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431 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
in adults, water is __% of weight for women, __% for men of the body
|
50, 60
|
|
why do women have less body water than men?
|
because they have more fat which is least hydrated
|
|
why do men have more body water than women
|
they have more muscle skeletal muscle is 65% water
|
|
infants are __% or more water
|
73
|
|
older adults are __% water because__
|
45, less skeletal muscle
|
|
fluid in cells; 60-66% of fluid
|
intracellular fluid compartment (ICF)
|
|
30-40%; body's internal environment
|
extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)
|
|
fluid portion of the blood
|
plasma
|
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fluid between tissue cells
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interstitial fluid
|
|
plasma, interstitial fluid, lymph, CSF, eye humors, synovial fluid, serous fluid, GI secretions make up __
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extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)
|
|
have mainly covalent bonds that prevent dissociation in water and they therefore have no electrical charge; organic molecules like glucose, lipids, creatinine, urea
|
nonelectrolytes
|
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primarily inorganic salts; inorganic and organic acids and bases, some proteins
|
electrolytes
|
|
electrolytes have more osmotic power because of __
|
dissociation
|
|
measure of electrolyte concentrations of body fluids
|
milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L)
|
|
ICF has more __ than ECF
|
K+, HPO4^-2, MG^2+
|
|
ECF has more __
|
Na+, Cl-
|
|
maintains the concentration gradients of ECF and ICF
|
sodium-potassium pump
|
|
__ controls movement of fluids between compartments
|
osmotic and hydrostatic pressures
|
|
molecular size, charge and need for active transport limits __ but not water
|
solute movments
|
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__ exchanges across capillaries (hydrostatic forces out and colloid osmotic pressure pulls back in)
|
plasma-interstital fluid
|
|
__ exchanges rely on selectively permeable membranes of cells; ions are restricted by AT while nutrients, gases, wastes move in one direction
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intracellular-interstitial
|
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fluid volumes may change, but __ remain constant between ECF and ICF because water moves freely
|
osmolarities
|
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daily water intake is generally __ mL/day
|
2500
|
|
__% of your water come from liquids
|
60
|
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__% of water comes form food
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30
|
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__% of water is produced by cellular metabolism (metabolic water or water of oxidation
|
10
|
|
__% of water vaporizes from lungs or diffuses through the skin (insensible water loss)
|
28
|
|
__% of water vaporizes form perspiration
|
8
|
|
__% of water is lost in feces
|
4
|
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__% of water is lost through the kidneys
|
60
|
|
increase in __ causes thirst and ADH release
|
plasma osmolarity
|
|
the thirst mechanism is not well __
|
understood
|
|
a decrease in plasma volume of __% or more or increase in osmolarity by __% stimulates thirst center in the hypothalamus
|
10, 1-2
|
|
not controllable; insensible and sensible water loss
|
obligatory water loses
|
|
the kidneys must excrete __ mosm of solutes to maintain blood homeostasis and must remove them in water
|
900-1200
|
|
water output is primarily regulated by __ concentration because of obligatory osmolarity
|
sodium ion
|
|
when water loss exceeds intake (due to hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, diuretics, lack of intake, or diabetes)
|
dehydration
|
|
cellular overhydration or water intoxication
|
hypotonic hydration
|
|
to reverse hypotonic hydration, __ or __ is infused
|
hypertonic saline, mannitol
|
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accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces.
|
edema
|
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increased BP, hydrostatic pressure due to bad valves, vessel blockage, hypertension, heart failure, and high blood volume cause __
|
edema
|
|
__ and __ compose 90-95% of all solutes in ECF; 280 mosm; 142 mEq Na in ECF
|
NaCl, NaHCO3
|
|
__ drive osmotic pressure
|
solutes
|
|
the membrane is nearly impermeable but some electorlytes diffuse in and are pumped out which controls __ and __
|
ECF volume and water distribution
|
|
large volumes move __ between body secretions and ECF (digestive secretions, bile, saliva)
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back and forth
|
|
__% of sodium in renal filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT and __% in the loop even without aldosterone
|
65, 25
|
|
with __, virtually all CaCl reabsorbed actively in DCT and collecting ducts; water usually follows ,but sodium-free urine can be eliminated to maintain water balance
|
aldosterone
|
|
without __, there is no absorption beyond the loop of Henle; this ALWAYS results in the excretion of __
|
