Basto study guide

What characteristics of an aircraft are directly dependent upon it's weight and balance conditions?

What manual is aircraft weight and balance control?

What are the 3 weighing systems used by the Navy?

What method has become the standard weighing system used by the Navy?

1) Stationary pit-type scale
2) The MEWS
3) Heavy duty portable scale

What is the typical installation setup time by two personnel of MEWS?

A) 10 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes

What weighing system is designed to provide weight only?

A) Stationary pit-type scale
B) The MEWS
C) Heavy duty portable scale

How often must heavy-duty portable scales be calibrated?

A) Atleast once every 6 months
B) Atleast once every 12 months

What is the only sure method of obtaining an accurate basic weight and center of gravity location on an aircraft?

How often must the large stationary pit-type scales be calibrated or certified correct?

A) Atleast once every 6 months
B) Atleast once every 12 months

Spirit levels used for leveling aircraft should be of what type?

What device is used to project points on the aircraft onto the floor for measuring dimensions in a level plane?

1.) What is used for determining the density of fuel?

2.) At what calibration range?

What is the capacity of oil tanks should be filled before weighing an aircraft?

What is the minimum time electronic scales should be warmed up?

A) 20 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 30 minutes

After removing the aircraft from the scale, you must re-weigh if the scale do not return to zero after how many minutes?

A) 20 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 30 minutes

What is TARE?

How often does the CTPL with the assistance of QA personnel perform audit on all dispersed library operation?

A) Quarterly
B) Annually
C) Semiannually

If the CTPL is not available, who will perform the audit?

A) QA
B) Material Control
C) Supervisor

What is the intent of conducting audits when a new W/C supervisor or W/C dispersed librarian is assigned?

Dispersed Librarian audit results with copies of the annotated audit inventory list shall be retained by the CTPL for how long

How does IRACS properly placed in manuals?

How many percent of publications held are to be page-checked during quarterly audit?

A) 50
B) 100
C) 25
D) 75

What type of design is used on many Navy helicopters?

A) Monocoque design
B) Semi-monocoque design

What MLG component of a helicopter include the weight-on-wheels sensing switch?

A) Left MLG
B) Right MLG

What does the weight-on-wheels sensing switch provide?

Where does the main rotor blades that provides lift for helicopter receive power?

What allows bolting of the main rotor blades to the rotor head?

What type of spar is used in the construction of rotor blades?

How is pressure loss in the spar of helicopter indicated?

What component transmits the movement of the flight controls to the 4 main rotor blades?

What type of corrosion is one of the most familiar types of corrosion?

A) Exfoliation
B) Intergranular
C) Galvanic
D) Crevice

Two connected dissimilar metal parts placed in distilled water corrode very slowly due to a lack of ions in solution to conduct the electric current; in sea water, the corrosion reaction is?

A) Decelerated by a factor of 20% or more
B) Accelerated by a factor of 1000 or more
C) Decelerated by a factor of 1000 or less
D) Accelerated by a factor of 20% or less

In order for corrosion to occur, four conditions must be met. There must be

A) Salt, metal, anode, electricity
B) Cathode, sea water, anode, electrolyte
C) Anode, electrolyte, cathode, electrical contact
D) Anode, cathode, electrolyte, sea water

All corrosive attacks begin

A) When a lack of corrosion prevention exist
B) Between two dissimilar metals
C) On the surface
D) Both 1 and 2

When the corroding metal (anode) is larger than the less active metal (cathode), corrosion will

A) Occur only on the cathode
B) Not take place
C) Accelerate 20% and cause much more damage
D) Be slow and superficial

If the surface area of the corroding metal (the anode) is smaller than the surface area of the less active metal (the cathode), corrosion will

A) Be rapid and severe
B) Be rapid but superficial
C) Be slow but severe
D) Be slow and superficial

If the amount of the electrolyte on the surface varies from one location to another, you might find what kind of corrosion?

A) Galvanic
B) Crevice
C) Concentration cell
D) Uniform surface

When in a salt water environment, what three metals are each less corrosive than naval yellow brass?

A) Lead, monel and silver
B) Titanium alloys, silver and nickel
C) Carbon/graphite, palladium and chromium (plate)
D) Gold, rhodium and stainless steel 202 (active)

What type of corrosion is first seen as a general dulling or etching of the surface and, if the attack is allowed to continue, the surface becomes rough and possibly frosted in appearance

A) Uniform surface corrosion
B) Intergranular corrosion
C) Crevice corrosion
D) Filiform corrosion

What are the characteristics of Galvanic Corrosion?

A) The surface becomes rough and possibly frosted in appearance
B) Dulling or etching of the surface
C) White powdery deposits
D) Presence of a buildup of corrosion deposits at the joint between the metals

What type of corrosion is usually first noticeable as a white or gray powdery deposit, similar to dust, which blotches the surface?

A) Exfoliation
B) Oxygen differential cell
C) Pitting
D) High temperature oxidation

What type of corrosion occurs on extruded, rolled, wrought, and forged high strength aluminum and magnesium parts?

A) Exfoliation corrosion
B) Intergranular corrosion
C) Filliform corrosion
D) Crevice corrosion

What type of corrosion is usually located at gasket surfaces, lap joints, and under bolt or rivet heads?

A) Active/passive cell
B) Stress
C) Crevice
D) Fretting

What type of corrosion is an advanced form of intergranular corrosion?

A) Crevice corrosion
B) Fretting corrosion
C) Oxygen differential cells
D) Exfoliation

Typical locations of this type of corrosion are under either metallic or non-metallic deposits (dirt) on the metal surface and under faying surfaces such as riveted lap joints. This type of corrosion also develops under gaskets, wood, rubber, plastic tape, and other materials in contact with the metal surface.

A) Filiform corrosion
B) Oxygen differential cells
C) Crevice corrosion
D) Active/passive cells

What is characterized by grooves, gullies, waves, rounded holes and/or valleys in the metal surface.

A) Uniform surface corrosion
B) Stress corrosion
C) Intergranular corrosion
D) Erosion corrosion

This type of corrosion, aided by salt solutions, sea water, and moist salt laden air may causes cracking of heat treatable aluminum alloys, stainless steels, and some titanium alloys.

A) Intergranular corrosion
B) Fretting corrosion
C) Stress corrosion
D) Uniform surface corrosion

What is the cracking of metals caused by the combined effects of cyclic stress and corrosion?

A) Corrosion fatigue
B) Stress corrosion
C) Filliform corrosion
D) Galvanic corrosion

The corrosion characteristic(s) for magnesium alloys is/are

A) Rough surface, sometimes a red, brown, or black stain
B) White powdery snow-like mound
C) No visible corrosion products at low temperature. Colored surface oxides develop above 700° F (370° C)
D) White to gray powdery mate

Blue or blue-green powdery deposits are the corrosion product of

A) Electroless nickel
B) Silver
C) Magnesium alloy
D) Copper-base alloy

Whisker-like deposits are a corrosion product found mainly on what type of metal?

A) Carbon & low alloy steel (4000-8000 series)
B) Tin
C) Gold
D) Magnesium

What material has this type of corrosion attack and has the appearance of this type of deterioration? Attack: Moisture, heat, humidity. Appearance: Bubbles, peeling, cracking

A) Paint
B) Potting Compounds
C) Sealants
D) Polymers

What natural environment attribute often contains contaminants such as chlorides, sulfates, and nitrates, which increase its corrosive effects?

A) Moisture
B) Ozone
C) Climate
D) Microbial

What type of alloy is highly susceptible to pitting?

A) Magnesium
B) Alluminum
C) Cadmium
D) Stainless steel

What type of alloy has white to gray powder appearance?

A) Magnesium
B) Aluminum
C) Cadmium
D) Chromium

What is Pitting?

A) Holes
B) Grease
C) Meow
D) Mix

If a paint material passes the shelf life test, it may be extended for a period of __ months (first extension), __ months (second extension), or __ months (third extension).

A) 9, 6, 4
B) 6, 4, 2
C) 6, 3, 3
D) 4, 3, 1

Shelf life for paint-type materials can be extended three times if the material is found suitable, for a total extension period of how many months?

A) 9
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24

Operational uses for particular paint schemes include:

A) Thermal protection
B) Glare reduction
C) Weather resistant
D) Corrosion resistant

In the color number 36440, what number(s) represent the hue?

A) 36
B) 6
C) 440
D) 64

In the color number 17925, what number(s) represent the gloss value?

A) 1
B) 17
C) 79
D) 5

As pertaining to Hazardous Materials, VOC is?

A) Vapor to Oxygen Content
B) Volatile Oxidizing Corrosive
C) Volatile Organic Compound
D) Volatile Oxidizing Chemical

Radomes, antenna covers, and parts with similar elastomeric coatings shall be repaired in accordance with what publication and system-specific repair instructions.

A) NAVAIR 01-1A-22
B) NAVAIR 01-1A-509 chapter 4
C) NAVAIR 04-1A-18
D) NAVAIR 17-1-125

HVLP spray equipment atomizes paint into a soft pattern of low speed particles using an air cap pressure up to what maximum PSI?

A) 20
B) 10
C) 15
D) 25

A Zhan No. 2 Cup is constructed of corrosion resistant steel and is used to measure what?

A) The viscosity of the material being used
B) Exactly 44 milliliters of material
C) Exact amounts of part A and B of a two part paint kit
D) The weight of a pre determined amount of material

What grit of aluminum oxide cloth, aluminum oxide paper or abrasive mat is to be used when preparing cured paint to repaint or touch up?

A) 100 or finer
B) 50 or finer
C) 150 or finer
D) 75 or finer

For most processes, spray gun distance from the work should be approximately how far away from the surface being painted?

A) 5-8 inches
B) 7-12 inches
C) 8-14 inches
D) 6-10 inches

Troubleshooting faulty spray patterns.If you have heavy top or bottom pattern then you probably have this for possible cause?

A) Cap and/or tip seat dirty
B) Left or right side horn holes plugged
C) Material flow exceeds air cap's capacity
D) Atomization air pressure too high

Troubleshooting faulty spray patterns.If you have heavy center pattern then you probably need to do which one of these as a part of the corrective action?

A) Clean ream with non-metallic point.
B) Check for dried paint just inside the opening. Remove paint by washing with approved solvent.
C) Balance air and fluid pressure. Increase spray pattern width with spreader adjustment valve.
D) Back out counterclockwise to achieve proper pattern.

Paint finish problems... If you have crowfoot separation, irregular line separation, mud cracking then one of the causes could have been:

A) Improper cleaning of surface prior to painting
B) Improper undercoats
C) Improper surface preparation
D) Insufficient drying of films prior to recoating

Ensure the surface temperature of the area to be coated is between;

A) 50°F and 95°F
B) 55°F and 90°F
C) 60°F and 90°F
D) 55°F and 80°F

How many degrees of corrosion exist?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 5

Paint removed from composite surfaces for the purposes of performing repairs shall be performed by hand sanding or by using an orbital sander.

A) True
B) False

A very fine and soft abrasive used to remove stains or to remove corrosion on thin metal surfaces where minimum metal removal is allowed.

A) Metallic Wools
B) Abrasive Mats
C) Pumice Powder
D) Abrasive Cloth

Flap brushes are made of non-woven, nylon, aluminum oxide webbing.

A) True
B) False

Under an aircraft emergency, who shall supervise equipment removal?

A) AMO
B) Corrosion workcenter supervisor
C) MMCO
D) LCPO

When should salvageable components of the aircraft shall be treated?

A) Before removal
B) In a few hours
C) Simultaneously
D) After removal

Qualified ordnance personnel shall be assigned to handle all ordnance and associated items, such as ammunition and pyrotechnics.

A) True
B) False

The mechanical cutting of fuel, hydraulic and oil lines, and electrical leads, and other drastic operations necessary to expedite removal of components are left to the discretion of whom?

A) MO
B) MMCO
C) AMO
D) Senior member on the scene

Before returning to serviceable status, all equipment subject to emergency reclamation team procedures must be?

A) Certified operational ready
B) Replaced
C) Decontaminated
D) Corrosion treated

What is the primary method for cleaning contaminated areas?

A) Chemical stripper
B) Alcohol
C) Fresh water
D) Detergent solution

Air pressure must not exceed how many PSI when blow drying.

A) 5
B) 7.5
C) 13
D) 10

What engine gas path cleaner is used for engines that are contaminated with small amounts of seawater

A) MIL-C-81309
B) MIL-PRF-85704
C) MIL-C-85570
D) MIL-PRF-85704 Type II RTU

How many parts of water is used to clean surfaces with a solution of one part aircraft cleaning compound MIL-PRF-85570 Type II?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 9
D) 7

The carbon fibers of composite materials may be released into the atmosphere if their epoxy binder burns; this occurs at temperatures in excess of

A) 300°F
B) 600°F
C) 800°F
D) 900°F

The extinguishing, containing, and cleaning practices for boron fibers are the same as those for carbon/epoxy fibers.

A) True
B) False

What letters are used to designate an ocean going tug?

A) ATT
B) ATF
C) AFS
D) ASR

How long an "ASPA" inspection adjust the period end date of an aircraft?

