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431 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
in adults, water is __% of weight for women, __% for men of the body
50, 60
why do women have less body water than men?
because they have more fat which is least hydrated
why do men have more body water than women
they have more muscle skeletal muscle is 65% water
infants are __% or more water
73
older adults are __% water because__
45, less skeletal muscle
fluid in cells; 60-66% of fluid
intracellular fluid compartment (ICF)
30-40%; body's internal environment
extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)
fluid portion of the blood
plasma
fluid between tissue cells
interstitial fluid
plasma, interstitial fluid, lymph, CSF, eye humors, synovial fluid, serous fluid, GI secretions make up __
extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)
have mainly covalent bonds that prevent dissociation in water and they therefore have no electrical charge; organic molecules like glucose, lipids, creatinine, urea
nonelectrolytes
primarily inorganic salts; inorganic and organic acids and bases, some proteins
electrolytes
electrolytes have more osmotic power because of __
dissociation
measure of electrolyte concentrations of body fluids
milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L)
ICF has more __ than ECF
K+, HPO4^-2, MG^2+
ECF has more __
Na+, Cl-
maintains the concentration gradients of ECF and ICF
sodium-potassium pump
__ controls movement of fluids between compartments
osmotic and hydrostatic pressures
molecular size, charge and need for active transport limits __ but not water
solute movments
__ exchanges across capillaries (hydrostatic forces out and colloid osmotic pressure pulls back in)
plasma-interstital fluid
__ exchanges rely on selectively permeable membranes of cells; ions are restricted by AT while nutrients, gases, wastes move in one direction
intracellular-interstitial
fluid volumes may change, but __ remain constant between ECF and ICF because water moves freely
osmolarities
daily water intake is generally __ mL/day
2500
__% of your water come from liquids
60
__% of water comes form food
30
__% of water is produced by cellular metabolism (metabolic water or water of oxidation
10
__% of water vaporizes from lungs or diffuses through the skin (insensible water loss)
28
__% of water vaporizes form perspiration
8
__% of water is lost in feces
4
__% of water is lost through the kidneys
60
increase in __ causes thirst and ADH release
plasma osmolarity
the thirst mechanism is not well __
understood
a decrease in plasma volume of __% or more or increase in osmolarity by __% stimulates thirst center in the hypothalamus
10, 1-2
not controllable; insensible and sensible water loss
obligatory water loses
the kidneys must excrete __ mosm of solutes to maintain blood homeostasis and must remove them in water
900-1200
water output is primarily regulated by __ concentration because of obligatory osmolarity
sodium ion
when water loss exceeds intake (due to hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, diuretics, lack of intake, or diabetes)
dehydration
cellular overhydration or water intoxication
hypotonic hydration
to reverse hypotonic hydration, __ or __ is infused
hypertonic saline, mannitol
accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces.
edema
increased BP, hydrostatic pressure due to bad valves, vessel blockage, hypertension, heart failure, and high blood volume cause __
edema
__ and __ compose 90-95% of all solutes in ECF; 280 mosm; 142 mEq Na in ECF
NaCl, NaHCO3
__ drive osmotic pressure
solutes
the membrane is nearly impermeable but some electorlytes diffuse in and are pumped out which controls __ and __
ECF volume and water distribution
large volumes move __ between body secretions and ECF (digestive secretions, bile, saliva)
back and forth
__% of sodium in renal filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT and __% in the loop even without aldosterone
65, 25
with __, virtually all CaCl reabsorbed actively in DCT and collecting ducts; water usually follows ,but sodium-free urine can be eliminated to maintain water balance
aldosterone
without __, there is no absorption beyond the loop of Henle; this ALWAYS results in the excretion of __
aldosteorne, water
the __ triggers aldosterone
renin-angiotensin mechanism of JG cells
caused by hypoaldosteronism; lose much salt and water
addisons disease
senses whenGFR rises due to blood volume rise; this phenomenon resluts in sodium and water output and vice versa
cardiovascular baraoreceptors
hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect ECF concentration
ADH
low sodium will inhibit __
ADH
an excess or deficit of __ can be fatal due to effects on the heart
potassium
part of the buffer system, hydrogen ions shifts cause corresponding __ shift in the opposite direction
potassium
__% of potassium is reabsorbed in teh __
90, cortical collecting duct
__% of potassium is lost in urine
10
the potassium balance is controlled by the amount __ into filtrate by cortical collecting ducts
secreted
potassium levels are usually __ and are secreted
high
__ causes potassium secretion
aldosterone
the __ controls the secretions of potassium
plasma potassium
potassium secretion goes alongside __ for electrolyte balance
sodium reabsorption
high potassium stimulates the __ to release aldosterone
adrenal cortex
99% of __ is stored in bones
calcium
calcium in the blood is necesary for __, __, and __
blood clotting, cell membrane permeability, secretory behavior
__ strongly influences neuromuscular excitability
calcium
hypocalcemia increases __ and cuases __
excitability, tetany
hypercalcemia inhibits __
neurons and muscle
__ and __ control calcium levels
PTH, calcitonin
__% of calcium is reabsorbed
98
low plasma calcium stimulates __ release
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
PTH activates __
osteoclasts
__ causes increased absorption of calcium by stimulating the kidneys to transform vitamin D to active form necessary for calcium absorption
PTH
__ causes calcium reabsoption by the renal tubules
PTH
__ is released due to high blood calcium
calcitonin
__ causes calcium salt deposition in bone and inhibits osteoclasts
calitonin
calitonin plays a __ role compared to PTH
minor
blood has a pH of __
7.4
ICF has a pH of __ due to acidic metabolites and CO2
7.0
condition where arterial pH is >7.45
alkalosis
condition where arterial pH is <7.35
acidosis
physiogical acidosis is where the pH is __
7.0-7.45
hydrogen ion sources
-phosphoric acid
-lactic acid (anerobic respiration)
-fatty acids and ketone bodies (fat breakdown)
-CO2 releases hydrogen ions via carbonic acid
CO2 releases hydrogen ions via __
carbonic acid
chemical buffer systems help to __
neutralize acids/bases
what are two sites that help regulate acid-base balance?
respiratory center in the brain stem, renal system
how does the respiratory center in the brain stem regulate pH?
by regulating CO2 and therefore H+
how does the renal system regulate pH?
it excretes or retains H+ ions
strong acids dissociate completely and liberate __ while weak acids __ but can prevent pH changes
H+, partially dissociate
__ are proton acceptors
bases
one or two molecules that prevent H+ concentration changes by binding H+ or releasing them
chemical acid-base buffers
the main chemical acid-base buffer systems in the body
-bicarbonate
-phosphate
-protein
components are carbonic acid and its salt, sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
bicarbonate buffer system
the __ buffer system is the only ECF buffer
bicarbonate
HCL (strong acid) + NaHCO3 (weak base)---->H2CO3 (weak acid) + NaCl (salt); NaOh (strong base) + H2CO3 (weak acid) ----> NaHCO3 (weak base) + H20 are both examples of the __ buffer system
bicarbonate
available bicarbonate ions available; if more acid is added, this loses the ability to control pH
alkaline reserve
__ regulated by the kidneys and carbonic acid equation are in ready supply from respiration
bicarbonate ions
sodium salts of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4^-) and monohydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-), NaH2PO4 is weak acid and Na2HPO4 is weak base all make up the __
phosphate buffer system
HCL + Na2PO4 ----> NaH2PO4 + NaCl; NaOH + HaH2PO4 ---> Na2HPO4 + H20 are both examples of the __ buffer system
phosphate
the phosphate buffer sytem buffers __ and __ where phosphate concentrations are usually higher
urine, ICF
the __ is 3/4 of the bodies buffering power in cells
protein buffer system
R-COOH ---> R-COO^- + H+; R-NH2 + H+ ---> R-NH3+ are both examples of the __ buffer system
protein
__ is something that binds H+ ions in the protein buffer system
hemoglobin
the carbonic acid equation has __
reversible equalibrium
the carbonic acid equation
CO2 + H20 <---> H2CO3 <----> H+ + HCO3-
during __, the respiratory center is depressed and vise versa
alkalosis
the respiratory system regulation of H+ is a __ buffering system
physiological or funtional
the respiratory system regulation of H+ is __ but has 1-2x the buffering power of all the chemical buffers combined
slower
in the respiratory system regulation of H+, the buffers combine and the lungs expose of a volatile __
