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1482 Cards in this Set

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what is the tissue origin of soft tissue tumors?
mesenchymal stem cells(mesoderm)
MOA of raloxifene?
selective estrogen receptor modulator(SERM)

mimics estrogen in some tissue and angtogonizes it in others.
what is suggested by tumors seen in pituitary,pancreas, parathyroid?
MEN1
multiple endocrine neoplams type 1
what is MOA of colchicine?
binds tubulin and prevents polimerization
what is a synarthoses?
solid or nonsynovial joints poriving structural integrity and minial movment
what are the congenital pancreatic anomalies?
heterotopias- not in normal place

pancrease divisum- main duct is goes to minor sphincter instead of major papilla like its suppose to.

annular pancreas-pancreas surround duodenum
what are the major hormone products of the adrenal gland cortex by zone?
zona glomerulosa-aldosterone

zona fasiclata- cortisol

zona reticulans- androgens
traits of normal synovial fluid?
color
clarity
viscosity
WBC
PMN
culture
clarity-transparent
color-clear
viscosity -very high
WBC-less than 200
pmn %- 25
culture- neg
what secretes insulin?
pancreatic beta cells
what is indicative on histo for hyperthyroidism
papillary infolding
scalloping
coloid
what are sedative/hypnotic effects and how do they differ from antianxiety effect?
drugs that depress the CNS function and will actually cause respiratory depression

primarly used to treat anxeity and insomnia

difference btw antianxiety and hypnotic effects of the drug is often a matter of dosing.
crooke hyaline change is seen in basal cells of pituitary in what condition?
crushing syndrome
hypercortisol
what is a cold sore?
herpes type 1
what is the role of DHT?
testosterone is a prohormone for DHT
a. The “typical” antipsychotic medications include
dopamine D2 receptor antagonists.
what are the estorgen receptor agonists?natural
estradiol and its ester

estrone
conjugated estrogens
what is important to understand about how long it will take for drugs lowering thyroid hormone levels to work?
it will take weeks bc thyroid hormone is made and stored in large quantities in the follicles.
What is the most common psychiatric disorder?
depression
how are soft tissue tumors classified and graded.
they are named by what tissue they resemble(ie lipoma resembles fat) and they are graded by how closley they resemble that tisse.(higher grade the less it resembles)
what is the indication for use fo raloxifene?
treats osteoporosis and reduces risks for breast cancer.
MEN 1 caused by what gene
menin
what is the use of colchicine?
preventative
what is a synovial joints
cavitated with joint space allowing for moement situated btw bones and strengthened by capsule, ligaments, and muscles, lined by synovium and filled with clear, viscous plasma filtrate providing lubrication and nutrition for articular hyline cartilage
what is a common problem associated with pancreas divisum?
major cause of pancreatitis
what is important about the enzyme systems in the adrenal gland?
all three zones produce their hormones are created by the same enzymes so its impossible to focus inhibition of to any certain zone based on the enzyme.
traits of nonimflammatory group 1synovial fluid?
color
clarity
viscosity
WBC
PMN
culture
clarity-translucent
color-yellow
viscosity- high
wbc-200-2000
pmn%-25
culture-neg
what are the two main cells of the pancreatic islet?
beta cells and alpha cells
how is papillary carcinoma diagnosed?
nuclear features
cleared out nuclei open ring appearance
psommoma bodies
intranuclear inclusion with groove
what is the drug of choice for treatment of insomnia and anxiety?
benzodiazepines
why are adrenal cortical carcinoma much larger when presenting clinically?
bc adenoma is more like normal tissue so it more functional and with produce symptoms faster
what % of pop is positive for herpes virus?
80% if all types are included
effects of DHT
?
dopamine hypothesis
that schizophrenic symptoms are the result of excess dopamine activity.
what are teh semi-synthetic estrogen rec. agonists
ethinylestradiol
mestranol
what is the function of the thryoid?
secretion of thyroid hormones and calcitonin
what % of US will expereince depression?
30%
what are the antidepressant groups?
tricyclic antidepressants
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors(SSRI)

serotononin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibiotors(SNRIs)

monoamine oxidase inhibitors(MAOIs)

atypical antidepressants
where do soft tissue tumors arise?
mesenchyme is present mainly outside organ, vessel, and bone structures but all these things also have mesenchyme within them so its possible for them to arise within organs or bones.
what are some adverse effects of raloxifene?
can cause hot flashes
can cause serious blood clots
MEN 2 caused by what gene
RET protooncogene
what are the MOA of nsiads in Gout?
decrease WBC migration/phagocytism
why do joints rarely get tumors?
no blood supply or lymph or nerve supply nutrients provided by synovial fluid
what is a common marker of acute pancreatitis?
increased amylase level
What is the hormone pathway for corticotropin releaseing hormone?
CRH in the hyothalamus stimulates the release of ACTH by the pituitary.
ACTH stimulates the production of all three hormones from the adrenal gland.