A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 12 months

The _______ _______ is an event by event listing of scheduled flight activity in visual form

A) Cyclic op plan
B) Battle plan
C) Flight plan
D) Air plan

If you wanted to create a user specific report, which subsystem would you go to?

A) Data analysis
B) Maintenance
C) Report

Which workcenter is responsible for maintaining aircraft status, scheduling work load requirements, and personnel assets?

A) Maintenance control
B) Maintenance / material control
C) Admin / personnel

How often the workcenter audits conducted?

A) Monthly
B) Quarterly
C) Semiannually
D) Annually

Who can release an aircraft "safe for flight" other than the AMO, MCO, MMCO?

A) Pilot
B) Maintenance crew
C) Personnel designated in writing by the CO
D) None of the above

Which of the following subsystems within the Organizational Maintenance Activities (OMA) is used to collect and process maintenance data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base?

A) Logs and records
B) Asset
C) Maintenance
D) None of the above

The Job Control Number (JCN) serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reporting (MDR) and consists of how many characters?

A) 9
B) 9 or 10
C) 9, 10 or 11
D) 10 or 11

How often is an Aircraft Material Readiness Report sent out?

A) Quarterly
B) Monthly
C) Annually
D) Daily

What term refers to the imaginary line the top to the bottom of the aircraft and is associated with YAW?

A) Longitudinal
B) Horizontal
C) Vertical
D) Lateral

What are the 2 types of scales may be used for weighing Navy aircraft?

What instrument are used to measure the angle of incline or the attitude of the aircraft weighed in an unlevel attitude?

What are needed for spanning the distances between leveling lugs of different aircraft?

A) Leveling bars
B) Plumb bob

Most of stationary platform scales are what type?

Scales shall have an accuracy of atleast what percent of applied load?

What is a signal that the safety program has failed?

A) Constant safety program investigations
B) A mishap
C) Inadequate documentation of safety training
D) All of the above

What program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for evaluating performance throughout the Maintenance Department.

A) QA Audit
B) MMP
C) Maintenance Safety Program

Corrective actions and QA follow-up on discrepant areas are normally performed within how many days?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12

The QA Audit Program Manager shall maintain audit files for a period of how many years?

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 4 years

When shall QA conduct workcenter audits to evaluate overall quality of each work center’s performance?

A) Annually
B) Semiannually
C) Biannually
D) Quarterly

Ensuring that tools are procured and issued in a controlled manner consistent with the approved tool control plan is the responsibility of what Officer?

A) The Maintenance Officer
B) The Material Control Officer
C) The Quality Assurance Officer
D) The Assistant Maintenance Officer

Which of the following reports should be used to report poor quality tools to FLEMATSUPPO?

A) EI
B) HMR
C) CAT I QDR
D) CAT II QDR

Upon task assignment, you must record the tool container number on what copy of the VIDS/MAF?

A) Copy 1
B) Copy 2
C) Copy 3
D) Copy 5

Who is responsible for training work center personnel in the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)?

A) The safety officer
B) The division officer
C) The work center supervisor
D) The maintenance control chief

What system/program is used to acquire, store, and disseminate data on hazardous materials procured for use?

A) Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
B) Navy Occupational Health and Safety(NAVOSH)
C) Hazardous Material Information program(HMIP)
D) Hazardous Material Information System(HMIS)

What section of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies personal protective equipment required?

A) Section II
B) Section V
C) Section VII
D) Section VIII

What safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that is essential to emphasize?

A) NOTE
B) WARNING
C) CAUTION
D) ALERT

Thin lines made up of long and short dashes alternately spaced and consistent in length are known by what name?

A) Hidden lines
B) Center lines
C) Dimension lines
D) Extension lines

The dies of hot dimpling machines are maintained at a specific temperature by which of the following devices?

A) Hot air blowers
B) Steam generator
C) Electric heaters
D) Hot oil vats

The hot dimpling squeezer is capable of working all material gauges up to and including which of the following measurements?

A) 0.084 of an inch
B) 0.091 of an inch
C) 0.098 of an inch
D) 0.102 of an inch

What is likely to occur when dimpling a strip of material by using excessive pressure?

A) The strip tends to form a convex shape
B) The strip tends to form a concave shape
C) The strip tends to form a channel shape
D) Excessive pressure is required to keep the strip straight and flat

Squaring Shears can be used to perform all EXCEPT which of the following cutting operations?

A) Squaring
B) Multiple cutting
C) Cutting to a line
D) Notch cutting

Which of the following types of shears are portable and power operated?

A) Throatless shears
B) Unishears
C) Hand bench shears
D) Squaring shears

Before you use the bar folder, which of the following adjustments must be made?

A) Width of the fold only
B) Sharpness of the fold only
C) Angle of the fold only
D) Width, sharpness, and angle of the fold

Which of the following sheet metal bending equipment has a series of removable fingers of varying widths?

A) A bar folder
B) A cornice break
C) A box and pan break
D) A bench vise

Which of the following materials should you NEVER attempt to bend in a brake?

A) Rods only
B) Wires only
C) Spring steel sheets only
D) Rods, wires, and spring steel sheets

To allow the lines to stand out more clearly when laying out sheet metal patterns, you should use which of the following items?

A) Layout fluid
B) Felt tip marker
C) Graphite pencil
D) Ball-point pen

Lines at a known angle or parallel to the straight edge of the sheet of material can be made by marking points from a combination square held firmly against the straight edge.

A) True
B) False

When marking or drawing lines on aluminum or magnesium, which of the following should be remove to prevent corrosion?

A) Masking tape
B) Lead pencil marks
C) Scriber lines
D) Finger prints

Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of material consumed in making a bend?

A) Mold line
B) Bend tangent line
C) Bend allowance
D) Bend line

What term is used to describe the longer part of a formed angle?

A) Flange
B) Flat
C) Leg
D) Arm

The term "setback" is used to describe the distance between which of the following two points?

A) Bend tangent line and the mold line
B) Base measurement and the bend allowance
C) Bend radius and material thickness
D) Bend tangent line and the mold point

Which of the following does the NEC NOT identify?

A) Skills that are not rating-wide
B) Special knowledge and skills not provided by rate and rating
C) Special skills and knowledge required for a special billet
D) Special skills obtained through OJT

What is the main purpose of the Petty Officer Quality Control Program

A) To ensure that only top-performing Petty Officers reenlist
B) To identify Career Petty Officers with performance or behavior deficiencies
C) To screen the service records of all Petty Officers
D) To recommend Petty Officers for collateral assignments

What is the maximum length of service allowed for an applicant to the Chief Warrant Officer Program

A) 12 years
B) 16 years
C) 20 years
D) 24 years

Which of the following personnel is/are allowed to make entries in your service record?

A) Immediate supervisor
B) Yourself
C) Authorized personnel
D) Department head

As a retired member with 30 years of service, you may be ordered to active duty by which of the following personnel?

A) Chief of Naval Operations
B) Vice President of the United States
C) Secretary of the Navy
D) Chief of Naval Personnel

Unless otherwise directed, all Naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of time?

A) 12 months
B) 6 months
C) 90 days
D) 30 days

Naval messages may have a total of (a) how many originators and (b) how many action and information addresses?

A) (a) One (b) one each
B) (a) Two (b) two each
C) (a) Three (b) unlimited
D) (a) One (b) unlimited

A message is released at 1930 hours Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991. What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assigned to the message?

A) 1930Z 02JAN91
B) 02JAN91 1930Z
C) 19302Z JAN 91
D) 021930Z JAN 91

Messages addressed to Address Indicating Groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information?

A) Directive changes
B) Emergency leave requests
C) Destructive storm warnings
D) Personnel changes of station

Who is responsible for the selection of a message precedence?

A) Drafter
B) Releaser
C) Addressee
D) Originator

What article of the Constitution provides that the executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States?

A) V
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Which of the following is the most Senior Officer in the Armed Forces?

A) Commandant of the Marine Corps
B) Chief of Naval Operations
C) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
D) Secretary of Defense

Who serves as the spokesman for the Commanders of the Unified Combatant Commands?

A) Commander of the U.S. Joint Forces Command
B) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
C) Secretary of the Army
D) Secretary of the Air Force

What office monitors and evaluates congressional proceedings and actions that affect the Department of the Navy?

A) Office of Information
B) Office of the General Counsel of the Navy
C) Office of Program Appraisal
D) Office of Legislative Affairs

The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is assigned to what immediate office?

A) Chief of Naval Personnel
B) Chief of Naval Operations
C) Secretary of the Navy
D) Assistance Secretary of the Navy

The U.S. Naval Forces Central Command's area of responsibility includes which of the following areas?

A) Mediterranean
B) Middle East
C) Continental United States
D) South America

The Pacific Fleet's area of responsiblity includes which of the following areas?

A) Southeast Asia
B) Arctic Ocean
C) U.S. west coast
D) Both B and C above

Commanding Officer shall ensure that all classified information is stored in what manner?

A) To keep unauthorized persons from entering
B) To keep a recorded log of all transactions
C) That is directed by competent authority preventing access by unauthorized persons
D) To deter or detect access by unauthorized persons

Classified information which is not being used or not under the personal observation of cleared persons who are authorized access shall be in accordance with what chapter of SECNAVINST 5510.36?

A) Chapter 1
B) Chapter 5
C) Chapter 10
D) None of the above

Weapons or sensitive items, such as money, jewels, precious metals, or narcotics shall be stored in the same security containers used to store classified information.

A) True
B) False

Markings revealing the classification level of information being stored in a specific security container, valut, or secure room shall be clearly marked and visible.

A) True
B) False

Priorities for emergency evacuation and destruction shall NOT be marked or posted on the security container.

A) True
B) False

Reports of any weakness, deficiency, or vulnerability in any equipment used to safeguard classified information should be reported to?

A) CNO
B) Commanding Officer
C) Security Manager
D) Immediate Superior In Command (ISIC)

Who is responsible for establishing and publishing minimum standards, specifications for containers, vault doors, alarm systems for the storage and destruction of classified information?

A) The Commanding Officer
B) The Secretary of the Navy
C) The CPOA
D) The GSA

Which of the following constitutes a loss of classified information?

A) When it is discovered the classified information was compromised
B) When it cannot be physically located
C) When it has been reported that classified information has been found in an authorized area
D) All of the above

Which of the following constitutes a compromise of classified information?

A) Disclosure to a person without a need-to-know
B) When the classified information cannot be physically located
C) When the classified information cannot be accounted for
D) All of the above

Which of the following is an indicator of a successful NAVOSH Program?

A) Reduces work-related injuries and illnesses
B) Identifies personnel at risk of personal injury
C) Maintains the ship to top operating condition
D) All of the above

The overall responsiblity for the NAVOSH Program rests with the

A) Secretary of Defense
B) Secretary of the Navy
C) Chief, Bureau of Medicine & Surgery
D) Commanding Officer

Who is responsible for managing the NAVOSH Program?

A) Type Commander
B) Commanding Officer
C) Ship's Medical Officer
D) Safety Officer

Which body meets at least quarterly to develop specific NAVOSH policies and to analyze the progress of the overall program?

A) NAVOSH Council
B) Safety Committee
C) Safety and Health Management Council
D) Safety Council

What type of authority derives from billets assigned to Officers and Petty Officers within the organization?

A) Authority within the command
B) General Authority
C) Organizational Authority
D) Absolute Authority

What type of authority stems from leadership qualities that make other obey, even if no law requires them to do so?

A) Legal authority
B) Command authority
C) Moral authority
D) Earned authority

The exercise of authority is by

A) Rank and paygrade
B) The personnel in charge
C) Taking responsiblity and being accountable
D) The issuance of orders

If you are in uniform and covered, how do you render honors when the national anthem is played indoors but the flag is not displayed?

A) Face the music and uncover
B) Stand at attention while facing the music
C) Hand salute at attention while facing the music
D) Face the music and hold your hat next to your left shoulder

When the national anthem is being played, Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the following rules?

A) All persons remain seated or standing and salute
B) Only the coxswain salutes
C) All others remain seated but uncovered
D) All persons standing salute

Upon entering an area where Christian divine services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should take which of the following actions?

A) Uncover only
B) Remove your duty belt only
C) Request permission from the chaplain to enter

An Enlisted person and two Officers are about to board a boat. Which of the following procedures should the enlisted person follow in entering the boat?

A) Board first and sit aft
B) Make way for the Officers to board, then board and sit in the stern of the boat
C) Make way for the Officers to board, then board and sit in the bow of the boat
D) Board first and sit forward, leaving room aft for the Officers

Where can you find information on what is the prescribed uniform of the day?

A) Plan of the Day (POD) only
B) Plan of the Week (POW) only
C) POD or POW
D) Passdown log

Division Officers are required to inspect the uniforms of nonrated personnel at regular intervals for what reason?

A) As a part of PQS
B) To justify clothing allowance
C) To see if enlisted personnel know what uniforms are prescribed
D) To make sure that each person has the prescribed uniform

The transfer or exchange of enlisted personnel uniform items must be authorized by which of the following persons?

A) Chief master-at-arms
B) Division officer
C) Executive officer
D) Commanding officer

Occupational groups are identified by what means?

A) A group mark, which is worn on all uniforms
B) A rate mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
C) A group mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
D) A rate mark, which is worn on all uniforms

How can you determine whether an Officer is a Line Officer or a Staff Corps Officer?