acid
impairment of respiratory sytem causing retention of CO2
respiratory acidosis or alkalosis
the renal mechanism of acid-base balance is driven by __
metabolic acids (phosphoric, uric, and lactic acids and ketone bodies)
accumulation of metabolic acids
metabolic acidosis
renal mechanisms of acid-base balance cause the excretion of __ (which has the same effect as gaining H+ ions)
bicarbonate
renal mechanisms of acid-base balance cause the conservation or generation of new __ (same as losing H+ ion)
bicaronate
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms __ must be maintained for buffering of blood
alkaline reserve
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms __ are nearly imperable to bicarbonate ions and cannot reabsorb
tubule cells
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms cells shunt bicarbonate produced in them into the __ and sodium follows (resulting from hydrogen ion secretion from cells)
peritubular capillaries
respiratory acidosis or alkalosis means the __ are causing the problems
lungs
shallow breathing or gas exchange is hampered by pneumonia, cystic fibrosis or emphaysema and CO2 accumulates in the blood
respiratory acidosis
hyperventilation or releasing CO2 faster than production; rare
respiratory alkalosis
ingestion of alcohol (acetic acid from metabolism of alcohol) or excessive loss of HCO3- due to diarrhea, etc. lactic acid accumulation, ketosis form diabetes or stavation; blood pH and HCO3- levels are low may cause
metabolic acidosis
less common; vommiting of stomach acids, intake of bases or constipation may cause
metabolic alkalosis
__ depresses nervous system
acidosis (pH <7)
__ over excites the nervous system
alkalosis
imbalance in the respiratory and renal compensations are due to __
one system compensated for by the opposite
changes in breathing rate and epth due to metabolic imbalances
respiratory compensations
PCO2 and bicarbonate levels are high if __ is occuring
renal compensation
high PCO2 is the cause __ and rising HCO3- reflecting __
acidosis, kidney retention to compenstae
__ results in high pH and low PCO2
renal compensated respiratory alkalosis
infants have more problems because they have __ of the lungs, so dramatic changes in PCO2 occur with altered breathing
low residual volume
infants have more problems because they have a __ which may result in fluid shifts
high fluid intake and output
infants have more problems because they have a __ yielding more metabolic wastes and acids plus buffer systems are not fully active
high metabolic rate (high SA/V ratio)
infants have more problems because they have a high rate of __
insensible water loss
infants have more problems because their __ are inefficient
kidneys
babies have more risks of dehydration and acidosis through the first __
month
functions of the reproductive system:
production of gametes and sex hormones
houses the testes, keeps the temperature 3 C lower than body temp for viable sperm production
scrotum
layer of smooth muscle in superficial fascia; wrinkles skin of scrotum to keep cool
dartos muscle
skeletal muscle from the internal oblique; elevates and lowers the testes to keep them at the right temperature
cremaster muscles
outer layer of the testes
tunica vaginalis
the fibrous capsule that forms the septa of the testes
tunic albuginea
site of sperm production
seminiferous tubules
takes sperm to the rete testis
tubulus rectus
around seminiferous tubules; produce androgens (TESTOSTERONE)
interstitial (leydig) cells
surrounds the testicular artery and absorbs heat from arterial blood before it enters the testis
pampiniform plexus
made up of vessels, nerves, and the vas deferens
spermatic cord
-3.8 cm
-has head, body, and tail regions
-is a coiled duct (6m or 20ft if uncoiled)
epididymis
the epididymis has __, __, and __ regions
head, body, and tail
some of the epididymis's cells have __ to absorb excess nutrients and deliver nutrients to sperm
nonmotile stereocillia
in __ days, sperm gain the ability to swim
20
-45 cm
-part of the spermatic cord into the pelvic cavity
vas (ductus) deferens
in the vas deferens, the __ joins with the seminal vesicle duct to form the __
ampulla, ejaculatory duct
cutting and cauterizing of the vas deferens
vasectomy
the urethra's three layers are __, __, and __
prostatic, membranous, spongy
most of the urethra is the __ layer
spongy (75%)
produce 60% of semen volume
-liquid is yellowish, viscous, alkaline fluid containing fructose, ascorbic acid, coagulating enzymes,a nd prostaglandins
seminal vessicles
why does fluid from the seminal vesicles contain fructose?