Cortisol and ACTH negatively feeds back to shut off CRH release.
traits of inflammatory group 2 synovial fluid?
color
clarity
viscosity
WBC
PMN
culture
color-yellow to opal
clarity-translucent to opaque
viscosity-low
WBC-2000-100k
PMN-50%
culture-neg
what do alpha cells do?
secrete glucagon
what is metastatic potential of papillary carcinoma?
50% spread to lymph nodes by the time you find it.
what are all the uses of benzodiazepines?
insomnia/anxiety
induce general anesthesia
manage seizure disorders, muscle spasm, panic disorder, and withdraw from alcohol
dexamethasone suppression low dose test is used for what
used to screen for hypercortisolsm
what happens to most people during primary infection of herpes type 1 through kissing/fomite?
99% are asypmtomatic from PRIMARY infection
1% get acute gigivostomatitis as a PRIMARY infection
what are general effects of structure on function of testoterones?
?
This observation indicates that while the “dopamine hypothesis” has merit, it is too simplistic.
b. Although dopamine antagonists result in anti-DA activity within hours, symptom improvement in schizophrenic patients on these medications takes weeks
what are the synthetic estrogen rec. agonssti?
diethylstibiestrol
what are the major roles of thyroid hormone/
growth
develpment
body temp reg
metabolic rates of cells

aides in these pathways doesn't directly cause

temp regulation is done by epinephrine from sympathetic system but it epinephrine wont cause the temperature regulation in the absence of thyroid hormone.
how do you clinically diagnosis depression?
depressed mood
loss of pleasure or interest
insomnia/hypersomnia
anorexia/hyperphagia
mental slowing and loss of concentration
feelings of guilt, worthlessness, helplessness
thoughts of death and suicide
overt suicidal behaviro
symptoms must be present most of the day nearly every day for at least 2 weeks
what are the two types of mesenchyme that can give rise to soft tissue tumors
undifferentiated

differentiated
what is 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3?
hormonally acitve form of vitamin D with three hydroxyl groups
what is seen in almost always in MEN2
meduallay thryoid carcinoma
what is the MOA of probenicid
decreases UA reabsorption in the kidney by competition
what is the collogen type in joint cartilage?
type II
what is the most common cause of auct pancreatitis in north america?
alcohol abuse main
biliary tract stones second
drugs
idiopathic
what causes release of CRH?
stress: emotional, physical, hypglycemic, cold exposure, pain.

circadian regulation also occurs.
traits of septic group 3synovial fluid?
color
clarity
viscosity
WBC
PMN
culture
color-yellow to green
clarity-opaque
viscosity-variable
WBC->100k
PMN-75
culture-positive
what is the effect of insulin on glucagon secretion?
inhibitory so in diabetics with decreased or absent insulin secretretion(ie type 1) there will be increased glucagon which is a needed factor in ketoacidosis and that is why ketoacidosis is more commoni in type one DM
what is main metastaic potential in follicular carcinoma of thyroid?
like to metastasize to the blood.
what is the most common benzodiazepine?
diazepam
what is dexamethasone surppression high dose test used for?
differentiated btw they type primary or secondary hypercortisolism
of the population that is asymptomatic in the primary infection what can happen next?
50% of the 99% who are asymptomatic during primary infection never develop herpetic lesions
50% of the infected people get periodic outbreaks of secondary herpes due to retention of latent virus
what is primary testicula failure and how is it treated?
?
first typical antipsychotics
phenothiazines
what are the progesterone rec. agonists?
pregnanes-progesterone, medroxyprogesterone acetate

synthetics- 19-nortestosterones
-norethynodrel
-norethindrone/norethindrone acetate
-ethynodiol
-nogestrel
-desogestrel, gestodene, norgestimate
what does epinephrine need in order to stimulate body temperature change?
thyroid hormone.
what is the pathogenesis of depression?
genetic
difficult childood
chronic low self esteem
monoamine hypothesis of depression-depression caused by a functional insufficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters.
what are some expamles of undifferentiated mesenchyme tumors
ewings sarcoma, PNET, mesenchymoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma
what is the function of 1,25(OH)2 D3?
increases the level of calcium in the blod by increasing the uptake of calcium from the gut and decreasing the transfer of calcim from the blood to the urine and increaseing the release of calcium in the blood from bone.
how can you differentiate btw MEN 2a and 2b?
2b has neuro ganglioma and other nerve neoplasia