aldosteorne, water
|
|
the __ triggers aldosterone
|
renin-angiotensin mechanism of JG cells
|
|
caused by hypoaldosteronism; lose much salt and water
|
addisons disease
|
|
senses whenGFR rises due to blood volume rise; this phenomenon resluts in sodium and water output and vice versa
|
cardiovascular baraoreceptors
|
|
hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect ECF concentration
|
ADH
|
|
low sodium will inhibit __
|
ADH
|
|
an excess or deficit of __ can be fatal due to effects on the heart
|
potassium
|
|
part of the buffer system, hydrogen ions shifts cause corresponding __ shift in the opposite direction
|
potassium
|
|
__% of potassium is reabsorbed in teh __
|
90, cortical collecting duct
|
|
__% of potassium is lost in urine
|
10
|
|
the potassium balance is controlled by the amount __ into filtrate by cortical collecting ducts
|
secreted
|
|
potassium levels are usually __ and are secreted
|
high
|
|
__ causes potassium secretion
|
aldosterone
|
|
the __ controls the secretions of potassium
|
plasma potassium
|
|
potassium secretion goes alongside __ for electrolyte balance
|
sodium reabsorption
|
|
high potassium stimulates the __ to release aldosterone
|
adrenal cortex
|
|
99% of __ is stored in bones
|
calcium
|
|
calcium in the blood is necesary for __, __, and __
|
blood clotting, cell membrane permeability, secretory behavior
|
|
__ strongly influences neuromuscular excitability
|
calcium
|
|
hypocalcemia increases __ and cuases __
|
excitability, tetany
|
|
hypercalcemia inhibits __
|
neurons and muscle
|
|
__ and __ control calcium levels
|
PTH, calcitonin
|
|
__% of calcium is reabsorbed
|
98
|
|
low plasma calcium stimulates __ release
|
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
|
|
PTH activates __
|
osteoclasts
|
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__ causes increased absorption of calcium by stimulating the kidneys to transform vitamin D to active form necessary for calcium absorption
|
PTH
|
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__ causes calcium reabsoption by the renal tubules
|
PTH
|
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__ is released due to high blood calcium
|
calcitonin
|
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__ causes calcium salt deposition in bone and inhibits osteoclasts
|
calitonin
|
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calitonin plays a __ role compared to PTH
|
minor
|
|
blood has a pH of __
|
7.4
|
|
ICF has a pH of __ due to acidic metabolites and CO2
|
7.0
|
|
condition where arterial pH is >7.45
|
alkalosis
|
|
condition where arterial pH is <7.35
|
acidosis
|
|
physiogical acidosis is where the pH is __
|
7.0-7.45
|
|
hydrogen ion sources
|
-phosphoric acid
-lactic acid (anerobic respiration) -fatty acids and ketone bodies (fat breakdown) -CO2 releases hydrogen ions via carbonic acid |
|
CO2 releases hydrogen ions via __
|
carbonic acid
|
|
chemical buffer systems help to __
|
neutralize acids/bases
|
|
what are two sites that help regulate acid-base balance?
|
respiratory center in the brain stem, renal system
|
|
how does the respiratory center in the brain stem regulate pH?
|
by regulating CO2 and therefore H+
|
|
how does the renal system regulate pH?
|
it excretes or retains H+ ions
|
|
strong acids dissociate completely and liberate __ while weak acids __ but can prevent pH changes
|
H+, partially dissociate
|
|
__ are proton acceptors
|
bases
|
|
one or two molecules that prevent H+ concentration changes by binding H+ or releasing them
|
chemical acid-base buffers
|
|
the main chemical acid-base buffer systems in the body
|
-bicarbonate
-phosphate -protein |
|
components are carbonic acid and its salt, sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
|
bicarbonate buffer system
|
|
the __ buffer system is the only ECF buffer
|
bicarbonate
|
|
HCL (strong acid) + NaHCO3 (weak base)---->H2CO3 (weak acid) + NaCl (salt); NaOh (strong base) + H2CO3 (weak acid) ----> NaHCO3 (weak base) + H20 are both examples of the __ buffer system
|
bicarbonate
|
|
available bicarbonate ions available; if more acid is added, this loses the ability to control pH
|
alkaline reserve
|
|
__ regulated by the kidneys and carbonic acid equation are in ready supply from respiration
|
bicarbonate ions
|
|
sodium salts of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4^-) and monohydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-), NaH2PO4 is weak acid and Na2HPO4 is weak base all make up the __
|
phosphate buffer system
|
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HCL + Na2PO4 ----> NaH2PO4 + NaCl; NaOH + HaH2PO4 ---> Na2HPO4 + H20 are both examples of the __ buffer system
|
phosphate
|
|
the phosphate buffer sytem buffers __ and __ where phosphate concentrations are usually higher
|
urine, ICF
|
|
the __ is 3/4 of the bodies buffering power in cells
|
protein buffer system
|
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R-COOH ---> R-COO^- + H+; R-NH2 + H+ ---> R-NH3+ are both examples of the __ buffer system
|
protein
|
|
__ is something that binds H+ ions in the protein buffer system
|
hemoglobin
|
|
the carbonic acid equation has __
|
reversible equalibrium
|
|
the carbonic acid equation
|
CO2 + H20 <---> H2CO3 <----> H+ + HCO3-
|
|
during __, the respiratory center is depressed and vise versa