A) By title on the name tag
B) A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder board of the line officer
C) By the collar devices
D) A designator stripe for the rank

There are how many broad categories of awards?

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

In what year was the Purple Heart founded by President Washington?

A) 1776
B) 1780
C) 1782
D) 1786

Which of the following is an example of a campaign or a service award?

A) Medical Scientific Societies
B) Silver Life Saving Medal
C) Good Conduct Medal
D) Navy "E"

Which of the following is the purpose of the armed forces ID card under article 17 of the Geneva Convention?

A) As a means of identification and casualty reporting
B) As a means of grave registration for members who die in a combat zone
C) Both A and B above
D) As a means of identification for POWs

According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured from the tip of the finger)?

A) 1 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 3/4 inch
D) 1/4 inch

Enlisted women, E-6 and below, are authorized to wear ball-type earings of what (a) size and (b) what color?

A) (a) 6mm (b) gold
B) (a) 6mm (b) silver
C) (a) 5mm (b) gold

When personnel are in ranks, the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart?

A) 20 inches
B) 30 inches
C) 40 inches
D) 50 inches

A pace consists of a full step of what length for (a) men and (b) women?

A) (a) 18 inches (b) 110
B) 2 inches
C) (a) 24 inches (b) 18 inches
D) (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches

When executing the command FALL IN, the squad forms in line on which of the following persons?

A) Instructor
B) Squad leader
C) Standard bearer
D) Company commander

Personnel in formation align themselves with which of the following persons?

A) Guide
B) Leader
C) Each other
D) Formation director

Passing Honors for boats are exchanged when boats pass within what distance?

A) 100 yards
B) 400 yards
C) 200 yards
D) 300 yards

Except for the post-tour Navy Fleet/Force/Command Master Chief Badge, what maximum number of identification badges may be worn at one time?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

If you qualify for more than one badge, wear the badge representing your present assignment, otherwise, wear the badge you prefer.

A) True
B) False

Which of the following is NOT an authorized identification badge?

A) MAA/Law Enforcement Badge
B) Career Counselor
C) Merchant Marine Service Emblem
D) Office of the Secretary of the Navy

The only identification badge that may be worn post-tour when wearing another identification badge as an incumbent is:

A) Office of Secretary of Defense
B) Command Senior Enlisted Leader
C) Vice Presidential Service Badge
D) Joint Chiefs of Staff

What is the reason for classifying information?

A) To limit information to a
B) To protect individuals concerned
C) To properly categorize information and it's access
D) To protect the National Security

At what time does classified information get declassified?

A) As soon as it no longer meets the standards for classification
B) As soon as the reason for keeping the information classified no longer exists
C) When deemed no longer required by the Original Classification Authorities (OCAs)
D) all of the above

Information that requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security shall be classified as, EXCEPT:

A) Top Secret
B) Secret Sensentive (SS)
C) Secret
D) Confidential

What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?

A) Top Secret
B) Secret Sensitive (SS)
C) Secret
D) Confidential

What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security?

A) Top Secret
B) Secret Sensitive (SS)
C) Secret
D) Confidential

What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security?

A) Top Secret
B) Secret Sensitive (SS)
C) Secret
D) Confidential

Which of the following is NOT considered an "Associated marking" on classified information?

A) Upgrading and classification instructions
B) Warning notices
C) Intelligence control markings
D) Miscelleaneous markings

Who is responsible for the proper marking of a classified document?

A) National Security Advisor (NSA)
B) Original or drivative classifier
C) Security officer of the command holding the classified document
D) Original classifier only

Which of the following should appear on the face or front cover of every classified document?

A) DoN Command that originated the document
B) DoN Command that derived the document
C) Both A and B
D) Name and Rank of the Security Officer originating the document

In what year was the Code of Conduct first prescribed?

A) 1965
B) 1955
C) 1945
D) 1935

The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide guidance for service personnel in which of the following circumstances?

A) When stationed on foreign soil
B) When traveling at home and abroad
C) When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
D) All of the above

In what year was Executive Order 12633 issued amending the Code of Conduct to use neutral-gender language?

A) 1987
B) 1988
C) 1989
D) 1990

How many articles make up the Code of Conduct?

A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight

In areas where different armed services are located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identified this unit?

A) Armed Forces Police Department
B) Armed Forces Police Detachment
C) Armed Forces Police Service
D) Armed Forces Police Group

Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA) force is headed the chief master-at-arms (CMAA). The CMAA works directly for which of the following officer?

A) Weapons Officer
B) Security Officer
C) Executive Officer
D) Administrative Officer

Discipline is important to the Navy for which of the following reasons?

A) To instill fear of punishment
B) To decrease command responsibility
C) To provide punishment for wrongdoers
D) To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency

Punishment is administered in the Navy for which of the following reasons?

A) To serve as an object lesson to the wrongdoer and others
B) To pacify those who have suffered a wrong
C) To correct a wrong
D) To avenge a wrong

What person is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conforms to the current needs of the Department of the Navy?

A) The Secretary of the Navy
B) The Judge Advocate General
C) The Chief of Naval Operations
D) The Commandant of the Marine Corps

Navy Regs and changes to it are issued by the Secretary of the Navy after what person approves them?

A) The President
B) The Vice President
C) The Attorney General
D) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Failure to obey any regulations subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article?

A) 91
B) 92
C) 93
D) 94

What article of the Navy Regs lists the publications that must be made available upon request by any active-duty person?

A) 1020
B) 1010
C) 0917
D) 0818

What article of the Navy Regs gives Officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?

A) 1021
B) 1023
C) 1025
D) 1033

Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Board, provides which of the following Officers the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked?

A) The Senior Line Officer eligible for command at sea
B) The Junior Line Officer eligible for command at sea
C) The Senior Staff Officer
D) The Junior Staff Officer

Which of the following Navy Regulations articles outlines the authority of a sentry?

A) 1037
B) 1038
C) 1052
D) 1053

You may not be ordered to active duty without the permission of which of the following persons?

A) Commandant of the Marine Corps
B) Commandant of the Coast Guard
C) Chief of Naval Operations
D) Chief of Naval Personnel

Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval?

A) 10 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 4 hours

During a Saturday duty day, one of your shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs could you be charged?

A) 1138
B) 1134
C) 1133
D) 1129

Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal. Under what article of Navy Regs may a person be charged with sexual harassment?

A) 1166
B) 1164
C) 1162
D) 1160

Under what Article of the UCMJ explains Commanding Officers nonjudicial punishment?

A) 15
B) 25
C) 13
D) 14

What Article of the UCMJ defines "any person who: procures his own enlistment or appointment in the armed forces by knowingly false representation or deliberate concealment as to his qualifications for that enlistment or appoinment and receives pay or allowances?

A) 84
B) 86
C) 81
D) 83

What article in U.S. Navy regulation states that Officers of the United States Naval service shall be known as Officer in the line, Officers in the Staff Corps, Chief Warrant Officers and Warrant Officers?

A) 0917
B) 1001
C) 1003
D) 1034

Terrorist are categorized into how many groups?

A) 5
B) 1
C) 3
D) 7

The structure pyramid of a typical terrorist organization is how many parts?

A) 8
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2

Which is not a category of terrorist group?

A) Non-State-Supported
B) Local
C) State-Supported
D) State-Directed

What is normally the size of members for a large terrorist group?

A) 50 or less
B) 100 or more
C) 90 or less
D) Under 100

Which is NOT part of the typical terrorist organization?

A) Hardcore Leadership
B) Active Support
C) Local Support
D) Active Cadre

What are the categories of training for personnel for terrorist tactics?

A) Semi-trained
B) Untrained
C) Trained
D) All of the above

Product resulting from the collection, exploitation, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information.

A) Intelligence
B) Information
C) Inpublication
D) Infactuation

What threatcon applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel and facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable?

A) Threatcon Alpha
B) Threatcon Bravo
C) Threatcon Charlie

Knowing the functions of the Navy Supply System Organization will help you understand how your job relates to which of the following areas?

A) Managing supply items
B) Linking your job to other commands, bureaus, or offices in the Federal Supply System
C) Ordering items and the procedures for getting items
D) All the above

Planning and determining the material support needs of the Navy is the responsibility of which of the following individuals or organizations?

A) The Assistant Secretary of the Navy only
B) The Chief of Naval Operations only
C) Both 1 and 2 above
D) Department of Defense

Who is responsible for the supervision of the Navywide policy in production, procurement, supply and disposal of material?

A) Secretary of the Navy
B) Assistant Secretary of the Navy
C) Chief of Naval Operations
D) Assistant to the Chief of Naval Operations

Aircraft, SE, and AWSE wheel assemblies are comprised of how many basic types?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6

What level of maintenance is defined as the removal, replacement, servicing and handling of aircraft, SE and AWSE wheel assemblies?

A) O-Level only
B) I-Level only
C) O and I Level
D) Depot Level

RFI aircraft tire/wheel assemblies shall NOT exceed how many pounds (PSIG) or 50 percent of test pressure, whichever is less, while being stored?

A) 50
B) 90
C) 100
D) 110

Who designates in writing via the MMP, a certified tire/wheel individual as the Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety Program Manager?

A) Commanding Officer
B) Maintenance Officer
C) Safety Officer
D) Assistant Maintenance Officer

Who designates in writing via the MMP/SME listing, a certified tire/wheel QAR/QA Specialist as the Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety Program Monitor?

A) Maintenance Officer
B) Assistant Maintenance Officer
C) Commanding Officer
D) QA Officer

The FST/LMTC is required to submit a response to a HMR within how many days?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2

The FST/LMTC must submit a response to an EI within how many days?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D)10

Who signs off if a broken/missing tool is not found?

A) CO
B) CDI
C) QA
D) MO

Aircraft paint schemes are maintained per what instructions?

A) OPNAVINST 4790.2 vol 2
B) MIL-STD-2161A
C) OPNAVINST 4790.2 vol 5
D) NA 01-1A-509 vol 2

Deployable squadrons shall receive an AMI after being designated emergency surge capable with a target of how many months prior to scheduled deployment?

A) 4-6
B) 6-12
C) 3-6
D) 12-18

Non-deploying squadrons will receive an AMI at a 24-month interval.

A) True
B) False

Department of the Navy Correspondence Manual

A) SECNAVINST 5216.5D
B) SECNAVINST 5210.11
C) OPNAVINST 4790.2

How many types of maintenance actions are used to document MAF?

A) 10
B) 15
C) 23
D) 18

What copy of the vids board does maintenance control keeps?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2

What copies of the vids board gets forward to QA?

A) 2
B) 5
C) 3
D) 1

What copies of the vids board does the work center retains?

A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 4
C) 4 & 1
D) 1 & 5

What copies of the vids board get placed in the ADB?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2

Which word means procedure is mandatory?

A) Shall
B) Should
C) May
D) Will

What is the objective of the NAMP?

A) Repair of aeronautical equipment
B) To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO/COMNAVAIRFOR, with coordination from the CMC
C) Performance improvement
D) Mutually supporting teamwork, constant communication, and compatible measures are critical elements for success

OPTAR is an estimate of the amount of money required by a unit to perform its mission and is distributed quarterly.

A) True
B) False

Who provides the basis for the NAMP and sets policy in the basic instruction for the assignment of maintenance responsibilities to all activities that maintain naval aircraft?

A) SECDEF
B) COMNAVAIRFOR
C) CNO
D) CMC

The 4790.2 addresses maintenance policies, procedures, and responsibilities for the conduct of the NAMP at all levels of maintenance throughout Naval Aviation and is implemented by

A) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
B) SECNAV
C) COMNAVAIRFOR
D) CNO

The use of what word indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

A) Shall
B) Will
C) May
D) Should

Requests to deviate from NAMP policies, procedures, or responsibilities shall be submitted by;

A) By naval letter
B) By email
C) Via chain of command with copy of (N781) and (AIR-6.7.2.1).
D) All of the above

Via the originators chain of command, all request to deviate from NAMP policies, procedures, or responsibilities shall be submitted to

A) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.8.4)
B) COMNAVAIRFOR (N422)
C) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.7.2.1),
D) COMNAVAIRFOR (N684)

Deviation requests not related to manpower constraints shall be submitted to _____ with a copy to here ______ and here ______.

A) (N781) with CC to (N422) and (AIR-6.7.2.1)
B) (N422) with CC to (N781) and (AIR-6.7.2.1)
C) (N4.2.2) with CC to (N6.7.2.1) and (AIR781)
D) (AIR781) with CC to (N6.7.2.1) and (N4.2.2)

Who shall be included as "copy to" for all deviations affecting the MDS and NALCOMIS?

A) SPAWARSYSCEN Norfolk and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.8.4)
B) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.7.2.1) and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.8.4)
C) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.7.2.1) and SPAWARSYSCEN Norfolk and
D) No additional notification is needed

COMNAVAIRFOR aviation material readiness standards do NOT include which one of the following?

A) Application of a systematic planned maintenance program and the collection and analysis of data in order to improve working conditions and safety.
B) Repair of aeronautical equipment and material at that level of maintenance which ensures optimum economic use of resources.
C) Protection of weapon systems from corrosive elements through the prosecution of an active corrosion control program.
D) They are all correct

What details logistics actions which will allow the maximum opportunity to achieve this objective?

A) Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)
B) NAMPSOPS
C) The Naval Aviation Plan (Secret)
D) The Seven Performance Elements

What are the critical elements for success?

A) Improved deployability, following broad goals, deploying new techniques and concepts and constant communication
B) Mutually supporting teamwork, constant communication, and compatible measures
C) Increased readiness, improved quality, improved morale and retention, and Reduced costs
D) Improved morale and retention, mutually supporting teamwork, improved deployability and constant communication

A function of morale and other factors which affect personnel pride and motivation.

A) Quality of Life
B) Quality
C) MWR
D) Quality of Work Life

A function of the outputs, tells us how well goals are achieved.

A) Productivity
B) Efficiency
C) Effectiveness
D) Consistency

The pivotal element of the seven performance elements is that it is highly interrelated with all of the elements.

A) Motivation
B) Efficiency
C) Quality
D) Productivity

Aircraft maintenance is a command responsibility administered through the military chain of command. Technical management is exercised in consonance with this instruction and directives developed and published by?

A) SECNAV
B) COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
C) CNO
D) COMNAVAIRFOR

Who annually allocates materials and services for support of the NAMP?

A) SECNAV
B) SECDEF
C) CNO and CMC
D) Joint Chiefs of Staff

Manpower requirements are included in the DoD planning, programming, and budgeting system. This system operates on a _____ cycle and is repeated annually.

A) 20-months
B) 24-months
C) 36-months
D) 60-months

The ORM processes revolves around what simple five-steps sequence:

A) Implement controls, Identify hazards, Make risk decisions, Assess hazards, Supervise
B) Assess hazards, Supervise, Implement controls, Identify hazards, Make risk decisions
C) Identify hazards, Assess hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls, Supervise
D) Supervise, Implement controls, Identify hazards, Assess hazards, Make risk decisions

The ORM process exists on three levels:

A) Substantial, Brainstorming, Sequencing
B) In-depth, Substantial, Deliberate
C) Quick Mental Review, In-depth, Time-critical
D) Time-critical, Deliberate, In-depth

The ORM process incorporates four principles. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A) Anticipate and manage risk
B) Accept risk when the benefits outweigh the costs
C) Accept no necessary risk
D) Make risk decisions at the right level

The Safety Council meets at a minimum of how often?

A) 60 day intervals or more often if needed
B) Monthly or more often if needed
C) Quarterly or more often if needed
D) Every holiday and the beginning of summer

ORM consists of how many steps?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 6

The ratings of most hydraulic pumps are determined by their?

A) Effiency
B) Output per unit time
C) Volumetric output at a given pressure
D) Amount of internal slippage

Who's law states when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and the pressure is decreased.

A) Charle's law
B) Newton's second law
C) Newton's third law
D) Bernoulli's law

When dealing with people, you can NOT change which of the following human traits?

A) Wants
B) Thought processes
C) Skills
D) Emotional makeup

Wear brassards on the left arm, midway between the shoulder and elbow, on uniforms or outer garments.

A) True
B) False

Midshipmen earn leave at which monthly rate?

A) 1.5 days
B) 2 days
C) 2.5 days
D) None of the above

The President is the administrative head of what branch of government?

A) Executive
B) Legislative
C) Judicial
D) Congressional

Which of the following safety items do you use when handling cargo?

A) Hard hat
B) Steel toe boots
C) Inhertly buoyant life preserver
D) Inflatable life vest

What is the primary basis for the organization of units?

A) To organize proper relationships between functions, personnel and material assets
B) The human element is the primary factor
C) To accomplish the mission of the unit
D) The requirements for battle

What is a signal that the safety program has failed?

A) Constant safety program investigations
B) A mishap
C) Inadequate documentation of safety training
D) All of the above

E-3 and below can be in the Navy for how many years before having to request approval for longer length in service?

A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years

What is the governing instruction for the Navy Fraternization Policy?

A) OPNAVINST 5370
B) SECNAVINST 5370
C) OPNAVINST 5350
D) SECNAVINST 5350

Navy has historically relied on which of the following to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?

A) Custom and tradition
B) Rules and regulations
C) Society
D) Navy core values

Historically, and as used in OPNAVINST 5370, fraternization is a gender-neutral concept.

A) True
B) False

What section can you find information about care and household maintenance, clothing selection and maintenance, first home and apartment, cooking and groceries?

A) Personal Health & Safety
B) Housing
C) Military Transition Assistance
D) Basic Life Skills

What section of Lifelines offers topics in Boot Camp, OCS, Values/Leadership, Navy Communities, Support Services, Resources?

A) Essential Information
B) Navy Life
C) New to the Military
D) Joining the Navy

What Act expanded and improved the former Soldiers' and Sailors' Civil Relief Act (SSCRA) by providing a wide range of protections for individuals entering, called to active duty in the military, or deployed servicemembers?

A) Military Members Civil Relief Act (MCRA)
B) Sailor's and Soldier's Relief Act (SSRA)
C) Servicemember's Civil Relief Act (SCRA)
D) Servicemember's Civil Protection Act (SCPA)

Which of the following requires Naval personnel be immediately capable of correctly interpreting Command objectives and executing complex actions in consonance with their responsibilties?

A) Competance in job performance
B) Commanding Officers policy and command mission
C) The evolution of Navy missions
D) All of the above

Which of the following is/are essential for optimum readiness?

A) Morale
B) Training
C) Maintenance of material
D) All of the above

Which instruction issues relevant Naval Regulations and Standard Organization requirements applicable to the administration of naval units?

A) SECNAVINST 3120.31
B) SECNAVINST 3120.32
C) OPNAVINST 3120.31
D) OPNAVINST 3120.32

On large ships, what person is responsible for making sure that special flags or pennants are displayed to indicate changing events aboard ship?

A) Boatswain's mate
B) Quarterdeck watch
C) Duty Signalman
D) Topside watch

The IVCS has which of the following components?

A) Terminals
B) Accessories
C) ICSCs
D) All of the above

Which of the following sound-powered phone circuits is used as the CO's battle circuit?

A) JA
B) JC
C) JL
D) 1JV

Which of the following sound-powered phone circuits is used as weapons control?

A) JA
B) JC
C) JL
D) 21JS

All international transfers of classified information shall take place through what type of channels?

A) Courier-to-courier
B) Between personnel /agencies with proper security clearance to handle the transported classified information
C) Through freight carriers
D) Government-to-Government

Which of the following methods to transmit or transport U.S. Top Secret is not authorized?

A) Direct contact between appropriately cleared U.S. personnel
B) US Postal Service (USPS) registered mail within and between the U.S. and its territories
C) The DOS Diplomatic Courier Service
D) The Defense Courier Service

Which of the following is NOT an authorized method to transport or transmit U.S. Secret information?

A) Any means approved for Confidential
B) US Postal Service (USPS) registered mail within and between the U.S. and its territories
C) USPS registered mail address to U.S. Government agencies
D) The current holder of the General Services Administration (GSA) contract for overnight delivery

By law, what person heads the Department of the Navy (DoN)?

A) Secretary of Defense
B) Joint Chiefs of Staff
C) Secretary of the Navy

Title 10 of the U.S. Code states that which of the following actions is/are part of the Navy's mission?

A) Oversee constructions, outfitting, and repair of naval ships, equipment, and facilities
B) Station troops in forward positions
C) Command U.S. forces in CONUS
D) Commander and chief of all sea commands

What are the three principal components of the DoN?

A) The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
B) The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
C) The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
D) The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the fleet commands

The Operating forces are under the command of the?

A) Secretary of Defense
B) Secretary of the Navy
C) Chief of Naval Operations
D) Chief of Naval Personnel

What is the purpose of the Shore Establishment?

A) A last line of defense
B) To provide support to the operating forces
C) To provide a supply line
D) To support the front line

Aboard ship, what publication contains information about the ship’s organization?

A) Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy only
B) Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual only
C) Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy and Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual
D) Uniform Code of Military Justice

A ready source of information about the duties, responsibilities, and authority of personnel assigned to a ship is stated in which of the following documents?

A) United States Navy Regulations
B) Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill
C) Standard Organization and Regulations Manual
B) Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual

What are the two elements of a ship’s organization?

A) Battle organization and Damage control organization
B) Battle organization and Administrative organization
C) Administrative organization and Training organization
D) Administrative organization and Damage control organization

Each ship is organized into what minimum number of departments?

A) Five
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Which of the following is a responsibility of the operations department?

A) Piloting the ship
B) Forecasting weather
C) Conducting and analyzing intelligence information
D) Both B and C above

The Damage Control assistant is a member of what department on a ship?

A) Deck
B) Supply
C) Operations
D) Engineering

If a ship doesn’t have a deck department, what department is responsible for inspection and maintenance of survival equipment?

A) Supply
B) Weapons
C) Navigation
D) Engineering

Which of the following Officers is ultimately responsible for the safe navigation of the ship?

A) Navigator
B) Operations Officer
C) Executive Officer
D) Commanding Officer

When a ship is abandoned, custom and regulation require which of the following actions by the commanding officer?

A) To be the first person to leave the ship
B) To be the last person to leave the ship
C) To exert every effort to destroy the ship before it sinks
D) To inform all personnel that they are on their own

What is the function of the Command Master Chief?

A) To take charge of and be responsible for the training of enlisted personnel
B) To assign enlisted personnel to their duties according to their qualification
C) To relieve the Commanding Officer of the responsibility for the welfare and morale of enlisted personnel
D) To transmit ideas and recommendations directly to the Commanding Officer

Of the following duties, which is NOT one of the Executive Officer’s?

A) Assignment of personnel
B) Coordination of ship’s drills
C) Assignment of punishment to offenders
D) Coordination of policing and inspection of the ship

If the Executive Officer becomes incapacitated, what person normally takes over his/her duties?

A) The next Senior Line Officer assigned to the ship
B) An Officer appointed by the ship’s Captain
C) The next Senior Staff Officer on board
D) The First Lieutenant

For what reason do Commanding Officers and Executive Officers usually have separate battle stations aboard ship?

A) To decrease the likelihood of their being disabled at the same time
B) To maintain a high degree of control over personnel
C) To provide maximum coordination of operations throughout the ship
D) To divide the areas of responsibility between the Executive Officer and the Commanding Officer

The department head is responsible for which of the following functions within a department?

A) General condition of equipment
B) Administrative matters
C) Operational readiness of the department
D) All of the above

Most of the jobs that are done by the XO’s assistants aboard ship are the responsibility of what department in an aircraft squadron?

A) Administrative department
B) Maintenance department
C) Operations department
D) Safety department

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Operations Department of an aircraft squadron?

A) Overall maintenance of the ship’s aircraft
B) Operational readiness and tactical efficiency
C) Squadron safety program
D) All of the above

Which of the following is the definition of the term job accountability?

A) Taking command under duress
B) Accepting credit for your job
C) Answering to Seniors in the chain of command for the way you do your job
D) Answering only for personal mistakes

What is meant by effective communications in the chain of command?

A) The ability to speak clearly
B) The use of proper terminology
C) The proper use of reports, messages, and other types of correspondence
D) The action of seniors informing juniors about matters that affect the juniors, and the action of juniors informing seniors of existing problems

The Ship's magnetic heading during flight operations.

A) Base Recovery Course
B) Bullseye
C) Clara Lineup
D) Final Bearing

Which of the following is used as a generic term for any organization entity and may include a base, station, unit, laboratory, installation, facility, center, activity, detachment, squadron, ship, etc.

A) Unit
B) Station
C) Ship or Station
D) Command

What term is used throughout SECNAVINST 5510.36 to refer to the head of any DoN Command and includes Commander, Commanding General, Director, Officer in charge, etc.

A) Commanding Officer
B) Chief of Staff
C) Chief
D) Senior Officer Present Afloat (SOPA)

The Commanding Officer may impose more stringent requirements than those listed in SECNAVINST 5510.36 within the command upon subordinates if the situation warrants.

A) True
B) False

The Commanding Officer may establish requirements that impact a cleared DoD contractor.

A) True
B) False

SECNAVINST 5520.36 provides baseline security requirements for Commanding Officers. A Commanding Officer may issue a written command security instruction, however, this is not required.

A) True
B) False

Which of the following types of behavior could be a positive clue that a person is abusing some form of drugs?

A) Wanting to sell a stereo system and TV set at the same time.
B) Repeatedly showing symptoms associated with drug abuse.
C) Botching a job when it is known that the person is usually a top performer.
D) Keeping tablets, capsules, or other forms of drugs in one’s locker.

The Navy Rights and Responsibilities Workshop is conducted by which of the following groups?

A) Command Training Team (CTT)
B) Command Assessment Team (CAT)
C) Command Rights and Responsibilities Team
D) Striker Board

Which of the following drugs is abused on the pretense of weight control?

A) Marijuana
B) Methadone
C) Amphetamines
D) Phencyclidine

Arrest in quarters may only be imposed on which of the following Naval Personnel?

A) E-1 through E-9
B) W-2 through W-4
C) O-1 through O-10
D) Both B and C above

Confinement on bread and water has a maximum duration of how many days?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by one of the Navy’s drug screening laboratories?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Five

Restriction is the least severe form of deprivation of liberty.