2a doesnt
what is the contraindication of probenicid?
patients with kidney stones from gout.
what cells produce cytokines that can lead to joint destuction/
chondrocytes, synociocytes, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells
what are the direct metabolite causes of acute pancreatitis?
alcohol/drug damage
hyperlipoproteinemia
hypercalcemia
uremia
pregnancy
diabetes mellitus
what are the important enzymes in the adrenal gland pathways for production of aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens?
3 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

17 alpha hydroxylase

21 hydroxylase

11 beta hydroxylase
what markers are used in rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid factor(RF)-positive at a titer of greater than 1:80

HLA-DR4-positive

elvated ESR-not specific

C-reactive protien(CRP)-nonspecific measure of inflammation

ANTI-CCP-fairly specific new test becoming more popular.
what happens if you lose some of your beta cells?
nothing normal healthy people have a huge reserve of beta cells you have to lose a lot before you become diabetic
what is characterized by pretibial myxedema?
graves disease only thing that has this

exopthalhma bulging eyes also indicitave of this
what are the advantages of benzos?
safer than general CNS depressants
lower potential for abuse
produce less tolerance and physical dependecne
fewer drug interactions
what is the most common cuase of adrenal insuffiency
addisons-autoimmune destructions of the adrenal gland
what is the cause and stats of gingivostomatits?
primary herpes sinplex type 1 infection. only occurs in 1% of people who are infected with herpes.
what is secondary testicular failure and how is treated?
?
phenothiazines have three families within the class of drugs that are based on structures that alter potency:
i. Low potency: chlorpromazine (prototype)
ii. Intermediate potency: thioridazine
iii. High potency: fluphenazine
iv. The lower potency drugs cause more sedation and less extrapyramidal effects. The higher potency drugs cause less sedation and more extrapyramidal effects.
v. Although there are differences in potency and side effects of the different subfamilies, all of the drugs have roughly the same therapeutic efficacy.
what are the estrogen rec antagoinst/SERMs?
tamoxifen
clomiphene
raloxifene
what is the pathway for thyroid hormone release?
hypothalamus relsease TRH
stimulates release of TSH from anteriorpituitary. Which in turn stimulates synthesis and release of T3 and T4 from the thyroid gland.
what are the monoamines?
dopamine
norepinephrine
serotonin
what are the differentiated mesenchyme tissues from which soft tissue tumors can arise?
adipocyte
fibrocyte
endothleilial cell
histiocyte
pericyte
chondrocyte
myocyte
osteocyte
what is the MOA of bone resorption by 1,25(OH)2 D3?
acts on osteblasts causeing release of RANKL which activates osteoclasts.
what is a recomendation in reguards to the thyroid in pt with MEN2?
prophylatic thyroidectomy
what is the MOA of allopurinal?
decreases production of uric acid by blocking xanthine oxidase
what is the most common type of arthritis?
osteoarthritis(DJD)
what are the drugs most commonly associated with causeing acute pancreatitis?
antibiotics-didanosidine
pentamidine, sulfonamides, tetracycline

chemotherapy- asparaginase, cytarabine, 6-mercaptopurine

diuretics-furosemide

immunosuppressant-azathioprine

opiates
steroids
estrogen
what is the general MOA of steroids?
work as transcription factors

bind to chaperone proteins

mediate their effects by direct alteration of gene products

This is why steroids with very similar chemical structure have such massively different effect in the body.
what is RF?
Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody (usually IgM) against the Fc portion of autologous IgG. About 80% or individuals with rheumatoid arthritis have elevated serum RF.
what is the main function of thepancreas?
secretion of enzymes needed in digestion espeacially of fat. only 2-3% of pancreatic mass comes from islets
myxedema is seen in what?
hypothyroidism
why are benzos safer?
normal doses do not depress medullary function
high aldosterone and low renin suggests what?
primary hyperaldosteronism
what is the presentation of gingivostomatitis?
primary herpetic gingivostomatitis - Acute, febrile disease with malaise and
cervical adenopathy. Localizing symptoms in mouth as generalized vesicles
and ulcers, 3-7 mm. with associated acute, hemorrhagic gingivitis. Resolves
in 2 weeks. Does not return. Mostly children and young adults.