|
alkalosis
|
|
the respiratory system regulation of H+ is a __ buffering system
|
physiological or funtional
|
|
the respiratory system regulation of H+ is __ but has 1-2x the buffering power of all the chemical buffers combined
|
slower
|
|
in the respiratory system regulation of H+, the buffers combine and the lungs expose of a volatile __
|
acid
|
|
impairment of respiratory sytem causing retention of CO2
|
respiratory acidosis or alkalosis
|
|
the renal mechanism of acid-base balance is driven by __
|
metabolic acids (phosphoric, uric, and lactic acids and ketone bodies)
|
|
accumulation of metabolic acids
|
metabolic acidosis
|
|
renal mechanisms of acid-base balance cause the excretion of __ (which has the same effect as gaining H+ ions)
|
bicarbonate
|
|
renal mechanisms of acid-base balance cause the conservation or generation of new __ (same as losing H+ ion)
|
bicaronate
|
|
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms __ must be maintained for buffering of blood
|
alkaline reserve
|
|
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms __ are nearly imperable to bicarbonate ions and cannot reabsorb
|
tubule cells
|
|
in bicarbonate reabsoption in the renal mechanisms cells shunt bicarbonate produced in them into the __ and sodium follows (resulting from hydrogen ion secretion from cells)
|
peritubular capillaries
|
|
respiratory acidosis or alkalosis means the __ are causing the problems
|
lungs
|
|
shallow breathing or gas exchange is hampered by pneumonia, cystic fibrosis or emphaysema and CO2 accumulates in the blood
|
respiratory acidosis
|
|
hyperventilation or releasing CO2 faster than production; rare
|
respiratory alkalosis
|
|
ingestion of alcohol (acetic acid from metabolism of alcohol) or excessive loss of HCO3- due to diarrhea, etc. lactic acid accumulation, ketosis form diabetes or stavation; blood pH and HCO3- levels are low may cause
|
metabolic acidosis
|
|
less common; vommiting of stomach acids, intake of bases or constipation may cause
|
metabolic alkalosis
|
|
__ depresses nervous system
|
acidosis (pH <7)
|
|
__ over excites the nervous system
|
alkalosis
|
|
imbalance in the respiratory and renal compensations are due to __
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one system compensated for by the opposite
|
|
changes in breathing rate and epth due to metabolic imbalances
|
respiratory compensations
|
|
PCO2 and bicarbonate levels are high if __ is occuring
|
renal compensation
|
|
high PCO2 is the cause __ and rising HCO3- reflecting __
|
acidosis, kidney retention to compenstae
|
|
__ results in high pH and low PCO2
|
renal compensated respiratory alkalosis
|
|
infants have more problems because they have __ of the lungs, so dramatic changes in PCO2 occur with altered breathing
|
low residual volume
|
|
infants have more problems because they have a __ which may result in fluid shifts
|
high fluid intake and output
|
|
infants have more problems because they have a __ yielding more metabolic wastes and acids plus buffer systems are not fully active
|
high metabolic rate (high SA/V ratio)
|
|
infants have more problems because they have a high rate of __
|
insensible water loss
|
|
infants have more problems because their __ are inefficient
|
kidneys
|
|
babies have more risks of dehydration and acidosis through the first __
|
month
|
|
functions of the reproductive system:
|
production of gametes and sex hormones
|
|
houses the testes, keeps the temperature 3 C lower than body temp for viable sperm production
|
scrotum
|
|
layer of smooth muscle in superficial fascia; wrinkles skin of scrotum to keep cool
|
dartos muscle
|
|
skeletal muscle from the internal oblique; elevates and lowers the testes to keep them at the right temperature
|
cremaster muscles
|
|
outer layer of the testes
|
tunica vaginalis
|
|
the fibrous capsule that forms the septa of the testes
|
tunic albuginea
|
|
site of sperm production
|
seminiferous tubules
|
|
takes sperm to the rete testis
|
tubulus rectus
|
|
around seminiferous tubules; produce androgens (TESTOSTERONE)
|
interstitial (leydig) cells
|
|
surrounds the testicular artery and absorbs heat from arterial blood before it enters the testis
|
pampiniform plexus
|
|
made up of vessels, nerves, and the vas deferens
|
spermatic cord
|
|
-3.8 cm
-has head, body, and tail regions -is a coiled duct (6m or 20ft if uncoiled) |
epididymis
|
|
the epididymis has __, __, and __ regions
|
head, body, and tail
|
|
some of the epididymis's cells have __ to absorb excess nutrients and deliver nutrients to sperm
|
nonmotile stereocillia
|
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in __ days, sperm gain the ability to swim
|
20
|
|
-45 cm
-part of the spermatic cord into the pelvic cavity |
vas (ductus) deferens
|
|
in the vas deferens, the __ joins with the seminal vesicle duct to form the __
|
ampulla, ejaculatory duct
|
|
cutting and cauterizing of the vas deferens
|
vasectomy
|
|
the urethra's three layers are __, __, and __
|
prostatic, membranous, spongy
|
|
most of the urethra is the __ layer
|
spongy (75%)
|
|
produce 60% of semen volume
-liquid is yellowish, viscous, alkaline fluid containing fructose, ascorbic acid, coagulating enzymes,a nd prostaglandins |
seminal vessicles
|
|
why does fluid from the seminal vesicles contain fructose?
