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480 Cards in this Set

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151. How many cell layers thick are hepatic plates? Why is this important?
EITHER 1 TO 2 CELLS, SINUSOIDS MUST BE LOCATED VERY CLOSE TO HEPATOCYTES SO SUBSTANCES AND GASES CAN MOVE FREELY TO AND FROM THE BLOOD TO HEPATOCYTES. VIRTUALLY EVERY HEPATOCYTE IS LOCATED ADJACENT TO A SINUSOID
91. Mixing waves are most vigorous in which part of the stomach?
PYLORUS
185. Microvilli are also known as the brush border. What substances are contained in the cell membrane that digests many types of food molecules?
(BRUSH BORDER) ENZYMES
29. Reference the question above: Name the 2 types of receptors contained within these structures:
GUSTATION (TASTE), AND TOUCH
28. What is the name of the projections of the lamina propria on the dorsal and lateral surfaces of the tongue?
PAPILLAE
116. What event initiates the enterogastric reflex?
DUODENAL DISTENTION WITH CHYME
117. Reference the question above: How is sympathetic nervous system output to the stomach affected? How is parasympathetic output to the stomach affected?
SYMPATHETIC OUTPUT TO THE STOMACH INCREASES, PARASYMPATHETIC OUTPUT TO THE STOMACH DECREASES, THE NET RESULT = DECREASED GASTRIC MOTILITY
231. Approximately how much water (in ml) remains in the large intestine after maximal osmosis has occurred?
100 - 200 mL
133. Reference the question above: Name the intestinal brush border enzyme that activates trypsinogen:
ENTEROKINASE
132. List 3 inactive zymogens in pancreatic juice that, when activated, become proteases:
TRYPSINOGEN, CHYMOTRYPSINOGEN, PROELASTASE
141. What is the name of the structure that divides the liver into right and left lobes?
FALCIFORM LIGAMENT
142. Reference the question above: What other function does this structure have?
SUSPENDS THE LIVER FROM THE DIAPHRAGM
145. Liver lobules are composed of specialized epithelial cells. Name them:
HEPATOCYTES
146. Reference the question above: List 3 functions that these cells perform:
HORMONE AND DRUG METABOLISM, CLEAR WASTE PRODUCTS FROM THE BLOOD, PRODUCE BILE
160. Name the principle bile pigment:
BILIRUBIN
161. Reference the question above: What portion/part of hemoglobin does this pigment come from?
HEME
172. Reference the question above: All but one of the vitamins is fat soluble. Which one is water soluble?
B12
171. List the vitamins stored within the liver:
B12, A, K, E, D
174. List the 3 regions of the gallbladder:
FUNDUS, BODY, NECK
175. Reference the question above: Which region projects most inferiorly? Why is this important?
FUNDUS, SO STORED BILE WILL NOT LEAK OUT
198. Name the 4 fat-soluble vitamins discussed in class:
D, A, K, E
199. Reference the question above: These vitamins commonly absorbed with what other substance?
LIPIDS
30. Name the 3 parts of the pharynx:
NASOPHARYNX, OROPHARYNX, LARYNGOPHARYNX
31. Reference the question above: Which 2 parts are involved in both respiratory and digestive functions?
OROPHARYNX AND LARYNGOPHARYNX
205. Reference the question above: From which region is the vermiform appendix attached?
CECUM
204. List, in sequence, the 4 major regions of the large intestine:
CECUM, COLON, RECTUM, ANAL CANAL
206. List, in sequence, the 4 segments of the colon:
ASCENDING, TRANSVERSE, DESCENDING, SIGMOID
207. Reference the question above: Which segment projects medially to the midline and terminates at the rectum?
SIGMOID
213. Reference the question above: What structures are contained within the folds?
A NETWORK OF VEINS AND ARTERIES
212. Name the longitudinal mucosal folds located in the anal canal:
ANAL COLUMNS
214. Reference the question above: What medical condition occurs if these structures are abnormally dilated?
HEMORRHOIDS
217. The large intestinal mucosa is composed of 2 types of epithelial cells. Name them:
ABSORPTIVE AND GOBLET
218. Reference the question above: Where are these cells located?
IN CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
223. Name the structure that regulates passage of chyme from the ileum into the cecum:
ILEOCECAL VALVE (ILEOCECAL SPHINCTER)
224. Reference the question above: Does this structure remain completely closed when chyme is not passing through? Why or why not?
NO, IT NORMALLY REMAINS PARTIALLY OPEN WHEN THE INDIVIDUAL IS NOT EATING ALLOWING VERY SLOW PASSAGE OF CHYME. THIS ALLOWS ADEQUATE DEHYDRATION OF CHYME FORMING FECES
183. Each question below describes 1 of 4 different structures within the small intestine that comprise the digestive and absorptive surface:
(1)   Which structure enhances mechanical digestion?
CIRCULAR FOLDS
(3)   Which structure is lined with several types of epithelial cells?
CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
(2)   Which structure is composed of projections of the apical membrane of intestinal absorptive cells?
MICROVILLI
(4)   Which structure is composed of fingerlike mucosal projections?
VILLI
216. For each anal sphincter, identify if it is composed of smooth muscle or skeletal muscle:
(1)   External:
SKELETAL MUSCLE
(2)   Internal:
SMOOTH MUSCLE
47. Name 2 effects that the sympathetic nervous system has on GI tract function:
DECREASES SECRETIONS, AND DECREASES MOTILITY
48. Reference the question above: Briefly explain why it is important that these changes in GI tract function occur:
DURING THE "FLIGHT OR FLIGHT" RESPONSE, IT IS IMPORTANT THAT MOST BLOOD FLOW TO THE GI TRACT BE DIVERTED TO EXERCISING SKELETAL MUSCLES AND OTHER TISSUES THAT REQUIRE MORE BLOOD FLOW
58. List the 3 stages of swallowing:
ORAL, PHARYNGEAL, AND ESOPHAGEAL
59. Reference the question above: During which stage does the epiglottis close off the trachea?
PHARYNGEAL
67. Chyme is propelled through the small intestine via 2 mechanisms. Name them:
PERISTALSIS AND SEGMENTATIONS
68. Reference the question above: Which mechanism is the most frequent type of smooth muscle contraction in the small intestine?
