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54 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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What hydraulic servicing unit is designed to use the standard one gallon can of hydraulic fluid and to dispense it, contamination free, to the aircraft?
1) A/M27M-10 2) HSU-1 3) H-250-1 |
3) H-250-1
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How many filters does H-250-1 servicing unit have?
1) 3 (1 five micron and 2 three micron filter) 2) 5 (2 five micron and 3 three micron filter) 3) 4 (2 five micron and 2 three micron filter) |
2) 5 (2 five micron and 3 three micron filter)
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What is the delivery pressure of H-250-1 servicing unit?
1) 0 to 250 pounds 2) 0 to 100 pounds 3) 0 to 200 pounds |
1) 0 to 250 pounds
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How long is the hydraulic hose of H-250-1 servicing unit?
1) 10 foot 2) 8 foot 3) 15 foot |
2) 8 foot
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What is the fluid holding capacity of HSU-1 servicing unit?
1) 4 gallons 2) 2 gallons 3) 3 gallons |
3) 3 gallons
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What hydraulic dispensing unit provides a means of dispensing hydraulic fluid from a 55 gallon drum to any other container designed for use as a storage source, reservoir, or portable dispensing unit for hydraulic fluid?
1) A/M27M-10 2) A/M27M-1 3) A/M27M-5 |
1) A/M27M-10
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What type of pump does the A/M27M-10 dispensing unit used?
1) Hand pump only 2) Hand and motor driven pump 3) Motor driven pump only |
2) Hand and motor driven pump
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What are the two common types of hydraulic power unit used in Naval aircraft?
1) A/M27T-5 and A/M27T-7 2) A/M27T-4 and A/M27T-6 3) A/M27T-1 and A/M27T-10 |
1) A/M27T-5 and A/M27T-7
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What are the major difference between the T-5 and T-7 hydraulic power units?
1) Capacity of fluid it can hold 2) Source of power 3) Pressure it can deliver |
2) Source of power
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Normal operating pressure of T-5 and T-7 is ______ pounds with a maximum pressure of ______ pounds.
1) 1000 and 3000 2) 2500 and 3000 3) 3000 and 4000 |
3) 3000 and 4000
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What is the rated capacity of T-5 and T-7 at 3000 psi and at 5000 psi?
1) 10 and 20 gpm 2) 20 and 10 gpm 3) 15 and 10 gpm |
2) 20 and 10 gpm
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During normal operation of T-5, the diesel engine runs at what speed?
1) 1500 rpm 2) 3000 rpm 3) 2500 rpm |
3) 2500 rpm
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The hydraulic reservoir of T-5 can hold up to how many gallons?
1) 20 2) 15 3) 25 |
1) 20
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What oil servicing unit is portable, hand carried, hand pump operated unit with a 3 gallon capacity?
1) PON-6 2) A/M32M-32 3) A/M27T-7 |
1) PON-6
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The hand pump of PON-6 can deliver oil at a pressure of up to what psi?
1) 150 psi 2) 100 psi 3) 50 psi |
2) 100 psi
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How long is the fill hose of a PON-6?
1) 8 feet 2) 5 feet 3) 6 feet |
3) 6 feet
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Aviation Hydraulics Manual.
1) NAVAIR 01-1A-17 2) NAVAIR 01-1A-20 3) NAVAIR 01-1A-1 |
1) NAVAIR 01-1A-17
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What is introduced into a system during component installation, filter element installation, or opening of the system during repairs?
1) Free air 2) Free water 3) Foreign matter |
1) Free air
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What can cause rapid wear of pump pistons and slide valve
metering lands, and is a common cause of component failure? |
Cavitation
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Preservation/Depreservation Record.
1) OPNAV 4790/136A 2) OPNAV 4790/135B 3) OPNAV 4790/137D |
1) OPNAV 4790/136A
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What is ADRL?
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Automatic Distribution Requirements List
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What type of hydraulic contamination most often found in aircraft hydraulic systems and is generally referred to as particulate contamination?
1) Liquids 2) Gases 3) Solid matter |
3) Solid matter
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What contaminants are almost always present in a hydraulic system and will range in size from microscopic particles to particles readily visible to the naked eye?
1) Metallic 2) Organic 3) Inorganic |
1) Metallic
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What contamination is one of the principal causes of wear in
hydraulic pumps, actuators, valves, and servovalves? 1) Free water 2) Particulate matter 3) Foreign fluid |
2) Particulate matter
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Can result in the formation of undesired oxidation products and corrosion of metallic surfaces.
1) Foreign fluid 2) Water 3) Particulate matter |
2) Water
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This is the preservation level recommended for short term protection (90 days or less) and is the baseline for all ubsequent preservation levels.
