ATB 349-435

349. Which front is associated with poor visibility, smooth air, and steady precipitation?
A. Warm
B. Occluded
C. Cold
D. Stationary

350. What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below freezing air based at the surface?
A. Rain
B. Snow
C. Ice pellets
D. Freezing rain

351. Gusty wind is coded as a ________ in the wind group of a METAR.
A. GW
B. W
C. WG
D. G

352. In the contiguous United States of America region, the ICAO Station Identifier prefix is ________.
A. PA
B. P
C. KA
D. K

353. “A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a ________.
A. METAR
B. SPECI
C. TAF
D. UUA

354. In the date/time field of a METAR, ________.
A. the first two digits are the date, the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes in UTC
B. the six digits represent the hour, minutes, and seconds of the observation in UTC
C. the first two digits are the date, the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes in local time
D. the six digits represent the hour, minutes, and seconds of the observation in local time

355. A sky coverage of six-eighths is reported as ________.
A. BKN
B. FEW
C. SCT
D. SKC

356. What term refers to the greatest distance that can be seen throughout at least half the horizon circle (180 degrees), not necessarily continuous?
A. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
B. Sector visibility
C. Tower visibility
D. Prevailing visibility

357. What is an instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may see down the runway from the approach end?
A. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
B. Sector visibility
C. Tower visibility
D. Prevailing Visibility

358. In the METAR/SPECI Sky Condition Group, heights are reported in ________.
A. hundreds of feet AGL
B. thousands of feet AGL
C. hundreds of feet MSL
D. thousands of feet MSL

359. In a METAR/SPECI report, what do temperatures and dew points prefixed with an “M” signify?
A. Missing
B. Below zero
C. ”more than”
D. Degrees Fahrenheit

360. SPECI KHYS 092338Z AUTO…
A. “Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”
B. “Hays, special report, automated, two three three eight observation…”
C. “Hays, special report, automated two three three eight zulu observation…”
D. “Special report, Hays, two three three eight zulu observation, automated…”

361. Based on the following METAR, the visibility is ________. KOKC 181456Z 01010KT 10SM FEW055 BKN100 04/M02 A2992 RMK AO2 SLP070
A. 4 statute miles
B. 10 nautical miles
C. 10 statute miles
D. missing

362. R17/M0600FT
A. “Runway one seven R-V-R less than six hundred”
B. “Runway one seven visual range more than six hundred feet”
C. “R-V-R runway one seven below six hundred”
D. “R-V-R runway one seven less than six hundred feet”

363. SCT00 BKN080 OVC120
A. “Scattered three thousand, ceiling broken eight hundred, overcast one two thousand”
B. “Scattered three thousand, broken eight hundred, ceiling one two thousand overcast”
C. “Three thousand scattered, ceiling eight thousand broken, one two thousand overcast”
D. “Three thousand scattered, eight thousand broken, ceiling one thousand two hundred overcast”

364. PK WND 23034/43
A. “Peak wind two three zero at three four happened at four three zulu”
B. “Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour”
C. “Peak wind two three zero degrees at three four knots occurred at four three zulu”
D. “Peak wind two hundred thirty degrees at thirty-four knots occurred at forty-three zulu”

365. CIG 005V008
A. “Ceiling five hundred variable eight hundred”
B. “Ceiling five hundred feet variable eight hundred feet“
C. Ceiling variable between five hundred and eight hundred”
D. “Ceiling variable between five hundred feet and eight hundred feet”

366. The purpose of a Pilot Weather Report (PIREP) is ________.
A. to report a pilot’s position
B. to report meteorological conditions in flight
C. to report a pilot incident
D. a pilot’s report of an accident

367. PIREPs are used by ________ to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport.
A. the National Weather Service
B. Flight Service Stations
C. centers
D. towers and TRACONs

368. Air traffic facilities must solicit PIREPs when ________ is reported.
A. light turbulence
B. visibility of 5 miles or less
C. a ceiling at or below 10,000 feet
D. icing of trace or greater intensity

369. Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, location, and ________.
A. coordinated universal time
B. the temperature in degrees Celsius
C. remarks
D. local time

370. When preparing PIREPs involving turbulence or icing, ________ shall always be included.
A. Sky condition
B. Visibility
C. Intensity
D. Wind