for energy for the sperm
-encircles urethra inferior to bladder
-composed of 20-20 compound tubuloveolar glands
prostate gland
produces 1/3 of semen volume, the liquid is milky, slightly acidic, containing several enzymes that help activate sperm
prostate gland
-pea sized
-inferior to the prostate
-produce a fluid that is thick, clear, mucus that may neutralize acidic urine in the urethra
bulbourethral glands
which of teh three glands releases its secretions first?
bulborethral
along with the testis, compose the external genitalia of males
penis
the enlarged tip of the penis
glans penis
around the glans penis unless removed by circumcision
prepuce (foreskin)
contains spongy urethra and 3 columns of erectile tissue
penis
surrounds the urethra and expands to form the glans penis
corpus spongiosum
the penis has __ columns of erectile tissue
3
-paired dorsal columns
-compose most of the penis
corpora cavernosa
surrounds each crus of the penis
ischiocavernous muscle
__ decrease the viscosity of cervical mucus and cause reverse uterine peristalsis
prostaglandins
__ and __ enhance sperm motility
relaxin and enzymes
a pH of __ in semen helps to neutralize the acidity of the vagina
7.2-7.6
antibiotic chemical in semen
seminal plasmin
__ factors cuase semen to coagulate and fibrinolysin liquefies so sperm can swim out
clotting factors
2-5 mL of semen contains __ million sperm per mL
50-100
due to engorgement of erectile bodies of the penis with blood
erection
in an erection, __ allows the arterioles to dilate
parasympathetic reflex
during an erection, parasympathetic stimulation of the __ lubricate the glans penis
bulbourethral
ejaculation is due to __ nervous system controls
sympathetic
during ejaculation, the bladder sphincter muscles __
contract
during ejaculation, the __ muscles undergo a series of contractions
bulbospongiousus
__ causes generalized muscle contractions, rise in heart rate, and elevated blood pressure
climax or orgasm
sperm formation occurs in the __
seminiferous tubules
sperm formation begins around __ years old
14
__ million sperm are made per day
400
how does viagra work?
enzyme causes smooth muscles of arterioles to relax and dilate allowing erection
two consectutive divivsions producing 4 daughter cells with 1/2 the number of chromosomes
meiosis
diploid chromsosomal number in humans
diploid
the 23 chromosomes in gametes is the __ number
haploid
phases of meiosis 1
prophase 1, metaphase 1, anaphase 1
synapsis occurs when replicated chormosomes align with homologues; produces tetrads of chromatids and crossovers may occur
prophase 1
alignment of the tetrads
metaphase 1
sister chromatids remain as units and homologous chromosomes move to opposite ends of teh cell
anaphase I
the final outcome of meisosis I is : two copies of one member of homologous pair and none of the other and diploid DNA but haploid chromosomal number becasue pair of chromatids is a single unit; thus is called __
reduciton division of meiosis
like mitosis but with no replication, equational division of meiosis
meiosis II
reduces chromosomal number by 1/2 and provides variability (crossovers and different combinations of paternal and maternal information
meiosis II
-forms type A and B cells
-type A daughter cells maintain germ cell line
-type B cells pushed toward lumen to become primary spermatocytes
spermatogonia mitosis
in spermatogonia mitosis, type __ daughter cells maintain germ cell line
A
in spermatogonia mitosis, type __ cells pushed toward lumen to become primary spermatocytes
B
primary spermatocytes become secondary spermatocytes during __
meiosis I
secondary spermatocytes become spermatids
meiosis II
spermatids ---> sperm
spermiogenesis
during spermiogenesis spermatids are __
nonmotile
part of the spermatozoa: contains DNA and a crosone
head
part of the spermatozoa: mitochondria spiraled around contractive tail filaments
midpiece
part of the spermatozoa: flagellum elaborated by centriole
tail
bound to one antoher by tight junctions and divide seminiferous tubule into two compartments
sustentacular (sertoli) cells
formed by tight juncitons; spermatozoa are identical and recognized as self and can be influenced by blood-borne chemicals that prompt spermatogenesis
blood-testicular barriar
spermatogenesis takes __ days
64-72
__ controls FSH and LH release
GnRH
stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating sustentacular cells to release androgen-binding protein (ABP) that causes spermatogenic cells to bind and concentrate testosterone that stimulates spermatogenesis
FSH
binds interstitial cells and stimulates testosterone secretion
LH
-secreted from sustentacular cells
-released when sperm count is hight to inhibit FSH and GnRH
inhibin
__ also inhibits GnRh
testosterone
GnRH release begins at __
puberty
__ is synthesized from cholesterol
testosterone
duct, gland, and penis growth, and maintenance depends on __
testosterone
-pubic, axillary, gacial hair
-larynx enlarges and voice deepens
-skin thickens and becomes oilier
-bone growth and increased density
-skeletal muscles increase in size and mass
-increases BMR and influences behavior
-creates sex drive
secondary sex characteristics of testosterone
produce eggs, secrete estrogens and progesterone
ovaries
__ support ovaries
ligaments
layers of the ovaries:
-tunica albuginea
-germinal epithelium
cuboidal cells on the outside; continuous from peritoneum
germinal epithelium
__ contains oocytes
ovarian follicles
if an oocytes has a single layer it is a __
follicle cell
if a oocyte has more than one layer present it is a __
granulosa cell
one layer of follicular cels around oocyte
primordial follicle
two or more layers of granulosa cells around an oocyte
primary follicle
fluid filled space or antrium develops in oocyte
secondary follicle
oocyte on a stalk of granulosa cells
graafian or vesicular follicle
when the oocyte is ejected from teh ovary
ovulation
ruputed follicle transformed after ovulation
corpus luteum
connected to uterus
isthmus
around teh ovary; fertilization happens here
ampulla
funnel-shaped, finger like projections (fibraiae ciliated
infundibulum
4 regions of teh uterus:
-body
-fundus
-isthmus
-cervix
cervical canal opens to vagina via external OS and with uterus via internal OS
cervix
outer serous layer or visceral peritoneum
perimetruim
smooth muscle layer of uterine wall
myometrium
mucosal lining of uterine wall
endometrium
__ change lenth with thickness
endometrial glands
uterine arteries from __
internal illiacs
3-4 inches long
-aventitia, muscularis and mucosa (containing rugae)
-stratified squamous epithelium
-no glands in the mucosa-lubrication from cervical mucous glands
vagina
the vaginal orifice has a __ in many virgins; bleeds with first intercourse-may have to be cut
hymen
fatty area over pubic symphisis convered with pubic hair
mons pubis
homologous to scrotum
labia majora
homologous to ventral penis
labia minora
encolsed by labia minora; contains urethral opening and vaginal; grateer vestibular glands (homologous to bulbourethral in males)
vestibule
erectile tissue and sensory nerve endings, homologous to penis
clitoris
diamond shaped region
perineum
part of the integumentary system (modified sweat glands)
mammary glands
areola and nipple with sebaceous glands that produce __
sebum
there are __ lobes in each breast open at the nipple
15-25
__ within lobes contain glandular alveoli that produce milk
lobules
-early menses and late menopause
-no pregnancies or later in life
-X-rays (overexposure)
-smoking, alcohol, high-fat diets
-age
-previous history
-family history
breast cancer risk factors
__% of breast cancer patients have no known risk factors
70
produced in fetal period; diploid stem cells multiply by mitosis and enter growth phase
oogonia
begin first meiotic division but are suspended in prophase I
primary oocyte
__ oocytes are present at birth and remain this way until 10-14 years
700,000
the follicular phase __ in length
varies
the luteal phase is __days
14
__ proliferate to form stratified epithelium around oocyte (now granuosa cells)
follicular cells
thecal cells produce adrogens that granulosa cells convert to estrogen
theca folliculi
__ is formed as liquid accumulates in the follicular cavity
antrum
the antrum exapnds and isolates oocte when teh secondary follicle becomes a __ follicle
graafian
the primary follicle complete __ to form secondary oocyte and first polar body
meiosis
stimulated by LH, dominant follicle ovulated
ovulation
during the __ phase, the antrum fills with blood clot (corpus hemorrhagicum) that will be absorbed
luteal phase
during the __ phase, the granulosa and thecal cells enlarge; secretes progesteron and some estrogen
luteal
during the __ phase teh corpus luteum degenerates in 10 days if no fertillization
luteal
scar remaining on teh ovary after corpus luteum degeneration