SEGMENTATIONS
85. Name the substance that is trapped by the mucous layer at the epithelial cell surface of the stomach:
HCO3-
86. Reference the question above: What is the function of this substance?
KEEPING THE pH NEAREST THE EPITHELIUM AT APPROXIMATELY 7.0
100. Name the active transport mechanism responsible for secretion of H+ and Cl- into the gastric lumen:
PROTON PUMP
101. Reference the question above: Name 2 “stimulators” of this mechanism:
VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION AND GASTRIN
103. Briefly explain how H+ is produced in parietal cells:
CARBONIC ACID IMMEDIATELY DISSOCIATES INTO H+ AND HCO3-
104. Reference the question above: Name the enzyme catalyst:
CARBONIC ANHYDRASE
109. Gastrin is secreted from which type of gastric cell?
G CELLS
110. Reference the question above: What stimulates gastrin secretion?
THE PRESENCE OF PARTIALLY DIGESTED PROTEINS
99. Briefly explain histamine function:
IT STIMULATES NEARBY PARIETAL CELLS TO SECRETE H+ AND Cl- INTO THE STOMACH LUMEN
98. Histamine is released from what cell type?
ECL CELLS
97. Pepsin activity is most effective in a HIGH or LOW pH?
LOW
96. Pepsin digests what substance(s)?
PROTEINS
95. Pepsinogen is released from what gastric cell type?
CHIEF CELLS
94. The sight, smell, or thought of food stimulates release of what neurotransmitter substance?
ACh
93. What substance in gastric juice inactivates salivary amylase?
HYRDROCHLORIC ACID
92. Once food mixes with gastric juice, lingual lipase activity begins. What activates lingual lipase?
THE LOW pH IN THE STOMACH
90. Swallowed food is stored in which part of the stomach until it mixes with gastric juice?
FUNDUS
9. In which wall layer is the myenteric nerve plexus located?
MUSCULARIS
89. Gastrin is secreted from which gastric gland cell?
G CELLS
88. Name the gastric gland cell that secretes histamine:
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN-LIKE (ECL) CELLS
87. Name 2 substances secreted by chief cells:
PEPSINOGEN AND GASTRIC LIPASE
84. How thick is the mucous layer overlying the gastric mucosa?
ABOUT 1-3 MM
83. Name 2 substances secreted by parietal cells:
HYDROCHLORIC ACID AND INTRINSIC FACTOR
82. What is the name of the small openings that arise from within gastric mucosal folds?
GASTRIC PITS
81. Describe stomach rugae:
VISIBLE MUCOSAL FOLDS THAT INCREASE THE SURFACE AREA
80. What is the name of the convex lateral border of the stomach?
GREATER CURVATURE
8. Which wall layer is known as the visceral peritoneum?
SEROSA
79. What is the name of the concave medial border of the stomach?
LESSER CURVATURE
78. Name the 3 parts of the pylorus from most proximal to most distal:
PYLORIC ANTRUM, PYLORIC CANAL, PYLORIC SPHINCTER
77. List the 4 regions of the stomach from the most superior aspect to the most inferior aspect:
CARDIA, FUNDUS, BODY, PYLORUS
76. In the stomach, starch digestion continues via the action of which enzyme?
SALIVARY AMYLASE
75. Name 2 major functions of the stomach:
MIXING AND HOLDING CHAMBER
74. Which type of diarrhea is most common?
OSMOTIC
73. What is another name for reverse peristalsis?
VOMITING
72. How often does mass peristalsis occur?
OCCURS 1-4 TIMES DAILY (VARIES BETWEEN PHYSIOLOGY REFERENCES)
71. What is the stimulus for mass peristalsis?
WHEN ACTIVE DIGESTION IS OCCURING IN THE UPPER GI TRACT
70. Where does segmental propulsion occur? How is forward movement of chyme affected?
LARGE INTESTINE, FORWARD MOVEMENT IS VERY SLOW BECAUSE THE PURPOSE OF SEGMENTAL PROPULSION IS TO ALLOW DEHYDRATION OF CHYME
7. Smooth muscle of the muscularis is divided into 2 layers based on how the muscle is oriented. In which direction is each muscle layer oriented? Why is this significant?
LONGITUDINAL AND CIRCULAR, CONTRACTIONS OF CIRCULAR MUSCLE MIX GI CONCENTRATIONS LOCALLY WHILE CONTRACTIONS OF LONGITUDINAL MUSCLES PROPEL GI CONTENTS FORWARD THROUGH THE TRACT
69. What causes peristaltic rushes?
CERTAIN BACTERIA OR IRRITANTS WITHIN THE INTESTINAL LUMEN
66. What is the stimulus for receptive relaxation of the duodenum?
VAGALLY-MEDIATED RELEASE OF VIP
65. What is chyme?
GASTRIC SECRETIONS MIXED WITH INGESTED FOOD
64. Name the 2 luminal receptors in the gastric wall that stimulate mixing contractions:
MECHANORECEPTORS AND CHEMORECEPTORS
63. Briefly describe receptive relaxation of the stomach:
AS THE FOOD BOLUS ENTERS THE STOMACH, VAGALLY-MEDIATED RELEASE OF VIP RELAXES GASTRIC SMOOTH MUSCLE
62. Briefly explain how the LES relaxes as a food bolus approaches:
VAGAL RELEASE OF NITRIC OXIDE AND VASOACTIVE INTESTINAL PEPTIDE (VIP) VIA IMPULSES SENT FROM MECHANORECEPTORS IN THE ESOPHAGEAL WALL
61. When/why does secondary esophageal peristalsis occur?
THEY OCCUR IF ESOPHAGEAL SMOOTH MUSCLE IS STRETCHED BY A LARGE, DRY FOOD BOLUS AND THEY ASSIST PRIMARY ESOPHAGEAL PERISTALSIS IN MOVING THE FOOD BOLUS INTO THE STOMACH
60. The swallowing center in the medulla stimulates what type of esophageal peristalsis?
PRIMARY
6. List the 4 wall layers of the GI tract IN ORDER from the lumen to external surface:
MUCOSA, SUBMUCOSA, MUSCULARIS, SEROSA
57. Briefly describe migrating myoelectric complexes (MMCs):
CONTRACTILE WAVES OF SHORT DURATION THAT PROPEL UNDIGESTED MATERIAL AND BACTERIA OUT OF THE STOMACH AND SMALL INTESTINE INTO THE COLON DURING FASTING PERIODS. THEY ORIGINATE IN THE MID-STOMACH AND TERMINATE WITHIN THE TERMINAL ILEUM
56. Name 2 substances released by inhibitory motor neurons that cause smooth muscle relaxation:
NITRIC OXIDE AND VASOACTIVE INTESTINAL PEPTIDE (VIP)
55. Name 2 hormones that cause smooth muscle contraction:
CHOLECYSTOKININ (CCK) AND GASTRIN
54. Name 2 parasympathetic neurotransmitter substances that cause smooth muscle contraction:
ACETYLCHOLINE AND SUBSTANCE P
53. What must occur to the resting membrane potential of smooth muscle fibers to cause contraction?
DEPOLARIZATION
52. What are slow waves? Where are they generated?
UNDULATIONS IN RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL THAT DO NOT CAUSE MUSCLE CONTRACTION. THEY ARE GENERATED BY INTERSTITIAL CELLS OF CAJAL LOCATED BETWEEN THE 2 SMOOTH MUSCLE LAYERS OF THE MUSCULARIS
51. What is a specific electrical characteristic of GI tract smooth muscle?
SMOOTH MUSCLE FIBERS DO NOT HAVE A STABLE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL
50. Describe the function of luminal chemoreceptors:
THEY SENSE CHEMICAL COMPOSITION OF INGESTED FOOD AND FLUIDS
5. List 2 functions of lymphatic capillaries in the GI tract:
LIPID ABSORPTION (SM INTESTINE) AND FLUID AND PROTEIN ABSORPTION (LIVER)
49. Describe the function of luminal mechanoreceptors:
THEY SENSE WALL STRETCHING CAUSED BY INGESTED FOOD AND FLUIDS
46. What is the name of the nerves that supply parasympathetic fibers to most of the GI tract?
VAGUS
45. Name 2 effects that the parasympathetic nervous system has on GI tract function:
INCREASES SECRETIONS, AND INCREASES MOTALITY
44. The ENS receives neural input from what receptor type?
LUMINAL
43. Describe the function of Meissner’s plexus:
REGULATES LOCAL GI TRACT SECRETIONS
42. Describe the function of Auerbach’s plexus:
REGULATES SMOOTH MUSCLE CONTRACTIONS AND RELAXATIONS THAT MIXES AND PROPELS GI CONTENTS
41. Does function of the enteric nervous system (ENS) require input from the autonomic nervous system? YES NO
NO
40. What is the name of the external layer of the esophageal wall?
ADVENTITIA
4. Blood is transported away from the intestines and to the liver via which vessel(s)?
PORTAL VEIN
39. Describe the Z line:
IT DELINEATES THE JUNCTION OF THE GASTRIC AND ESOPHAGEAL MUCOSA
38. What is the function of the LES?
REGULATES FOOD MOVEMENT FROM THE ESOPHAGUS INTO THE STOMACH
37. The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is formed by which tissue layer of the esophageal wall?
MUSCULARIS
36. Why are mucous cells more numerous in the distal esophagus?
THEIR SECRETIONS PROTECT THE DISTAL ESOPHAGUS FROM VERY ACIDIC GASTRIC SECRETIONS
35. Describe a hiatal hernia:
A PROTRUSION OF A PORTION OF THE CARDIA OR FUNDUS OF THE STOMACH THROUGH THE ESOPHAGEAL HIATUS INTO THE CHEST CAVITY
34. The esophagus pierces the diaphragm through what structure?
ESOPHAGEAL HIATUS
33. The esophagus passes through the thorax within what structure?
MEDIASTINUM
32. Is the esophagus located anterior or posterior to the trachea? Why is this important?
POSTERIOR, C-SHAPED TRACHEAL CARTILAGE SEGMENTS ALLOW THE ESOPHAGUS TO EXPAND ANDTERIORLY DURING SWALLOWING (YOU CANNOT SWALLOW AND BREATHE AT THE SAME TIME)
3. Name the arteries that transport blood to the GI tract (the intestines):
SPLANCHNIC BED (SUPERIOR AND INFERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERIES)
27. Name the groove on the surface of the tongue that divides it into R and L halves:
MEDIAN SEPTUM
26. Describe the lingual frenulum and its function:
IT IS A MUCOSAL FOLD I THE MIDLINE OF THE UNDERSURFACE OF THE TONGUE. IT LIMITS POSTERIOR MOVEMENT OF THE TONGUE
25. Which part of the autonomic nervous system stimulates salivation?
PARASYMPATHETIC
24. What ultimately happens to most of the water in saliva?
IT IS ABSORBED INTO THE BLOOD FROM THE GI TRACT
234. Normally, feces are not expelled until a time that a person decides is appropriate. What must occur at that time for feces to be expelled?
