Bio Exam 3 Answers

1.) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species
concept?
A) morphospecies concept
B) biological species concept
C) phylogenetic species concept

2.)
ABC DE FG
Figure 27.1
Which of the following trees depicts the same relationship among species as shown above?
A)
G F E D CS A
B)
A BC D E F G
C)G FE D C B A
D) None; the above trees all depict a different relationship among species.

3.) Which of the following statements is true about a phylogeny, as represented by a phylogenetic tree?
A) Descendant groups (branches) from the same node do not necessarily share any derived
characters.
B) A monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features in addition to
synapomorphies.
C) The ancestral group often has all the synapomorphies of the descendant species.
D) All of the above answers is correct.
E) None of the above answers is correct.

4.) Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?
A) fur in bears and seals
B) cell walls in plants and fungi
C) chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae
D) scales in snakes and lizards

5.) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A) a rare worm
B) a common worm
C) a rare squirrel
D) a common squirrel

6.) For many years scientists believed that almost all animal lineages burst into being during the
Cambrian era (just after the end of the Precambrian super eon). However, there have been many recent
findings of animal-like fossils and “trace fossils” (fossils of an animal-like organisms movement) from the
late Precambrian. Which of the following best explains why it took so long to realize there was animal-
like life in the Precambrian?
A) There were no animals in the Precambrian.
B) Animals from the late Precambrian had soft bodies.
C) There were many hard-shelled animals in the Cambrian.
D) The global climate was such that there was poor fossilization in the Precambrian.
E) There were very few animals during this period.

7.) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order, from oldest to most recent?
A) Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous
B) Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous
C) Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous
D) Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian

8.) The Permian period ends with a massive extinction event and then rapid speciation occurs as new
animal and plant forms come into being. The most likely explanation for this is .
A) adaptive radiation.
B) ecological opportunity
C) lack of competition
D) morphological innovation
E) all but one of the above

9.) Which of the following likely has the most Hox genes?
A) jellyfish
B) slugs
C) dolphins
D) bees

10.) Why would gene duplication events, such as those seen in the Hox gene complex, set the stage for
adaptive radiation?
A) There are more copies of genes, meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.
B) The original gene copy is the outgroup, and the new gene copies are the adaptive radiation.
C) Without duplicated genes, species would be vulnerable to extinction.
D) One copy of a gene can perform the original function while other copies are available to take
on new functions.

11.) What does the circled part of the phylogenetic tree above indicate?
A) an adaptive radiation
B) a mass extinction event
C) rapid speciation
D) an adaptive radiation and rapid speciation
E) an adaptive radiation, a mass extinction event, and rapid speciation

12.) What organisms are most numerous on Earth?
A) eukaryotes
B) archaea
C) prokaryotes
D) plants
E) insects

13.) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya?
A) unicellular structure
B) peptidoglycan cell walls
C) transcription mechanism begins with formylmethionine
D) absence of nucleus
E) DNA associated with histone proteins

14.) While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an interesting new organism. Which of the
following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria but not Archaea or
Eukarya?
A) It is unicellular.
B) Cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C) Organism does not have nucleus.
D) The lipids in its plasma membrane consist of glycerol bonded to straight-chain fatty acids.
E) It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.

15. What is the goal of bioremediation?
A) Improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria.
B) Clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria.
C) Improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria.
D) Improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals.
E) Killing pathogenic bacteria with the use of antibiotics.

16.) Which of the following extremophiles might researchers most likely use as a model for the earliest
organisms on Earth?
A) a bacterium capable of living at extremely high salinity
B) a bacterium found on another planet or moon
C) an archaean capable of surviving in the polar ice caps
D) an anaerobic archaean species
E) a bacterium that thrives in a highly acidic environment

17.) You acquire a soil sample and run an enrichment culture on it. your provide the organisms in the culture with all of the ingredients required for growth except for nitrogen. what result do you expect to have at the end of your experiment?
A)Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will significantly outnumber those incapable of fixing nitrogen.
B)Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will not be present in the culture.
C)Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will be present but not as significantly greater number than non nitorgen-fixing species.
D)Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will be present, but will be significantly outnumbered by non nitrogen-fixing species.