|
for energy for the sperm
|
|
-encircles urethra inferior to bladder
-composed of 20-20 compound tubuloveolar glands |
prostate gland
|
|
produces 1/3 of semen volume, the liquid is milky, slightly acidic, containing several enzymes that help activate sperm
|
prostate gland
|
|
-pea sized
-inferior to the prostate -produce a fluid that is thick, clear, mucus that may neutralize acidic urine in the urethra |
bulbourethral glands
|
|
which of teh three glands releases its secretions first?
|
bulborethral
|
|
along with the testis, compose the external genitalia of males
|
penis
|
|
the enlarged tip of the penis
|
glans penis
|
|
around the glans penis unless removed by circumcision
|
prepuce (foreskin)
|
|
contains spongy urethra and 3 columns of erectile tissue
|
penis
|
|
surrounds the urethra and expands to form the glans penis
|
corpus spongiosum
|
|
the penis has __ columns of erectile tissue
|
3
|
|
-paired dorsal columns
-compose most of the penis |
corpora cavernosa
|
|
surrounds each crus of the penis
|
ischiocavernous muscle
|
|
__ decrease the viscosity of cervical mucus and cause reverse uterine peristalsis
|
prostaglandins
|
|
__ and __ enhance sperm motility
|
relaxin and enzymes
|
|
a pH of __ in semen helps to neutralize the acidity of the vagina
|
7.2-7.6
|
|
antibiotic chemical in semen
|
seminal plasmin
|
|
__ factors cuase semen to coagulate and fibrinolysin liquefies so sperm can swim out
|
clotting factors
|
|
2-5 mL of semen contains __ million sperm per mL
|
50-100
|
|
due to engorgement of erectile bodies of the penis with blood
|
erection
|
|
in an erection, __ allows the arterioles to dilate
|
parasympathetic reflex
|
|
during an erection, parasympathetic stimulation of the __ lubricate the glans penis
|
bulbourethral
|
|
ejaculation is due to __ nervous system controls
|
sympathetic
|
|
during ejaculation, the bladder sphincter muscles __
|
contract
|
|
during ejaculation, the __ muscles undergo a series of contractions
|
bulbospongiousus
|
|
__ causes generalized muscle contractions, rise in heart rate, and elevated blood pressure
|
climax or orgasm
|
|
sperm formation occurs in the __
|
seminiferous tubules
|
|
sperm formation begins around __ years old
|
14
|
|
__ million sperm are made per day
|
400
|
|
how does viagra work?
|
enzyme causes smooth muscles of arterioles to relax and dilate allowing erection
|
|
two consectutive divivsions producing 4 daughter cells with 1/2 the number of chromosomes
|
meiosis
|
|
diploid chromsosomal number in humans
|
diploid
|
|
the 23 chromosomes in gametes is the __ number
|
haploid
|
|
phases of meiosis 1
|
prophase 1, metaphase 1, anaphase 1
|
|
synapsis occurs when replicated chormosomes align with homologues; produces tetrads of chromatids and crossovers may occur
|
prophase 1
|
|
alignment of the tetrads
|
metaphase 1
|
|
sister chromatids remain as units and homologous chromosomes move to opposite ends of teh cell
|
anaphase I
|
|
the final outcome of meisosis I is : two copies of one member of homologous pair and none of the other and diploid DNA but haploid chromosomal number becasue pair of chromatids is a single unit; thus is called __
|
reduciton division of meiosis
|
|
like mitosis but with no replication, equational division of meiosis
|
meiosis II
|
|
reduces chromosomal number by 1/2 and provides variability (crossovers and different combinations of paternal and maternal information
|
meiosis II
|
|
-forms type A and B cells
-type A daughter cells maintain germ cell line -type B cells pushed toward lumen to become primary spermatocytes |
spermatogonia mitosis
|
|
in spermatogonia mitosis, type __ daughter cells maintain germ cell line
|
A
|
|
in spermatogonia mitosis, type __ cells pushed toward lumen to become primary spermatocytes
|
B
|
|
primary spermatocytes become secondary spermatocytes during __
|
meiosis I
|
|
secondary spermatocytes become spermatids
|
meiosis II
|
|
spermatids ---> sperm
|
spermiogenesis
|
|
during spermiogenesis spermatids are __
|
nonmotile
|
|
part of the spermatozoa: contains DNA and a crosone
|
head
|
|
part of the spermatozoa: mitochondria spiraled around contractive tail filaments
|
midpiece
|
|
part of the spermatozoa: flagellum elaborated by centriole
|
tail
|
|
bound to one antoher by tight junctions and divide seminiferous tubule into two compartments
|
sustentacular (sertoli) cells
|
|
formed by tight juncitons; spermatozoa are identical and recognized as self and can be influenced by blood-borne chemicals that prompt spermatogenesis
|
blood-testicular barriar
|
|
spermatogenesis takes __ days
|
64-72
|
|
__ controls FSH and LH release
|
GnRH
|
|
stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating sustentacular cells to release androgen-binding protein (ABP) that causes spermatogenic cells to bind and concentrate testosterone that stimulates spermatogenesis
|
FSH
|
|
binds interstitial cells and stimulates testosterone secretion
|
LH
|
|
-secreted from sustentacular cells
-released when sperm count is hight to inhibit FSH and GnRH |
inhibin
|
|
__ also inhibits GnRh
|
testosterone
|
|
GnRH release begins at __
|
puberty
|
|
__ is synthesized from cholesterol
|
testosterone
|
|
duct, gland, and penis growth, and maintenance depends on __
|
testosterone
|
|
-pubic, axillary, gacial hair
-larynx enlarges and voice deepens -skin thickens and becomes oilier -bone growth and increased density -skeletal muscles increase in size and mass -increases BMR and influences behavior -creates sex drive |
secondary sex characteristics of testosterone
|
|
produce eggs, secrete estrogens and progesterone
|
ovaries
|
|
__ support ovaries
|
ligaments
|
|
layers of the ovaries:
|
-tunica albuginea
-germinal epithelium |
|
cuboidal cells on the outside; continuous from peritoneum
|
germinal epithelium
|
|
__ contains oocytes
|
ovarian follicles
|
|
if an oocytes has a single layer it is a __
|
follicle cell
|
|
if a oocyte has more than one layer present it is a __
|
granulosa cell
|
|
one layer of follicular cels around oocyte
|
primordial follicle
|
|
two or more layers of granulosa cells around an oocyte
|
primary follicle
|
|
fluid filled space or antrium develops in oocyte
|
secondary follicle
|
|
oocyte on a stalk of granulosa cells
|
graafian or vesicular follicle
|
|
when the oocyte is ejected from teh ovary
|
ovulation
|
|
ruputed follicle transformed after ovulation
|
corpus luteum
|
|
connected to uterus
|
isthmus
|
|
around teh ovary; fertilization happens here
|
ampulla
|
|
funnel-shaped, finger like projections (fibraiae ciliated
|
infundibulum
|
|
4 regions of teh uterus:
|
-body
-fundus -isthmus -cervix |
|
cervical canal opens to vagina via external OS and with uterus via internal OS
|
cervix
|
|
outer serous layer or visceral peritoneum
|
perimetruim
|
|
smooth muscle layer of uterine wall
|
myometrium
|
|
mucosal lining of uterine wall
|
endometrium
|
|
__ change lenth with thickness
|
endometrial glands
|
|
uterine arteries from __
|
internal illiacs
|
|
3-4 inches long
-aventitia, muscularis and mucosa (containing rugae) -stratified squamous epithelium -no glands in the mucosa-lubrication from cervical mucous glands |
vagina
|
|
the vaginal orifice has a __ in many virgins; bleeds with first intercourse-may have to be cut
|
hymen
|
|
fatty area over pubic symphisis convered with pubic hair
|
mons pubis
|
|
homologous to scrotum
|
labia majora
|
|
homologous to ventral penis
|
labia minora
|
|
encolsed by labia minora; contains urethral opening and vaginal; grateer vestibular glands (homologous to bulbourethral in males)
|
vestibule
|
|
erectile tissue and sensory nerve endings, homologous to penis
|
clitoris
|
|
diamond shaped region
|
perineum
|
|
part of the integumentary system (modified sweat glands)
|
mammary glands
|
|
areola and nipple with sebaceous glands that produce __
|
sebum
|
|
there are __ lobes in each breast open at the nipple
|
15-25
|
|
__ within lobes contain glandular alveoli that produce milk
|
lobules
|
|
-early menses and late menopause
-no pregnancies or later in life -X-rays (overexposure) -smoking, alcohol, high-fat diets -age -previous history -family history |
breast cancer risk factors
|
|
__% of breast cancer patients have no known risk factors
|
70
|
|
produced in fetal period; diploid stem cells multiply by mitosis and enter growth phase
|
oogonia
|
|
begin first meiotic division but are suspended in prophase I
|
primary oocyte
|
|
__ oocytes are present at birth and remain this way until 10-14 years
|
700,000
|
|
the follicular phase __ in length
|
varies
|
|
the luteal phase is __days
|
14
|
|
__ proliferate to form stratified epithelium around oocyte (now granuosa cells)
|
follicular cells
|
|
thecal cells produce adrogens that granulosa cells convert to estrogen
|
theca folliculi
|
|
__ is formed as liquid accumulates in the follicular cavity
|
antrum
|
|
the antrum exapnds and isolates oocte when teh secondary follicle becomes a __ follicle
|
graafian
|
|
the primary follicle complete __ to form secondary oocyte and first polar body
|
meiosis
|
|
stimulated by LH, dominant follicle ovulated
|
ovulation
|
|
during the __ phase, the antrum fills with blood clot (corpus hemorrhagicum) that will be absorbed
|
luteal phase
|
|
during the __ phase, the granulosa and thecal cells enlarge; secretes progesteron and some estrogen
|
luteal
|
|
during the __ phase teh corpus luteum degenerates in 10 days if no fertillization
|
luteal
|
|
