All Radiography

At what age is it recommended that a woman begin getting annual mammograms?

What is the large muscle commonly seen on a mammogram that is located between the bony thorax and the mammary gland?

What are the two basic projections for mammographic exams?

True or false. To avoid grid cutoff, the angulation of the CR must be perpendicular to the length of the grid.

A patient with a possible Pott's fracture enters the ER. Which of the following routines should be performed on this patient?

A patient with a possible pleural effusion in the right lung enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which position would best demonstrate this condition?

A patient with a possible Greenstick fracture enters the ER. What age group does this type of fracture usually affect?

Which of the following terms describes a poor alignment between the ends of a fractured bone?

What is the minimum number of projections generally required for any trauma study?

An bruise type of injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin would describe a:

True or false. Lead grid lines usually run parallel to the centerline of the long axis of the grid.

True or false. A foot routine for a 7 year old would be the same as for an adult patient.

True or false. Interventional angiographic procedures are used primarily for providing diagnostic information and secondarily for treatment of disease.

True or false. The right common carotid originates from the aortic arch.

The most common vascular approach during pulmonary arteriography is the :

Solid food should be withheld for approximately _____ hours before an angiographic procedure.

True or false. The common puncture site for selective abdominal angiography is the femoral artery using the Seldinger technique.

Each common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external arteries at the level of:

What two arteries that deliver blood to the heart muscle are:

Which aspect of the CT systems houses the x-ray tube and detector array?

The central opening in the CT support structure whre the patient is scanned is called the:

Which device controls slice thickness in a CT image?

Each tiny picture element in the display matrix is called a (an):

In what year did the first successful clinical demonstration of computed tomography take place?

Radiographic demonstration of the female reproductive tract with a contrast medium.

A radiographic study of the spinal cord and its nerve root branches with a contrast medium.

A contrast study for visualization of the salivary glands and associated ducts.

A straight or right angle radiograph.

An exam used to assess the bone mineral density for the diagnosis of osteoporosis.

A special type of imaging used to obtain a diagnostic image of a specific layer of tissue or object that is superimposed by other tissues or objects.

What is the fulcrum?

What is pantomography?

What modality uses a measurement of the intensity of acoustic energy received from anatomic structures?

What is teletherapy?

What does SPECT stand for?

What creates the "romance" of the abdomen?

What is a negative contrast?

What is a positive contrast?

When the blood shunts from the aorta to the pulmonary artery and this shunt fails to close at birth, this is termed _______.

Pulmonary hypertension caused by left to right shunts is called:

What is the most common cause of congestive heart failure?

What is the most common cause of chronic valve disease?

What would cause the medial end of the clavicle to project at the level of T5-T6 on a PA chest radiograph?

The middle muscular layer of arteries and veins is called:

In a PA chest radiograph, the heart lying to the right of midline is composed mainly of:

In a PA chest radiograph, the heart lying to the left of midline is composed mainly of:

The sac which contains a small amount of fluid (to reduce friction of the beating heart) and the heart itself is called:

Which imaging procedure allows for interventional processes?

The right lung receives ___% of blood pumping from the heart.

The left lung receives ___% of blood pumping from the heart.

Which vessels fill during diastole?

Which part of the heart is demonstrated with a lateral position?

What is the inner layer of the heart tissue?

What is the outer layer of the heart tissue?

Describe systole.

Describe diastole.

What is the middle layer of the circulatory vessels called?

What is the outermost layer of the circulatory vessels called?

What is the innermost layer of the circulatory vessels called?

Valves in the veins are made up of which type of cells?

Where does exchange take place in the circulatory vessels?

What stage on an EKG represents contraction of atria and beginning of depolarization?

What stage on an EKG represents the time from beginning of atrial contraction to beginning of ventricular contraction (time from SA node to ventricles)

What stage on an EKG represents ventricular contraction?

What stage on an EKG represents the time between ventricular contraction and recovery?

What stage on an EKG represents ventricular recovery (repolarization)?

What stage on an EKG would indicate metabolic interference with conduction?

Which stage on an EKG represents the spread of electrical activity from the SA node to the ventricles?

Swelling of the ankles is a common complaint from patients experiencing :

What is the most common cause of left sided heart failure?

An area of ischemic necrosis is called :

Coronary artery disease is responsible for over ___% of annual deaths in the U.S.

What is the term for enlargement of the heart?

What type of imaging involves the patient swallowing a mobile, flexible probe containing a transducer to image the heart?

What type of imaging uses a stationary ultrasound beam to provide an examination of the atria, ventricles, heart valves, and aortic root, allowing evaluation of left ventricular function?

What type of imaging allows for spatially correct, real-time imaging of the heart that provides multiple tomographic projections of the heart and great vessels?

What is the most widely used procedure in nuclear cardiology?

Gated cardiac blood pool scans are also called:

What is the purpose of gated cardiac blood pool scans?

__________ is a procedure in which a high intensity anticoagulant, such as streptokinase, is dripped over a period of hours directly onto a clot to dissolve it.

What procedure uses devices such as coils to clot off vessels?

In what procedure is a catheter used to connect the jugular vein to the portal vein to reduce the flow of blood through a diseased liver?

Although the ductus arteriosus may close normally at birth, a narrowing of the aorta may occur at the junction site. This is called:

What is the most common type of congenital heart defect?

What is an atrial septal defect?

Which septal defects are most serious and why?

Describe transposition of great vessels.

Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four defects. Name them.

The "boot sign" indicates:

The heart chamber located most anteriorly and forming the anterior border of the cardiac shadow on a lateral chest xray is:

The bicuspid valve is also known as:

Contraction of the myocardium is termed:

How many posterior ribs should be seen on a PA chest xray?

In a fetus the ductus arteriosus connects which two structures?

A condition in which the left ventricle cannot pump an amount of blood equal to the venous return of the right ventricle is:

What are risk factors associated with atherosclerosis?

A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed:

The single most frequent cause of death in the US is:

What are some clinical signs of a myocardial infarction?

Aortic aneurysms most commonly occur in the:

What imaging procedures may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm?

Venous thrombosis most often occurs in the:

These aneurysms are "berry" shaped.

What type of aneurysm includes the entire circumference of the vessel?

What type of aneurysm occurs when the intima tears away from the media creating a flap that causes blood to clot?

What type of aneurysm is common to occur in the aorta?

Where do fusiform aneurysms commonly occur?

Where do saccular aneurysms usually occur?

___% of aortic aneurysms occur in the abdomen.

Aneurysms larger than ____ require surgical repair.

The majority of AAA's occur where?

When a clot detaches and enters the bloodstream it is called :

Pulmonary emboli usually originate:

Fat emboli are possible from:

Stasis of blood causes :

___________ is the leading cause of strokes and congestive heart failure.

What is blood pressure?

What is considered elevated BP for 40 and under?

What causes pericardial effusion?

___% of patients that have a pulmonary embolism will have another.

What is referred to as the "silent killer"?

What is the ideal BP for those 40 years and younger?

The cardiovascular system is really made up of two systems. Name them.

What is the imaging modality of choice for patent ductus arteriosus?

What is the imaging modality of choice for coarction of teh aorta?

What is the imaging modality of choice for septal defects?

What is the imaging modality of choice for transposition of great vessels?

What is the imaging modality of choice for Teralogy of Fallot?

What is the imaging modality of choice for valvular disease?

What is the imaging modality of choice for CHF?

What is the imaging modality of choice for COR pulmonale?

What is the imaging modality of choice for atherosclerosis?

What is the imaging modality of choice for coronary artery disease?

What is the imaging modality of choice for myocardial infarction?

What is the imaging modality of choice for aneurysms?

What is the imaging modality of choice for venous thrombosis?

What is the imaging modality of choice for pulmonary embolism?

What is the term for inflammation of a vein?

What is the term for blood clots in a vein?

In the emergency room, your patient has been in a serious snowboarding accident. Which exam would be first in your list of priorities?

_________ are sometimes used in reducing varicose veins.

Which part of an EKG waveform indicates ventricular depolarization and contraction?

Therapeutic intervention which involves expansion of a balloon within the blood vessel to reopen the lumen of the vessel is referred to as:

Which segment of an ECG represents the recovery or repolarization of the ventricles?