371. The following PIREP indicates the base of the second cloud layer is ________.
UA/OV MKC-JOT/TM 1100/FL080/TP C182/SK BKN025-TOP045/OVC050-TOP075/WX FV99/TA08
A. 5,000 feet AGL
B. 4,500 feet MSL
C. 7,500 feet AGL
D. 5,000 feet MSL

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP TA20/SK 035 BKN 075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
372. At what altitude(s) did the aircraft first encounter turbulence?
A. unknown
B. 3,500-7,500 feet
C. 5,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP TA20/SK 035 BKN 075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
373. What is the type of aircraft that made this report?
A. FV01
B. TA20
C. TA04
D. TM1516

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP TA20/SK 035 BKN 075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
374. What is the height of the base of the second layer?
A. Not reported
B. 3,500 feet
C. 7,500 feet
D. 9,500 feet

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP TA20/SK 035 BKN 075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
375. What was the weather element that caused the reduction in visibility?
A. RN
B. SHRA
C. SN
D. GR

After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28
376. Record the intensity of the turbulence and the altitude at which it was first encountered?
A. LGT/15
B. LGT 1.5
C. LGT 150
D. LGT 015

After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28 377. What should be recorded in the remarks?
A. WND 31028KT
B. NEG ICE
C. DURC
D. OKC315020

378. Authorized symbols and abbreviations must be used for recording ________.
A. TCAS RAs when voice recorders are operational
B. relief briefings
C. clearances, requests and advisories
D. clearances, reports and instructions

379. The letters “OTP” on a strip stand for _______.
A. VFR conditions-on-top
B. oceanic transfer point
C. procedure turn
D. out of control area

380. What symbol indicates that an aircraft’s clearance is void if not airborne by a specific time?
A. V=
B. ~V
C. V <
D. V

381. What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?
A. X
B. −
C. +
D. /

382. Flight progress strips are used for _______.
A. traffic count only
B. traffic sequencing only
C. posting current data on air traffic
D. traffic metering

383. Flight progress strips are considered ________ documents.
A. outdated
B. necessary
C. legal
D. current

384. When used on a strip, “VA” indicates which of the following?
A. Volcanic Ash
B. Variable Altitude
C. Visual Approach
D. Virginia

385. Which of the following is the correct format to record a block altitude?
A. 100B120
B. 210/230
C. 230B210
D. B150/170

386. Flight progress strips that are hand printed must ________.
A. use standard characters
B. be legible
C. conform to the machine printed format
D. all the above

En Route Strip


387. On all en route strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
A. Aircraft ID
B. Equipment suffix
C. Aircraft type
D. Filed true airspeed

388. For en route strips, altitude information is found in which block?
A. 8
B. 27
C. 16
D. 20

389. On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

390. On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?
A. 11
B. 15
C. 19
D. 25

391. Which control symbol(s) indicates that an ARTCC has forwarded flight plan information?
A. Slash
B. Horizontal line
C. Check mark
D. Red circle

Terminal Strip


392. On all terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
A. Aircraft ID
B. Aircraft type
C. Computer ID
D. Beacon code

393. For terminal arrival strips, altitude information is found in which block?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

394. On a terminal strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A. 10
B. 7
C. 1
D. 2

395. On a terminal strip, which block contains the estimated time of arrival over a coordination fix?
A.3
B. 8
C. 18
D. 10

396. How is a terminal strip marked to indicate that the aircraft has an emergency?
A. Black “E”
B. ”EMRG”
C. Red check mark
D. Red ‘E”

397. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “should” means that the procedure is ________.

A. recommended
B. optional
C. approved
D. mandatory .

398. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for ________ use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for ________ use.
A. intrafacility; extrafacility
B. interfacility; intrafacility
C. extrafacility; jurisdictional
D. intrafacility; interfacility

399. Which of the following statements about the NAS is FALSE ?
A. NextGen is the NAS modernization program.
B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA (
C. The NAS is continuously evolving.
D. The NAS includes ATCS, NAVAIDS, and FARs

400. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

401. Positive control is the ________ of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.
A. separation
B. observation
C. deviation
D. sequencing

402. An ARTCC/TRACON is divided into areas of control jurisdiction called ________.
A. positions
B. regions
C. sectors
D. sections

403. In an ATCT, which 3 positions communicate directly with the pilots?
A. Flight Data, Local and Ground
B. Local, Clearance Delivery, and Tower Coordinator
C. Ground, Local and Clearance Delivery
D. Local, Tower Coordinator, and Flight Data

404. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the ________ and minimize ________ without increasing controller workload.
A. airspace, accidents
B. NAS, delays
C. ATC System, accidents
D. airports, delays

405. Which document lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA?
A. FAA Order JO 7340.2
B. FAA Order JO 7110.65
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

406. Considering the operational priorities of an air traffic controller, ________ have priority over ________ aircraft.
A. VFR/IFR
B. aircraft in distress/lifeguard
C. presidential/lifeguard
D. diverted/aircraft in distress

407. “Automation procedures are used in preference to non-automation procedures” is an example of ATC:
A. Duty Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Operational Priority
D. Primary Purpose

408. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway ________.
A. 9
B. 1
C. 01
D. 10

409. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?
A. Air taxiing
B. Hover taxiing
C. Loading passengers
D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft

410. Which of the following statements about airport beacons is FALSE?
A. They are turned on at night
B. They are turned on during restricted weather
C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational
D. They identify the type of airport

411. At an airport with no precision approach procedures, which of the following runway markings will NOT be present?
A. Touchdown zone
B. Runway designator
C. Runway centerline
D. Aiming point

412. “Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts” represents an air traffic controller’s first ________.
A. Duty Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Operational Priority
D. Primary Purpose

413. The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a(n) ________.
A. change
B. notice
C. supplement
D. amendment

414. RVSM stands for ________
A. Required Visual Separation Minima
B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
C. Requested Visual Separation Minima
D. Required Vertical Separation Minima

415. Minimum vertical separation between RVSM equipped IFR aircraft up to and including FL410 is ________ feet.
A. 1,000
B. 5,000
C. 4,000
D. 2,000

416. Which of the following is not a method for establishing non-radar longitudinal separation?
A. Depart at a specified time
B. Arrive at a fix at a specified time
C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap
D. Hold at a fix until a specified time

417. When using non-radar departure divergence ___________.
A. the airport must have at least 2 runways that intersect
B. the ATCS must wait 10 minutes between successive departures
C. the ATCS must ensure visual separation exists
D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

418. When using visual separation, what are the separation minima?
A. 5NM
B. 1,000 feet
C. 10 minutes
D. There are no specified minima.

419. The minimum terminal radar separation for two IFR aircraft less than 40 miles from the antenna is ________ miles.
A. 3
B. 10
C. 5
D. 20

420. A nonstandard holding pattern ________.
A. has leg lengths which must be measured in minutes
B. is one that is located at a navigational aid
C. uses left turns
D. uses right turns

421. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

422. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
A. Airport manager/operator
B. Tower controller
C. Pilot
D. Flight service specialist

423. What type of NOTAM consists of information that is regulatory in nature, pertaining to flight, including but not limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage?
A. NOTAM D
B. FDC NOTAM
C. Military NOTAM
D. Pointer NOTAM

424. A feature which improves a primary radar display is:
A. Moving target indicator
B. Anomalous propagation
C. Temperature inversion
D. Ring around

425. Which radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does NOT require equipment in aircraft?

A. Primary radar
B. Secondary radar
C. Airport radar
D. Positive radar

426. Which of the following is a component of a secondary radar system?
A. Moving Target Indicator
B. Circular polarization
C. Receiver
D. Transponder

427. An advantage of secondary radar over primary radar is it's ______.
A. longer range
B. ability to switch from linear polarization to circular polarization
C. improved weather display
D. display of any object which reflects radio energy

428. Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.10
B. FAA Order JO 7210.3
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

429. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
A. FAA Order JO 7210.3
B. FAA Order JO 7110.10
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7110.65

430. Advising the En Route Radar and Radar Associate positions of sector actions required to accomplish the safe and efficient operation of the sector is a responsibility of the En Route ________ position.
A. radar coordinator/handoff
B. radar flight data
C. clearance delivery
D. traffic management

431. Which AFSS position uses the radio call sign "Flight Watch"
A. EFAS
B. Inflight
C. Broadcast
D. Preflight

432. Airmen’s information can be disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and _______.
A. satellite communications
B. facility directives
C. flight information publications
D. FAA orders

433. Which document contains items concerning pilot’s health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, and accident reporting?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.10
B. FAA Order JO 7210.3
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

434. The purpose of a “Supplement” is ________.
A. temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action
B. to add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order
C. to make one-time announcements
D. to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

435. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive?
A. Supplements
B. LOA
C. GENOT
D. Orders