THE INDIVIDUAL MUST VOLUNTARILY RELAX THE EXTERNAL ANAL SPHINCTER
233. Once feces enter the rectum, mechanoreceptors are stimulated. Name the reflex:
DEFECATION REFLEX
232. Name the mechanism that pushes fecal material into the rectum:
MASS PERISTALSIS
230. Are enzymes secreted in the large intestine? YES NO Why?
NO, MOST DIGESTION OCCURRED IN THE SMALL INTESTINE + THE LARGE INTESTINE MUCOSA DOES NOT POSSESS ENZYME-SECRETING CELLS
23. Saliva contains 2 enzymes. Name them:
LINGUAL LIPASE AND SALIVARY AMYLASE (PTYALIN)
229. What digestive role do bacteria play within the colon lumen?
CARBOHYDRATE FERMENTATION
228. Briefly describe the gastrocolic reflex:
FOOD ENTERING THE STOMACH STIMULATES MASS PERISTALSIS 1 - 4 TIMES DAILY. THIS MECHANISM INSURES THAT THE COLON IS EVACUATED MAKING ROOM FOR MORE CHYME AND FECES FORMATION
227. When do colon movements begin?
WHEN GI CONTENTS PASS THROUGH THE ILEOCECAL VALVE
226. Name the reflex that occurs after a meal that intensifies peristalsis in the ileum forcing chyme into the cecum:
GASTROILEAL REFLEX
225. Name the hormone that relaxes and opens the ileocecal valve:
GASTRIN
222. Identify the small pouches of visceral peritoneum filled with fat that “hang” from the external surface of the colon:
EPIPLOIC APPENDAGES
221. Briefly describe teniae coli:
IT IS MADE OF 3 LONGITUDINAL SMOOTH MUSCLE BANDS ALONG THE ENTIRE LENGTH OF THE COLON
220. Name the structures formed by the muscularis layer that give the colon a “puckered” appearance:
HAUSTRA
22. Name the salivary glands located in the tongue:
LINGUAL SALIVARY GLANDS
219. Name the structures that increase the absorptive surface area of the large intestine:
MICROVILLI
215. What structure delineates the distal extent of the anal columns and the proximal edge of the anoderm?
DENTATE LINE (AKA PECTINATE LINE)
211. What is the primary function of the rectum?
FECES STORAGE PRIOR TO ELIMINATION
210. Why is it important to know about the flexures named above? [hint: this adverse event may occur during a colonoscopy (a type of endoscopy) if the person performing the procedure is too aggressive when advancing the endoscope through the large bowel]:
THE DEGREE OF FLEXION PREDISPOSES TO COLON PERFORATION IF THE ENDOSCOPE IS ADVANCED TOO RAPIDLY. GREAT CARE MUST BE TAKEN WHEN ADVANCING THE ENDOSCOPE THROUGH BOTH FLEXURES
21. List the names of the 3 major salivary glands:
PAROTID, SUBMANDIBULAR, SUBLINGUAL
209. Describe the splenic flexure:
A FLEXED AREA OF THE COLON BETWEEN THE TRANSVERSE COLON AND DESCENDING COLON
208. Describe the hepatic flexure:
A FLEXED AREA OF THE COLON BETWEEN THE ASCENDING AND TRANSVERSE COLON
203. List the 3 primary functions carried out by the large intestine:
COMPLETION OF NUTRIENT ABSORPTION, VITAMIN PRODUCTION (SOME), FECES FORMATION AND EXCRETION
202. Normally an osmotic balance is maintained between the water in the small bowel lumen and the blood. Name 3 substances commonly absorbed from the small bowel that create an osmotic gradient that favors water absorption:
ELECTROLYTES, AMINO ACIDS, MONOSACCHARIDES
201. What is the approximate percentage of water absorption in the small intestine? This equates to how many liters per day?
ABOUT 90% / 9.2 L/DAY
200. What substance must vitamin B12 combine with before it can be absorbed from the small intestine?
INTRINSIC FACTOR
20. What are the 4 major functions of saliva?
LUBRICATION, COOLS FOOD AND LIQUIDS, PROVIDES DIGESTIVE ENZYMES, AND PROTECTS THE GI TRACT VIA IgA, WBCs, AND OPSONINS
2. Name the GI tract hormone responsible for the feeling of fullness we experience after a meal:
LEPTIN
197. Approximately how much iron is absorbed in the small intestine per day?
APPROXIMATELY 1 MG
196. Absorbed iron (from hemoglobin or myoglobin, or absorbed as free iron) is transported from enterocytes into surrounding blood capillaries. What substance within the blood binds iron?
TRANSFERRIN
195. What substance regulates absorption of dietary calcium?
ACTIVE VITAMIN D (1, 25 DIHYDROXYCHOLECALCIFEROL)
194. Dietary calcium enters the enterocytes down a concentration gradient. What intracellular substance maintains this concentration gradient? How does this substance work?
CALBINDIN, CALBINDIN MEDIATES CALCIUM TRANSPORT ACROSS THE CYTOSOL OF THE ENTEROCYTE WITHOUT RAISING THE (NORMALLY) VERY LOW INTRACELLULAR FREE CALCIUM CONCENTRATION
193. Briefly explain how chylomicrons enter the systemic blood circulation:
THEY ARE TOO LARGE TO ENTER THE CAPILLARIES IN VILLI, THEY ARE ABLE TO ENTER LACTEALS, LYMPH FLUID CONTAINING CHYLOMICRONS IS "DUMPED" INTO THE SYSTEMIC BLOOD CIRCULATION AT THE JUNCTION OF THE LEFT INTERNAL JUGULAR VEIN AND LEFT SUBCLAVIAN VEIN
192. Name the group of brush border enzymes that digest proteins:
PEPTIDASES
191. What is cellulose? What function does it serve within the large intestine?
AN UNDIGESTIBLE GLUCOSE POLYMER, "HOLDS" WATER IN THE LUMEN OF THE LARGE INTESTINE RESULTING IN SOFTER FECES AND ALSO PROVIDES "BULK" TO FECES
190. Name the group of brush border enzymes that digest carbohydrates:
POLYSACCHARIDASES
19. What is the name of the peritoneal fold that binds the large intestine to the posterior abdominal wall?
MESOCOLON
189. Except for part of the duodenum, this tissue layer completely surrounds the small intestine. Name it:
THE SEROSA (VISCERAL PERITONEUM)
188. Describe Brunner’s glands:
SMALL SUBMUCOSAL GLANDS THAT SECRETE AN ALKALINE MUCOUS
187. Describe Peyer’s patches:
AGGREGATES OF LYMPH NODULES LOCATED PRIMARILY IN THE MUCOSAL LAYER OF THE ILEUM
186. Name the tissue within the small intestinal mucosa that generates immune responses:
MUCOSA-ASSOCIATED LYMPHATIC TISSUE
184. Villi have a core of lamina propria containing several structures. Name them:
ARTERIOLE, VENULE, BLOOD CAPILLARY NETWORK, LACTEAL
182. Name the sphincter located between the distal small intestine and the proximal large intestine:
ILEOCECAL SPHINCTER (VALVE)
181. Name the sphincter located between the stomach and the proximal small intestine:
PYLORIC SPHINCTER
180. List the 3 regions of the small intestine in sequence from proximal to distal:
DUODENUM, JEJUNUM, ILEUM
18. Describe the mesentery: Which organ does it bind to the posterior abdominal wall? What structures does it contain?
IT BINDS THE SMALL INTESTINE TO THE POSTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL. IT CONTAINS BLOOD AND LYMPH VESSELS AND LYMPH NODES
179. In what part of the GI tract does most nutrient and fluid absorption occur? What structural characteristic allows this to occur?
THE SMALL INTESTINE, LARGE MUCOSAL SURFACE AREA
178. The gallbladder performs 2 functions. Name them:
BILE STORAGE AND BILE CONCENTRATION
177. Smooth muscle in the gallbladder wall contracts in response to which substance? During which phase of digestion is this substance secreted?
CHOLECYSTOKININ (CCK), INTESTINAL PHASE
176. What is the name of the mucosal folds in the gallbladder?
RUGAE
173. The liver hydroxylates cholecalciferol into an inactive precursor substance of what vitamin?
VITAMIN D
170. List 4 substances discussed in class that are produced or modified by the liver:
INSULIN-LIKE GROWTH FACTOR, HEPATOCYTE GROWTH FACTOR, ANGIOTENSINOGEN, THROMBOPOIETIN
17. The lesser omentum suspends 2 organs from the liver. Name them:
STOMACH AND DUODENUM
169. Name the duct that transports bile to and from the gallbladder:
CYSTIC DUCT
168. Between meals, bile accumulates and is stored in what structure? Why does this occur?
GALLBLADDER, THE SPHINCTER OF ODDI CLOSES BETWEEN MEALS. BILE IS CONTINUALLY PRODUCED BY HEPATOCYTES, SO IT IS STORED IN THE GALLBLADDER FOR FUTURE USE
167. List, in sequence, the ducts that bile flows through from the portal triads to the sphincter of Oddi:
BILE DUCTS, R AND L HEPATIC DUCTS, COMMON HEPATIC DUCT, COMMON BILE DUCT, SPHINCTER OF ODDI
166. Reference the question above: Name the structure that transports bile from the structure named above to bile ducts within portal triads:
BILE DUCTULES
165. Hepatocytes secrete bile into what structure?
BILE CANALICULI
164. Bile + lipids = ____________________
MICELLES
163. What is the primary function of bile salts? Why is this important?
EMULSIFICATION, BREAKS DOWN LARGER LIPID MOLECULES INTO SMALLER ONES INCREASING THE SURFACE AREA AVAILABLE ON LIPID MOLECULES FOR PANCREATIC LIPASE ACTIVITY
162. Name the substance that gives feces their characteristic brown color:
BILIVERDIN
16. What is the name of the peritoneal fold that attaches the liver to the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall?