In fetal circulation, that hole in the atrial septum allowing blood to move from right atria to left atria without traveling through the pulmonary system is called:

The outer most layer of vessels is:

The most common site for thrombus formation is:

One form of treatment for aneurysm, provided in the interventional angiographic suite involves introduction of clotting devices. This procedure is called:

Edema, both pulmonary and lower extremity may be a symptom of:

That congenital pathology which creates two closed vascular systems, systems that do not communicate or share blood with one another is:

Direction of blood flow through cardiac congenital defects is based on pressure differences. In post partum circulation, what is most common?

Hypertension may be a result of other ongoing pathologies like diabetes or adrenal abnormalities. This type of hypertension is referred to as:

Identify that inflammatory condition (frequently streptococcal) which creates valvular degeneration.

Most arteries fill upon contraction of the ventricles, however the _______ arteries fill as the ventricles relax.

What are contraindications for angiography?

Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood into the lungs?

One of the serious complications in angiography results from guidewire or catheter moving between intima and media creating:

Filters, to halt the movement of emboli. are most commonly placed in the _________

Which term is used to describe “hardening of the arteries”?

Factors contributing to pericardial effusion are:

That modality which provides a less invasive method of obtaining angiograms, based on imaging fluid changes within the vessel is:

Which congenital cardiovascular anomalies results in pulmonary hypertension based on increased blood to the pulmonary system?

The most easily treated aneurysm is:

The lateral chest X-ray will give us a good silhouette of the heart. What part of the heart is evaluated in the lateral image?

That congenital condition which decreased blood supply to the abdomen and lower extemities but allows unimpeded flow to the upper extremities is:

Because of the importance of blood supply to this organ, it's arteries are the first to branch off the aorta. Identify the vessels.

Valves of the heart are made up of:

________ makes up the innermost tissue layer of the heart.

The preferred approach (vascular access) in interventional arteriography is:

_______ bring information to the cell body.

_______ bring information away from the cell body.

________ provide physical and nutritional support for neurons.

What are the functions of neuroglia or glial cells?

White matter consists of:

The surface or cortex of the brail consists of:

What brain functions occur in the cerebrum?

What brain functions occur in the cerebellum?

The diencephalon houses the:

What is the function of the thalamus?

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

What is the function of the brainstem?

The brainstem houses the:

The spinal cord terminates at:

The portion of the spinal cord that extends beyond the conus medullaris is the _______.

Where is CSF produced?

Where is the choroid plexis located?

At what location does CSF exit into the subarachnoid space?

How is CSF reabsorbed?

Starting from that closest to the spinal cord, list the meninges layers.

What part of the meninges contains CSF?

What system puts the body at a relaxed state?

Why is the subdural space a "potential" for lumbar puncture?

What causes CSF to travel?

What is the blood brain barrier?

In which modality is a radionuclide attached to a glucose molecule in order to pass the blood brain barrier?

What is the modality of choice for brain imaging other than trauma?

What is the modality of choice for brain trauma?

_________ is an excellent evaluation of bony anatomy, hemorrhage after trauma, shunt evaluation and post injection myelography.

___________ evaluates chemical processes within the brain.

List some examples of calcified structures that may shift and be visualized using diagnostic imaging.

That disease which is characterized by patients demonstrating stooped posture, slow movement and tremor and evidenced radiographically by cortical atrophy is:

True or false. Contrast currently being used for myelography, starts to be absorbed by the body within 20 – 30 minutes.

The spinal cord terminates at the L1-L3 level, this terminal portion of the cord is referred to as __________.

That artery which connects the anterior cerebral arteries – allowing formation of the Circle of Willis, is:

The ________skull position may be useful in evaluating internal auditory canals, mastoid aircells and foramen spinosum for size and shape.

Traumatic head injury, without fracture, which can be compared to "brusing of the brain" is called:

Identify that slow growing, infiltrating glial neoplasm which is comprises about 1/3 of all gliomas.

Prolapsed intervertebral disks most commonly occur in the :

Impaired nerve conduction caused by degeneration of neuron mylelin sheath may cause poor coordination, speaking difficulty or double vision for patients with __________.

Those cells which provide physical and nutritional support for brain cells and regulate content of extracellular space are called:

tPA is the medication administered to reverse effects of:

The most common demyelinating disorder is ____________. This disorder is problematic because plaque may develop within the CNS creating impaired nerve conduction.

That pathologic condition which frequently results from the migration of pyogenic bacteria from middle ear or mastoid air cells to cerebral anatomy is called:

If access at the lumbar level is not a possibility in myelography and the procedure is still a must, access at ________ is the next option.

The occupation of space within the cranial vault is a primary concern for:

That pathologic condition (commonly a viral invasion ) which results in multiple hemorraghic points of brain parenchyma is:

That condition which allows protrusion of spinal cord or meningies outside the spinal canal is:

That portion of a vertebral disk, which acts as a tough protective cover is the:

A benign, cystic tumor growing from remnants of pituitary development is called

Identify that inherited condition which demonstrates as atrophy of the caudate nucleus in CT

The most common nonglial tumor originates in the arachnoid tissues. This neoplasm is:

What is the most common nonglial tumor?

Identify that glioma which develops within the lining of the ventricles:

The imaging modality of choice in the event of a prolapsed disk is:

The acute condition of adult onset encephalitis, usually caused by stroke or injury is:

Foward slippage of one vertebra on another is called:

Maintaining a balance of cerebral spinal fluid requires absorption of CSF through:

Identify that neoplastic growth which is usually benign, affects hormone production and may erode the sella turcia:

True or false. A herniated disk is a contraindication for a myelogram?

Identify that parasitic disease which may create large cystic lesions in liver or brain.

Ischemic cerebrovascular accidents occur in one of two ways - with either gradual build up and progressively worsening symptoms OR acute, sudden onset of symptoms and dramatic effects. Those acute episodes are usually the result of :

An infarct is ___________.

How does a thrombosis develop?

For what type of stroke is tPA given for?

An ischemic stroke that occurs from an embolism at a foreign site has what type of onset?

How do nonglial neoplasms grow?

What is the most common type of nonglial neoplasm?

How do glial neoplasms grow?

Half of primary brain tumors are _________.

Gliomas arising from the lining of ventricles are :

Advanced highly malignant gliomas are :

A slow growing usually benign astrocytoma is :

Slow growing, infiltrative, low grade gliomas are :

______ account for half of all gliomas.

Name the rapidly growing, highly malignant, infiltrating tumor of neuroepithelial tissue.

Medulloblastomas occur in the _________.

Medulloblastomas occur in what age groups?

What type of neoplasm originates in the arachnoid space?

Enlarged foramen spinosum and increased meningeal vascular markings are indicators of :

________ is a neoplasm that is usually benign and affects hormone production.

Erosion of the sella tursica may be visible on CT or a lateral skull image with this neoplasm.

List the three tumors of central nerve sheath cells.

Tumors of the central nerve sheath cells are most commonly located where?

Name the three types of tumors of central nerve sheath cells that compress brain tissue and erode temporal bone.

These types of neoplasms account for 25% of brain tumors.

Secondary metastases usually occur from:

What are symptoms of secondary metastases?

What type of neoplasm presents with signs of increased intracranial pressure?

Extramedullary and intramedullary tumors are classified as :

Spinal tumors are divided into two categories. List them.

What types of tumors are classified as extramedullary?

What types of tumors are classified as intramedullary?

This type of head trauma is reversible interference with brain function.

This type of head trauma is the brusing of brain tissue with rupture of small vessels and edema.

This type of head trauma occurs when the skull is not compromised but tissue is damaged resulting from force exerted against the skull.

The nerves travelling beyond the spinal cord ending at L1-L3 are referred to as ________.

Non ionic contrast injected in myelography is absored withing ______ min and visualized for up to ______.

_______ is a disruption or imbalance of flow of cerebrospinal fluid.

What type of hydrocephalus is linked to dementia?

What type of hydrocephalus has primary symptoms consisting of headache, nausea, vomiting, and drowsiness?

What CNS disorder causes loss of coordination or balance, shuffling gait, memory loss, headache, and bladder control problems?

What type of hydrocephalus occurs with damage to the brain caused by stroke or injury?

In which type of hydrocephalus may we also see brain shrinkage?