18.) Which are evolutionarily more closely related?
A) Bacteria and Archaea
B) Archaea and Eukarya
C) Bacteria and Eukarya
D) Bacteria, Eukarya, and Archaea are equally related to each other.

19.) Multicellularity and large body size of eukaryotic organisms requires high metabolic rates and
efficient ATP production by aerobic respiration. How did bacteria change Earth’s atmosphere to enable
aerobic respiration?
A) Oxygenic photosynthesis by cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the
atmosphere.
B) Splitting of water during anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria dramatically increased the
amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
C) Nitrogen fixation by cyanobacteria decreased the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere,
leading to simultaneous increase of oxygen.
D) Anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere by
reducing the amount of iron oxides that are able to react instantly with oxygen.

20.) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs. How do
these two groups differ?
A) They use different sources of energy.
B) They use different electron acceptors.
C) They use different sources of carbon.
D) They differ in the way they generate ATP.

21.) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A) reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B) supply cell with fixed carbon
C) produce ATP
D) generate 02
E) utilize glucose

22.) You have found a new prokaryote. What line of evidence would support your hypothesis that the
organism is a cyanobacterium?
A) It is able to form colonies and produce oxygen.
B) It is an endosymbiont.
C) It forms chains called mycelia.
D) You determine that it can cause Lyme disease.
E) It lacks cell walls.

23.) When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human .
A) the Plasmodium gametes fuse, forming an oocyst
B) the Plasmodium cells infect the human liver cells
C) the Plasmodium cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells
D) the Plasmodium oocyst undergoes meiosis

24.) Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments
may help reduce global warming. Why?
A) because photosynthetic protists form the base of many marine food chains
B) because photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric C02
levels
C) because the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will
promote land plants to speed up photosynthesis, thus removing C02 from the atmosphere
D) because photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would
increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

25.) Which of the following is most likely to lead to PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning)?
A) dinoflagellates
B) Giardia
C) Plasmodium
D) Toxoplasma
E) diatoms

26.) Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?
A) Some protists evolved into other eukaryotic groups.
B) Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.
C) Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.
D) Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

27.) According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the
engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?
A) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP.
B) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.
C) The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.
D) The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.
E) The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.

28.) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?
A) contain a nucleus
B) smaller than animal cells
C) unicellular
D) have a cell wall
E) photosynthetic

29.) Which of the following statements best describes the term synapomorphy?
A) a trait that is shared by more than one monophyletic group
B) a trait common in a single monophyletic group, but not generally found outside of that group
C) the state of having several traits in common with different monophyletic groups
D) a trait that evolved in several different monophyletic groups simultaneously

30.) Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct
sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?
A) gametophyte —* gamete —‘ fusion —* sporophyte —* spore —+ gametophyte
B) sporophyte —* spore fusion —* gametophyte —* gamete —+ sporophyte
C) gametophyte — fusion —k sporophyte — spore — gamete —* gametophyte
D) gamete —‘ fusion —* gametophyte —* spore —* sporophyte — gamete

31.) What is necessary in order for symbiosis to occur?
A) one organism must benefit from associating with another organism
B) two organisms must live in regular physical contact with each other
C) one organism must ingest another organism
D) two organisms must be competing for the same resources

32.) Consider the following points: (a) All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is
low; (b) all excavates lack mitochondria; and (c) all excavates have some mitochondrial genes. Based on
this information, which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?
A) Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.
B) Their ancestors had mitochondria, but the mitochondria were lost over time.
C) Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.
D) Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.