A) True
B) False

The purpose of EMI is to correct a training deficiency and deprive normal liberty.

A) True
B) False

When placing a person on report, you may orally notify the COC.

A) True
B) False

Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution is cited for which of the following areas?

A) Preservation of the accused's rights
B) Right to see the results of inquiry
C) Preservation of the identify of the accuser
D) Communication with the accuser

What is the first step a Petty Officer must do when considering a complaint of wrong?

A) Tell the Commanding officer
B) Seek advice from someone in authority
C) Put in a request chit
D) Start a preliminary investigation

Who decides which type of court-martial to award?

A) Accuser
B) Accused
C) Executive Officer
D) Commanding Officer

Being late for a routine muster is an offense that must be reported.

A) True
B) False

Chevrons on rating badges worn on the peacoat of both male and female Sailors measure 3 1/4 inches wide.

A) True
B) False

Which of the following operations causes the most pollution?

A) Industrial
B) Municipal
C) Transportation
D) All of the Above

Which of the following materials is the primary municipal pollutant?

A) Raw or inadequately treated sewage
B) Radioactive waste
C) Petroleum products
D) Acids

Which of the following modes of transportation creates most air pollutants?

A) Trains
B) Waterborne vessels
C) Motor vehicles
D) Aircraft

Which, if any, of the following effects of pollution is the most serious?

A) Psychological
B) Biological
C) Physical
D) None of the above

Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed to which of the following air pollutants?

A) Pesticides
B) Herbicides
C) Zinc oxides
D) Sulfur oxides

Most pesticides fall into which of the following categories?

A) Selective
B) Nonselective
C) Preselective
D) Control selective

What is the primary pollution concern of Navy personnel?

A) Noise pollution
B) Shore command wastes
C) Shipboard wastes

Which of the following terms identifies abatement?

A) Maintaining
B) Raising
C) Lowering
D) Containing

Under the Clean Air Act, what government body had the primary responsibility for assuring air quality?

A) Federal government
B) Each state
C) Local municipalities
D) Department of Transportation

Virtually all Navy ships have some type of sanitation device installed. Which of the following types of systems retains sewage onboard for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed?

A) Direct discharge
B) Positive flow
C) Marine sanitation
D) Collection, holding, and transfer

When operating sanitation devices in foreign waters, Navy ships comply with which of the following requirements?

A) Status of Forces Agreement
B) Coast Guard instructions
C) NAVFAC guidelines
D) All of the above

Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline?

A) 20 nm
B) 25 nm
C) 30 nm
D) 35 nm

Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms?

A) 1,000
B) 500
C) 100
D) 50

The Navy's land management program involves which of the following efforts?

A) Migratory bird management
B) Production and sale of forest products
C) Soil and water conservation
D) Use of off-road vehicles

What program provides information and support for Navy personnel who are guests in foreign lands?

A) Navy Sponsor Program
B) Overseas Duty Support Program
C) Navy Assistance Program
D) Navy Relocation Program

The Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount?

A) $5,000
B) $10,000
C) $20,000
D) $25,000

The Navy's Health and Physical Readiness Program promotes health and fitness at the command level. As part of this program, naval personnel are required to undergo fitness testing at what interval?

A) Biannually
B) Annually
C) Semiannually
D) Quarterly

"Informing the public and members of the naval service about Navy operation and programs" is the mission of?

A) BUPERS
B) CNO
C) PAO
D) SECNAV

Which term defines extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources?

A) Fraud
B) Waste
C) Abuse
D) Mismanagement

Which term defines intentional, misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights?

A) Fraud
B) Waste
C) Abuse
D) Mismanagement

Which term defines intentional, wrongful or improper use of government resources?

A) Fraud
B) Waste
C) Abuse
D) Mismanagement

If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount?

A) $5,000
B) $3,000
C) $2,000
D) $1,000

The guidance and policy for making sure that Equal Opportunity works rests with what office?

A) Command Master Chief
B) Commanding Officer
C) Chief of Naval Operations
D) Secretary of the Navy

Which of the following persons is responsible for making Equal Opportunity a reality with a command?

A) Commanding Officer
B) Executive Officer
C) Operations Officer
D) Command Master Chief

Your performance evaluation does NOT reflect your attitude toward and your conduct in support of the Navy's Equal Opportunity Program.

A) True
B) False

If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices, he/she receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isn't effective, what action, if any, may take place?

A) Administrative action only
B) Disciplinary action only
C) Administrative or disciplinary action
D) None

On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning?

A) Skills and abilities
B) Seniority
C) A fair, rotational basis
D) Time in service

If you cannot resolve a complaint among the personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days?

A) True
B) False

What person has the responsibility of appointing the Command Ombudsman?

A) Commanding Officer
B) Executive Officer
C) Division Officer
D) Command Master Chief

All first-term Sailors in paygrade E-1 through E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program?

A) CREO
B) ENCORE
C) HYT
D) EEO

What person directs and supervises the Navy's voting program?

A) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
B) Chief of Naval Operations
C) Chief of Naval Personnel
D) Chief of Naval Information

Who provides guidance and policy for the CMEO Program?

A) Chief of Naval Operations
B) Secretary of the Navy
C) Department of Defence
D) All of the above

When away from their home district, how can a Sailor and his family register to vote?

A) Call their homestate Governor's Office
B) Call their Congressman
C) By using a Federal Post Card Application for Absentee Ballot
D) Run a chit through their Command.

Who has the authority to reinstate to paygrades E-4 to E-6 after reduction in rate?

A) Commanding Officer
B) NAVPERSCOM PERS -811/812
C) Executive Officer
D) Legal

What is the TAFMS requirement for E-8?

A) 10 years active duty
B) 12 years active duty
C) 6 years active duty
D) 16 years active duty

What is the TIR for E-2 to E-3?

A) 9 months
B) 8 months
C) 6 months
D) 4 months

Under which, if any, of the following circumstances should you touch an open wound with your fingers?

A) To replace bulging abdominal organs
B) To remove a protruding foreign object
C) Only when absolutely necessary to stop severe bleeding
D) None of the above

What is the purpose of artificial ventilation?

A) To restore the function of the heart
B) To provide a method of air exchange
C) To clear an upper air passage obstruction
D) To clear a lower air passage obstruction

When using the mouth-to-mouth technique for administering artificial ventilation, how often should you force air into the victim’s lungs?

A) Once every 3 seconds
B) Once every 4 seconds
C) Once every 5 seconds
D) Once every 6 seconds

The mouth-to-nose technique for administering artificial ventilation is effective on which of the following victims?

A) The victim who is breathing very slowly
B) The victim who is very young
C) The victim who has extensive facial injuries
D) Both B and C above

When using the back pressure/arm lift technique for administering artificial ventilation, you should repeat the cycle how many times per minute?

A) 10 to 12
B) 8 to 10
C) 6 to 8
D) 4 to 6

Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) should be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest?

A) 6
B) 5
C) 3
D) 4

When administering CPR, you should place your hands on what area of the victim’s chest?

A) On the upper part of the sternum
B) About 1 inch below the sternum
C) Above the tip of the sternum
D) On the tip of the sternum

When using the one-rescuer CPR technique, you should administer how many compressions per minute?

A) 60 to 80
B) 40 to 60
C) 20 to 40
D) 10 to 20

When using the one-rescuer CPR technique, you should give how many ventilations after each set of compressions?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

When using the two-rescuer CPR technique, you should use what ratio of compressions to ventilations?

A) 1 to 5
B) 5 to 1
C) 10 to 4
D) 4 to 10

Which of the following is one of the most reliable indications of a blocked airway in a conscious person?

A) Inability to speak
B) Cherry red skin color
C) Profuse sweating of the face
D) Partially digested food in the mouth

You are assisting a person who is choking. What is the first action you should take?

A) Apply the standing chest thrust to the victim
B) Apply the standing abdominal thrust to the victim
C) Clear the victim’s mouth of any food or foreign objects
D) Sharply slap the victim on the back between the shoulder blades

What minimum amount of blood loss usually causes a person to go into shock?

A) 1 pint
B) 2 pints
C) 3 pints
D) 4 pints

How is arterial bleeding from a cut near the surface of the skin indicated?

A) Spurting dark red blood
B) Steady flow of dark red blood
C) Steady flow of bright red blood
D) Gushing spurts of bright red blood

To control bleeding, which of the following methods should you try first?

A) Direct pressure
B) A tourniquet
C) A battle dressing
D) Pressure points

What is meant by the pressure points in the human body?

A) A place where the artery is protected on all sides by bone or muscle
B) A place where the main artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone
C) A point where an artery crosses between the heart and the wound
D) A point where an artery crosses a joint

If the use of a battle dressing is required, who should loosen/remove it?

A) The on-scene leader
B) The repair locker leader
C) A person qualified in first aid
D) Medical personnel

At which of the following times should you start treatment for shock?

A) As soon as possible after an injury occurs
B) Only when symptoms indicate severe shock
C) Only after other injuries have been treated
D) As soon as unconsciousness occurs

What is the basic position for treating shock?

A) Putting the head and feet at the same level
B) Putting the head lower than the feet
C) Putting the feet lower than the head

Which of the following Navy personnel are the most frequent victims of suicide?

A) Males between the ages of 25 to 37 in paygrades E-6 and E-8
B) Males between the ages of 17 to 24 in paygrades E-1 to E-6
C) Females between the ages of 25 to 37 in paygrades E-6 to E-8
D) Females between the ages of 17 to 24 in paygrades E-1 to E-6

What is one of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person?

A) Arm carry
B) Fireman’s carry
C) Tied-hands crawl
D) Lift and drag

In compartments with access hatches that are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers, you would remove an injured person using what type of stretcher?

A) Neil Robertson
B) Gaylord
C) Stokes

The object of the Safety Program is to enhance operational readiness by?

A) Reducing the number of deaths and injuries to personnel.
B) Reducing the losses and damage to material from accidental cause.
C) Both A and B above
D) Ensuring all personnel are aware of their responsiblities

What are the three kinds of safety observations?

A) Mandatory, accidental, optional
B) Incidental, deliberate, planned
C) Accidental, deliberate, planned
D) None of the above

A(n)__________safety observation occurs when you notice safety hazards as you go from place to place during your daily routine.

A) Incidental
B) Deliberate
C) Planned
D) None of the above

How often should the Command Enlisted Safety Committee convene to exchange information, improve communications, review conditions, mishaps, injuries, and suggest improvements?

A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Bi-weekly

What type of footwear is required when handling molten metal and oxygen or nitrogen plant operations?

A) Safety shoes with built-in protective steel toe
B) Semiconductive safety shoes
C) Molders
D) Rubber or synthetic material safety toe boots

Which of the following materials are NOT prohibited on all ships EXCEPT in authorized areas such as medical department pharmacies, clinical and chemical laboratories, and cargo spaces?

A) Benzene (Benzol)
B) Aspirin
C) Plastic trash can
D) Methyl bromide

A respirator cartridge that is designed specifically for removing organic vapors is what color?

A) Purple
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) White

The development of at least______important traits, or characteristics, will help you develop a survival attitude.

A) Ten
B) Eleven
C) Twelve
D) Thirteen

What is another term used to describe Administrative ability?

A) Supervisory training
B) Customer service
C) Good management practices
D) Responsive action

What is the primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program?

A) To increase productivity only.
B) To increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership.
C) To produce better quality through leadership only.
D) None of the above.

What is the purpose of a reprimand?

A) To teach, not to embarrass
B) To deter bad actions through embarassment
C) To hinder ones confidence
D) To obstruct skylarking in the work place.

Article 1122, U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, and the Naval Military Personnel Manual (MILPERSMAN), article 1070-170, requires which of the following actions be performed first for a FITREP or EVAL containing adverse matter?

A) Be referred to the Reporting Senior for comment before it is presented to the member
B) Be placed in the official record then referred to the member for a statement
C) Be referred to the member for a statement before it is placed in the official record
D) A local Performance Disciplinary Review Board (PDRB) be conducted before it is placed in the official record

Thin lines terminated with arrowheads at each end are known by what name?

A) Hidden lines
B) Leader lines
C) Extension lines
D) Dimension lines

What type of drawing is used to show details of parts, components, and other objects?

A) Pictorial
B) Orthographic
C) Block
D) Exploded View

After conducting a visual inspection and an operational check, what troubleshooting step should be next?

A) Locate the trouble
B) Isolate the trouble
C) Correct the trouble
D) Classify the trouble

What total numbers of common methods are used to apply lubricants?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Flush lubrication fittings are used for which of the following reasons?

A) To prevent interference with moving parts
B) To reach areas that are normally easy access
C) To reach areas that are normally hard to access
D) To lubricate areas that do not require much lubrication

How many forms of lubricants are there?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Which of the following is NOT a type of aircraft lifting sling?

A) Wire rope
B) Snatch cable
C) Fabric webbing
D) Structural steel

A group of wires twisted together is known by what name?

A) A wire rope
B) A strand
C) A cable
D) A core

What is another name for the T-bar axle jack?

A) Alligator jack
B) Crocodile jack
C) Toothpick jack
D) Hard tail jack

The shear load on a reinforced shell type fuselage is primarily carried by what structural component(s)?