Gradual blockage of the CSF draining may cause:

What type of hydrocephalus has the following symptoms: memory loss, gait disorder, urinary incontinence, and general slowing of activity?

What disease shows atrophy of the caudate nucleus radiographically?

Ventricles loose concavity of caudate nucleus in which disease?

Acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid occur with :

What pathology can occur from pyogenic bacteria migrating from the middle ear or sinuses?

What are symptoms of cerebral echinococcosis?

Infection of brain parenchyma (usually viral) occurs with:

_________ causes cerebral edema with areas of bleeding throughout the brain.

About ___% of encephalitis are pediatric.

______ is usually a result of chronic infection of middle ear, mastoids, sinuses, or systemic infection.

With _____________, infection leads to cerebral softening, necrosis, and liquefaction of tissue.

Osteoarthritic changes impinging on the nerve root occurs with:

Slippage of vertebrae occurs with:

PET imaging shows areas of decreased glucose metabolism with:

_________ is a progressive disease characterized by stooped posture, stiffness, slowness of movement, fixed facial expression and involuntary rhythmic tremor.

Degenerative changes in the basal ganglia indicates:

________ seems to be an enzyme defect resulting in deficient production of dopamine.

Cortical atrophy visualized in CT indicates:

Contributing substances to cerebellar atrophy are:

What is the most common type of demyelinating disorder?

Name that disease. Impaired nerve conduction may result in double vision, involutary rapid movement of the eye, loss of balance, poor coordination, shaking tremor, muscular weakness, speaking difficulty and bladder dysfunction.

A temporary localized reduction of blood flow in the brain is a ___________.

Name that disease. Uncontrollable discharge of neurons on BOTH sides of the brain is most common. The seizure starts in one area of the brain and spreads across the brain.

Reid’s baseline (aka "base line" or "anthropologic baseline") is more commonly referred to as:

What cranial bones form the upper lateral walls of the calvarium?

For the Parietoorbital oblique projection, Rhese method, of the orbit, how many degrees of angle should be formed between the MSP and the IR?

Which position is performed with the patient’s head positioned true lateral and the CR directed 25 degrees cephalad?

True or false. The opposite side of the mandible should overlap the ramus for an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible.

How many degrees and in which direction should the CR be directed for the Axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible?

For the Parietoorbital oblique projection, Rhese method, of the orbits, which positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR?

Which of the following structures can be well demonstrated with an Axiolateral oblique projection (Modified Law method)?

To demonstrate the mandibular body with the Axiolateral oblique projection, how should the patient’s head be positioned?

How many degrees and in which direction should the CR be directed for the Axiolateral oblique projection (Schuller method) for TMJs?

An AP axial projection (Towne method) of the bilateral zygomatic arches is performed similarly to the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, except that the projection for the zygomatic arches requires which of the following be done?

Which projection of the skull can be correctly performed with the CR angled 15 degrees?

How many degrees are in the angle formed between the midsagittal plane and the petrous pyramids in the brachycephalic skull?

From which cranial bone does the zygomatic process arise?

How many degrees are in the angle formed between the midsagittal plane and the petrous pyramids in the dolichocephalic skull?

The external acoustic meatus is a part of which cranial bone?

On which cranial bone is the Crista galli located?

With which bone does the mandible articulate?

Which skull classification refers to a typical skull (in terms of length and width)?

Which bone comprises most of the lateral wall of the orbital cavities?

Where should the petrous ridges be seen in the image of the Parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones?

Which bones from the posterior one fourth of the roof of the mouth?

Which skull classification refers to a long, narrow skull?

Which skull classification refers to a short, wide skull?

Which projection of the skull can be correctly performed with the CR angled 37 degrees?

With reference to the IR, how should the MSP be adjusted for the tangential projection demonstrating an individual zygomatic arch?

Which suture joins both parietal bones with the occipital bone?

Where are the lacrimal bones located?

Which positioning line should be parallel with the IR for the SMV projection of the skull?

Which suture joins a parietal bone with both a sphenoid bone and a temporal bone?

The Bregma fontanel is located at the junction of which two sutures?

With reference to the patient, where should the IR be centered for the lateral projection of the skull?

Which projection of the skull produces a full basal image of the cranium?

Where is the vomer bone found?

Which projection of the skull projects the petrous bones in the lower third of the orbits?

The Lambda fontanel is located at the junction of which cranial bones?

The lambda fontanel is located at the junction of which two sutures?

The Pterygoid processes project inferiorly from which cranial bone?

The Bregma fontanel is located at the junction of which cranial bones?

With reference to the IR, how should the CR be directed for the Parietoacanthial projection, Waters method?

With reference to the patient, where should the IR be centered for the PA 15 degree (Caldwell method) projection of the skull?

For the PA axial projection, Haas method, of the skull, where should the CR enter the patient’s head?

How many degrees and in which direction should the CR be directed for the PA axial projection, Haas method, of the skull?

Which suture articulates the frontal bone with both parietal bones?

Which two positioning lines or planes should be perpendicular to the IR for the PA projection of the skull?

True or false. For an SMV projection for the paranasal sinuses, the mandibular condyles should be anterior to the petrous ridges.

Which sinus group is of primary interest on the lateral projection of sinuses?

Where should the petrous ridges be seen in the image of the PA 15 degree axial projection, Caldwell method?

Which sinus group is NOT well visualized in the image produced by the Parietoacanthial projection, Waters method?

Which sinus groups are best demonstrated with the PA projection, Caldwell method?

The tangential projection for a unilateral zygomatic arch requires that the skull be rotated 15 degrees and tilted 15 degrees away from the affected side.

True or false. The mandible articulates with the zygomatic bone.

The CR is centered to exit at the level of the _______________ for a well positioned 15 degree PA Axial projection of the facial bones.

Name the cranial bones that the occipital bone articulates with.

Name the cranial bones that each temporal bone articulates with.

What cranial bones does the sphenoid articulate with?

What are the other names for the petrous portion?

The petrous ridge corresponds to the level of which external landmark?

In which cranial bone is the opening (orifice) located that transmits the nerves of hearing and equilibrium and what is the name of the orifice?

WHat is the alternate name of the pituitary gland?

Name the foramina of the sphenoid, anterior to posterior.

At what age do cranial sutures close? Fontanels?

What is another name for the auricle?

What is the ear "lip" called?

What is the "ear drum"?

What position would demonstrate the internal acoustic meatus?

The shape of the average head is termed ________ and has a width of ____ cm and length of ____ cm.

In a mesocephalic head, petrous ridges are at an angle of ____ MSP.

What is a brachycephalic head and at what angle are the petrous ridges?

In a dolichocephalic head at what angle are the petrous ridges in relation to the MSP?

That malabsorption disorder which is a sensitivity to gluten and increases lymphocyte production is:

The omentum is formed by double fold of:

_________ describes a mucosal thickening in the lower esophagus associated with a sliding hiatal hernia:

That type of diverticulum which involves a ballooning of all layers of the alimentary wall is called:

Body habitus determines where certain structures will lay within the abdominal cavity, for example in the hypersthenic habitus the stomach will generally be:

The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another is termed:

A mechanical blockage of the lumen of bowel, involving a stone migrating from biliary system to GI is called

A mechanical blockage of the lumen of bowel, involving a stone migrating from biliary system to GI is called

Twisting of the bowel around it's mesenteric base is termed:

A causative factor of a paralytic ileus is ________.

That diverticula, which is thought to be a remnant of the duct connecting small bowel to unbilicus, located proximal to the ileocecal valve is:

True or false: Visualization of an apple core lesion is suggestive of colon cancer.

Crohn's disease is also called :

That diverticulum occurring at the pharyngoesophaeal junction is called:

Barium sulfate is used as what type of suspension?

Patient prep for an esophagram series includes:

True or false. Motility of barium during procedures is dependent on type of barium salt used.

The most common site for colonic diverticula is:

An esophageal abnormality produced when normal epithelium is destroyed by gastric acid from repeated reflux and replaced with other cells is a condition called:

Whipple’s disease is a form of which syndrome?

That inflammatory condition which involves the mucosal lining of the stomach and may be related to alcohol intake or smoking is:

Veriform appendix obstruction often leads to:

Colonic polyps which attach directly to the bowel wall are called:

Which of the following imaging modalities would be most useful in demonstrating GI bleeding?