gingival swelling, vesicals rupture to ulcers
lab testing for testostone, FSH, LH etc
?
d. Pharmacologic actions/side effects of phenothiazines
i. Histamine blockadesedation; tolerance develops in a few weeks
ii. Chemoreceptor trigger zone blockadeanti-emetic
iii. Dopamine blockadehyperprolactinemiaamenorrhea-galactorrhea
iv. Dopamine blockadeextrapyramidal dysfunction: Parkinsonism, akathisia, dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome
v. Cholinergic blockadedry mouth, constipation, urinary retetion, blurred vision
vi. Alpha-adrenergic blockadepostural hypotension
vii. Decreased seizure threshold
viii. Abnormal temperature regulation
ix. Moderate weight gain
what is the prototype progesterone receptor antagonist?
mifepristone
what are the controls of TRH and TSH release?
stress - inhibits
heath- inhibits
cold- stimulate
-fasting- inhibits
overfeeiding-stimulates
increased iodine- inhibits
decreased iodine - stimulates
High levels of T3/4 - inhibits
low levels of T3/4- stimulates
what are the treatments for depression?
pharmacotherapy
depression specific psychotherapy(CBT)
electroconvulsive therapy
vagus nerve stimulation.
what is the cause of soft tissue tumors?
unknown usually
evironmental factors:
radiation
chemical and thermal burns
herbicides
trauma
immunosuppression
immunologic alterations

minority can have genetic origin
what is the effect of 1,25(OH)2 D3 on phosphate absorption by the GI?
increases absorption of both Ca2+ and phosphate.
what is the prognosis of tumors found in MEN2?
worse than people with normal versions of those same tumors

tumors are multifocal

appear at a younger age.
what are some important drug interactions of allopurinal?
6mercaptopurine
azothioprine
what is the pathology of osteoarthiritis?
progressive erosion of articular cartilage in weight bearign joints(HIPs, Knees, vertebrae)

related to age wear and tear , decreased capacity of chondrocytes to maintina cartilage matrix. Alterations in proteoglycans and collagen decreases cartilage resilience
what are the physcial/vascular causes of acute pancreatitis?
cholelithiasis/gallstones

trauma-most common cause of AP in children

iatrogenic: endoscopy/surgery

ischemic/vascular: vasculitis, thrombosis, shock
what are the glucocorticoids?
cortisol
can someone have rheumatoid arthritis and be negative for RF?
yes about 80% have elevated RF though
what is important about the blood supply of the pancreate islets?
they are part of portal circulation, they see the blood right after its absorbed the nuetrients from digestion and before that blood reaches the liver. So they are able to respond very quickly to with hormone secretions in response to a meal and those secretions go very quickly to the liver.
what is seen in radionuclides scans of thyroid?
darker the more iodide it takes up

multilobulated goiter-leads to both dark spots and light spots

hyperthyroid- would show dark uniform

hypothyroid would show light uniform
where is benzo metabolized?
in liver
when does herpes labailis occur?
it is a secondary herpes infection. this is how 99% of people who manifest secondary infections present.
controversy of steroids in athletes
?
e. Drug interactions of phenothiazines
i. Potentiation of anticholinergic drugs
ii. Potentiation of other CNS depressants, benzodiazepines, opioids
iii. Potentiation of adrenergic-blocking antihypertensive drugs
what are the antiestrogenics?
aromatase inhibitors-anastrzole, exemestane, letrozole
what is the difference btw T4 and T3 structurally?
T3- has 3 Iodines
T4- has 4
when is electroconvulsive therapy used?
when drugs and therapy have not worked
sever depressed pt
suicidal
elderaly pt at risk of starving

when rapid response is needed
what are indicators for prognosis in soft tissue tumors?
histologic type
grade
benign/malignant
size
depth-shallow better
location-extremities better than retroperitoneal
what is use of calcium citrate?
used as a diatery supplement.