FALCIFORM LIGAMENT
159. What is bile?
AN EXCRETORY PRODUCT AND A DIGESTIVE SECRETION CONTAINING WATER AND OTHER SUBSTANCES
158. List the 3 structures located within a portal triad:
BILE DUCT, BRANCH OF THE HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN, BRANCH OF THE HEPATIC ARTERY
157. Reference the question above: Pathologically increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) may cause a buildup of excess peritoneal fluid. What is the name of this condition?
ASCITES
156. What is the name of the vessel that transports blood out of the liver? What is the normal blood pressure within this vessel?
HEPATIC VEIN / 1 mmHg
155. Blood flowing from sinusoids enters what vessel within a liver lobule?
CENTRAL VEIN
154. What is the “first pass” effect?
NEWLY ABSORBED SUBSTANCES FROM THE GI TRACT ARE TAKEN UP BY HEPATOCYTES BEFORE THIS BLOOD CIRCULATES INTO THE REMAINDER OF THE SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION
153. The liver is a common site for cancer metastases from the GI tract (especially). Explain why this occurs (hint: it has to do with blood flow):
BLOOD FLOW FROM THE GI TRACT IS TRANSPORTED DIRECTLY TO THE LIVER. SOME CANCER CELLS CAN ENTER THE BLOOD (I.E., FROM THE COLON) AND BECOME "LODGED" IN SINUSOIDS. A NEW CANCEROUS TUMOR WILL GROW IN THE LIVER.
152. Name the 2 vessels that transport blood to the liver and whether or not blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated:
PORTAL VEIN: DEOXYGENATED, HEPATIC ARTERY: OXYGENATED
150. What are spaces of Disse? Where are they located?
SPACES THAT CONTAIN INTERSTITIAL FLUID LOCATED AROUND THE SINUSOIDS
15. Describe the greater omentum: What structure is it attached to? It normally contains a large amount of what type of tissue? What function does it perform?
LARGEST PERITONEAL FOLD THAT HANGS DOWN LIKE AN APRON. IT IS ATTACHED TO THE TRANSVERSE COLON, AND IT CONTAINS ADIPOSE TISSUE. IT ALSO CONTAINS LYMPH NODES THAT FUNCTION TO CONTAIN AND COMBAT SOME GI TRACT INFECTIONS
149. Name the type of cell within liver lobules that is responsible for “cleaning up” and destroying old red blood cells, white blood cells, foreign matter, and bacteria:
KUPFFER CELLS
148. Name the highly permeable capillaries within liver lobules:
SINUSOIDS
147. Name the largest blood vessel within a liver lobule:
CENTRAL VEIN
144. Name the structure that works in tandem with the falciform ligament suspending the liver from the diaphragm:
CORONARY LIGAMENT
143. What is the name of the structure that is the remnant of the fetal umbilical vein?
LIGAMENTUM TERES / ROUND LIGAMENT
140. At any given time, the liver contains approximately how much of a person’s total blood volume?
AROUND 8%
14. Describe the peritoneal cavity and explain why it is considered a potential space:
A NARROW SPACE BETWEEN THE PARIETAL AND VISCERAL PERITONEUM. THIS SPACE NORMALLY CONTAINS A SMALL AMOUNT OF SEROUS FLUID; HOWEVER, THIS SPACE HAS THE CAPABILITY TO HOLD SEVERAL LITERS OF FLUID PRODUCED IN CERTAIN PATHOLOGIC CONDITIONS. THERE ARE NO ANATOMIC STRUCTURES THAT PREVENT EXPANSION OF THE PERITONEAL CAVITY
139. What is the primary function of trypsin inhibitor?
IT COMBINES WITH ANY TRYPSIN THAT FORMS INSIDE PANCREATIC ACINAR CELLS BLOCKING ITS ENZYMATIC ACTIVITY, THIS PREVENTS ACINAR CELL "DIGESTION"
138. What is the name of the substance that binds to bile enhancing pancreatic lipase activity on lipids in chyme?
COLIPASE
137. What is the function of pancreatic lipase?
HYDROLYSES DIETARY TRIGLYCERIDES INTO MONOGLYCERIDES AND FREE FATTY ACIDS
136. Which pancreatic enzyme hydrolyzes starch molecules in chyme? What is the final product of this reaction?
PANCREATIC AMYLASE, MALTOSE
135. What is the primary function of proteases?
PROTEIN DIGESTION
134. What is/are the function(s) of trypsin?
ACTIVATES MORE TRYPSINOGEN, ACTIVATES OTHER PROTEASES
131. What functions does pancreatic NaHCO3 perform in regard to digestion?
IT ACTS AS A BUFFER
130. Which pancreatic cell type comprises approximately 1% of pancreatic cells?
ISLETS OF LANGERHANS
13. Which part of the peritoneum lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity?
PARIETAL PERITONEUM
129. Bile and pancreatic juice can only enter the duodenum when this sphincter is open. What is the name of this sphincter?
SPHINCTER OF ODDI
128. What is the name of the short “passageway” that bile and pancreatic juice flow through just before they enter the duodenum?
AMPULLA OF VATER (HEPATOPANCREATIC AMPULLA)
127. List the 3 regions of the pancreas:
HEAD, BODY, AND TAIL
126. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for GIP release?
PRESENCE OF GLUCOSE, FATTY ACIDS, AND AMINO ACIDS IN CHYME
125. Gastric inhibitory (insulinotropic) peptide (GIP) is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
ENTEROENDOCRINE CELLS LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
124. What substance in pancreatic juice acts as a buffer for chyme in the small intestine?
BICARBONATE
123. List the functions of secretin:
STIMULATES SECRETION OF PANCREATIC
122. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for secretin release?
PRESENCE OF ACIDIC CHYME IN THE DUODENUM
121. Secretin is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
S CELLS, LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
120. List the functions of CCK:
STIMULATES PANCREATIC ENZYME SECRETION, STIMULATES GALLBLADDER CONTRACTIONS THAT RELEASE BILE INTO THE DUODENUM, RELAXES THE SPHINCTER OF ODDI ALLOWING BILE AND PANCREATIC JUICE TO FLOW INTO THE DUODENUM, ENHANCES EFFECTS OF SECRETIN, CAUSES A SENSATION OF SATIETY
12. Which wall layer is the major absorptive and secretory layer?
MUCOSA
119. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for CCK release?
CHYME IN THE DUODENUM CONTAINING FATTY ACIDS AND AMINO ACIDS
118. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
CCK CELLS LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
115. Reflexes slow the exit of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum. List 2 reasons why this is important:
PREVENTS OVERLOADING OF THE DUODENUM, AND ALLOWS MORE TIME FOR FOOD DIGESTION WITHIN THE SMALL INTESTINE
114. List 2 factors that determine the gastric emptying time:
QUANTITY OF FOOD INGESTED AND TYPE OF FOOD INGESTED
113. What is another name for the gastric emptying time?
TRANSIT TIME
112. Briefly explain what happens to gastrin and HCl secretion as gastric acidity increases:
GASTRIN AND HYDROCHLORIC ACID SECRETION DECREASES (NEGATIVE FEEDBACK CONTROL ON HCl SECRETION
111. What is the primary function of gastrin?
STIMULATES ECL SECRETION OF HISTAMINE (STIMULATES PROTON PUMP FUNCTION)
11. List the 3 layers of the mucosa IN ORDER from the lumen outward:
EPITHELIAL CELLS, LAMINA PROPRIA, MUSCULARIS MUCOSAE
108. List 2 factors that increase gastric secretions:
STOMACH DIGESTION AND CHEMICAL CONTENT OF CHYME
107. Can proton pump activity be inhibited pharmacologically?
YES-VIA PROTON PUMP INHIBITORS AND H2 BLOCKERS
106. Describe the alkaline tide:
BLOOD pH CAN TEMPORARILY INCREASE AFTER LARGE MEALS
105. Briefly explain what happens to HCO3- that is produced within the parietal cell:
HCO3 IN PARIETAL CELLS IS EXCHANGED FOR CHLORIDE IN INTERSTITIAL FLUID BY THE ACTION OF HCO3 / Cl- ANTIPORTERS IN THE BASAL CELL MEMBRANE. HCO3 DIFFUSES INTO NEARBY BLOOD VESSELS.