A term describing a benign smooth muscle tumor is:

True or false. Gastric carcinoma has ill defined borders.

_________ usually starts around the terminal ileum with inflammation of the mucosal cells which may ulcerate through the bowel wall.

That neurogenic condition in which the EG sphincter cannot relax resulting in dilated esophagus at the EG junction is:

This congential condition of the eosophagus which stops short of actually connecting to the stomach and is usually associated with tracheosophageal fistulas:

An infant demonstrating the double bubble sign on imaging accompanied by gastric distention, no stool produced is probably suffering from:

Identify that area of the digestive system least likely to develop neoplasms:

Cirrhosis of the liver interferes with blood flow through the hepatic portal system often resulting in:

The transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt may be useful in treating:

Peptic ulcer disease is thought to be associated with:

Fungal infections resulting in the shaggy appearance of the esophagus is attributed to:

A mass of undigested vegetable fiber within the stomach of bowel is called a:

What is the name of the pathology is associated with bowel invading scrotal sac?

The rhythmic smooth muscle contractions found in the upper gastrointestinal system are called:

Retroperitoneal structures include:

Infraperitoneal structures include:

How will the stomach be oriented in a sthenic patient?

How will the stomach be oriented in a hypostenic patient?

What transport types take place in the esophagus?

A small bowel series is complete when:

Motility of barium is dependent on:

What are contraindications for barium?

What is the patient prep for a UGI or SBS?

For a small bowel enema the tube must pass :

Another name for a small bowel enema is:

What is the most common type of NG tube?

Miller Abbott, Harris and Cantor are what types of tubes?

Dobhoff, Corpak, and Entriflex are what types of tubes?

What is a Levacuator tube?

What is atresia?

What is Hirschsprung's disease?

What is toxic megacolon?

What is Meckel's diverticulum?

Malabsorption sydrome is a group of disease also referred to as:

What is whipple's disease?

What is celiac disease?

What is carbohydrate/lactose insufficiency?

What is the treatment for esophageal stricture?

What is candida esophagitis?

Severe GERD may cause:

Gastric acid eating away the epithilium will cause:

H. Pylori is associated with :

Erosion of mucosal membrane most often in proximal esophagus, stomach or duodenum is:

Ingestion of contaminated food (salmonella) causes:

Infection of lumen of small bowel by a protozoa is :

Infestation of roundworms is:

This pathology starts with inflammation of mucosal cells with ulceration of bowel wall. Scaring may lead to obstruction and creates cobblestone appearance

What are causes of paralytic ileus?

Esophageal achalasia is:

What pathology causes aganglionic bowel preventing peristalsis?

Zenker's diverticulum occurs where?

Where is Meckel's diverticula located?

Benign tumors make up what percentage of stomach tumors?

What is a bezoar?

What is a trichobezoar?

What is a phytobezoar?

Malignant neoplasms of the stomach are commonly found:

Predisposing factors for small bowel neoplasms are:

What is a pendunculated neoplasm?

What are predisposing factors for colon cancer?

Information from this gland, neural and chemical, stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete different hormones

The largest endocrine gland in the body is:

The "master" gland of the endocrine is seated in the sella turcica - this gland is:

Another name for the pituitary gland is the:

This endocrine gland plays a significant role in immunity and leukocyte maturation.

That endocrine gland, referred to as the "third eye" because it secretes hormones to regulate circadian rhythm in humans, is called the __________.

Primary adrenal insufficiency resulting from autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is called ___________.

This endocrine gland is responsible for stimulating osteoclasts and increasing calcium absorption in kidneys and bowel.

Which pathology may result in nephrocalcinosis?

Which diabetes is a genetic disorder presenting as an autoimmune event associated with ketoacidosis?

That part of the adrenal gland responsible for electrolyte balance is:

"Little People" that are well proportioned suffer from:

That endocrine gland with primary responsibility for regulating tissue growth is:

If this condition occurs prior to growth place closure we call it "rickets". Occurring after closure we call it:

Release of hormones by the endocrine system in response to changes in blood chemistry is called:

Hypersecretion of steroid hormones may result in excess fat deposits in the neck and trunk of the body and a moon shaped face. These characteristics are indicative of:

What is the difference between the endocrine and exocrine system?

This type of stimuli is in direct response to changes in blood chemistry.

This type of stimuli is in response to sympathetic nervous system.

This type of stimuli is in response to other hormones secreted in the body.

This organ has both endocrine and exocrine functions.

This gland is considered the "master" endocrine gland.

What gland secretes major hormones affecting growth, sexual development, reproduction, and metabolism?

This gland is located in the cranium, posterior to third ventricle and superior to midbrain and inferior to corpus callosum.

This gland may calcify and become visible on radiographs.

Which gland produces and excretes melatonin?

These glands are lcoated on upper poles of kidneys bilaterally.

The inner portion of the ________ acts as part of sympathetic nervous system.

What part of the adrenal gland is responsible for electrolyte balance, cell metabolism and sex hormones?

What gland is responsible for maintaining normal blood pressure and tissue growth?

An overweight person may have an __________ thyroid. This is referred to as __________.

An underweight person may have an ___________ thyroid. This is referred to as _________.

This gland produces and secrets PTH which controls blood calcium levels.

What does PTH do?

Which gland is responsible for stimulating osteclasts and increases calcium absorption in kidneys and bowel?

This gland is claimed by the endocrine as well as the lymphatic system.

This gland secretes hormones responsible for stimulation of white blood cell production.

T cell leukocytes mature in this gland.

This gland is significant in establishing immune system.

This gland starts shrinking after puberty.

Where is the pancreas located?

This organ functions as both endocrine and exocrine.

__________ produce glucagon and insulin.

What does antagonist mean?

Insulin is an antagonist to :

Insulin does what to glucagon?

_________ promotes breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver.

Glucagon promotes the breakdown of _________ to _________ in the liver.

What is the inner portion of the adrenal gland?

What is the outer portion of the adrenal gland?

What is another name for the Islets of Langerhans?

A radiographically visible decrease in density is :

___________ is a condition caused by a lack of calcium in the tissues and a failure of bone tissue to calcify.

If osteomalacia occurs before growth plate closure, it is known as:

__________ is an endocrine disorder caused by a distrubance of the pituitary gland that causes the sella turcica to enlarge.

The hypothalamus gets input from the __________ and outputs to the ____________.

This organ is located inferior to the thalamus and just superior to the pituitary.

This organ is responsible for homeostasis in the body.

The ___________ interprets information received by the brain.

Which modality is very useful in pituitary disorders and gland evaluation?

Which modality is very useful in pituitary disorders and gland evaluation?

Which modality is useful in thyroid and adrenal diagnosis?

Osteomalacia can be associated with these diseases.

This disease results in wideing medullary cavity with thinning cortical margins.

How does osteomalacia occur?

With this disease, osteoid material replacing bone is porous, bulky and soft.

Paget's disease is also known as:

This disease is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormones as an adult causing the bones to become thick and coarse because the epiphyses have closed already.

Acromegaly is a _________ disorder affecting the skeletal system.

Which type of diabetes is neurological in originn or genetic and caused by a deficiency in vasopressin?

What type of diabetes causes polyuria, weight loss and increased thirst?

This disorder is caused by a decreased level or absence of pituitary hormones, possibly due to infarct.

What modalities would be helpful in diagnosing hypopituitarism?

This disease is caused by hypersecretion of glucocorticoids.

Cushing's syndrome is a type of :

This disease causes the patient's face to become moon shaped with excess fat deposits in neck and trunk of body.

With this disease females have male tendencies due to increased production of androgens.

This disease is a primary adrenal insufficiency and usually results from autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex.

What is the treatment of Addison's disease?

Elevated ACTH and inadequate corticosteroid synthesis occurs in:

What type of diabetes is associated with chronic hyperglycemia and glucose intolerance changing metabolism of carbohyydrates, fats and proteins?

What type of diabetes causes autoimmune destruction of pancreatic B cells, producing little or no insulin?

What type of diabetes causes insulin resistance?

What type of diabetes is one of the most common childhood diseases?

With which type of diabetes is ketoacidosis a common complication?

