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55 Cards in this Set

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In multiple myeloma, what is the interleukin that acts as osteoclast activating factor?
IL-6
What do flame cells signify?
Waldenstrom's plasma cell neoplasm
What activates platelets in an atherosclerotic plaque?
disruption of the calcium cap
What arteries are most affected in Monckeberg's arteriosclerosis?
radial and ulna
What size blood vessel does Kawasaki affect?
medium sized
What 3 major diseases are often contributing factors to polyarteritis nodosa?
Hep B, Hep C, hairy cell leukemia
What disease is a systemic manifestation of giant cell arteritis and is associated with an extremely high ESR?
polymyalgia rheumatica
What arteritis features granulomas, PAN like histologic features in the vesssel wall, and massive eosinophil invasion both in vessel wall and surrounding tissues
Churg-Strauss
What syndrome has anti-human oral mucosa antibodies?
Behcet's syndrome
"Tree-barking" of the intima of blood vessels signifies what?
A luetic aneurysm from syphilis
What does a double barrel sign on CT represent?
dissecting aorta
What causes a mycotic dissecting aorta?
an infection (usually bacteria)
What is another name for dropanocytes?
sickle cells
What is the only hepatitis virus that is a DNA virus?
Hep B
What disease produces a heterophile negative mononucleosis with NO pharyngitis?
CMV
What is the virus that causes measles?
Rubeola virus
What virus causes dengue fever and yellow fever?
flavivirus
What infection causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
What causes adult T-cell leukemia?
HTLV-1
What is p24 a serological marker for?
HIV
What defines a mold versus a yeast?
mold have hyphae
Are conidia used for sexual or asexual reproduction?
asexual
Which fungi looks like a cigar shaped budding yeast on microscope?
sporotrichosis
What is the infective stage of malaria called?
sporozoite
Which strain of malaria produces banana shaped gametocytes and has no visible shizonts or trophozoites in the blood?
P. falciparum
What is the treatment for Leishmania?
stibogluconate
Which protozoa causes a bloody, mucus diarrhea and can form liver abcesses?
amebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)
What is the treatment for trichomonas?
metronidazole
Where does the tissue fluke Paragonimus eventually settle in?
the lung
Which tapeworm can cause cystercerci in the eyes and brain?
T. Solium
What are the segments of the tapeworm called?
proglottids
Which roundwork infection comes from eating the larvae in pork and forming cysts in striated muscle?
Trichinella
Where does heme synthesis occur?
bone marrow
What is the Km of an enzymatic reaction?
The concentration of substrate at which the rate of react ion is at half max.
Which amino acids are basic?
histidine, arginine, lysine
What amino acid does porphyrin and heme come from?
glycine
Which class of HIV meds does tenofovir belong to?
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Name as many side effects as you can for Maraviroc.
MI, cancer, allergic rxn, infection, hepatotoxic
Describe the prophylaxis for MAC in an HIV+ patient.
give either clarithromycin or azithromycin.

give when CD4<50, can consider if CD4<100

stop prophyaxis when CD4>100 for more than 3 months
Describe the prophylaxis for Pneumocystis in the HIV+ patient.
give bactrim for prophylaxis and treatment

start when the CD4<200, OR if there is current or recent oropharyngeal candidiasis
Describe the prophylaxis for Coccidioidomycosis in HIV+ patients.
give fluconazole or itraconazole.

have to live in southwest US, have CD4<250, and have IgM or IgG to Coccidioides immitis
Can aminoglycosides cross the BBB?
nope
What is the DOC for Mycoplasma pneumonia?
erthyromycin class
What is the mechanism of action of dapsone?
inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
What anti-cancer drug blocks the conversion of deoxyuridinic acid to thymidylate?
5-flourouracil
What is the major side effect of adriamycin?
CHF (its the same drug as doxorubicin)

red urine too!
What is the DOC for mycobacteria spp?
rifampin (transcription inhibitor)
The spinal typically ends at what level?
L1-L2
What is lumbarization?
When the SI fails to fuse to the rest of the sacrum, instead remaining as a separate vertebral segment
What is spina bifida cystica?
Any type of spina bifida with a protruding sac.
What is the primary motion of the lumbar spine?
flexion/extension
What type of spondylolisthesis is congenital?
Type I (dysplastic)
What type of spondylolisthesis is characterized by a fatigue fracture of the pars?
Type II (isthmic) subtype A
Describe spondylosis?
degenerative disk disease accompanied by fusion of the osteophytes that form
What is the most common congenital anomaly of the lumbar region?
zygopophyseal tropism