102. What prevents H+ from diffusing back into parietal cells down its concentration gradient?
TIGHT JUNCTIONS BETWEEN MUCOSAL CELLS
10. The submucosa layer contains a nerve plexus. Name it:
SUBMUCOSAL NERVE PLEXUS
1. List 2 ways that appetite and hunger are stimulated:
SENSORY INPUT, LOW BLOOD GLUCOSE CONCENTRATION
151. How many cell layers thick are hepatic plates? Why is this important?
EITHER 1 TO 2 CELLS, SINUSOIDS MUST BE LOCATED VERY CLOSE TO HEPATOCYTES SO SUBSTANCES AND GASES CAN MOVE FREELY TO AND FROM THE BLOOD TO HEPATOCYTES. VIRTUALLY EVERY HEPATOCYTE IS LOCATED ADJACENT TO A SINUSOID
91. Mixing waves are most vigorous in which part of the stomach?
PYLORUS
185. Microvilli are also known as the brush border. What substances are contained in the cell membrane that digests many types of food molecules?
(BRUSH BORDER) ENZYMES
29. Reference the question above: Name the 2 types of receptors contained within these structures:
GUSTATION (TASTE), AND TOUCH
28. What is the name of the projections of the lamina propria on the dorsal and lateral surfaces of the tongue?
PAPILLAE
116. What event initiates the enterogastric reflex?
DUODENAL DISTENTION WITH CHYME
117. Reference the question above: How is sympathetic nervous system output to the stomach affected? How is parasympathetic output to the stomach affected?
SYMPATHETIC OUTPUT TO THE STOMACH INCREASES, PARASYMPATHETIC OUTPUT TO THE STOMACH DECREASES, THE NET RESULT = DECREASED GASTRIC MOTILITY
231. Approximately how much water (in ml) remains in the large intestine after maximal osmosis has occurred?
100 - 200 mL
133. Reference the question above: Name the intestinal brush border enzyme that activates trypsinogen:
ENTEROKINASE
132. List 3 inactive zymogens in pancreatic juice that, when activated, become proteases:
TRYPSINOGEN, CHYMOTRYPSINOGEN, PROELASTASE
141. What is the name of the structure that divides the liver into right and left lobes?
FALCIFORM LIGAMENT
142. Reference the question above: What other function does this structure have?
SUSPENDS THE LIVER FROM THE DIAPHRAGM
145. Liver lobules are composed of specialized epithelial cells. Name them:
HEPATOCYTES
146. Reference the question above: List 3 functions that these cells perform:
HORMONE AND DRUG METABOLISM, CLEAR WASTE PRODUCTS FROM THE BLOOD, PRODUCE BILE
160. Name the principle bile pigment:
BILIRUBIN
161. Reference the question above: What portion/part of hemoglobin does this pigment come from?
HEME
172. Reference the question above: All but one of the vitamins is fat soluble. Which one is water soluble?
B12
171. List the vitamins stored within the liver:
B12, A, K, E, D
174. List the 3 regions of the gallbladder:
FUNDUS, BODY, NECK
175. Reference the question above: Which region projects most inferiorly? Why is this important?
FUNDUS, SO STORED BILE WILL NOT LEAK OUT
198. Name the 4 fat-soluble vitamins discussed in class:
D, A, K, E
199. Reference the question above: These vitamins commonly absorbed with what other substance?
LIPIDS
30. Name the 3 parts of the pharynx:
NASOPHARYNX, OROPHARYNX, LARYNGOPHARYNX
31. Reference the question above: Which 2 parts are involved in both respiratory and digestive functions?
OROPHARYNX AND LARYNGOPHARYNX
205. Reference the question above: From which region is the vermiform appendix attached?
CECUM
204. List, in sequence, the 4 major regions of the large intestine:
CECUM, COLON, RECTUM, ANAL CANAL
206. List, in sequence, the 4 segments of the colon:
ASCENDING, TRANSVERSE, DESCENDING, SIGMOID
207. Reference the question above: Which segment projects medially to the midline and terminates at the rectum?
SIGMOID
213. Reference the question above: What structures are contained within the folds?
A NETWORK OF VEINS AND ARTERIES
212. Name the longitudinal mucosal folds located in the anal canal:
ANAL COLUMNS
214. Reference the question above: What medical condition occurs if these structures are abnormally dilated?
HEMORRHOIDS
217. The large intestinal mucosa is composed of 2 types of epithelial cells. Name them:
ABSORPTIVE AND GOBLET
218. Reference the question above: Where are these cells located?
IN CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
223. Name the structure that regulates passage of chyme from the ileum into the cecum:
ILEOCECAL VALVE (ILEOCECAL SPHINCTER)
224. Reference the question above: Does this structure remain completely closed when chyme is not passing through? Why or why not?
NO, IT NORMALLY REMAINS PARTIALLY OPEN WHEN THE INDIVIDUAL IS NOT EATING ALLOWING VERY SLOW PASSAGE OF CHYME. THIS ALLOWS ADEQUATE DEHYDRATION OF CHYME FORMING FECES
183. Each question below describes 1 of 4 different structures within the small intestine that comprise the digestive and absorptive surface:
(1)   Which structure enhances mechanical digestion?
CIRCULAR FOLDS
(3)   Which structure is lined with several types of epithelial cells?
CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
(2)   Which structure is composed of projections of the apical membrane of intestinal absorptive cells?
MICROVILLI
(4)   Which structure is composed of fingerlike mucosal projections?
VILLI
216. For each anal sphincter, identify if it is composed of smooth muscle or skeletal muscle:
(1)   External:
SKELETAL MUSCLE
(2)   Internal:
SMOOTH MUSCLE
47. Name 2 effects that the sympathetic nervous system has on GI tract function:
DECREASES SECRETIONS, AND DECREASES MOTILITY
48. Reference the question above: Briefly explain why it is important that these changes in GI tract function occur:
DURING THE "FLIGHT OR FLIGHT" RESPONSE, IT IS IMPORTANT THAT MOST BLOOD FLOW TO THE GI TRACT BE DIVERTED TO EXERCISING SKELETAL MUSCLES AND OTHER TISSUES THAT REQUIRE MORE BLOOD FLOW
58. List the 3 stages of swallowing:
ORAL, PHARYNGEAL, AND ESOPHAGEAL
59. Reference the question above: During which stage does the epiglottis close off the trachea?
PHARYNGEAL
67. Chyme is propelled through the small intestine via 2 mechanisms. Name them:
PERISTALSIS AND SEGMENTATIONS
68. Reference the question above: Which mechanism is the most frequent type of smooth muscle contraction in the small intestine?
SEGMENTATIONS
85. Name the substance that is trapped by the mucous layer at the epithelial cell surface of the stomach:
HCO3-
86. Reference the question above: What is the function of this substance?
KEEPING THE pH NEAREST THE EPITHELIUM AT APPROXIMATELY 7.0
100. Name the active transport mechanism responsible for secretion of H+ and Cl- into the gastric lumen:
PROTON PUMP
101. Reference the question above: Name 2 “stimulators” of this mechanism:
VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION AND GASTRIN
103. Briefly explain how H+ is produced in parietal cells:
CARBONIC ACID IMMEDIATELY DISSOCIATES INTO H+ AND HCO3-
104. Reference the question above: Name the enzyme catalyst:
CARBONIC ANHYDRASE
109. Gastrin is secreted from which type of gastric cell?
G CELLS
110. Reference the question above: What stimulates gastrin secretion?
THE PRESENCE OF PARTIALLY DIGESTED PROTEINS
99. Briefly explain histamine function:
IT STIMULATES NEARBY PARIETAL CELLS TO SECRETE H+ AND Cl- INTO THE STOMACH LUMEN
98. Histamine is released from what cell type?
ECL CELLS
97. Pepsin activity is most effective in a HIGH or LOW pH?
LOW
96. Pepsin digests what substance(s)?
PROTEINS
95. Pepsinogen is released from what gastric cell type?
CHIEF CELLS
94. The sight, smell, or thought of food stimulates release of what neurotransmitter substance?
ACh
93. What substance in gastric juice inactivates salivary amylase?
HYRDROCHLORIC ACID
92. Once food mixes with gastric juice, lingual lipase activity begins. What activates lingual lipase?
THE LOW pH IN THE STOMACH
90. Swallowed food is stored in which part of the stomach until it mixes with gastric juice?
FUNDUS
9. In which wall layer is the myenteric nerve plexus located?
MUSCULARIS
89. Gastrin is secreted from which gastric gland cell?
G CELLS
88. Name the gastric gland cell that secretes histamine:
ENTEROCHROMAFFIN-LIKE (ECL) CELLS
87. Name 2 substances secreted by chief cells:
PEPSINOGEN AND GASTRIC LIPASE
84. How thick is the mucous layer overlying the gastric mucosa?
ABOUT 1-3 MM
83. Name 2 substances secreted by parietal cells:
HYDROCHLORIC ACID AND INTRINSIC FACTOR
82. What is the name of the small openings that arise from within gastric mucosal folds?
GASTRIC PITS
81. Describe stomach rugae:
VISIBLE MUCOSAL FOLDS THAT INCREASE THE SURFACE AREA
80. What is the name of the convex lateral border of the stomach?
GREATER CURVATURE
8. Which wall layer is known as the visceral peritoneum?
SEROSA
79. What is the name of the concave medial border of the stomach?
LESSER CURVATURE
78. Name the 3 parts of the pylorus from most proximal to most distal:
PYLORIC ANTRUM, PYLORIC CANAL, PYLORIC SPHINCTER
77. List the 4 regions of the stomach from the most superior aspect to the most inferior aspect:
CARDIA, FUNDUS, BODY, PYLORUS
76. In the stomach, starch digestion continues via the action of which enzyme?
SALIVARY AMYLASE
75. Name 2 major functions of the stomach:
MIXING AND HOLDING CHAMBER
74. Which type of diarrhea is most common?
OSMOTIC
73. What is another name for reverse peristalsis?
VOMITING
72. How often does mass peristalsis occur?
OCCURS 1-4 TIMES DAILY (VARIES BETWEEN PHYSIOLOGY REFERENCES)
71. What is the stimulus for mass peristalsis?
WHEN ACTIVE DIGESTION IS OCCURING IN THE UPPER GI TRACT
70. Where does segmental propulsion occur? How is forward movement of chyme affected?
LARGE INTESTINE, FORWARD MOVEMENT IS VERY SLOW BECAUSE THE PURPOSE OF SEGMENTAL PROPULSION IS TO ALLOW DEHYDRATION OF CHYME
7. Smooth muscle of the muscularis is divided into 2 layers based on how the muscle is oriented. In which direction is each muscle layer oriented? Why is this significant?