What is the treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus?

With which type of diabetes does the risk of development increase with age?

Which type of diabetes is associated with obesity and inactivity?

Which type of diabetes occurs as result of altered cellular metabolism?

What causes hyperthyroidism?

In which disease does the body create atibodies countering thyroid TSH receptor causing thyroid to secrete excessive amounts?

What type of thyroid disorder is life threatening?

What disease is commonly seen in patients with autoimmune thyroiditis?

What is Hashimoto's disease?

What disease could be iatrogenic resulting from treatment of goiter with radioactive iodine therapy or surgery or caused by iodine deficiency?

In which endocrine disease would you see a slow progression of decreased energy, cold interolerance, personality change and slight weight gain.

What is the treatment for hypothyroidism?

The term hyperparathyroidism refers to:

Which thyroid disease may result in nephrocalcinosis?

Which thyroid disease may be characterized by small deposits of calcium phosphate dispersed in renal parenchyma?

What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism?

Which thyroid disease will be indicated by high serum calcium levels?

Hyperthyroidism is most commonly caused by :

Upper GI: The stomach appears blotchy within the barium filled areas, what may cause this?

Upper GI: If the air filled fundus is overexposed, preventing demonstration of abnormalities, what was the error?

During an upper GI you notice that the stomach is foreshortened and compressed, what can you do to correct this?

List the seven major components of the alimentary canal.

List the four accessory organs of digestion.

What are the primary functions of the digestive system?

What two terms refer to a radiographic examination of the pharynx and esophagus?

Which term describes the radiographic study of the distal esophagus, stomach and duodenum?

What three pairs of salivary glands are accessory organs of digestion associated with the mouth?

What is the act of swallowing called?

List the three divisions of the pharynx.

What two structures create the two indentations seen along the lateral border of the esophagus?

List the three structures that pass through the diaphragm.

What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for ulcers?

What term describes the junction between the duodenum and the jejunum?

True or false. The c-loop of the duodenum and pancreas are retroperitoneal structures.

True or false. The body of the stomach curves inferiorly and posteriorly from the fundus.

Name the three main divisions of the stomach.

Which two structures form the "romance of the abdomen"?

True or false. Mechanical digestion includes movements of all the GI tract.

True or false. Peristaltic activity is not found in the pharynx.

What are stomach contents called once they are churned into a semifluid mass?

What is the churning or mixing activity present in the small bowel called?

List the three classes of substances that are ingested and need to be chemically digested.

What are the biological catalysts that speed up the process of digestion?

List the end products of digestion for carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

What is the name of the liquid substance that aids in digestion and is manufactured in the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

Absorption of nutrients primarily takes place in the ______, although some substances are absorbed through the lining of the ________.

__________ is a substance that is not an enzyme but serves to emulsify fats.

Of the three primary food substances, the digestion of which one begins in the mouth?

Any residues of digestion or unavsorbed digestive products are eliminated from the ___________.

Peristalsis is an example of which type of digestion?

What body habitus would have a high and transverse stomach?

What body habitus would have a J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen with the duodenal bulb at the level of L3-L4?

On the average, how much will the abdominal organs drop in the erect position?

Name the two abdominal organs most dramatically effected by body habitus?

Would the fundus be more superior or more inferior when one takes a deep breath? Why?

What types of mechanical digestion and/or movement occur in the oral cavity?

What types of mechanical digestion and/or movement occur in the pharynx?

What types of mechanical digestion and/or movement occur in the esophagus?

What types of mechanical digestion and/or movement occur in the stomach?

What types of mechanical digestion and/or movement occur in the small intestine?

What is another term for a negative contrast medium?

What is another name for a positive contrast medium?

What substance is most commonly ingested to produce carbon dioxide gas as a negative contrast medium for GI studies?

What is the ratio of barium to water for a thin barium mixture?

What is the chemical symbol for barium sulfate?

What is the term for the speed with which barium passes through the GI tract?

What is the purpose of the gas with a double contrast study of the GI tract?

For photospot or cine images, such as recorded on a 105-mm film, what side of the image intensifier are the images taken from?

For conventional spot film images on 8x10 cassettes, what side of the image intensifier are the images taken from?

Do photospot or cine images (taken from the output side), or conventional spot film images (taken from the input side) have a brighter image?

How many times brighter is the fluoroscopic image when enhanced or brightened by the image intensifier?

What device, found beneath the table, greatly reduces the exposure to the technologist from the fluoro tube?

What is the major benefit of using a compression paddle during an upper GI?

List six advantages or unique features and capabilities of digital fluoro over conventional.

What is another term that describes intermittent "road mapping" when used in digital fluoro?

What is difficulty swallowing also referred to as?

What is it called when there is replacement of normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium?

What is it called when there is large outpouching of the esophagus?

Cardiospasm is also referred to as ____________.

What is the most common form of adenocarcinoma?

What is it called when there is blood in the vomit?

What is it called when there is inflammation in the lining of the stomach?

What is blind outpouching of the mucosal wall called?

What is it called when undigested material gets trapped in the stomach?

What is synonymous with gastric or duodenal ulcer?

eWhat is it called when a portion of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragmatic opening?

Only 5% of ulcers lead to _____________.

Double-contrast upper GI is the golden standard for diagnosing __________.

Its presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia.

What pathologic condition appears as speckled gastric mucosa?

What pathologic condition appears as a worm-like esophagus?

What is it called when there is a stricture of the esophagus?

What may irregular filling of the diaphragm indicate?

What may an enlarged recess in the proximal esophagus indicate?

What may a "lucent-halo" sign during an upper GI indicate?

Wavelike involuntary contractions that help propel food down the esophagus are called:

True or false. If a patient exhibits itching, sneezing and tearing of the eyes with no other symptoms, during an UGI, they are most likely having a severe reaction to a contrast media.

The distal esophagus empties its contents into which of the following?

Which opening is located between the stomach and the small intestines?

What is the position? 10x12 IR lengthwise, patient prone and rotated 40-70 degrees into a right anterior oblique position. CR is perpendicular and centered to the level of approximately L2 and midway between the spine and lateral border of the elevated side.

True or false. The entrance and exits of the stomach are called the cardiac and pyloric orificices, respectively.

For the double-contrast UGI examination with the patient recumbent, which projection produces the best image of the gas-filled fundus?

True or false. The abdominal portion of the esophagus is called the cardiac orifice.

14x17 IR lengthwise, patient prone and rotated 35-40 degrees into the right anterior oblique position, with the CR directed perpendicular to the level of T5-6, respiration suspended on expiration."

Which two oblique positions can be used to best demonstrate an unobstructed image of a barium-filled esophagus between the vertebrae and the heart?

To which level of the patient should the CR be directed for the right PA oblique projection (RAO position) as part of the UGI examination?

For the UGI examination with the patient recumbent, which projection best demonstrates the right retrogastric space?

True or false. The duodenum is the last segment of the stomach.

Which breathing procedure should the patient perform when the UGI radiographs are performed?

What is the name of the condition that results from a viral infection of the parotid gland?

True or false. The abdominal portion of the esophagus lies beneath the diaphragm.

With the body in a supine position, air will fill which portion of the stomach?

The distal esophagus empties its contents into the ________.

Name the salivary glands.

What is another term for esophagram?

What is the opening between the stomach and small intestines?

What is the most inferior part of the stomach?

The medial margin of the stomach is called the ______.

10x12 IR lengthwise, patient prone and rotated 40-70 degrees into a right anterior oblique position. CR is perpendicular and centered to the level of approximately L2 and midway between the spine and lateral border of the elevated side."

The greater curvature of the stomach is on which side?

True or false. The entrance and exit of the stomach are called the cardiac and pyloric orifices?

For the double-contrast UGI examination with the patient recumbent, which projection produces the best image of the gas-filled fundus?

Which area is the most superior part of the stomach?

True or false. The abdominal portion of the esophagus is called the cardiac orifice.

14x17 IR lengthwise, patient prone and rotated 35-40 degrees into the right anterior oblique position, with the CR directed perpendicular to the level of T5-6, respiration suspended on expiration."

List the stomach anatomy from inferior to superior.

Which two oblique positions can be used to best demonstrate an unobstructed image of a barium-filled esophagus between the vertebrae and the heart?