A) The keel
B) The skin
C) The formers
D) The stringers

In a semimonocoque fuselage design, longerons are supplemented by what other longitudinal members?

A) Bulkheads
B) Stringers
C) Station webs
D) Vertical rings

What are the internal chordwise structural members of a wing assembly?

A) Rings
B) Spars
C) Stringers
D) Rib

The load imposed on the wings during flight acts primarily on what structural member(s)?

A) Beams
B) Spars
C) Skin
D) Ribs

Longitudinal control systems control movement of the aircraft about which of the following axis?

A) Lateral only
B) Vertical only
C) Longitudinal only
D) Lateral, vertical, and longitudinal

In a normal situation, how many paces from the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered?

A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight

Salutes are rendered to all officers of the U.S. and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to which of the following organizations are also entitled to salutes?

A) Local police departments
B) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
C) Public Health Service
D) Both B and C above

While standing a sentry box, you are approached by an Officer. What type of rifle salute should you render?

A) Present arms
B) At order arms
C) At shoulder arms

Passing honors for ships are exchanged when ships pass within what distance?

A) 200 yards
B) 400 yards
C) 600 yards
D) 800 yards

Passing honors for boats are exchanged when boats pass within what distance?

A) 200 yards
B) 400 yards
C) 600 yards
D) 800 yards

Gun salutes are normally fired at what time interval?

A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds

Aboard ship, how many minutes before morning and evening colors is the PREP pennant hoisted?

A) 1 minute
B) 3 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 7 minutes

On Navy ships NOT underway, where is the union jack displayed?

A) The highest possible point
B) The flagstaff on the stern
C) The jack staff on the bow
D) The gaff

Which of the following Naval customs is observed in the U.S. Navy by ships that are underway?

A) Only the union jack is flown
B) The national ensign is flown day and night
C) Morning and evening colors are held each day
D) Both the national ensign and the union jack are flown

If you are scheduled to stand the second dog watch, you should report at which of the following times?

A) 1745
B) 1750
C) 1755
D) 1800

A ship’s plan for action is contained in what type of bill?

A) Battle bill
B) Admin bill
C) Organization bill
D) Watch, quarter, and station bill

You are required to know the general orders of a sentry. How many general orders are there?

A) 11
B) 14
C) 16
D) 18

Aboard ship, a man overboard is indicated by what emergency/warning flag?

A) Code Alfa
B) Oscar
C) November Charlie
D) Bravo

What administrative flag is used to recall all personnel to the ship?

A) Hotel
B) Juliett
C) Romeo
D) Papa

What administrative flag is flown in port to indicate the ship has ready duty?

A) Hotel
B) India
C) Romeo
D) Quebec

When under way, the national ensign is normally flown from what location?

A) The gaff
B) The aftermast
C) The flagstaff
D) The jackstaff

When a Naval ship is in port or at anchor, the union jack is flown from what location?

A) The gaff
B) The jackstaff
C) The aftermast
D) The flagstaff

On small ships, personnel from what watch are responsible for hoisting and hauling down absentee pennants?

A) Security watch
B) Quarterdeck watch
C) Roving watch
D) DC central watch

Where is a list of special flags and pennants normally posted as a ready referrence for watch standers?

A) Combat information center (CIC)
B) After deck
C) Quarterdeck area
D) Half deck

What date commemorates the birthday of the United States Navy?

A) 5 Sep 1774
B) 13 Oct 1775
C) 4 Jul 1776
D) 14 Feb 1778

The Second Continental Congress approved the purchase of how many vessels?

A) Eight
B) Six
C) Four
D) Two

What category of ship carried the largest number of guns?

A) Ships of the line
B) Sloops of war
C) Schooners
D) Frigates

What type of ships did privateers typically sail?

A) Ships of the line
B) Sloops of war
C) Schooners
D) Frigates

What ship was the first warfare submarine?

A) Turtle
B) Hornet
C) Alfred
D) Wasp

Which of the following ships has the distinction of being the U.S. Navy’s first flagship?

A) Providence
B) Hornet
C) Alfred
D) Wasp

What country was the first to recognize the “Stars and stripes”?

A) Germany
B) France
C) Spain
D) Portugal

John Paul Jones is often referred to as the “father of our highest naval traditions” because of the example he set as an officer during the Revolutionary War. He is also famous because of which of the following accomplishments?

A) His appointment as the first U.S. Navy admiral
B) His selection as the first commander in chief
C) His victory over the HMS Serapis
D) His capture of the HMS Nancy

At various times during the Revolutionary War, the U.S. Navy had 56 vessels. What was the peak number of vessels that were operating at any one time?

A) 45
B) 32
C) 27
D) 15

What is the oldest U.S. Navy ship still in commission?

A) Lexington
B) Constitution
C) Constellation
D) Bonhomme Richard

Who was the President when the U.S. Navy Department was established?

A) George Washington
B) Thomas Jefferson
C) James Madison
D) John Adams

In what year did the Navy accept its first operational submarine?

A) 1895
B) 1898
C) 1900
D) 1902

Construction of our first destroyer began in what year?

A) 1895
B) 1899
C) 1902
D) 1905

What was the first Naval battle of World War II in which two opposing fleets didn’t see each other during combat?

A) The Battle of Midway
B) The Battle of Okinawa
C) The Battle of Guadalcanal
D) The Battle of the Coral Sea

What was the decisive battle of World War II that became the turning point of the war in the Pacific?

A) The Battle of Midway
B) The Battle of Okinawa
C) The Battle of Guadalcanal
D) The Battle of the Coral Sea

The first U.S. Navy nuclear-powered vessel was what type of ship?

A) Carrier
B) Submarine
C) Merchant ship
D) Guided-missile cruiser

How long is a standard shot of anchor chain?

A) 15 fathoms
B) 20 fathoms
C) 25 fathoms
D) 30 fathoms

What device is used to secure shots of anchor chain together?

A) Link pins
B) Bending shackles
C) Detachable links
D) Securing shackles

Who is responsible for the design, development, implementation, and life cycle support of all NALCOMIS software?

A) CNO
B) SPAWARSYSCEN
C) COMNAVAIRFOR
D) COMNAVSYSCOM

This subsystem allows the O-level to establish and maintain system level support tables.

A) Database Administration
B) Maintenance
C) Data Analysis
D) Asset

This subsystem collects and processes maintenance related data and provides this data to other subsystems on the database.

A) Maintenance
B) Logs and records
C) Reports
D) Ad hoc query

This subsystem collects and processes flight related data and provides this data to other subsystems on the database.

A) Flight
B) Maintenance
C) Reports
D) Database Administration

This subsystem provides the ability to establish and maintain configuration profiles on aircraft, engines, modules, and components assigned to the O-level.

A) Maintenance
B) Logs and records
C) Reports
D) Ad hoc query

This subsystem provides the ability to inventory and process inspection related data on O-level assigned assets, for example, aeronautical equipment, SE, IMRL equipment, and ALSS.

A) Database Administration
B) Maintenance
C) Data Analysis
D) Asset

This subsystem provides the O-level aviation 3M analyst with the ability to approve MAF and flight records for upline submission to the NDCSC; correct, delete, and reinduct MAFs and flight documents; perform end-of-month MAF close out processing; and generate MAF audit reports.

A) Database Administration
B) Maintenance
C) Data Analysis
D) Asset

This subsystem provides the ability to select and produce reports.

A) Maintenance
B) Logs and records
C) Reports
D) Ad hoc query

This utility provides the ability to create reports to meet the users specific needs. The reports may be derived from selected database tables allowing the manager to gather data in various areas, for example, aviation 3M reports, flight reports, trend analysis, manpower utilization, user login ID and SMQ assignments, and specific workload reports.

A) Maintenance
B) Logs and records
C) Reports
D) Ad Hoc Query

The primary objective is to establish uniform policies, procedures, management, and a means of communication that will promote integrated material support within and among the military services.

A) OPTAR
B) SM&R codes

What is the primary consideration for grooming standards?

A) To not offend others
B) To have a neatly groomed appearance while wearing Naval uniforms
C) To possess a unique individual style and personal appearance
D) To maintain a smart military appearance in and out of uniform

What is the maximum length that female hair may extend past the top of the collar of the jumper top?

A) 2 inches
B) 1 1/2 inches
C) 1 inch
D) 2 1/2 inches

Why are lubricants necessary in aircraft components?

A) To cool parts
B) To minimize friction
C) To prevent corrosion
D) To prevent wear

Which of the following components is NOT normally a part of a weighing kit?

A) A plumb bob
B) A chalk line
C) A hydrometer
D) A spirit level

To find load testing and inspection information on aircraft lifting slings, you should consult what publication?

A) NAVAIR 01-1A-17
B) NAVAIR 01-1A-20
C) NAVAIR 17-1-114
D) NAVAIR 17-15E-52

In reference to a cable, what does the term "bird cage" mean?

A) A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable
B) A cable that is manufactured to look like a bird cage
C) A cable that is improperly stored
D) A neatly coiled cable

You should examine and lubricate all lifting slings at least how often?

A) Once a week
B) Twice a week
C) Once a month
D) Twice a month

Hoisting restrictions for a specific type of aircraft can be found in which of the following publications?

A) NAVAIR 01-1A-8
B) NAVAIR 01-1A-017
C) NAVAIR 15-02-500B
D) Applicable MIM

What are the two types of aircraft jacks used by the Navy?

A) T-bar and camel
B) Hand carried and T-bar
C) Horseshoe and camel
D) Axle and airframe (tripod)

Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of fluid?

A) General-purpose oil
B) Synthetic oil
C) Aircraft hydraulic fluid
D) Support equipment hydraulic fluid

A tripod jack consists of what total number of basic assemblies?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

A leg extension kit for a variable height tripod jack will increase its effective height by what total amount of inches?

A) 6 inches
B) 12 inches
C) 18 inches
D) 24 inches

Which of the following components is NOT a part of the tail pylon of a helicopter?

A) The intermediate gearbox
B) The tail gearbox
C) The horizontal stabilator
D) The swash plate

What type of stress is defined as “stress exerted when two pieces of fastened material tend to separate”?

A) Tension
B) Compression
C) Shear
D) Bending

What type of stress is produced in an engine crankshaft while the engine is running?

A) Torsion
B) Bending
C) Compression
D) Tension

What structural metal is lightweight, strong, and corrosion resistant?

A) Magnesium
B) Titanium
C) Nickel
D) Aluminum

What is the largest portion of metal present in an alloy?

A) Main metal
B) Base metal
C) Foundation metal
D) Major component metal

What high tensile metal is used to manufacture tubes, rods, and wires?

A) Aluminum
B) Titanium
C) Magnesium
D) Alloy steel

What does the core material of reinforced plastic consist of?

A) Honeycomb structure
B) Fiber cloth
C) Bonding material
D) Liquid resin

The strength of all metals is closely related to what other characteristic?

A) Hardness
B) Denseness
C) Brittleness
D) Conductivity

What property of a metal allows for little bending and deformation without shattering?

A) Hardness
B) Brittleness
C) Malleability
D) Ductility

What metal property allows a metal to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking or breaking?

A) Brittleness
B) Malleability
C) Ductility
D) Elasticity

What metal property allows a metal to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various shapes without breaking?

A) Brittleness
B) Malleability
C) Ductility
D) Elasticity

What metal property allows a metal to carry heat or electricity?

A) Ductility
B) Fusibility
C) Conductivity
D) Malleability

When all other metal properties are equal, what method of joining metals structurally has the greatest advantage?

A) Welding
B) Brazing
C) Riveting
D) Soldering

What are the major types of aircraft maintenance?

A) Organizational, intermediate, and depot
B) Standard and special
C) Rework and upkeep
D) Scheduled and unscheduled

What are the two general styles of technical manuals?

What are the two major types of technical manuals?

A) Operational and maintenance
B) Conventional and work package (WP)
C) Organizational and intermediate
D) Commercial and conventional

How are work package WP manuals divided?

A) Function and task
B) Installation and operational
C) Rework and Upkeep

What technical publication is most helpful in identifying and ordering replacement parts?

A) MRC
B) Applicable MIM
C) IPB

What FAD is assigned to most fleet operating activities?

A) FAD II or III
B) FAD IV or V
C) FAD I

What is the correct nomenclature for what is commonly referred to as the "manufacturer’s code"?

A) JCN
B) CAGE
C) WUC
D) WCC

An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its
political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as?

A) Sea power
B) Naval power
C) Global strategy
D) National strategy

The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its?

A) National objectives
B) Naval power
C) Aggression
D) Population

The German Navy has upgraded NATO's air defense through the purchase of which of the following aircraft?

A) F-14D
B) F-104
C) F/A-18
D) Tornado

What provides on-line, real-time updates to the technical library?

A) ELMS
B) NATEC
C) TMAPS
D) IETM

Which anwer is INCORRECT for the following question? Control of non-routine reproduced portions of the TM when the CTPL is NOT available is as follows:

A) A QA Subject Matter Expert (SME) shall review all printed material for completeness and ensure proper control.
B) Identify the reproduced TM in the corrective action block of the VIDS/MAF 4790/60
C) Supervisor's signature on the VIDS/MAF indicates the printed material is current, accounted for and filed for future use
D) The work center supervisor shall ensure that all printed material is accounted for

The number 13 would tell you what about the Issue Priority Designator?