LONGITUDINAL AND CIRCULAR, CONTRACTIONS OF CIRCULAR MUSCLE MIX GI CONCENTRATIONS LOCALLY WHILE CONTRACTIONS OF LONGITUDINAL MUSCLES PROPEL GI CONTENTS FORWARD THROUGH THE TRACT
69. What causes peristaltic rushes?
CERTAIN BACTERIA OR IRRITANTS WITHIN THE INTESTINAL LUMEN
66. What is the stimulus for receptive relaxation of the duodenum?
VAGALLY-MEDIATED RELEASE OF VIP
65. What is chyme?
GASTRIC SECRETIONS MIXED WITH INGESTED FOOD
64. Name the 2 luminal receptors in the gastric wall that stimulate mixing contractions:
MECHANORECEPTORS AND CHEMORECEPTORS
63. Briefly describe receptive relaxation of the stomach:
AS THE FOOD BOLUS ENTERS THE STOMACH, VAGALLY-MEDIATED RELEASE OF VIP RELAXES GASTRIC SMOOTH MUSCLE
62. Briefly explain how the LES relaxes as a food bolus approaches:
VAGAL RELEASE OF NITRIC OXIDE AND VASOACTIVE INTESTINAL PEPTIDE (VIP) VIA IMPULSES SENT FROM MECHANORECEPTORS IN THE ESOPHAGEAL WALL
61. When/why does secondary esophageal peristalsis occur?
THEY OCCUR IF ESOPHAGEAL SMOOTH MUSCLE IS STRETCHED BY A LARGE, DRY FOOD BOLUS AND THEY ASSIST PRIMARY ESOPHAGEAL PERISTALSIS IN MOVING THE FOOD BOLUS INTO THE STOMACH
60. The swallowing center in the medulla stimulates what type of esophageal peristalsis?
PRIMARY
6. List the 4 wall layers of the GI tract IN ORDER from the lumen to external surface:
MUCOSA, SUBMUCOSA, MUSCULARIS, SEROSA
57. Briefly describe migrating myoelectric complexes (MMCs):
CONTRACTILE WAVES OF SHORT DURATION THAT PROPEL UNDIGESTED MATERIAL AND BACTERIA OUT OF THE STOMACH AND SMALL INTESTINE INTO THE COLON DURING FASTING PERIODS. THEY ORIGINATE IN THE MID-STOMACH AND TERMINATE WITHIN THE TERMINAL ILEUM
56. Name 2 substances released by inhibitory motor neurons that cause smooth muscle relaxation:
NITRIC OXIDE AND VASOACTIVE INTESTINAL PEPTIDE (VIP)
55. Name 2 hormones that cause smooth muscle contraction:
CHOLECYSTOKININ (CCK) AND GASTRIN
54. Name 2 parasympathetic neurotransmitter substances that cause smooth muscle contraction:
ACETYLCHOLINE AND SUBSTANCE P
53. What must occur to the resting membrane potential of smooth muscle fibers to cause contraction?
DEPOLARIZATION
52. What are slow waves? Where are they generated?
UNDULATIONS IN RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL THAT DO NOT CAUSE MUSCLE CONTRACTION. THEY ARE GENERATED BY INTERSTITIAL CELLS OF CAJAL LOCATED BETWEEN THE 2 SMOOTH MUSCLE LAYERS OF THE MUSCULARIS
51. What is a specific electrical characteristic of GI tract smooth muscle?
SMOOTH MUSCLE FIBERS DO NOT HAVE A STABLE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL
50. Describe the function of luminal chemoreceptors:
THEY SENSE CHEMICAL COMPOSITION OF INGESTED FOOD AND FLUIDS
5. List 2 functions of lymphatic capillaries in the GI tract:
LIPID ABSORPTION (SM INTESTINE) AND FLUID AND PROTEIN ABSORPTION (LIVER)
49. Describe the function of luminal mechanoreceptors:
THEY SENSE WALL STRETCHING CAUSED BY INGESTED FOOD AND FLUIDS
46. What is the name of the nerves that supply parasympathetic fibers to most of the GI tract?
VAGUS
45. Name 2 effects that the parasympathetic nervous system has on GI tract function:
INCREASES SECRETIONS, AND INCREASES MOTALITY
44. The ENS receives neural input from what receptor type?
LUMINAL
43. Describe the function of Meissner’s plexus:
REGULATES LOCAL GI TRACT SECRETIONS
42. Describe the function of Auerbach’s plexus:
REGULATES SMOOTH MUSCLE CONTRACTIONS AND RELAXATIONS THAT MIXES AND PROPELS GI CONTENTS
41. Does function of the enteric nervous system (ENS) require input from the autonomic nervous system? YES NO
NO
40. What is the name of the external layer of the esophageal wall?
ADVENTITIA
4. Blood is transported away from the intestines and to the liver via which vessel(s)?
PORTAL VEIN
39. Describe the Z line:
IT DELINEATES THE JUNCTION OF THE GASTRIC AND ESOPHAGEAL MUCOSA
38. What is the function of the LES?
REGULATES FOOD MOVEMENT FROM THE ESOPHAGUS INTO THE STOMACH
37. The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is formed by which tissue layer of the esophageal wall?
MUSCULARIS
36. Why are mucous cells more numerous in the distal esophagus?
THEIR SECRETIONS PROTECT THE DISTAL ESOPHAGUS FROM VERY ACIDIC GASTRIC SECRETIONS
35. Describe a hiatal hernia:
A PROTRUSION OF A PORTION OF THE CARDIA OR FUNDUS OF THE STOMACH THROUGH THE ESOPHAGEAL HIATUS INTO THE CHEST CAVITY
34. The esophagus pierces the diaphragm through what structure?
ESOPHAGEAL HIATUS
33. The esophagus passes through the thorax within what structure?
MEDIASTINUM
32. Is the esophagus located anterior or posterior to the trachea? Why is this important?
POSTERIOR, C-SHAPED TRACHEAL CARTILAGE SEGMENTS ALLOW THE ESOPHAGUS TO EXPAND ANDTERIORLY DURING SWALLOWING (YOU CANNOT SWALLOW AND BREATHE AT THE SAME TIME)
3. Name the arteries that transport blood to the GI tract (the intestines):
SPLANCHNIC BED (SUPERIOR AND INFERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERIES)
27. Name the groove on the surface of the tongue that divides it into R and L halves:
MEDIAN SEPTUM
26. Describe the lingual frenulum and its function:
IT IS A MUCOSAL FOLD I THE MIDLINE OF THE UNDERSURFACE OF THE TONGUE. IT LIMITS POSTERIOR MOVEMENT OF THE TONGUE
25. Which part of the autonomic nervous system stimulates salivation?
PARASYMPATHETIC
24. What ultimately happens to most of the water in saliva?
IT IS ABSORBED INTO THE BLOOD FROM THE GI TRACT
234. Normally, feces are not expelled until a time that a person decides is appropriate. What must occur at that time for feces to be expelled?