Which aspect of the stomach will fill with air when the patient is prone?

For the AP projection as part of the UGI examination, why should the lower lung fields be included on the image receptor?

To which level of the patient should the CR be directed for the right PA oblique projection (RAO position) as part of the UGI examination?

For the UGI examination with the patient recumbent, which projection best demonstrates the right retrogastric space?

What are the gastric folds of the stomach called?

Which breathing procedure should the patient perform when the UGI radiographs are performed?

For the double-contrast UGI examination, which projection produces the best image of a gas-filled duodenal bulb and pyloric canal?

With the body in an erect position, air will fill which portion of the stomach?

With the body in a prone position, air will fill which portion of the stomach?

What is the name of the condition that results from a viral infection of the parotid gland?

With the body supine, air will fill which portion of the stomach?

True or false. Follicular cysts in the ovaries commonly develop as a normal part of the menstrual cycle.

What are indications for a hysterosalpingogram?

Females are born with about 1 million "eggs". They do not produce additional eggs or ova during their lifetime. At the time of puberty girls generally have about _________ remaining.

Ther term used to describe an unfertilized ova going through neoplastic changes is:

Benign breast tumors are most commonly found in:

Breast tissue goes through changes as women age. This change takes breast from dense fibroglandular to adipose tissues. This process is called:

A cancer of abnormal growth of epithelial cells, associated with human papillary virus, in female reproductive system which is often is identified in a pap smear is:

Which neoplastic condition is characterized as being a benign, solid mass influenced by estrogen?

Malignant breast tumors are most commonly found in:

Which of the following terms describes a duplication of uterus?

That diagnostic procedure used to measure distance between ishial spines (pelvic outlet) and compare information with measurements taken of fetal head is:

The absence of menstrual cycle is called:

Radiologists studying mammograms will often look for clusters of calcifications because calcifications will occur in _____% of malignant lesions.

When an embryo develops within the uterine tube it is called:

True or false. Patient dose in mammography has been significantly reduced (cut in half) with the use of digital imaging.

Stein-Leventhal syndrome is often associated with:

True or false. Malignant breast tumors are dense and stellate?

Normal uterine tissue located outside the uterus is called:

What can predispose a woman to cervical cancer?

Fertilization of the ova takes place in:

What types of bacteria can cause PID?

Termination of a hystersalpingogram is dependent on:

That imaging modality which best differentiates between cystic or solid lesions is:

Mastitis is an infection of the breast most commonly associated with what type of bacteria:

This type of malignant ovarian tumor "seeds" cancer cells along peritoneal surfaces and so spreads throughout the abdomen.

Which factors aids in the reduction of patient exposure during mammography?

When a lack of uterine support is present, a device is insterted into the vagina to provide support. Name the device.

What does gravid mean?

In a normal woman the fundus of the uterus lies anterior to the crevis and away from the rectum. This is ___________.

If the uterus is more vertical than normal it is said to be __________.

If the juterus is completely bent back and lies against the rectosigmoid colon, it is said to be ____________.

If the uterus is tilted vertically forward and lies on top of the bladder it is said to be ____________.

Inflammation of the breast is called:

_____________ result fro faulty reabsorption of the fluid from incompletely developed follicles.

__________ occur when resorption of any blood leaked into the cavity after ovulation leaves behind a small cyst.

Enlarged ovaries containing multiple small cysts are called:

The most lethal gynecologic malignancy is:

____________ is a malignant tumor of the ovary, accounting for more than 60% of all ovarian cancers.

Another name for cervical carcinoma is:

__________ is a common malignancy caused by an abnormal growth pattern of epithelial cells around the neck of the uterus.

___________ are benign solid masses of the uterus that develop from an overgrowth of the uterine smooth muscle tissue.

After menopause, leiomyomas are replaced largely by scar tissue, leading to the misnomer:

The most common malignancy of the uterus is:

Benign breast tumors that are usually unilateral and consist of solid, well defined mass that does not invade surrounding tissue is:

______ is formed by an overgrowth of fibrous and glandular tissue.

An overgrowth of fibrous tissue or cystic hyperplasia results in:

____________ is when there is too much amniotic fluid present.

_____________ is when there is not enough amniotic fluid present.

___________ is when an embryo develops outside the uterine cavity.

What is it called when the implantation of the placenta leaves all or part of the cervical os covered?

When a placenta prematurely separates from the uterus it is called:

___________ is a condition in which the placenta extends into the myometrium, causing an unduly firm attachment that bleeds at delivery because it does not separate normally.

What is a hydatidiform mole?

What are contraindications for a hysterosalpingogram?

What is a sonohystogram?

During the menstrual cycle the ________ enlarges.

What is bicornuate uterus?

What is unicornuate uterus?

What is uterine didelphys?

What is PID?

Mastitis is a bacterial infection usually caused by ____________ bacteria.

Follicular and corpus luteum cysts are examples of :

What type of cysts are common and a normal part of menstrual cycle?

What is the treatment for endometriosis?

What is Stein-Leventhal syndrome?

What pathology is associated with Stein-Leventhal syndrome?

What is the treatment for polycystic ovaries?

Polycystic ovaries may lead to:

What is the treatment for teratomas?

Unfertalized ova that go through neoplastic change form:

What type of malignancy accounts for more than 75% of all ovarian cancers?

What are risk factors for cystadenocarcinoma?

What is the treatment for cystadenocarcinoma?

Metastasis to abdominal structures is common in which ovarian pathology?

What is the prognosis for cystadenomacarcinoma?

Solid tissue invading the outside of the ovary presents in which pathology?

This malignancy is caused by abnormal growth of epithelial cells.

This pathology is tied to hormonal changes in aging women.

What is the treatment for endometrial cancer?

This pathology is caused by overgrowth of uterine smooth muscle tissue.

What sized focal spot is used in mammo?

What type of female reproductive pathology is influenced by estrogen?

What type of breast tumor is estrogen dependent?

What are risk factors for fibrocystic breasts?

Why do hydatidiform moles form?

What is the primary female reproductive organ?

What does the corpus luteum do?

XX are chromosomes indicating a __________ whereas XY indicates a __________.

The majority of blood is composed of:

Bilirubin is formed during the destruction of:

Which cells are most important in the development of immunity?

What is the most common pulmonary complication resulting from AIDS?

True or false. Kaposi's sarcoma may effect the GI system, lymph nodes as well as the skin.

Kaposi's sarcoma is linked to:

Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of the :

Acute lymphocytic leukemia predominantly effects:

Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with what type of neoplastic disease?

Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma affects what type of blood cells?

Plasma makes up __% of total blood volume.

Water makes up __% of total blood volume

Immune globulins are synthesized by:

What type of plasma proteins are responsible for fighting infectious agents?

What type of plasma proteins regulate the passage of water and solutes through capillaries?

Albumins are synthesized by:

Clotting factor plasma proteins are synthesized by:

_________ is a precursor to fibrin clot.

What is the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau?

What are the types of blood cells?

The hemopoietic system consists of:

Red blood cells are also known as:

__________ cells transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Erythrocytes live how long?

What type of cells carry the antigen that determines blood type?

Clumping of blood after transfusion of incompatible blood type is also known as:

What is the life span of a granular leukocyte?

What is the life span of a non-granular leukocyte?

What makes up 45% of the total blood count?

What type of cells are formed by the myeloid tissue w/in red bone marrow?

What type of cells are formed by red bone marrow?

What type of cells are formed by lymphatic tissue?

What blood cells transport oxygen and carbon dioxide?

What type of cells serve as the body defense?

What type of cells act as the immunity cells?

What type of cells serve as blood clotting cells?

What is the life span of a thrombocyte?

What does hematocrit test?

Erythrocytes are formed by specialized cells called:

Erythrocytes are phagocytosed by which system?

__% of the human population has the Rh factor.

_____________ is a neoplastic disease of the plasma cells that results in cell proliferation.

_______ are non nucleate biconcave disks.

_______ include basophils, neutrophils and eosinophils.

What is the function of a basophil?

What is the function of neutrophils?

What is the function of eosinophils?

_________ consist of lymphocytes and monocytes.

What is the function of lymphocytes?

What is the function of monocytes?

In which blood cells does the activation of thrombin occur?

