flight inspection technician.
|
|
Of the flight check personnel, who do you usually talk to over the radio during a flight
inspection? |
Flight inspection technician.
|
|
The angular deviation required to produce a full-scale course deflection of the indicator on the airborne navigational instrument describes
|
course width.
|
|
During a localizer low approach run flight check, what is the ± percent of the modulation level tolerance for CAT I instrument landing system (ILS)?
|
4
|
|
What is the flight check percentage tolerance for the localizer width check?
|
Plus or minus ± 17 of the commissioned width.
|
|
To check for a wide alarm during a glide slope flight inspection, what power adjustment must be made?
|
Decrease the sideband only (SBO).
|
|
What glide slope flight inspection procedure checks phasing of the sideband only (SBO) signal in relationship to the carrier-plus sideband (CSB) signal?
|
Advance and retard.
|
|
The tolerance for the glide angle is what percent of the commissioned angle?
|
7.5 below and 10 above.
|
|
What Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) flight check inspection report form is used for the localizer?
|
8240–8.
|
|
On the glide slope report, what field must be completed by the flight check crew in order for the graph to be plotted automatically?
|
11
|
|
Tactical air navigation (TACAN) coverage is considered satisfactory when a facility maintains continuous tracking, and course and distance information is in tolerance for how many miles?
|
40
|
|
What Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) flight check inspection report form is used for the TACAN?
|
8240–2.
|
|
Which meter indicates reverse sensing from the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR)?
|
To-from.
|
|
The terminal very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (TVOR) must cover
how many miles? |
25
|
|
The adjustments normally encountered during a flight inspection can be divided into two categories: signal level adjustments and
|
azimuth.
|
|
A very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) that meets all operating
tolerances is classified as |
unrestricted.
|
|
What is the maximum degree course shift that may occur before the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) monitor alarms?
|
1
|
|
According to what technical order (TO) is certification defined as the determination and validation that a system, subsystem, or service is operating within the established baseline or acceptable technical parameters critical to flight safety?
|
00–33A–1001.
|
|
Each air traffic control and landing systems (ATCALS) facility has how many sets of
references? |
One
|
|
Which is not a type of facility certification?
|
Periodic.
|
|
All navigational aids (NAVAID) facilities must be certified at a minimum of every how
many days? |
365
|
|
A radio frequency (RF) interference complaint would most likely result in what type of facility certification?
|
Special.
|
|
An aircraft mishap would most likely result in what type of facility certification?
|
Special.
|
|
What form is used to document facility certification?
|
Air Force technical order (AFTO) 499.
|
|
On the facility certification form, what information do you place in the “comments” block?
|
Why you did certification, what you did, and results of comparison with reference data.
|
|
What is a transitory portion of the equipment historical file?
|
Facility record.
|
|
In the facility records, “Tab 2” contains what information?
|
Reference data.
|