THE INDIVIDUAL MUST VOLUNTARILY RELAX THE EXTERNAL ANAL SPHINCTER
233. Once feces enter the rectum, mechanoreceptors are stimulated. Name the reflex:
DEFECATION REFLEX
232. Name the mechanism that pushes fecal material into the rectum:
MASS PERISTALSIS
230. Are enzymes secreted in the large intestine? YES NO Why?
NO, MOST DIGESTION OCCURRED IN THE SMALL INTESTINE + THE LARGE INTESTINE MUCOSA DOES NOT POSSESS ENZYME-SECRETING CELLS
23. Saliva contains 2 enzymes. Name them:
LINGUAL LIPASE AND SALIVARY AMYLASE (PTYALIN)
229. What digestive role do bacteria play within the colon lumen?
CARBOHYDRATE FERMENTATION
228. Briefly describe the gastrocolic reflex:
FOOD ENTERING THE STOMACH STIMULATES MASS PERISTALSIS 1 - 4 TIMES DAILY. THIS MECHANISM INSURES THAT THE COLON IS EVACUATED MAKING ROOM FOR MORE CHYME AND FECES FORMATION
227. When do colon movements begin?
WHEN GI CONTENTS PASS THROUGH THE ILEOCECAL VALVE
226. Name the reflex that occurs after a meal that intensifies peristalsis in the ileum forcing chyme into the cecum:
GASTROILEAL REFLEX
225. Name the hormone that relaxes and opens the ileocecal valve:
GASTRIN
222. Identify the small pouches of visceral peritoneum filled with fat that “hang” from the external surface of the colon:
EPIPLOIC APPENDAGES
221. Briefly describe teniae coli:
IT IS MADE OF 3 LONGITUDINAL SMOOTH MUSCLE BANDS ALONG THE ENTIRE LENGTH OF THE COLON
220. Name the structures formed by the muscularis layer that give the colon a “puckered” appearance:
HAUSTRA
22. Name the salivary glands located in the tongue:
LINGUAL SALIVARY GLANDS
219. Name the structures that increase the absorptive surface area of the large intestine:
MICROVILLI
215. What structure delineates the distal extent of the anal columns and the proximal edge of the anoderm?
DENTATE LINE (AKA PECTINATE LINE)
211. What is the primary function of the rectum?
FECES STORAGE PRIOR TO ELIMINATION
210. Why is it important to know about the flexures named above? [hint: this adverse event may occur during a colonoscopy (a type of endoscopy) if the person performing the procedure is too aggressive when advancing the endoscope through the large bowel]:
THE DEGREE OF FLEXION PREDISPOSES TO COLON PERFORATION IF THE ENDOSCOPE IS ADVANCED TOO RAPIDLY. GREAT CARE MUST BE TAKEN WHEN ADVANCING THE ENDOSCOPE THROUGH BOTH FLEXURES
21. List the names of the 3 major salivary glands:
PAROTID, SUBMANDIBULAR, SUBLINGUAL
209. Describe the splenic flexure:
A FLEXED AREA OF THE COLON BETWEEN THE TRANSVERSE COLON AND DESCENDING COLON
208. Describe the hepatic flexure:
A FLEXED AREA OF THE COLON BETWEEN THE ASCENDING AND TRANSVERSE COLON
203. List the 3 primary functions carried out by the large intestine:
COMPLETION OF NUTRIENT ABSORPTION, VITAMIN PRODUCTION (SOME), FECES FORMATION AND EXCRETION
202. Normally an osmotic balance is maintained between the water in the small bowel lumen and the blood. Name 3 substances commonly absorbed from the small bowel that create an osmotic gradient that favors water absorption:
ELECTROLYTES, AMINO ACIDS, MONOSACCHARIDES
201. What is the approximate percentage of water absorption in the small intestine? This equates to how many liters per day?
ABOUT 90% / 9.2 L/DAY
200. What substance must vitamin B12 combine with before it can be absorbed from the small intestine?
INTRINSIC FACTOR
20. What are the 4 major functions of saliva?
LUBRICATION, COOLS FOOD AND LIQUIDS, PROVIDES DIGESTIVE ENZYMES, AND PROTECTS THE GI TRACT VIA IgA, WBCs, AND OPSONINS
2. Name the GI tract hormone responsible for the feeling of fullness we experience after a meal:
LEPTIN
197. Approximately how much iron is absorbed in the small intestine per day?
APPROXIMATELY 1 MG
196. Absorbed iron (from hemoglobin or myoglobin, or absorbed as free iron) is transported from enterocytes into surrounding blood capillaries. What substance within the blood binds iron?
TRANSFERRIN
195. What substance regulates absorption of dietary calcium?
ACTIVE VITAMIN D (1, 25 DIHYDROXYCHOLECALCIFEROL)
194. Dietary calcium enters the enterocytes down a concentration gradient. What intracellular substance maintains this concentration gradient? How does this substance work?
CALBINDIN, CALBINDIN MEDIATES CALCIUM TRANSPORT ACROSS THE CYTOSOL OF THE ENTEROCYTE WITHOUT RAISING THE (NORMALLY) VERY LOW INTRACELLULAR FREE CALCIUM CONCENTRATION
193. Briefly explain how chylomicrons enter the systemic blood circulation:
THEY ARE TOO LARGE TO ENTER THE CAPILLARIES IN VILLI, THEY ARE ABLE TO ENTER LACTEALS, LYMPH FLUID CONTAINING CHYLOMICRONS IS "DUMPED" INTO THE SYSTEMIC BLOOD CIRCULATION AT THE JUNCTION OF THE LEFT INTERNAL JUGULAR VEIN AND LEFT SUBCLAVIAN VEIN
192. Name the group of brush border enzymes that digest proteins:
PEPTIDASES
191. What is cellulose? What function does it serve within the large intestine?
AN UNDIGESTIBLE GLUCOSE POLYMER, "HOLDS" WATER IN THE LUMEN OF THE LARGE INTESTINE RESULTING IN SOFTER FECES AND ALSO PROVIDES "BULK" TO FECES
190. Name the group of brush border enzymes that digest carbohydrates:
POLYSACCHARIDASES
19. What is the name of the peritoneal fold that binds the large intestine to the posterior abdominal wall?
MESOCOLON
189. Except for part of the duodenum, this tissue layer completely surrounds the small intestine. Name it:
THE SEROSA (VISCERAL PERITONEUM)
188. Describe Brunner’s glands:
SMALL SUBMUCOSAL GLANDS THAT SECRETE AN ALKALINE MUCOUS
187. Describe Peyer’s patches:
AGGREGATES OF LYMPH NODULES LOCATED PRIMARILY IN THE MUCOSAL LAYER OF THE ILEUM
186. Name the tissue within the small intestinal mucosa that generates immune responses:
MUCOSA-ASSOCIATED LYMPHATIC TISSUE
184. Villi have a core of lamina propria containing several structures. Name them:
ARTERIOLE, VENULE, BLOOD CAPILLARY NETWORK, LACTEAL
182. Name the sphincter located between the distal small intestine and the proximal large intestine:
ILEOCECAL SPHINCTER (VALVE)
181. Name the sphincter located between the stomach and the proximal small intestine:
PYLORIC SPHINCTER
180. List the 3 regions of the small intestine in sequence from proximal to distal:
DUODENUM, JEJUNUM, ILEUM
18. Describe the mesentery: Which organ does it bind to the posterior abdominal wall? What structures does it contain?
IT BINDS THE SMALL INTESTINE TO THE POSTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL. IT CONTAINS BLOOD AND LYMPH VESSELS AND LYMPH NODES
179. In what part of the GI tract does most nutrient and fluid absorption occur? What structural characteristic allows this to occur?
THE SMALL INTESTINE, LARGE MUCOSAL SURFACE AREA
178. The gallbladder performs 2 functions. Name them:
BILE STORAGE AND BILE CONCENTRATION
177. Smooth muscle in the gallbladder wall contracts in response to which substance? During which phase of digestion is this substance secreted?
CHOLECYSTOKININ (CCK), INTESTINAL PHASE
176. What is the name of the mucosal folds in the gallbladder?
RUGAE
173. The liver hydroxylates cholecalciferol into an inactive precursor substance of what vitamin?
VITAMIN D
170. List 4 substances discussed in class that are produced or modified by the liver:
INSULIN-LIKE GROWTH FACTOR, HEPATOCYTE GROWTH FACTOR, ANGIOTENSINOGEN, THROMBOPOIETIN
17. The lesser omentum suspends 2 organs from the liver. Name them:
STOMACH AND DUODENUM
169. Name the duct that transports bile to and from the gallbladder:
CYSTIC DUCT
168. Between meals, bile accumulates and is stored in what structure? Why does this occur?
GALLBLADDER, THE SPHINCTER OF ODDI CLOSES BETWEEN MEALS. BILE IS CONTINUALLY PRODUCED BY HEPATOCYTES, SO IT IS STORED IN THE GALLBLADDER FOR FUTURE USE
167. List, in sequence, the ducts that bile flows through from the portal triads to the sphincter of Oddi:
BILE DUCTS, R AND L HEPATIC DUCTS, COMMON HEPATIC DUCT, COMMON BILE DUCT, SPHINCTER OF ODDI
166. Reference the question above: Name the structure that transports bile from the structure named above to bile ducts within portal triads:
BILE DUCTULES
165. Hepatocytes secrete bile into what structure?
BILE CANALICULI
164. Bile + lipids = ____________________
MICELLES
163. What is the primary function of bile salts? Why is this important?
EMULSIFICATION, BREAKS DOWN LARGER LIPID MOLECULES INTO SMALLER ONES INCREASING THE SURFACE AREA AVAILABLE ON LIPID MOLECULES FOR PANCREATIC LIPASE ACTIVITY
162. Name the substance that gives feces their characteristic brown color:
BILIVERDIN
16. What is the name of the peritoneal fold that attaches the liver to the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall?