scar remaining on teh ovary after corpus luteum degeneration
|
corpus albicans
|
|
small amounts of __ during chlldhood inhibits GnRH
|
estrogens
|
|
at puberty, the __ is less sensitive to estrogen and secrets GnRHrhythmically
|
hypothalamus
|
|
GnRH rises; FHS and LH relased
|
day 1 of menstration
|
|
__ stimulate follicualr growth and maturation
|
FSH and LH
|
|
negative feedback of estrogens on anterior pituitary inhibit __ so accululation occurs; __ from granulosa cells also feeds back negatively on FSH
|
FSH and LH, inhibin
|
|
estrogen reaches critical concentration and exerts __ on brain and anterior pituitary
|
psoitive feedback
|
|
__ surge stimulates primary oocyte to complete meiosis I and triggers ovulation
|
LH and FSH surge
|
|
__ causes corpus luteum formation
|
LH surge
|
|
__ and __ inhibit FSH and LH
|
progesterone and estrogen
|
|
a drop in __ causes the CL to degenerate (unless HCG maintains it)
|
LH
|
|
a drop in __ allows FSH and LH to start the cycle over
|
estrogen and progesteron
|
|
uterine cycle characterized by the: shedding of endometrium
|
menstrual phase
|
|
uterine cycle characterized by the: rebuilding of the endometrium
|
proliferative phase
|
|
uterine cycle characterized by the: following ovulation; increased blood supply
|
secretory phase
|
|
promotes oogenesis and anabolic effects on reproducti e organs; growth spurt at 12-15 at puberty
|
estrogens and progesterone
|
|
-breast growth
-subcutaneous fat depostits -widening and lightening of pelvis -axillary and pubic hair -metabilic effects -cervical mucous changes -inhibition of uterine motility during pregnancy (progesterone) -preparation of breasts for lactation (progesterone) |
secondary sex characteritics of estrogen and progesterone
|
|
bacteria in mucosae of reproductive and urinary tracts; painful urination and pus from penis; women have no symptoms or abdominal discomfort, discharge, bleeding
|
gonorrhea
|
|
bacteria; if passed to fetus, usually stillborn or die shortly after birth; primary lesion which disappears, pink rash weeks later, fever and joint pain, anemia; enters latent period and only detectable by blood test; treatment with penicillen
|
syphilis
|
|
most common in US; discharge, abdominal pain, pain intercourse, irregular meneses, sterility, bacterial
|
chlamydia
|
|
itching, painful intercourse, green discharge, infection
|
vaginiits
|
|
human papiloma virus; most common STI in US; can cause cervical cancer
|
genital warts
|
|
herpes simplex virus, causes blisters
|
genital herpes
|
|
-made of estrogens and progesterons
-trick hypothalamus-pituitary into thining the body is pregnant, so folicles do not develop -morning after pills are similar |
brith control pill
|
|
IUD stand for:
|
intrauterine device
|
|
contraceptive method of knowing when you ovulate
|
ryhthem method
|
|
menopause starts at __ years
|
46-54
|
|
the end of menses
|
menopause
|
|
__ may contribute to osteoporosis during menopause
|
estrogen
|
|
two kinds of abortion pills:
|
-Ru 486
-misoprostol |
|
stops a fertilized egg from attaching to the lining of teh uterus, interferes with progesterone production
|
Ru 486
|
|
how does misoprostol work?
|
causes uterine contractions
|
|
developing embryo/fetus
|
conceptus
|
|
length of pregnancy; 280 days
|
gestation period
|
|
first two weeks of pregnancy
|
preembryo
|
|
weeks 3-8 of pregnancy
|
embryo
|
|
9 weeks to birth, the baby is called a __
|
fetus
|
|
fertilized egg
|
zygote
|
|
the ooctye is viable __ hours and sperm for __ hours
|
12-24, 12-48
|
|
gain ability to fertilize the egg; membranes thin so enzymes can be release from teh arcosome
|
sperm transport and capacitation
|
|
enzymes released near the oocyte; must penetrate the layers
|
acrosomal reaction
|
|
__ of arcosomes are required to breakdown brrier
|
hundreds
|
|
sperm arriving __ has a better chance of fertilizing the egg
|
late
|
|
entry of several sperm into egg
|
polyspermy
|
|
when one sperm enters; sodium channels open and sodium enters oocyte depolarizing membrane (fast block to polyspermy)
|
monospermy
|
|
occurs once sperm has entred (slow block to polyspermy)
|
cortical reaction
|
|
__ is completed by secondary ooctye (activated by calcium) and ejects 2nd polar body; chromosomes combine
|
meiosis II
|
|
fast mitotic divisions after fertilization
|
cleavage
|
|
made after 72 hours, 6 cells or more
|
morula
|
|
100 cells; in uterus now
|
4-5 days
|
|
fluid filled hollow ball
|
blastocyst
|
|
begins 6 days after fertilization; takes about 1 week to complete
|
implantation
|
|
the __ implants in uterus if endometruim is ready; if not mature, blastocytst detaches and moves down further
|
trophoblast
|
|
LH-like hormone that maintains CL, secreted by tophoblast
|
hCG
|
|
what does hCG do?