main use in pt post gastic bypass who may have better bioavailability of this over the cheaper calcium supplements.
what predisposes people to papillary thyroid carcinoma?
radiation
what is the use of probenicid in gout?
tophouse or long standing gout
what is the presentation of osteoarthirits?
slow onset pain in hips knees and vertebrae

morning stiffness made worse by use, crepitus, limiation in movement

bakers cysts
what are the infectious causes of acute pancreatitis?
viral-mumps, entervirus, CMV

mycoplasma, mycobacteria

parasites-ascaris, clonorchis
what are the effects of cortisol on metabolism?
stimulates hepatic glucose formation from glycerol/amino acids

increase storage of glucose as glycogen

diminishes glucose utilization in periphery(catabolic) enhances protein catabolism in muscle and enhances lipolysis in fat.

net result is to increase plasma gluose levels causes muscle wasting at high doses.
what is Anti-CCP?
antibodies to cirtulline modified peptides
what is important about the blood flow from the islets to the liver and injecting insulin?
normally bc the liver is the first organ to see the secretions from the pancreas, the level of insulin seen by the liver is several times higher than the rest of the body.

however in diabetics who inject insulin that insulin does not have a higher concentration seen by the liver.
hashimotos thyroiditis has slight increased risk of what?
lymphoma
what is comparason btw benzos and barbiturates?
benzos are safer, and cause less dependence /tolerance/abuse

barbiturates cause increased liver enzymes functions(inducer)

all this is based on proper use of benzos and each person will respond differently
what is the presentation of herpes labialis?
localized tingling and swelling followed by a crop of vesicles on lip. Infection contained because of prior antibodies. No fever, adenopathy. Vesicles break, ulcers crust and heal in 2 weeks. All ages affected.

occurs on the LIP not inside the mouth
male menopause treatment and controversy?
?
f. Haloperidol
i. High-potency (non-phenothiazine) dopamine blocker
what are the xenoestrogens?(foreign)
envrionmental estrogen/phytoestrogens- isoflavones, resertrol
what are the 5 major steps of thyoid hormone synthesis?
1.uptake of Iodine
2. oxidatino/activation of idodine
3. coupling into Tg
4. storage
5. proeolysis and release.
when is vagus nerve stim used?
only after treatment with at least four drugs has failed
where do soft tissue tumors most commonly metastasize to?
lung and bone

dont usually involve the lymph nodes.
what are the loop diuretics effect on calcium homeostatisis?
Loop diuretics act on the Na+-K+-2Cl- symporter (cotransporter) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. This is achieved by competing for the Cl- binding site. Because magnesium and calcium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb is dependent on sodium and chloride concentrations (primarily on the recycling of the potassium due to the lack of the electropositive gradient generation), loop diuretics also inhibit their reabsorption.
where is pituitary located?
beneath sella turcica very close to optic nerves
what is the use of allopurinal?
chronic gout
what is the problem with joint replacement metal joints
metal joints leak toxins and cause inflamation that can speed up arititic processes
what is the pathologic sequence of events in acute pancreatitis?
inciting injury-alcohol/drug/obstuction etc

activations/release of enzymes

acinar injury

increased activation/release of enzymes

more acinar injury

eventually proteolysis

then blood vessel damage-hemorrhage

leads to fat necrosis and release of lipase

that causes acute inflammation and edema.
what is the main use of glucocorticoids (cortisol) as medication?
antiinflammatory
what is the cause of rhematoid arthritis?
autoimmune reaction stimulated by TNF and IL-1
what is the glucose transporter of the beta cell?
GLUT2
what type of thryoidism is seen in hashimotos thyroiditis?
hypothyroidism
what is a risk with benzos?
they cause cardiovascular depression

so much be carefull with administration to elderly with cardiac conditinos

respiratory depression is rare unless overdose
what triggers herpes labialis?
Latent virus in trigeminal
ganglion is periodically reactivated by colds and fevers, sun, trauma, stress,menstrual periods
side effects of testosterones
?
Haloperidol side effects
ii. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects: Parkinsonism, akathisia, dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
iii. Can also cause hyperprolactinemia due to dopamine blockade.
iv. Relatively free of cholinergic, alpha-adrenergic, and histamine-blocking side effects.
what are the gonadotropins?
FSH(urofolliculin)
HCG
menotrophins(hMG=FSH+LH)
what is the the cell to plasma ratio of Iodine in folicular cells and how is that maintianed?
40:1