33.) Which of the following groups is matched with an incorrect anatomical feature?
A) foraminifera —+ tests with holes
B) dinoflagellata — two flagella
C) oomycota —* apical complex
D) diatoms —* silicon-rich tests
E) phaeophyta —* exclusively multicellular

34.) Which of these activities is not a part of development of crop plants from wild relatives?
A) people planting seeds of the plants with the characteristic wanted
B) people making observations of desired plant characteristics
C) people eating products from only the plants with desired characteristics
D) people developing several varieties of crops from a wild relative

35.) Bioprospectors and ethnobotanists search for plants and plant products used for medicines by native
cultures. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to .
A) attract pollinators for seed dispersal
B) attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits
C) defend the plant against herbivores
D) defend the plant against microbes

36. You find a green organism in a pond near your house and believe it is a plant, not an alga. Which line
of evidence would definitively support your hypothesis?
A) It contains chIoroplasts.
B) It is multicellular.
C) It is surrounded by a cuticle.
D) It does not contain vascular tissue.
E) Its cell walls are comprised largely of cellulose

37.) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests that
A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats
B) wind-pollinated plants arose first
C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats
D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

38.) Which set contains the most closely related terms?
A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule
B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
D) microsporangium, microspore, carpe!, ovary

39.) Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low, sprawling growth habit?
A) At the time of the first land plants, the carbon dioxide, which is necessary for photosynthesis,
was primarily located close to the ground.
B) They were tied to the water for reproduction and thus needed to remain in close contact with
the moist soil.
C) The ancestors of land plants, green algae, lack the structural support to stand erect in air.
D) Land animals of that period were small so they needed short plants to eat.
E) There was less competition for space; only once land plants spread out did they start to grow
upright.

40.) What two major novelties allowed for the first colonization of terrestrial habitats by plants?
A) roots and vascular tissue
B) cuticle and pores
C) roots and true leaves
D) vascular tissue and cuticle
E) tracheids and vessel elements

41.) The retaining of the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants .
A) protects the zygote from herbivores
B) evolved concurrently with pollen
C) helps in dispersal of the zygote
D) allows it to be nourished by the parent plant
E) is found only in seed plants

>>(42-44)Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
Scarlet guja (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence of up to 250 flowers. In
certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however, the flowers range from red to pink to white. In
early summer, most of the flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were still
present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were present. The major pollinators
early in the season were two species of hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower
elevations, and the major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk moth
was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white flowers after dark. When
hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths
were present, more white flowers produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and
population shifts in flower color by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science 227:3 15—
17).
42.) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. What is the significance of measuring fruit production?
A) It is a measure of pollination success.
B) It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
C) It is easier than counting flowers.
D) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.

43.) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Late in the season, when only hawk moths were present,
researchers painted the red flowers white. What would you expect?
A) Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.
B) Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.
C) Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.

44.) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colors, and some
retained the same darker color all season. Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?
A) those that changed their color to a lighter shade
B) those that stayed darker
C) They probably produced the same numbers of fruit.

45.) Which of the following innovations is not associated with angiosperm diversification?
A) vessel elements
B) flowers
C) leaves
D) fruits

46.) Which of the following is a correct element of alternation of generations?
A) The sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes.
B) The sporophyte is diploid and produces spores.
C) The gametophyte is haploid and produces spores.
D) The gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes.
E) Two spores unite to form a zygote.

47.) Spores and seeds have basically the same function—dispersal—but are vastly different because
A) spores have a protective outer covering; seeds do not
B) spores have an embryo; seeds do not
C) spores have stored nutrition; seeds do not
D) spores are unicellular; seeds are not
E) spores depend primarily on animals for dispersal; seeds do not

48.) Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are grouped together as the Bryophytes. Besides not having
vascular tissue, what do they all have in common?
A) They are all wind pollinated.
B) They are heterosporous.
C) They can reproduce asexually by producing gemmae.
D) They require water for reproduction.
E) They have the ability to desiccate and rehydrate with no ill effects.

49.) The most basal lineages of land plants include .
A) Lycophyta, Psilotophyta, and Pteridophyta
B) Hepaticophyta, Anthocerophyta, and Bryophyta
C) Spenophyta, Charaphyaceae, and Bryophyta
D) Cycadophyta, Ginkophyta, and Gnetophyta

50.) Which of the following possess stomata?
A) Ulvophyceae
B) Hepaticophyta
C) Charaphyaceae
D) Anthocerophyta