corpus albicans
small amounts of __ during chlldhood inhibits GnRH
estrogens
at puberty, the __ is less sensitive to estrogen and secrets GnRHrhythmically
hypothalamus
GnRH rises; FHS and LH relased
day 1 of menstration
__ stimulate follicualr growth and maturation
FSH and LH
negative feedback of estrogens on anterior pituitary inhibit __ so accululation occurs; __ from granulosa cells also feeds back negatively on FSH
FSH and LH, inhibin
estrogen reaches critical concentration and exerts __ on brain and anterior pituitary
psoitive feedback
__ surge stimulates primary oocyte to complete meiosis I and triggers ovulation
LH and FSH surge
__ causes corpus luteum formation
LH surge
__ and __ inhibit FSH and LH
progesterone and estrogen
a drop in __ causes the CL to degenerate (unless HCG maintains it)
LH
a drop in __ allows FSH and LH to start the cycle over
estrogen and progesteron
uterine cycle characterized by the: shedding of endometrium
menstrual phase
uterine cycle characterized by the: rebuilding of the endometrium
proliferative phase
uterine cycle characterized by the: following ovulation; increased blood supply
secretory phase
promotes oogenesis and anabolic effects on reproducti e organs; growth spurt at 12-15 at puberty
estrogens and progesterone
-breast growth
-subcutaneous fat depostits
-widening and lightening of pelvis
-axillary and pubic hair
-metabilic effects
-cervical mucous changes
-inhibition of uterine motility during pregnancy (progesterone)
-preparation of breasts for lactation (progesterone)
secondary sex characteritics of estrogen and progesterone
bacteria in mucosae of reproductive and urinary tracts; painful urination and pus from penis; women have no symptoms or abdominal discomfort, discharge, bleeding
gonorrhea
bacteria; if passed to fetus, usually stillborn or die shortly after birth; primary lesion which disappears, pink rash weeks later, fever and joint pain, anemia; enters latent period and only detectable by blood test; treatment with penicillen
syphilis
most common in US; discharge, abdominal pain, pain intercourse, irregular meneses, sterility, bacterial
chlamydia
itching, painful intercourse, green discharge, infection
vaginiits
human papiloma virus; most common STI in US; can cause cervical cancer
genital warts
herpes simplex virus, causes blisters
genital herpes
-made of estrogens and progesterons
-trick hypothalamus-pituitary into thining the body is pregnant, so folicles do not develop
-morning after pills are similar
brith control pill
IUD stand for:
intrauterine device
contraceptive method of knowing when you ovulate
ryhthem method
menopause starts at __ years
46-54
the end of menses
menopause
__ may contribute to osteoporosis during menopause
estrogen
two kinds of abortion pills:
-Ru 486
-misoprostol
stops a fertilized egg from attaching to the lining of teh uterus, interferes with progesterone production
Ru 486
how does misoprostol work?
causes uterine contractions
developing embryo/fetus
conceptus
length of pregnancy; 280 days
gestation period
first two weeks of pregnancy
preembryo
weeks 3-8 of pregnancy
embryo
9 weeks to birth, the baby is called a __
fetus
fertilized egg
zygote
the ooctye is viable __ hours and sperm for __ hours
12-24, 12-48
gain ability to fertilize the egg; membranes thin so enzymes can be release from teh arcosome
sperm transport and capacitation
enzymes released near the oocyte; must penetrate the layers
acrosomal reaction
__ of arcosomes are required to breakdown brrier
hundreds
sperm arriving __ has a better chance of fertilizing the egg
late
entry of several sperm into egg
polyspermy
when one sperm enters; sodium channels open and sodium enters oocyte depolarizing membrane (fast block to polyspermy)
monospermy
occurs once sperm has entred (slow block to polyspermy)
cortical reaction
__ is completed by secondary ooctye (activated by calcium) and ejects 2nd polar body; chromosomes combine
meiosis II
fast mitotic divisions after fertilization
cleavage
made after 72 hours, 6 cells or more
morula
100 cells; in uterus now
4-5 days
fluid filled hollow ball
blastocyst
begins 6 days after fertilization; takes about 1 week to complete
implantation
the __ implants in uterus if endometruim is ready; if not mature, blastocytst detaches and moves down further
trophoblast
LH-like hormone that maintains CL, secreted by tophoblast
hCG
what does hCG do?