Iodine pump in follicular cell membrane which is stimulated by TSH
what is a big risk with all antidepressants?
may increase suicidal tendency early in the treatement

must observe pt closely
what are the patterns associated with smooth muscle tumors?
fasicles of eosinophilic spnidle cells intersecting at right angles

spindle cells- cell longer than it is wide
what are the effects of thiazide diuretics on calcium homeostatisis?
Thiazides also lower urinary calcium excretion, making them useful in preventing calcium-containingkidney stones. This effect is associated with positive calcium balance and is associated with an increase in bone mineral density and reductions in fracture rates attributable to osteoporosis. By a lesser understood mechanism, thiazides directly stimulate osteoblastdifferentiation and bone mineral formation, further slowing the course of osteoporosis.[11]

Because of their promotion of calcium retention, thiazides are used in the treatment of Dent's Disease or idiopathic hypercalciuria.
what are the hormones released by the pituitary?
prolactin
ACTH
TSH
GH
LH/FSH
ADH
Oxytocin
what is feboxostat?
nonpurine version of allopurinaol
what is a baker cyst
leaking of synovial fluid out of joint space
what are the three ways alcohol can cause pancreatic injury?
direct acinar cell injury
can cause defective intracellular transport
can cause ductal constriction that leads to duct obstructions.
what are the antiinflammatory effects of glucocorticoids?
inhibits the synthesis of leukotrienes, and prostaglandins

decrease cellular conten and release of histamine

decrease the synthesis of interleukins and cytokines

decrease the synthesis of MCF, MAF

decrease activity of MIF

decrease the release of lytic enzymes

decrease the release of reactive O2 products.
what is borrelia burgdorfer associated with?
found in in synovial infection with lyme disease
what is the most important regulator of insulin secretion in normal people?
glucose
what throws off T4 levels measured?
oral contraceptives increase thyroid binding globulin and T4 measures only thyroid binding globulin bound T4

if a pt is hypothyroid you will need a free T4 test to see what their actual thyroid state is.
what are cardiac effects of benzos?
lower BP
lower HR
Lower SVR
what is characteristic biopsy for primary herpes?(biopsy rarely performed)
vesicals seen as pool of fluid and degnerating epithelial cells that rapidly rupture and ulcerate
treatement for over production of androgen
?
typical antipsychotics include?
phenothiazine
haloperidol
molindone
thiothixene
what are the antigonadotropins?
danazol
what is the enzyme responsible for oxidizing and incorporating Iodion into thyroglobulin(Tg)?
thyroidal peroxidase(TPO)
what precautions are taken to lessen risk of suicidality with antidepressant use?
observe pt closely for increases in suicidality/worsen mood/changes in behavior

prescribe lowest number of doeses consisten with good pt mangment.
pt dosing with inpatient should be directly observed and documented
what is the tissue pattern seen in fibrohistiocytic tumors?
short fasicles of spindle cells radiating from a central point(spokes of a wheel)- also known as storiform
what is ethacrynic acid?
loop diuretic
what is the difference in blood supply to the anterior and posterior pituitary?
anterior has single blood supply via portal system

posterior has dual supply both artiers/viens and the portal system.
what is MOA of pegloticase
convertes UA to allountosin
what are some assoicated findings with osteoarthritis?
bone spurs
jointing narrowing on Xray
Heberden nodes(women) osteophytes at disatl interphalangeal joints
what are the two enzymes released in the active from acinar cell damage?
amylase and lipase
what is the effect of IL-1, IL-2, IL-6 and TNF alpha on CRH and ACTH production
stimulates production of CRH and ACTH, which leads to increased cortisol which decreases immune response leading to less of those products.
what is HLA-B27 associated with?
seronegative ankylosing spondylopathies
are there intracelluar receptors for glucose in the beta cells that respond to high levels of glucose?
no, glucose must be metabolized beofre it can act to increase insulin release.
what is another name for T3?
triiodothyronine
what is bioavailability and distribution of benzos?
75-90% bioavailablity
lipophilic distrubution threwout whole body
can be sequestered in fat
what is a normal evaluation technique used to diagnose primary herpes infection?
cytologic smear of vesicular fluid shows multinucleated cell with glassy nuclei which is indicative of viral infection.
effect of long acting GnRH analogs/
?
efficacy and side effects of molindone and thiothixene?
g. Molindone
i. Also high-potency with extrapyramidal side effects
h. Thiothixene
i. Less potent than phenothiazines, lower incidence of EP side effects
what are the GnRH analogs?
leuprolide
gonadorelin
nafarelin
goserlin