Platelets are also known as:

There is an increase in production of ____________ cells with inflammation.

____________ is released from damaged endothelium during vessel trauma.

During clotting, enzymes transform __________ to ____________.

__________ is also a powerful stimulus for platelet activation and aggregation.

_________ converts fibrinogen into fibrin.

_________ also has vasomotor effects.

How do bruises form and change?

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

How does lymph move?

What is the lymphatic comprised of?

Lymphatic ducts drain into :

The right lymphatic duct drains the:

T Lymphocytes are from the:

B lymphocytes are from the:

Immunoglobulin is produced by:

__________ attacks antigens.

What causes lymph edema?

What is the function of the spleen?

Plasma cells are mature _________.

Blood for the spleen comes from the ___________ and empties into the _________.

True or false. Skeletal imaging may visualize multiple myeloma or leukemia.

True or false. CT allows lymph node assessment.

True or false. MRI images bone marrow changes.

What type of contrast is used for lymphangiography?

What is a contraindication for lymphangiography?

Each erythrocyte contains _____ molecules of hemoglobin.

What is anemia?

What is hemoglobin?

Cell destruction is also known as:

Decreased hemoglobin (anemia) is caused by:

Iron deficiency anemia is caused by:

What is hemolytic anemia?

What may cause hemolytic anemia?

What are the different types of hemolytic anemia?

What types of cells are rapidly dividing and therefore radiosensitive?

What is the difference between somatic and embryonic cells?

What is spherocytic anemia?

What is the treatment for spherocytic anemia?

What is sickle cell anemia?

What is the treatment for sickle cell anemia?

What is a radiographic pathology linked to sickle cell anemia?

What is it called when an Rh negative mother gives birth to a second Rh positive child and the body creates antibodies?

What is injected for a post partum mother to prevent fetal hemolytic complications?

Intracranial lesions are most common in what type of anemia?

What causes Thalassemia?

What is thalassemia?

What is "blue blood disease"?

What inflammatory disease may be linked to the Epstein-Barr virus?

What will blood tests show if a patient has mono?

Radiographically demonstrating osteoporosis with osteolytic regions, ____________ most often disrupts kidney function due to increased protein production.

Immunoglobulins are:

Antigens (like the A or B factors used in blood typing) are:

During which pathology do deoxygenated erythrocytes loose their normal shape and creating focal ischemia?

What are treatment options for lymphedema?

Hemoglobin is carried by which cells?

Lymphocytes are identified by their site of maturation as either B lymphocytes or T lymphocytes. T lymphocytes mature in:

Identify pathology(s) which demonstrate radiographically as cystic or necrosed boney intrusion.

True or false. During lymphangiography, blue dye injected between the toes is visualized on immediate radiographs.

Purpura refers to:

Rh negative mothers may create unsafe environment in subsequent pregnancies after delivering a Rh positive baby, because:

Blood typing identifies the universal donor as:

Edema in the right lower extremity is probably a result of obstruction of the _______ lymphatic duct.

Lymph flows throught the lymphatic vessels, propelled by:

Patients suffering from malaria also exhibit symptoms of _______ anemia.

Which of the following are directly related to the Rh factors of mother and fetus?

The infective agent responsible for malaria is:

Which of the following Leukemia most often strike with children with a sudden onset?

Which cell is the most important in development of immunity?

Of the lymphomas, which pathology is generally associated with increased mesentery involvement?

That hereditary pathology which visualized dramatically on radiographs with spicules under periosteum and widening of the meduclaay spaces is:

The most common cause of bleeding disorders is

Lymph is returned into the circulatory system as these vessels empty into:

Which Leukocyte is responsible for secreting histamines and dilating blood vessels?

In which anomaly does the red blood cell have a rounded, circular shape:

Iron deficiency anemia may result from:

_________ is characteristized by increased production of myelocytes and decreased production of erythrocytes and platelets.

True or false. The primary difference between adult stem cells and embryonic stem cells is that adult stem cells are limited to creating cells tissue specific to the parent cell, where embryonic stem cells can become any type of cell in the body.

Plasma composes about ____% of the total blood volume.

Leukocytes are classified as granular and nongranular based on where they mature. Granular leukocytes mature in:

Which blood cell is best described by; formed in myeloid tissue, carrying antigens determining blood type:

Which is the most common malignancy is AIDS patients?

Identify that condition commonly considered autoimmune or viral which leads to deficiency in platelets:

Which of the following is considered a self limiting viral infection (possibly linked to Epstein-Barr), diagnosed with elevated white cell count and antibody identification?

True or false. In AIDS patients the human immunodeficiency virus is the organism which proves fatal for the large majority of patients.

What neoplasm causes an overproduction of white blood cells?

What are the two types of lymphoma?

True or false. Hodgkin's disease involves the mesentery.

What is the treatment for lymphoma?

What is the treatment for thrombocytopenia?

What is the cause of thrombocytopenia?

What is the treatment for leukemia?

cyst means :

Which veins makeup the hepatic portal system?

During an ERCP, what causes the biliary tree to have a curly appearance?

The right and left hepatic duct come together to form the ________.

The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct come together to form the ________.

The pancreatic duct is also known as the :

The pancreatic duct and the common bile duct join at the :

The hepatopancreatic ampulla is also known as the :

The hepatopancreatic sphicter is also known as the :

The duodenal papilla is also known as the:

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

What is the modality of choice for gallbladder and biliary tree visualization?

Radiopaque stones consist of :

Radiolucent stones consist of :

What quadrant is the liver located?

What vessels supply blood to the liver?

What are the functions of the liver?

The gallbladder is found under what lobe of the liver?

Bile release is triggered by :

The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct come together to form the:

What is the function of the gallbladder?

Where is the pancreas located?

During an oral cholecystogram, we can proceed to step two if:

What is step two of an oral cholecystogram?

What is the failure rate of an oral cholecystogram?

Why would a patient fail an oral cholecystogram?

Medical jaundice is caused by:

Surgical jaundice is caused by:

PTC best images:

What therapeutic options are available during a PTC?

What is an ERCP?

What therapeutic options are available during an ERCP?

During operative cholangiography, where is the needle inserted?

During what procedure may a T-Tube be placed for drainage?

Sonography can demonstrate lesions in the liver greater than :

True or false. CT is used for follow up and staging of liver masses.

The leading cause of death is cirrhosis in people ages :

How will shunts divert blood from the liver?

What does thrombose mean?

What causes ground glass appearance on an abdomen xray?

What is viral hepatitis?

What is hepatitis A?

What is hepatitis B?

What is hepatitis C?

What is hepatomegaly?

Only ___ percent of gallstones have enough calcium to visualize on xray.

What view best seperates the kidney and gallbladder for better visualization?

What is cholelithiasis?

What is gallstone ileus?

What would a porcelin gallbladder indicate?

What enzyme causes autodigestion of the pancreas?

Trypsin may begin to autodigest if:

What is a hemangioma?

What is another name for hepatocellular adenoma?

Liver carcinoma is caused by:

What is the most common malignant tumor of the liver?

What is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?

60% of pancreatic cancer is found :

Why would a transhepatic chole be performed for pancreatic cancer?

What is a pancreatic pseudocyst?

What is the best exam to visualize a pneumoperitoneum?

Why is a pneumoperitoneum better visualized on the right side?

What does iatrogenic mean?

If the patient is not able to stand, what image would best demonstrate a pneumoperitoneum?

What does TIPSS stand for?

What is chemoembolization?

Which is the most common malignant tumor of the liver?

Bile drains from the gallbladder directly into the:

Evaluation of pancreatic disease is best accomplished by contrast administered:

The introduction of electrical current within a tumor to destroy those cells is called:

The endocrine function of the pancreas is to produce:

A common tumor of the liver which is a collection of blood vessels within a well circumscribed area is called:

In patients suffering from jaundice the yellow pigmentation of the skin and whites of the eyes are a result of:

Emphysematous gallbladder is directly related to

A primary malignant tumor of the liver seen as a single large mass originating from liver parenchyma is:

We know that 25% of oral cholecystograms do not visualize in the first attempt. Identify all possible reasons listed for nonvisualization:

What patient position would best distinguish kidney stones from gallbladder stones?