maintains corpus leutuem
how do pregnancy tests work?
antibodies attach to hCG
originates from embryoinic and endometrial tissues
placenta
chorionic villi become richly vascularized
chorion
the placenta is fully formed and functinal by the the end of the __ month
third
the __ produces high levels of estrogens and progestone to maintain pregnancy and prepare mammary glands for lactation
placenta
where do the estrogen and progestorne come form? if a womean needs progesterone supplements in pregnancy, why do they stop giving them in the second trimester?
corpus luteum, placenta takes over
when there are three primary germ layers present
gasturla
the embryonic membranes: (4)
amnion, yolk sac, allantosis, chorion
sac that fills with amniotic fluid tho cusihion, maintain temp, and aid in movment
amnion
forms part of gut, very early on produces blood cells
yolk sac
structural base for constucting umbilical cord and part of urinary bladder
allantois
the outermost layer of the allantois
chorion
germ layer formation
gastrulation
primary germ layers (3);
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
will become the nervous system and epidermis
ectoderm
will become the epithelial linings and glands
endoderm
the __ becomes every thing
mesoderm
rod of mesodermal cells; first axial support
notochord
carries oxygenated blood form placenta to liver
umbilical vein
bypasses liver, into inferior vena cava
ductus venosus
in a fetsu, blood goes to the __ only to maintain its eclls, metabolic functions are carried out by the mother
liver
bipasses lungs by going from right atrium to left atrium
foramen ovale
blood entering right ventricle to pulmonary trunk but most goes through this shunt to aorta to bypass lungs
ductus arteriosus
carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus
umbilical arteries
vacularization and engorgement of reproductive organs; purpling hue
chadwicks sign
when pregnant, breasts __ with blood, areolae __
engorge, darken
fascial skin pigmmetation change in pregnant woment
chloasma
placental hormone releases; widens and increases flexability of pelvic ligaments
relaxin
when pregnant, a mother will gain ~ __ lbs
29
works with estrogens and progesterone to stiumlate breasts; glucose-sparing effect on mother
hPL or hCS
similar to TSH; inceases metabolic rte
hCT
a rise in __ and __ to casue positive calcium balance during pregnancy
PTH and vitamin D
a mother may have __ until aduested to E and P4 levels; heartburn, and constipation
morning sickness
when a women is pregnant, she will produce __ urine, and may be __
more, incontienent
a pregnant mother will have congestion, __ vital capacity and reperatory rate but __ residual volum, causing dyspnea
increased, decreased
a pregnant woman will have an __ total body water, and __ pulse rate and BP
increased, increased
a pregnant womens blood volume will increase by __% by 32 weeks
25-40
__ moms give birth to babies weighing 5-10% heavier
active
__ stimulates myometrial cells to increase oxytocin receptors and antagonizes progesterones quieting effects (braxton hicks contractions may result in false labor)
high estrogen
a hormone produced by the fetus that acts on placenta to cause prostaglandin release, stimulate uterine contractions
oxytocin
oxytocin from the posterior pituitary of the mother will eventually cuase a __ to increase contraction strength
positive feedback mechanism
Stage of labor: onset of labor until cervix is fully dialted (10 cm); longest stage, lasting 6-12 hours or more
dilation
stages of labor (3):
dilation, expulsion, placental
Stage of labor:
-full dilation to delivery; 50 minutes (first birth) to 2 hours; 20 min in subsequent births, crowing happens here
expulsion
when the babies head is in the vulva
crowning
the doctor may have to do an __ during crowining
episiotomy
Stage of labor:
-15 min after birth
-after birth including placenta and attached fetal membranes are expelled
placental
first few hours after birth
neonatal period
each of 5 signs (heart rate, respiration color, muscle tone and reflexes) given a rating of 0-2 for a total of 10 possible points
apgar score
CO2 accumlates in the blood causing central acidosis that stiumlates repiratory centers
first breath
babies take ~ __ breaths per min
45
umbilical arteries form __
medial umbilical ligaments
the umbilical vein forms the __
round ligament of liver
the ductus venousus forms __
ligamentum ovalis
where foramen ovale was; pressure increases when pulmonary circulation becomes functional and this closes pulmonary shunts