1) Level I preservation 2) Level II preservation 3) Level III preservation |
1) Level I preservation
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This level removes selected systems from operational condition and preserves them for a storage period up to 1 year.
1) Level I preservation 2) Level II preservation 3) Level III preservation |
2) Level II preservation
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This is the highest level of aircraft and aircraft system preservation. It affords the best protection for an indefinite period of time.
1) Level I preservation 2) Level II preservation 3) Level III preservation |
3) Level III preservation
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What is the part number of a tire inflator kit?
1) AN912-2J 2) M85352/1 3) M85352/4-1 |
2) M85352/1
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What is the part number of a dual chuck stem gage?
1) AN912-2J 2) M85352/1 3) M85352/4-1 |
3) M85352/4-1
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What provides a safe method of venting off excess pneumatic pressure (overinflation) from the tire?
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The bleeder petcock
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The tire inflator assembly kit is provided with how many size/sizes of gage element?
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 |
3) 2
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Size 1 (50 to 600 psi) gage element is calibrated at what increments?
1) 5 pounds 2) 10 pounds 3) 20 pounds |
2) 10 pounds
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Size 2 (10 to 150 psi) gage element is calibrated at what increments?
1) 2 pounds 2) 5 pounds 3) 3 pounds |
1) 2 pounds
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How long is the service hose of a tire inflator assembly kit?
1) 10 foot 2) 15 foot 3) 8 foot |
1) 10 foot
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Which of the following is NOT a valid procedure when processing leave authorization part 2 after a member has commenced leave by telephone?
1) Record the hour and date of departure 2) Record the hour and date of arrival 3) Member designated to perform such duty, should sign part 2 4) Distribute the remaining copies as directed in DFAS-PTG |
2) Record the hour and date of arrival
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Who wrote the instruction for Sexual Assault Prevention And Response?
1) Chief of Naval Operations 2) Commander in Chief 3) Secretary of the Navy |
3) Secretary of the Navy
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Who has responsibility for obtaining data elements in the preparation of a sexual assault data collection report?
1) Assistant Secretary of the Navy 2) Victim advocate 3) Data collection coordinator 4) Installation commander |
3) Data collection coordinator
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The outside time limit for the collection of sexual assault evidence kit is:
1) 24 hours 2) 48 hours 3) 72 hours 4) 96 hours |
3) 72 hours
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When one department has insufficient personnel to staff all stations, who may require other departments to supplement some stations?
1) Commanding Officer 2) Executive Officer 3) Officer of the deck 4) Security Officer |
2) Executive Officer
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A chronological record of orders pertaining to the speed of the propulsion engines or motors.
1) Ship's deck log 2) Engineering log 3) The engineer's bell book |
3) The engineer's bell book
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For ships not equipped with automatic bell loggers, how many person/s shall be stationed at the throttle control station?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 |
1) 2
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When underway, who supervise and direct the Officer of the Deck in matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship?
1) Commanding Officer 2) Executive Officer 3) Command Duty Officer |
3) Command Duty Officer
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CV/CVN/L-Class ships shall receive an AMI after being designated emergency surge capable with a target of how many months prior to scheduled deployment?
1) 3 to 6 months 2) 4 to 6 months 3) 2 to 6 months |
1) 3 to 6 months
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Permanently forward deployed units shall receive an AMI every?
1) 1 year 2) 2 years 3) 3 years |
2) 2 years
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COMFRC activities will receive an AMI at a ______ interval.
1) 12 months 2) 24 months 3) 36 months |
3) 36 months
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Deployed squadrons shall receive an MCI no earlier than
how many days prior to the aircraft returning from deployment? 1) 20 days 2) 30 days 3) 40 days |
2) 30 days
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Non-deploying squadron receive an MCI every what months?
1) 24 months 2) 12 months 3) 36 months |
1) 24 months
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Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity. The operating environment favors the host nation.
1) Low 2) Moderate 3) Significant 4) High |
2) Moderate
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An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and their preferred method of operation
is to attack personnel; or the terrorist group’s preferred method of operation is to execute large casualty producing attacks but has limited operational activity. 1) Low 2) Moderate 3) Significant 4) High |
3) Significant
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An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DOD presence and the operating environment
favors the terrorist. 1) Low 2) Moderate 3) Significant 4) High |
4) High
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Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
1) ALPHA 2) BRAVO 3) CHARLIE 4) DELTA |
2) BRAVO
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Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
1) ALPHA 2) BRAVO 3) CHARLIE 4) DELTA |
3) CHARLIE
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Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
1) ALPHA 2) BRAVO 3) CHARLIE 4) DELTA |
4) DELTA
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