A) Positioned for combat and impaired operational capability
B) Other activity and selected reserve force and unable to perform mission
C) In combat and routine
D) Positioned to deploy / combat and routine

Who is responsible for ordering manuals and maintaining a local requisition log?

A) CTPL
B) Dept head
C) DTPL
D) AMMO

The NAVAIRSYSCOM Publications Distribution Program is built around what?

A) A procurement of manuals issued by the Naval Supply System
B) NAVICP PHILADELPHIA CUSTOMER SERVICES Internet web page
C) A Computerized Automatic “push to user" System
D) Customer Support, Requisition Status and Stock Number Information

When an activity has received to many publications, what action must be taken?

A) The local Customer Service Facility will collect the overshipment
B) Via USPS certified mail, ship them immediately to Naval Air Technical Data and Engineering Service Command
C) Give them to a USMC or USN activity or destroy locally
D) Contact the contract holder of the GSA overnight shipment service

When is a servicewoman required to inform her Commanding Officer of her pregnancy?

A) Two weeks after going to HCP's
B) Month after going to HCP's
C) Upon confirmation HCP's
D) Don't have to inform her CO's

A pregnant servicewoman is limited to stand at parade rest or attention for no longer than how many minutes?

A) 15 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 45 minutes

Which of the following are NOT advantages of the Thrift Savings Plan?

A) Before-tax contributions and tax-deferred
B) Automatic payroll deductions
C) Matched funds by DoN
D) A diversified choice of investment options

Since 2006, there is no longer a limit on contribution amounts on your TSP.

A) True
B) False

Which of the following is FALSE regarding restrictions on transferring or rolling over funds from your IRA to your TSP?

A) The money must be considered an “eligible rollover distribution” for Federal Income Tax purposes.
B) You can open a TSP account by transferring money to it.
C) The TSP will only accept “before-tax” money from IRAs and eligible employer plans.
D) You can transfer money into the TSP only if you have an open TSP account.

How many "L" funds are there in the TSP?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Which of the following is NOT an individual TSP fund?

A) G
B) F
C) C
D) L

How many different kinds of risks are described in the "Summary of the Thrift Savings Plan" publication?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Which of the following are investment transactions you can make with the TSP?

A) A contribution allocation
B) An interfund transfer
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

How many days must you wait from the time you finish paying off a TSP loan before you can take out another TSP loan?

A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days

You cannot borrow less than $_______ or more than $_______ from your TSP account.

A) $500 and $25,000
B) $500 and $50,000
C) $1,000 and $25,000
D) $1,000 and $50,000

What is the purpose of the Deparment of the Navy (DoN) policy on sexual harassment?

A) To provide policy for
B) To provide policy for establishing exceptable behavior concerning sexual harassment
C) To provide a range of behavior which constitute sexual harassment
D) To provide policy on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment

What enclosure of SECNAVINST 5300.26; Department of the Navy (DON) Policy on Sexual Harassment defines sexual harassment?

A) Enclosure 1
B) Enclosure 2
C) Enclosure 3
D) None of the above

Which of the following establish a standard for determining employer liablility for sexual harassment under Title VII of the Civil Right Act?

A) SECNAVINST 5300.26
B) DOD Directive 1350.2 of 18 Aug 95
C) Employer Liability Act of 1975
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

DoN personnel called upon to conduct or review investigations into alleged incidents of sexual harassment should receive training in?

A) Provisions of SECNAVINST 5300.26D
B) GMT and NMT of enlisted personel on sexual harassment
C) DoN policy on 5 Vector Model
D) DoN policy on equal opportunity

Sexual harassment is behavior that is unwelcome, sexual in nature, and ....

A) Connected in some way with a person's work environment
B) Offensive to a third party bystander
C) Distasteful or crude in nature
D) Is directed toward a female Officer or Enlisted person

Which of the following is a required qualification for a Command Fitness Leader (CFL)?

A) E-5 or above
B) Overall PRT score of
C) CPR qualified
D) No more than 20 percent bodyfat for males or 32 percent for females

Where is Command Fitness Leader (CFL) training conducted?

A) FTC Mayport
B) Naval Station Norfolk VA
C) Navy E-Learning
D) All of the above

Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) includes:

A) Body Composition Assessment (BCA)
B) Physical Requirements Test (PRT)
C) Body Mass Index (BMI)
D) All of the above

How and where does the CO recognize members who make significant improvements in physical fitness or consistently score excellent or better?

A) Comments on NAVPERS 1610/2
B) Fitness Report and Counseling Record (E-7 to O-6) FITREP
C) Enlisted Evaluation and Counseling Record (E-1 to E-6) EVAL
D) All of the above

Where are PRT results entered into?

A) COMNAVSAFECEN
B) NAVPERSCOM (PERS-31)
C) PRIMS
D) Placed on a spreadsheet

Within how many days after taking BCA are you required to take the PFA?

A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12

ORM analysis shall be completed at least how many hours prior to PRT?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 96 hours

Body composition is assessed by:

A) An initial weight and height screening
B) A Navy-approved circumference technique to estimate
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

Physical fitness is a crucial element of what?

A) Mission performance
B) Personal appearance
C) Attitude
D) Mission tasking

What directive establishes the policy and procedures for the Navy's Physical Readiness Program?

A) SECNAVINST 1610.2G
B) OPNAVINST 1610.1G
C) OPNAVINST 6110.1H
D) SECNAVINST 6110.1H

What is Equal Opportunity Advisor Appeal Review?

A) A higher authority review of a formal EO complaint.
B) A review of a formal command investigation into an EO issue before final adjudication by command authority.
C) A system for resolving EO complaints at the lowest appropriate level in the chain of command.
D) EO program that provides an environment in which servicemembers are ensured EO.

Who is able to appeal the decision on a Formal complaint?

A) The complainant
B) The subjuct(s) of the complaint
C) Both the complainant and the subjuct(s) of the complaint
D) Neither the complainant nor the subjuct(s)

How many types of Equal Opportunity Advisors?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Who is a source of obtaining command EO/SH training?

A) Command DAPA
B) Chaplain
C) DEOMI
D) Chain of Command

A complaint should be made within how many days of the offending incident?

A) 10 days
B) 30 days
C) 60 days
D) 6 months

What is the governing instruction for the Drug and Alcohol Abuse Prevention and Control Program?

A) OPNAVINST 5350
B) OPNAVINST 5140
C) BUPERSINST 5140
D) SECNAVINST 5140

Drug and alcohol abuse is a severe detriment to combat readiness in terms of?

A) Timeliness
B) Responsibility
C) Good order and discipline
D) Time lost

Which of the following is NOT a major element underlying the Navy's approach to eliminating drug and alcohol abuse?

A) Disciplinary action
B) Deterrence
C) Prevention
D) Detection

It is the goal of the Navy to limit the effects of drug and alcohol abuse.

A) True
B) False

The Navy's policy is to provide persons diagnosed with alcohol abuse or dependence one period of treatment in response to an alcohol related incident per career.

A) True
B) False

In regards to urinalysis testing. Commands shall submit samples of what percent of its personnel on a monthly basis?

A) 10-20
B) 20-40
C) 40-60
D) 60-80

How many days is a enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependant before they are process for administrative separation?

A) 100 days
B) 90 days
C) 60 days
D) 180 days

A return to drinking or drugging, no matter how brief, is known as what?

A) Referral
B) Relapse
C) Reaccurance
D) Dismissal

Personnel records are the property of whom?

A) The United States Government
B) The Servicemember
C) Your Commanding Officer

After completion of what week during pregnancy will pregnant servicewomen NOT be assigned overseas duty?

A) 24th week
B) 15th week
C) 28th week
D) 26th week

What is considered the top concern for Navy families?

A) Op Tempo
B) Suitable Family Housing
C) Personal Financial Management
D) All of the above

Who has the responsiblity to address personal financial obligations?

A) The service member only
B) The service member
C) The Navy
D) Both B and C

Which of the following is NOT an eligibility requirement for advancement-in-rate or change of rating?

A) Be recommended by CMC
B) Have a minimum time-in-rate
C) Not be a selectee for LDO or CWO
D) Completed leadership continuum

Who authorizes waivers for Navy Leadership Continuum for personnel participating in the E-6 or E-7 advancement examination or to be considered by the E-8 selection board?

A) CO
B) XO
C) First Flag Officer in the chain of command
D) Any of the above

Time-In-Rate waivers for early promote Sailors are?

A) Good for only one Cycle
B) Granted at the discretion of the CO/OIC
C) Automatic for every sailor who should qualify
D) Both A and B above

Who shall coordinate all squadron predeployment training requirements with the ship?

A) Commanding Officer
B) The Airwing Commander
C) Executive Officer
D) CMC

As a minimum, the air operations manual shall be reviewed________ to ensure the subject matter is pertinent and up to date.

A) Annually
B) Semiannually
C) Biannually

Who is responsible to the Air Operations Officer for the safe and orderly flow of passengers, mail, and cargo on and off carriers by aircraft?

A) Flightdeck Officer
B) ATO
C) Flightdeck Coordinator
D) Aircrew

The articles specifically enumerated in article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice should be explained to each enlisted person at which of the following times?

A) After completion of six months active duty
B) At the time of each PCS move
C) Before each deployment
D) Three months before separation from the Navy

The word "helicopter" means helical wing, which comes from what language?

A) Greek
B) French
C) Hebrew
D) Italian

Rotor blade dissymmetry is created by what means?

A) By horizontal flight only
B) By hovering in a wind condition only
C) By horizontal flight or hovering in a wind condition
D) By hovering in a no-wind condition

What is a 4 year military college where members obtain a Bachelor of Science degree, graduates are commissioned as Ensigns, U. S. Naval Reserve, or Second Lieutenants, U. S. Marine Corps Reserve?

A) MSC IPP
B) Naval Academy
C) OCS
D) MECP

How long is Officer candidate school?

A) 13 weeks
B) 16 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 11 weeks

What is the service obligation for graduates from MECP?

A) 6 years
B) 4 years
C) 8 years
D) 5 years

What is the maximum age requirement to apply to the MSC IP?

A) 31 years old
B) 30 years old
C) 34 years old
D) 35 years old

When are applications due for NAPS?

A) March of the year intending to begin
B) October of the previous year intending to begin
C) May of the year intending to begin
D) June of year intending to begin

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the LDO program?

A) Completion of at least 6 years of active duty service
B) Be a CPO or board eligible
C) Recommendation of CO
D) No UCMJ in last 3 years

When was the SAVI Program established?

A) 1994
B) 1984
C) 1974
D) 1964

What is the goal of the SAVI Program?

A) Transfer the victim
B) Report assailants to their COC
C) Write the policies and procedures to OPNAVINST 1752.1
D) Promote sensitive, coordinated, effective help to victims

Can a non-active duty member of the DoD report sexual assaults under "Restricted Reporting"?

A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, if they are married to an active duty member
D) Yes, if the assault was by an active duty member

What is Restricted Reporting?

A) Allows active duty victims receive medical treatment confidentially
B) Allows the victim to PCS without command notification
C) Allows the victim to notify the upper COC only
D) Enforces an investigation without medical treatment

All are limitations of Unrestricted Reporting except:

A) Victims cannot change to Restricted Reporting
B) Investigation and court proceedings could be lengthy
C) Offender may not be convicted
D) The SARC will not be notified

Which is NOT a limitation of Restricted Reporting?

A) Assailants remain unpunished and at large
B) Victims cannot receive Military Protective Orders
C) Evidence from crime scenes may be lost
D) Victims can be reassigned for safety

What UCMJ article can an assailant be convicted of if charged with rape and carnal knowledge?

A) Article 120
B) Article 122
C) Article 125
D) Article 119

What is the guidance for the SAVI (Sexual Assault Victim Intervention) Program?

A) OPNAVINST 1752.1
B) NAVSUPINST 1752.1
C) OPNAVINST 1753.1
D) OPNAVINST 1742.5

OPNAVINST 1752.1 is an instruction for what?

A) Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI)
B) Sexual Assault Response Coordination
C) Victim and Witness Protection
D) Victim Advocates

An assault with Unrestricted Reporting allows victim's Command, NCIS, Security, Medical, SAVI POC, Victim Advocate and SARC be notified of the assault and the circumstances involving the assault.

A) True
B) False
C) Only on weekends
D) Only during the week

Which of the following is NOT a component of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?

A) Intercontinental ballistic missiles
B) Sea-launched ballistic missiles
C) Aircraft carrier battle groups
D) Long-range bombers

What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?

A) Intercontinental ballistic missiles
B) Sea-launched ballistic missiles
C) Long-range bombers
D) Cruise missiles

Which of the following terms describes an attack that is
intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?

A) Strike
B) Threat
C) Assault
D) Aggression

Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?

A) Size
B) Mobility
C) Strength
D) Weaponry

The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?

A) Submarines
B) Destroyers
C) Carriers
D) Cargo

The first fleet Ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?

A) 1955
B) 1959
C) 1960
D) 1961

What inspection is conducted to test the operational ability of the crew and ship in wartime conditions?