fossa ovalis
forms from the ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosum
all but the foramen ovale occlude withing __ min
30
the foramen ovale takes __ to occlude
1 year
6-8 hours then baby sleeps for 3 hours followed by second period of activyt and sleep
transitional period
release of this is caused by rising placental estrogens, p4 and lactogen stimulate PRH
prolactin
first yellowish fluid produced from breasts; more protein, vitamins, and inerals, rich in IgA in milk)
colostrum
positive feedback due to suckling; oxytocin causes myoepithelial cells to force milk out
let-down reflex
study of the mechanisms of heredity
genetics
X and Y; on pair
sex chromosomes
22 pairs
autosomes
diploid chromosomal complement; shown in homologous chormosome pairs from longest to shortest
karyotype
one form each partent
homologous chromosomes
geners at same lcus on homologous chromosomes; may code same or diferent expression of the trait
alleles
expression of the enotype; what you look like
phenotype
Ll, Mm, etc; your genetic makeup
genotype
allele that masks the expression of teh other
dominant
masked allele
recessive
two alleles controlling a trait are active
homozygous
two alleles are different for same trait
heterozygous
du to independent assortment of chromosomes, corssovers, and random fertilization
variation
__ are formed during meiosis I-maternal parnetal chromosomes are randomly distributed in daughter cells
tetrads
members of allel pair are segregated to different __
gametes
allels on different pairs of homolgous chromosomes are distributed __
independently
gametes have one allele for each __
trait
possible formation of 2^n gamete types where n=number of homologous pairs (23); this comes to 8.5 million possibilites
independent assortment
females only have about __ reduction divisions, so fewer gamete types are produced
500
occurs during meiosis I, genes on a chromosome are linked or passed on as a unit in mitosis
crossover of homologues
exchange of gene segments occurs with homologous chromosomes; result is a mixture of partental and material information
recombinant chromosomes
two of the four chromatids of the tetrad take par in __
recombinant chromosomes
like a coin toss, birht of one shild has no effect on the next
independent events
lethal dominant genes always expressed, so seldom passed on
dominant traits
albinism, cystic fibrosis, tay-sachs disease
recessive traits
does not express trait, but is heterozygous for it
carrier
heterozygous for sickling trait (Ss); normal and sickling Hb produced
sickle cell trait
ss or homozygous recessive; low oxygen in blood casues RBC's to jam and fragment in capillaires du to shape; must have transfusion
sickle-cell anemia
blood type inheritence is __
multiple allel inheritence
traits determined by genes on the sex chromosomes
sex linked traits
genes found only on the X cromosome, males more likely to express these
X-linked
genes that have no couterpart on X chromosome and are passed from fathers to sons only, hairy ears etc.
Y-linked trait
when several gene pairs influence same trait; continuous or qualitiative phenotypic variation on a scale (skin color, intelligence, height etc.
polygene inheritence
__ is controlled by three seperatly inherited genes with 2 allelic forms (A, a, B, b, C, c)
skin color
autism, cancer, diabetes, and cleft lip are all __ inheritance
polygene
drugs, pathogens, et
environmental factors of gene expression
same allel can have different effect from different parent because gene modification occurs during gametogeneisis; confers functional differences in embryo
genetic imprinting
-some genes are on the mitochondria
-eggs donates alomst alll cytoplam to fertilized egg and therefore the mitochondiral genes
extrachromosomal (mitochondrial) inheritance
disorders such as parkinsons are suspected to be inherited through __ inheratince
extrachromosomal (mitochondiral)
is important if one parent has a recessive genetic disorder because if partener is heterozygous, cna be inherited by children
carrier recognition
traces genetic traits through generations
pedigree
when amniotic fluid is checked for chemicals that are markers for certain diseases
aminocentesis
aminocentesis usually picks up __ fetal cells in the fluid
sloughed off
__ are checked in amniocentesis
DNA markers
sampling from placenta, faster than aminocentesis because cells divide radily and kayotyping can be done
chorionic villi sampling