Alcohol abuse was indicated as a contributing factor in all of the following except one; identify the one condition / pathology which is not alcohol related.

Which of the following procedures is not a likely theraputic option in ERCP?

That type of jaundice resulting from stone or mass obstruction is called

What percentage of gall stones contain enough calcium to be visible on plain abdominal imaging?

When normal hepatic parenchyma is being replaced with fibrous (scar) tissue a condition known as ___________ exists.

Studies focusing on the form or function of the gallbladder or biliary tree are named according to:

That term used to identify an abnormal fluid accumulation in the abdomen is,

Of those viral agents that cause hepatitis, which agent is contracted by ingestion?

The release of bile into the duodemun is triggered by:

Identify that procedure which would not offer theraputic intervention as well as diagnosis.

Gallstone ileus refers to impaction of a gallstone in the:

85% of primary gallbladder cancers are:

When would the high fatty meal, the second step in a oral cholecystogram be contraindicated?

Your patient history reads "suspected pneumoperitoneum". As you further evaluate your patient you notice that they are quadraplegic. What position will be preferred to demonstrate this condition if present?

Esophageal varicies can be directly related to:

That inflammatory process initiated by trypsin digesting tissues is:

True or false. Pancreatitis may be an iatrogenic response to an ERCP.

Identify that term which does not relate to the pancreas

glucagon acts as an antagonist to _______

Another name for the anatomy which regulates release of bile from the biliary tree into duodemun is:

Gallstones are a common finding in carcinoma of the gallbladder, occuring in about _____of identified cancers.

When were the first medical xrays done in the US?

Who was the first person to die of exposure to man-made radiation?

The cathode end of the tube carries a ________ electrical charge.

The source of the projectile electrons used in making xrays is the _________.

What is the type of radiation that is produced when a projectile electron passes near the nucleus of a target atom and sheds it's kinetic energy in the form of a photon?

Who invented and refined fluoroscopy?

The anode end of the tube carries an overall _________ electrical charge.

Electrons have an overall __________ electrical charge.

The tungsten atom has only ___ electrons in its K Shell.

What are the two currents that pass through an xray tube?

On the xray emission spectrum, the energy of the xray beam is measured in _____.

The space charge produced when you rotor up an xray tube is limited in size. This limiting factor is known as __________.

The area on the target where most of the projectile electrons strike the target anode is known as the __________.

True or false. Thermionic emission takes place on the anode target of the xray tube.

By placing an angle on the target anode, we can have a larger actual focal spot and still maintain a smaller effective focal spot. This is known as the ___________.

The anode heel effect is a consequence of the ___________.

What events must be completed before the exposure process can continue by pressing the second part of the exposure switch?

The heat units produced by a single-phase machine can be computed by which equation?

The controlling factor for beam quality is kVp. KVp is also a controlling factor for beam quantity because when kVp is increased then :

The US government states that all xray machines capable of 70 kVp or higher must have a total filtration of _______.

The process in which some xrays are transmitted and some are absorbed is called ___________.

What is it called when the portion of the beam that isn't transmitted is either absorbed or scattered?

The type of scatter radiation that seldom exits the body is ________.

The type of scatter radiation that is secondary radiation produced by an interaction between a photon and an inner shell electron is __________.

If you are standing 2 feet from a patient that is being exposed to radiation and you step back 2 more feet so that you are 4 feet from the patient, how will this affect your exposure to the scatter radiation?

True or false. Photoelectric interactions are non-ionizing interactions and are not a risk to the patient.

If an orbiting electron moves into another shell closer to the nucleus, the result is ____________.

What is the type of radiation that is a risk to both the patient and anyone else in the proximity?

The part of an intensification tube in which the light photons are converted to photoelectrons is known as ____________.

Define ionization of an atom.

The end of the image intensification tube that is closest to the patient is the ___________.

The part of the intensification tube that has a small 1" screen where the image is reproduced is called the _____________.

True or false. Decreasing OID will increase detail.

What has the most detrimental effect on the detail of an image?

True or false. Increasing the SID will increase detail.

If you know that size of the image of an object and the magnification factor you can compute the actual size of the object with what equation?

Geometric unsharpness is a result of the relationship between SID, OID and _________.

True or false. All radiographs have some distortion because of the divergence of the beam.

What equation is used to measure the magnification of an object created by the OID?

As SID increases, focal spot blur __________.

What type of distortion occurs when the body part is not parallel to the IR?

What type of distortion occurs when the body part is parallel to the IR and the tube is angled?

How are grid ratios determined?

The system used to automatically collimate the beam and lightfield to the cassette in a bucky tray is called _________________.

The bucky factor for a grid with a 12:1 ratio is ______.

Grids are employed when the body part thickness is greater than _________.

True or false. A parallel grid used upside down will create grid cut-off.

When using an air gap technique, increasing the OID also will _______________.

How is a focused grid different than a parallel grid?

What does DICOM stand for?

The post processing technique that removes superimposed structures so that the anatomic area of interest is more visible is known as ____________.

What was the first imaging modality to become digital?

True or false. A CRT monitor with 525 lines of resolution is well suited for viewing xrays.

Spectral matching of film and screen refers to the ___________.

Changing from a 400 speed screen to a 200 speed screen requires ________________.

Changin from a 400 speed screen to a 100 speed screen requires _____________.

If you made an exposure using 10 mAs with a 400 speed screen, what would your mAs be if you made that same exposure using a 100 speed screen?

What film/screen combination would require the highest mAs?

An artifact inside the cassette between the screen and the film will create ____________.

True or false. The resolution created by good film to screen contact can be evaluated by doing a wire mesh screen test.

Using a detail cassette with the AEC unit will result in ___________.

When changing from a detail screen to a high speed screen, the mAs should be _____________.

Define spatial resolution.

The production of light during the stimulation of the phosphors is _________.

The continuation of light emission after the stimulation of phosphors is _____________.

If a film comes out of the processor with a milky appearance over the image, the reason is most likely :

True or false. An increase in density on films being run through a processor can be caused by the transport rollers running too fast.

Inadequate washing of film during processing will result in the films ____________.

The reducing agents in a processor are found in the ____________.

The purpose of the restrainer in the processor is to do what?

What is superadditivity?

Unexposed silver halide crystals are removed from the emulsion in the _________ tank.

Stacking film boxes on one another can cause _________.

The active ingredient found in the fixer that halts the developing process is _________.

Developer has what type of base?

True or false. The most common type of replenishment system found in processors used in busy hospitals is the flood replenishment.

If your films come out of the dryer most and tacky it is because ___________.

The time it takes for a processor to pass a film through from start to finish is refered to as _________.

Define the half value layer

The type of scatter that is predominant about 75 kVp is __________.

The type of scatter radiation that is produced when an incident photon interacts with an outer shell electron, sheds enough energy to remove that electron from it's orbit and then continues on in a different direction minus the energy it lost during the interaction is ___________.

The natural filtration created by the glass and oil between the focal spot and the patient is _____________.

THe area on the target that is seen from viewing into the port of the tube and is angled to increase resolution is know as the ____________.

The current that is responsible for thermionic emission is the ___________.

The current that is utilized to send the projectile electrons from cathode to anode is the ____________.

In order to keep the projectile electrons in a small area before completing an exposure the focusing cup will exhibit a _________ charge.

By placing an angle on the target anode, we can have a larger actual focal spot and still maintain a smaller effective focal spot. This is also known as :

Making a visible change in radiographic density requires that the minimum amount of change in mAs must be approximately __________.

180 cm is the same as ____ inches.

The rectification number for computing heat units when operatin a three phase six pulse xray machine is ______.

The type of xray interaction that happens when a projectile electron collides with an inner K-Shell electron, dislodges it from its orbit, and a photon is produced when an outer shell electron falls into the void is called ___________.

The type of xray generator that turned the beam on and off 60 times per second is called ___________.

In order to produce characteristic radiation your kVp setting must be at least _______.

If your beam is 100% Bremsstruhlung radiation, that means that your kVp setting is no greater than ______.

What is the primary controlling factor for beam quantity?

True or false. Although mAs is the measurement of the quantity of photons produced during an exposure, increasing the kVp will also increase this quantity.

What are the three most important characteristics of a radiographic film?

Most film cassettes should be replaced every how many years?

What are halide crystals mainly composed of?