|
maintains corpus leutuem
|
|
how do pregnancy tests work?
|
antibodies attach to hCG
|
|
originates from embryoinic and endometrial tissues
|
placenta
|
|
chorionic villi become richly vascularized
|
chorion
|
|
the placenta is fully formed and functinal by the the end of the __ month
|
third
|
|
the __ produces high levels of estrogens and progestone to maintain pregnancy and prepare mammary glands for lactation
|
placenta
|
|
where do the estrogen and progestorne come form? if a womean needs progesterone supplements in pregnancy, why do they stop giving them in the second trimester?
|
corpus luteum, placenta takes over
|
|
when there are three primary germ layers present
|
gasturla
|
|
the embryonic membranes: (4)
|
amnion, yolk sac, allantosis, chorion
|
|
sac that fills with amniotic fluid tho cusihion, maintain temp, and aid in movment
|
amnion
|
|
forms part of gut, very early on produces blood cells
|
yolk sac
|
|
structural base for constucting umbilical cord and part of urinary bladder
|
allantois
|
|
the outermost layer of the allantois
|
chorion
|
|
germ layer formation
|
gastrulation
|
|
primary germ layers (3);
|
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
|
|
will become the nervous system and epidermis
|
ectoderm
|
|
will become the epithelial linings and glands
|
endoderm
|
|
the __ becomes every thing
|
mesoderm
|
|
rod of mesodermal cells; first axial support
|
notochord
|
|
carries oxygenated blood form placenta to liver
|
umbilical vein
|
|
bypasses liver, into inferior vena cava
|
ductus venosus
|
|
in a fetsu, blood goes to the __ only to maintain its eclls, metabolic functions are carried out by the mother
|
liver
|
|
bipasses lungs by going from right atrium to left atrium
|
foramen ovale
|
|
blood entering right ventricle to pulmonary trunk but most goes through this shunt to aorta to bypass lungs
|
ductus arteriosus
|
|
carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus
|
umbilical arteries
|
|
vacularization and engorgement of reproductive organs; purpling hue
|
chadwicks sign
|
|
when pregnant, breasts __ with blood, areolae __
|
engorge, darken
|
|
fascial skin pigmmetation change in pregnant woment
|
chloasma
|
|
placental hormone releases; widens and increases flexability of pelvic ligaments
|
relaxin
|
|
when pregnant, a mother will gain ~ __ lbs
|
29
|
|
works with estrogens and progesterone to stiumlate breasts; glucose-sparing effect on mother
|
hPL or hCS
|
|
similar to TSH; inceases metabolic rte
|
hCT
|
|
a rise in __ and __ to casue positive calcium balance during pregnancy
|
PTH and vitamin D
|
|
a mother may have __ until aduested to E and P4 levels; heartburn, and constipation
|
morning sickness
|
|
when a women is pregnant, she will produce __ urine, and may be __
|
more, incontienent
|
|
a pregnant mother will have congestion, __ vital capacity and reperatory rate but __ residual volum, causing dyspnea
|
increased, decreased
|
|
a pregnant woman will have an __ total body water, and __ pulse rate and BP
|
increased, increased
|
|
a pregnant womens blood volume will increase by __% by 32 weeks
|
25-40
|
|
__ moms give birth to babies weighing 5-10% heavier
|
active
|
|
__ stimulates myometrial cells to increase oxytocin receptors and antagonizes progesterones quieting effects (braxton hicks contractions may result in false labor)
|
high estrogen
|
|
a hormone produced by the fetus that acts on placenta to cause prostaglandin release, stimulate uterine contractions
|
oxytocin
|
|
oxytocin from the posterior pituitary of the mother will eventually cuase a __ to increase contraction strength
|
positive feedback mechanism
|
|
Stage of labor: onset of labor until cervix is fully dialted (10 cm); longest stage, lasting 6-12 hours or more
|
dilation
|
|
stages of labor (3):
|
dilation, expulsion, placental
|
|
Stage of labor:
-full dilation to delivery; 50 minutes (first birth) to 2 hours; 20 min in subsequent births, crowing happens here |
expulsion
|
|
when the babies head is in the vulva
|
crowning
|
|
the doctor may have to do an __ during crowining
|
episiotomy
|
|
Stage of labor:
-15 min after birth -after birth including placenta and attached fetal membranes are expelled |
placental
|
|
first few hours after birth
|
neonatal period
|
|
each of 5 signs (heart rate, respiration color, muscle tone and reflexes) given a rating of 0-2 for a total of 10 possible points
|
apgar score
|
|
CO2 accumlates in the blood causing central acidosis that stiumlates repiratory centers
|
first breath
|
|
babies take ~ __ breaths per min
|
45
|
|
umbilical arteries form __
|
medial umbilical ligaments
|
|
the umbilical vein forms the __
|
round ligament of liver
|
|
the ductus venousus forms __
|
ligamentum ovalis
|
|
where foramen ovale was; pressure increases when pulmonary circulation becomes functional and this closes pulmonary shunts