A) Administrative Inspection
B) Propulsion Examining Board
C) Operational Readiness Inspection
D) Board of Inspection and Survey

What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the
knowledge of the Commanding Officer, to determine if the ship
is fit for continued naval service?

A) INSURV
B) PEB
C) ORI
D) PMS

Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?

A) Personnel and time
B) Maintenance and time
C) Personnel and materials
D) Maintenance and personnel

As a minimum, how often should you assess your division’s personnel and material readiness?

A) Daily
B) Biweekly
C) Monthly
C) Quarterly

When you assess your worker's job performance, you should look at which of the following areas?

A) Knowledge, work habits, and character
B) Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
C) Attitude, work habits, and character
D) Attitude, knowledge, and character

At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?

A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Quarterly

Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory?

A) EDL
B) JSN
C) OPTAR
D) POA&M

Based on the ship’s overall manpower, how are TAD requirements usually allocated?

A) By TYCOM directive
B) By work center
C) By department
D) By division

Which of the following schedules allows for losses in manpower, logistic problems, work stoppages, and personnel training?

A) Workcenter schedule
B) Annual employment schedule
C) Planning board for training
D) Quarterly employment schedule

When you attend department meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting?

A) Assess personnel
B) Work progress
C) Organizing
D) Planning

As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen?

A) Change the work priority
B) Shorten the work day
C) Neglect major jobs
D) Neglect minor jobs

Navywide advancement exams are based on which of the following standards?

A) PQS standards
B) PMS standards
C) Naval standards
D) Occupational standards

Quarters for muster and inspection are held each work day just before?

A) 0600
B) 0700
C) 0800
D) 0900

A change in a ship’s watch condition when getting underway, mooring, or modifying the condition of readiness is called?

A) Dogging the watch
B) Setting the watch
C) Changing the guard
D) Relieving the watch

During which of the following degrees of restraint may an
individual be required to perform full military duties?

A) Arrest
B) Confinement
C) Restriction in lieu of arrest
D) Each of the above

The original copy of the ship’s deck log is submitted monthly to the CNO. For what minimum length of time is a copy of the deck log retained on board before being destroyed?

A) 1 year
B) 6 months
C) 3 months
D) 5 years

What term refers to small surface fissures that develop on plastic materials?

A) Hazing
B) Glazing
C) Crazing
D) Cracking

By sanding or buffing a plastic surface too long or too vigorously in one spot, you can cause which of the following problems?

A) Cracking or crazing
B) Softening or burning
C) Bleaching or glazing
D) Discoloration or hazing

Which of the following metals is used to make aircraft wheel assemblies?

A) Steel
B) Magnesium
C) Titanium
D) Manganese

The flange of a demountable flange wheel is held in place by what component?

A) Locknut
B) Locking pin
C) Lockring
D) Locking key

Which of the following components have been installed on the aircraft wheels to allow the attachment of braking components?

A) The drive keys
B) The bearing cups
C) The fusible plug
D) The demountable flange lock

Which of the following conditions is a major cause for rejection or failure of aircraft wheels?

A) Crashes
B) Blowouts
C) Normal wear
D) Loss of lubrication

What is the minimum length of the stem of a deflated tire tag that is inserted into the valve stem of the wheel assembly?

A) 3/4 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 1/8 inch
D) 5/8 inch

Information on cleaning aircraft wheels can be found in which of the following publications?

A) NAVAIR 01-1A-1
B) NAVAIR 04-10-1
C) NAVAIR 04-10-506
D) NAVAIR 04-10-508

The layer of rubber on the outer surface of the tire that protects the cord body from abrasions, cuts, bruises, and moisture is know by what term?

A) Sidewall
B) Tread
C) Chafer strips
D) Undertread

An outer layer of rubber adjoining the tread and extending to the bead is know by what term?

A) Cord body
B) Tread
C) Sidewall
D) Plies

Multiple layers of nylon with individual cords arranged parallel to each other is know by what term?

A) Cord body
B) Plies
C) Bead
D) Undertread

Each rebuilt tire receives a final nondestructive inspection by the use of what method?

A) Visual
B) Electromagnetic
C) Penetrating radiation
D) Laser beam optical holographic

What color dots mark vent holes on tubeless tires?

A) Red
B) Green
C) White
D) Orange

A tire and wheel assembly should be removed from an aircraft and sent to AIMD if it shows a repeated pressure loss exceeding what prescribed percent of the correct operating inflation pressure?

A) 5 %
B) 10 %
C) 2 %
D) 15 %

What is the dimension of the red slippage mark painted on a tube tire that operates with less than 150 psi?

A) 1/2 inch wide and 2 inches long
B) 1 inch wide and 1 1/2 inches long
C) 1 inch wide and 2 inches long
D) 2 inches wide and 2 inches long

Which of the following tire bead-breaking machines is intended for use at shore-based facilities?

A) Lee-I
B) Lee-II
C) Lee-IX
D) Lee-X

The remote tire inflator assembly should be calibrated upon initial receipt, before being placed into service, and at what other maximum interval?

A) Every month
B) Every 2 months
C) Every 3 months
D) Every 6 months

You have inflated a tube-type tire to its maximum operating pressure. The tire must remain at this pressure for what minimum length of time before you check it for a pressure loss?

A) 10 min
B) 5 min
C) 15 min
D) 20 min

What solution should you use to clean oil or grease from a tire?

A) P-D-680
B) Jet fuel
C) Kerosene
D) Soap and water

How high above the maximum required pressure should the remote inflator assembly relief valve be set?

A) 10 %
B) 20 %
C) 10 psi
D) 20 psi

What month is mid-term counseling sessions for all E-4 personnel?

A) March
B) May
C) December
D) October

With normal system operating pressures present, the sample fluid flow rate should be between?

A) 50 and 100 ml per minute
B) 100 and 1000 ml per minute

The internal porting of the sampling point shall be such that it will not impede the passage of hard particulate matter up to what microns in diameter?

A) 200 micron
B) 500 micron
C) 300 micron
D) 100 micron

Hydraulic sample log book shall be maintained for a period of?

A) 1 year
B) 6 months
C) 3 months
D) 1 month

Is a service operation in which entrapped air is allowed to escape from the closed hydraulic system.

A) Air Bleeding
B) Recirculation
C) Purifying
D) Flushing
E) Purging

Is a decontamination process in which the system to be cleaned is powered from a clean external power source and cycled.

A) Air Bleeding
B) Recirculation
C) Purifying
D) Flushing
E) Purging

A key factor in recirculation cleaning is the utilization of high-efficiency ________ filter elements.

Is the process of removing particulate, air, water, and volatile contaminants from the hydraulic fluid without altering the physical or chemical properties.

A) Air Bleeding
B) Recirculation
C) Purifying
D) Flushing
E) Purging

Is a decontamination method in which contaminated system fluid is removed to the maximum extent practicable and then discarded.

A) Air Bleeding
B) Recirculation
C) Purifying
D) Flushing
E) Purging

Is a decontamination process in which the aircraft hydraulic system is drained to the maximum extent practicable and the removed fluid discarded.

A) Air Bleeding
B) Recirculation
C) Purifying
D) Flushing
E) Purging

Which of the following provides the basis for establishing and managing a Command Career Development Program?

A) Command Retention Team
B) Career Information Training (CARIT)
C) Planning Board for Training (PB4T)
D) Career Information Management (CIM)

Which of the following is identified by the Career Counselor Handbook as a foundation element to a successful Command Career Management Program?

A) High Command Advancement Stats
B) Navigational Tracks
C) Annual Base Pay raises
D) Command GMT Program

Which of the following is a key element to a successful Career Development Program (CDP)?

1) A knowledgeable Command Career Counselor
2) Assigned Departmental Career Counselors
3) A Command Master Chief that is dedicated to retention programs
4) Active involvement of the chain of command

The Command Career Counselor (CCC) should provide the majority of all services related to Career Development.

A) True
B) False

Which of the following is considered the core of the CDT meeting?

A) Participants
B) Attendance of the Executive Officer
C) Minutes from last meeting
D) Agenda

A successful Command Development Team (CDT) Program assigns one counselor to how many sailors?

A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60

What is the cornerstone of every Sailor's career development?

A) Self-motivation and drive
B) Individual training plan
C) Participation of the chain of command
D) All of the above

Which instruction provides requirements to establish the Command Sponsor and Indoctrination Program.

A) The Enlisted Transfer Manual (TRANSMAN)
B) OPNAVINST 1740.3A
C) SECNAVINST 1740.3A
D) NAVEDTRA 14504

Which of the following set the tone for an entire tour of duty and continued service?

A) First positive Command Evaluation
B) Pre-arrival communication
C) Effective chain of command
D) Challenging and rewarding job assignment

Which term refers to permanent programs for all separating members (voluntary or involuntary) that provide career change information?

A) Counseling
B) Services
C) Transition Benefits
D) All of the above

Which of the following is a purpose of the Command Program Review?

A) To analyze Command Retention Statistics
B) To assess the effectiveness of programs and support systems
C) To prepare Personnel and Retentions Programs for ISIC Inspections
D) To evaluate the effectiveness of the Command Career Counselor

At what minimum time period must the Command Development Program CDP be evaluated?

A) Quarterly
B) Semiannually
C) Annually
D) CO's Discretion

The mission of the U.S. Naval Reserve Force is to;

A) Provide mission-capable units throughout the full range of operations from ship to shore
B) Provide a medical unit to the Navy Team throughout the full range of operations
C) Provide a medical and construction units to the Navy Team throughout the full range of operations
D) Provide mission-capable units and individuals to the Navy-Marine Corps Team throughout the full range of operations from peace to war

The "Ready Reserve" is made up of what two components?

A) Individual Ready Reserve and TAR's
B) Drilling Reserve and TAR's
C) TAR's and Marines
D) Drilling Reserve and IRR

Montgomery GI Bill, Selected Reserve (MGIB-SR) provides up to how many months of educational assistance at no cost for reservists who incur a 6 year obligation and maintain satisfactory drill participation?

A) 12
B) 24
C) 36
D) Depending on status A or C

While a member may be eligible for more than one educational benefit package, Federal law limits the total benefits that can be paid to that individual to an aggregate of what total number of benefit months?

A) 12
B) 36
C) 48
D) 60

Department of Veterans Affairs Home-Loan Guarantee program is currently available to reservists with at least;

A) One enlistment contract completed honorably
B) 6 years of honorable service
C) 30 months of honorable service
D) 10 years of service and at least an E-5

The minimum drill time for one paid drill period is?

A) 4 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 16 hours

What action should be taken when a member is found unfit for military duty?

A) Take appropriate disciplinary action
B) Take appropriate administrative action
C) Refer to enclosure (9) of OPNAVINST 5350.7
D) All of the above

A Naval Reservist must earn a minimum of ____ in an anniversary year to be credited with a year of satisfactory service for retirement purposes.

A) 45 successful drills
B) 50 retirement points
C) 50 retirement points and complete AT
D) 45 successful drills and complete AT

Satisfactory participation consists of attendance of a minimum of what % of all regularly scheduled drills and the performance of AT?

A) 70 percent
B) 75 percent
C) 80 percent
D) 85 percent

How many points are earned for each authorized drill attended (pay or non-pay status) and what is the maximum points may that can be credited for each drill weekend toward retirement?

A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 2/4
D) 2/8

The authority for mobilization of the Naval Reserve is contained in 10 U.S.C. In addition, 10 U.S.C. gives the President authority to call up selected reservists for ___ days with authority to extend for another ___days.

A) 120/30
B) 180/60
C) 270/90
D) 300/45

Requires the expansion of the active duty Navy by mobilization of Naval Reserve units/ready reservists to satisfy an emergency requirement.

A) Partial Mobilization
B) Selective Mobilization
C) General Mobilization
D) Full Mobilization

This Naval Reserve program allows men and women without prior service to enlist in the Naval Reserve to fill non-designated Fireman (FN), Seaman (SN) and Airman (AN) positions as an E-3.

A) AIA
B) ADSW
C) APG
D) TAR

Requires expansion of the active duty Navy by mobilizing all required reservists including retired reservists and fleet reservists, organizing/activating more units beyond the existing approved Navy force structure to respond to requirements in excess of that structure.

A) Full Mobilization
B) Drilling Reserve Mobilization
C) Selective Mobilization
D) Total Mobilization

Requires the expansion of the active duty Navy by mobilization of Naval Reserve units/ready reservists to meet all or part of the requirements related to hostilities or heightened tension.

A) Partial Mobilization
B) Full Mobilization
C) Selective Mobilization
D) General Mobilization

This program allows recently separated or discharged NAVETS and IRR personnel who are in closed ratings (and would otherwise be ineligible for enlistment or affiliation) access into open ratings via a change of rating.

A) NAVETS-R
B) TAR
C) VTU
D) RESCORE-R

Requires expansion of the active duty Navy by mobilizing all units and all required ready reservists and standby reservists to meet the existing approved Navy force structure and the material resources needed.

A) Partial Mobilization
B) Full Mobilization
C) Selective Mobilization
D) Total Mobilization

Regarding Painting Specifications for letters and numerals, How is the space measurement between letters and numerals determined?

A) Always one-sixth 1/6 of the height of the letter or numeral
B) Always one-half 1/2 of the height of the letter or numeral
C) Always one-fourth 1/4 of the height of the letter or numeral