FALCIFORM LIGAMENT
159. What is bile?
AN EXCRETORY PRODUCT AND A DIGESTIVE SECRETION CONTAINING WATER AND OTHER SUBSTANCES
158. List the 3 structures located within a portal triad:
BILE DUCT, BRANCH OF THE HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN, BRANCH OF THE HEPATIC ARTERY
157. Reference the question above: Pathologically increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) may cause a buildup of excess peritoneal fluid. What is the name of this condition?
ASCITES
156. What is the name of the vessel that transports blood out of the liver? What is the normal blood pressure within this vessel?
HEPATIC VEIN / 1 mmHg
155. Blood flowing from sinusoids enters what vessel within a liver lobule?
CENTRAL VEIN
154. What is the “first pass” effect?
NEWLY ABSORBED SUBSTANCES FROM THE GI TRACT ARE TAKEN UP BY HEPATOCYTES BEFORE THIS BLOOD CIRCULATES INTO THE REMAINDER OF THE SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION
153. The liver is a common site for cancer metastases from the GI tract (especially). Explain why this occurs (hint: it has to do with blood flow):
BLOOD FLOW FROM THE GI TRACT IS TRANSPORTED DIRECTLY TO THE LIVER. SOME CANCER CELLS CAN ENTER THE BLOOD (I.E., FROM THE COLON) AND BECOME "LODGED" IN SINUSOIDS. A NEW CANCEROUS TUMOR WILL GROW IN THE LIVER.
152. Name the 2 vessels that transport blood to the liver and whether or not blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated:
PORTAL VEIN: DEOXYGENATED, HEPATIC ARTERY: OXYGENATED
150. What are spaces of Disse? Where are they located?
SPACES THAT CONTAIN INTERSTITIAL FLUID LOCATED AROUND THE SINUSOIDS
15. Describe the greater omentum: What structure is it attached to? It normally contains a large amount of what type of tissue? What function does it perform?
LARGEST PERITONEAL FOLD THAT HANGS DOWN LIKE AN APRON. IT IS ATTACHED TO THE TRANSVERSE COLON, AND IT CONTAINS ADIPOSE TISSUE. IT ALSO CONTAINS LYMPH NODES THAT FUNCTION TO CONTAIN AND COMBAT SOME GI TRACT INFECTIONS
149. Name the type of cell within liver lobules that is responsible for “cleaning up” and destroying old red blood cells, white blood cells, foreign matter, and bacteria:
KUPFFER CELLS
148. Name the highly permeable capillaries within liver lobules:
SINUSOIDS
147. Name the largest blood vessel within a liver lobule:
CENTRAL VEIN
144. Name the structure that works in tandem with the falciform ligament suspending the liver from the diaphragm:
CORONARY LIGAMENT
143. What is the name of the structure that is the remnant of the fetal umbilical vein?
LIGAMENTUM TERES / ROUND LIGAMENT
140. At any given time, the liver contains approximately how much of a person’s total blood volume?
AROUND 8%
14. Describe the peritoneal cavity and explain why it is considered a potential space:
A NARROW SPACE BETWEEN THE PARIETAL AND VISCERAL PERITONEUM. THIS SPACE NORMALLY CONTAINS A SMALL AMOUNT OF SEROUS FLUID; HOWEVER, THIS SPACE HAS THE CAPABILITY TO HOLD SEVERAL LITERS OF FLUID PRODUCED IN CERTAIN PATHOLOGIC CONDITIONS. THERE ARE NO ANATOMIC STRUCTURES THAT PREVENT EXPANSION OF THE PERITONEAL CAVITY
139. What is the primary function of trypsin inhibitor?
IT COMBINES WITH ANY TRYPSIN THAT FORMS INSIDE PANCREATIC ACINAR CELLS BLOCKING ITS ENZYMATIC ACTIVITY, THIS PREVENTS ACINAR CELL "DIGESTION"
138. What is the name of the substance that binds to bile enhancing pancreatic lipase activity on lipids in chyme?
COLIPASE
137. What is the function of pancreatic lipase?
HYDROLYSES DIETARY TRIGLYCERIDES INTO MONOGLYCERIDES AND FREE FATTY ACIDS
136. Which pancreatic enzyme hydrolyzes starch molecules in chyme? What is the final product of this reaction?
PANCREATIC AMYLASE, MALTOSE
135. What is the primary function of proteases?
PROTEIN DIGESTION
134. What is/are the function(s) of trypsin?
ACTIVATES MORE TRYPSINOGEN, ACTIVATES OTHER PROTEASES
131. What functions does pancreatic NaHCO3 perform in regard to digestion?
IT ACTS AS A BUFFER
130. Which pancreatic cell type comprises approximately 1% of pancreatic cells?
ISLETS OF LANGERHANS
13. Which part of the peritoneum lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity?
PARIETAL PERITONEUM
129. Bile and pancreatic juice can only enter the duodenum when this sphincter is open. What is the name of this sphincter?
SPHINCTER OF ODDI
128. What is the name of the short “passageway” that bile and pancreatic juice flow through just before they enter the duodenum?
AMPULLA OF VATER (HEPATOPANCREATIC AMPULLA)
127. List the 3 regions of the pancreas:
HEAD, BODY, AND TAIL
126. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for GIP release?
PRESENCE OF GLUCOSE, FATTY ACIDS, AND AMINO ACIDS IN CHYME
125. Gastric inhibitory (insulinotropic) peptide (GIP) is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
ENTEROENDOCRINE CELLS LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
124. What substance in pancreatic juice acts as a buffer for chyme in the small intestine?
BICARBONATE
123. List the functions of secretin:
STIMULATES SECRETION OF PANCREATIC
122. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for secretin release?
PRESENCE OF ACIDIC CHYME IN THE DUODENUM
121. Secretin is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
S CELLS, LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
120. List the functions of CCK:
STIMULATES PANCREATIC ENZYME SECRETION, STIMULATES GALLBLADDER CONTRACTIONS THAT RELEASE BILE INTO THE DUODENUM, RELAXES THE SPHINCTER OF ODDI ALLOWING BILE AND PANCREATIC JUICE TO FLOW INTO THE DUODENUM, ENHANCES EFFECTS OF SECRETIN, CAUSES A SENSATION OF SATIETY
12. Which wall layer is the major absorptive and secretory layer?
MUCOSA
119. What is/are the stimulus/stimuli for CCK release?
CHYME IN THE DUODENUM CONTAINING FATTY ACIDS AND AMINO ACIDS
118. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by what duodenal cell type? Where are these cells located?
CCK CELLS LOCATED IN THE CRYPTS OF LIEBERKÜHN
115. Reflexes slow the exit of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum. List 2 reasons why this is important:
PREVENTS OVERLOADING OF THE DUODENUM, AND ALLOWS MORE TIME FOR FOOD DIGESTION WITHIN THE SMALL INTESTINE
114. List 2 factors that determine the gastric emptying time:
QUANTITY OF FOOD INGESTED AND TYPE OF FOOD INGESTED
113. What is another name for the gastric emptying time?
TRANSIT TIME
112. Briefly explain what happens to gastrin and HCl secretion as gastric acidity increases:
GASTRIN AND HYDROCHLORIC ACID SECRETION DECREASES (NEGATIVE FEEDBACK CONTROL ON HCl SECRETION
111. What is the primary function of gastrin?
STIMULATES ECL SECRETION OF HISTAMINE (STIMULATES PROTON PUMP FUNCTION)
11. List the 3 layers of the mucosa IN ORDER from the lumen outward:
EPITHELIAL CELLS, LAMINA PROPRIA, MUSCULARIS MUCOSAE
108. List 2 factors that increase gastric secretions:
STOMACH DIGESTION AND CHEMICAL CONTENT OF CHYME
107. Can proton pump activity be inhibited pharmacologically?
YES-VIA PROTON PUMP INHIBITORS AND H2 BLOCKERS
106. Describe the alkaline tide:
BLOOD pH CAN TEMPORARILY INCREASE AFTER LARGE MEALS
105. Briefly explain what happens to HCO3- that is produced within the parietal cell:
HCO3 IN PARIETAL CELLS IS EXCHANGED FOR CHLORIDE IN INTERSTITIAL FLUID BY THE ACTION OF HCO3 / Cl- ANTIPORTERS IN THE BASAL CELL MEMBRANE. HCO3 DIFFUSES INTO NEARBY BLOOD VESSELS.
102. What prevents H+ from diffusing back into parietal cells down its concentration gradient?
TIGHT JUNCTIONS BETWEEN MUCOSAL CELLS
10. The submucosa layer contains a nerve plexus. Name it:
SUBMUCOSAL NERVE PLEXUS
1. List 2 ways that appetite and hunger are stimulated:
SENSORY INPUT, LOW BLOOD GLUCOSE CONCENTRATION