|
fossa ovalis
|
|
forms from the ductus arteriosus
|
ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
all but the foramen ovale occlude withing __ min
|
30
|
|
the foramen ovale takes __ to occlude
|
1 year
|
|
6-8 hours then baby sleeps for 3 hours followed by second period of activyt and sleep
|
transitional period
|
|
release of this is caused by rising placental estrogens, p4 and lactogen stimulate PRH
|
prolactin
|
|
first yellowish fluid produced from breasts; more protein, vitamins, and inerals, rich in IgA in milk)
|
colostrum
|
|
positive feedback due to suckling; oxytocin causes myoepithelial cells to force milk out
|
let-down reflex
|
|
study of the mechanisms of heredity
|
genetics
|
|
X and Y; on pair
|
sex chromosomes
|
|
22 pairs
|
autosomes
|
|
diploid chromosomal complement; shown in homologous chormosome pairs from longest to shortest
|
karyotype
|
|
one form each partent
|
homologous chromosomes
|
|
geners at same lcus on homologous chromosomes; may code same or diferent expression of the trait
|
alleles
|
|
expression of the enotype; what you look like
|
phenotype
|
|
Ll, Mm, etc; your genetic makeup
|
genotype
|
|
allele that masks the expression of teh other
|
dominant
|
|
masked allele
|
recessive
|
|
two alleles controlling a trait are active
|
homozygous
|
|
two alleles are different for same trait
|
heterozygous
|
|
du to independent assortment of chromosomes, corssovers, and random fertilization
|
variation
|
|
__ are formed during meiosis I-maternal parnetal chromosomes are randomly distributed in daughter cells
|
tetrads
|
|
members of allel pair are segregated to different __
|
gametes
|
|
allels on different pairs of homolgous chromosomes are distributed __
|
independently
|
|
gametes have one allele for each __
|
trait
|
|
possible formation of 2^n gamete types where n=number of homologous pairs (23); this comes to 8.5 million possibilites
|
independent assortment
|
|
females only have about __ reduction divisions, so fewer gamete types are produced
|
500
|
|
occurs during meiosis I, genes on a chromosome are linked or passed on as a unit in mitosis
|
crossover of homologues
|
|
exchange of gene segments occurs with homologous chromosomes; result is a mixture of partental and material information
|
recombinant chromosomes
|
|
two of the four chromatids of the tetrad take par in __
|
recombinant chromosomes
|
|
like a coin toss, birht of one shild has no effect on the next
|
independent events
|
|
lethal dominant genes always expressed, so seldom passed on
|
dominant traits
|
|
albinism, cystic fibrosis, tay-sachs disease
|
recessive traits
|
|
does not express trait, but is heterozygous for it
|
carrier
|
|
heterozygous for sickling trait (Ss); normal and sickling Hb produced
|
sickle cell trait
|
|
ss or homozygous recessive; low oxygen in blood casues RBC's to jam and fragment in capillaires du to shape; must have transfusion
|
sickle-cell anemia
|
|
blood type inheritence is __
|
multiple allel inheritence
|
|
traits determined by genes on the sex chromosomes
|
sex linked traits
|
|
genes found only on the X cromosome, males more likely to express these
|
X-linked
|
|
genes that have no couterpart on X chromosome and are passed from fathers to sons only, hairy ears etc.
|
Y-linked trait
|
|
when several gene pairs influence same trait; continuous or qualitiative phenotypic variation on a scale (skin color, intelligence, height etc.
|
polygene inheritence
|
|
__ is controlled by three seperatly inherited genes with 2 allelic forms (A, a, B, b, C, c)
|
skin color
|
|
autism, cancer, diabetes, and cleft lip are all __ inheritance
|
polygene
|
|
drugs, pathogens, et
|
environmental factors of gene expression
|
|
same allel can have different effect from different parent because gene modification occurs during gametogeneisis; confers functional differences in embryo
|
genetic imprinting
|
|
-some genes are on the mitochondria
-eggs donates alomst alll cytoplam to fertilized egg and therefore the mitochondiral genes |
extrachromosomal (mitochondrial) inheritance
|
|
disorders such as parkinsons are suspected to be inherited through __ inheratince
|
extrachromosomal (mitochondiral)
|
|
is important if one parent has a recessive genetic disorder because if partener is heterozygous, cna be inherited by children
|
carrier recognition
|
|
traces genetic traits through generations
|
pedigree
|
|
when amniotic fluid is checked for chemicals that are markers for certain diseases
|
aminocentesis
|
|
aminocentesis usually picks up __ fetal cells in the fluid
|
sloughed off
|
|
__ are checked in amniocentesis
|
DNA markers
|
|
sampling from placenta, faster than aminocentesis because cells divide radily and kayotyping can be done
|
chorionic villi sampling
|