remember relin for GnRH analogs
what are the two molecules produced by thryglobulin(Tg) attack of tyrosine? in the second step of T3/4 synthesis?
MIT and DIT
what is the first choice for most pt with major depression?
tricyclics
what is the the tissue pattern found in schwan cell tumors?
nuclei arranged in columns-palisading
what is furosemide?
loop diuretic
which part of the pituitary is most vulnerable to ischemia?
the anterior
what are the ezyme based antigout drugs?
pegloticase
RAsboricase
what is the treatment for arthritis
pain control till it progresses far enough to perform joint replacement
what enzyme activates the non active enzymes released from acinar cell injury?
trypsin
What is the effect of aldosterone(mineral corticoids) on electrolyte and water balance?
act on renal distal tubuels and collecting duct to increase Na reuptake(increase K and H excretion)
positive Na balance, increases extracellular fluid volume
what is gummatous necrosis suggestive of?
tertiary syphillis
what are the fuels that regulate insulin release?
glucose>>>protein>fat
what is another name for T4?
thyroxine
what is time course fo benzos?
duration of action 2-6 hours
therefore prescribed to be taken as needed not a constant dose med
what is the antibody status for anyone manifesting secondary herpes outbreak?
positive antibody to the herpes simplex virus usually type 1
ketoconazole
?
2. Describe the time course and symptoms of antipsychotic drug-induced neuromuscular effects?
a. Parkinsonism
i. Can occur within 5-30 days.
ii. Tremors, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia
b. Akathisia
i. 5-60 days
ii. Motor restlessness (unable to remain stationary in one position)
c. Dystonias
i. Also early complication
ii. Prolonged abnormal contractions of the neck, tongue, and mouth muscles
d. Tardive dyskinesia
i. Irreversible complication of long-term use that occurs more frequently in older patients. The disorder consists of rhythmic, involuntary movements of tongue, lip smacking, abnormal postures, and involuntary limb movements.
e. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
i. Severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia that occurs about 30 minutes after injection. Can treat with dantrolene and bromocriptine.
f. These are all thought to be due to dopamine blockade.
what releases GnRH? and what is it?
hypothalamus releases gonadotropin releaseing hormone(GnRH)

its a decapeptide that goes to the pituitary and sims increased synthesis and release of gonadotropins
what is the couplings that occur to create T3 as opposed to T4?
MIT couples with DIT to create T3

two DITs couple to create T4

MIT never couples with itself.
what are the most common adverse effects of tricyclics?
sedation
othrostatic hypotension
anticholinergic effects
what is the tissue pattern seen in fibrosarcoma?
herring bone-cell intersecting at 45 degree angles
what is alendronate?
Alendronate inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone-resorption

classified as a bisphosphonate.
what are the functions of the anterior and post. pit.
ant.-adenohypophysis glandular portion
releases hormones.

post-neurohypophysis all modified glial cells and axonal processes. releases neurtransmitters as hormones
what is an adverse reaction with enzyme antigout drugs?
hemolytic anemai
g6pd difiency
anaphalaxis
what is found grossly in a joint with osteoarthritis?
early granulartiy and softening of join cartilage surface leads to break down of cartilage that creates fissuring and flaking of cartilage until exposed bone on bone within the joint

this leads to an ivory or eburnation of appearance of the joint

small fractures break off and float in the synovial fluid

osteophytes form a margin of articular surface, synovium only minimally altered
what is the clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis?
rapid onset severe constant epigastric pain radiating to the back

nausea and vomiting due to ileus/duodenal obstuctions,sentinel loop

2/3 have fever and most have shock due to fluid shifting to inflamed area
what are the effects of high levels of mineral corticoids?
increased blood pressure
hypokalemia, hypernatremia, and alkalosis
what is urate crystals in the joints indicate?
gouty arthiritis
what must happen to glucose in the beta cell for it to be metabolized?
it must be phosphoralated by glucokinanase
what type of receptor is the TSH receptors of the thyroid and what does it do?
Gprotein receptor when activated converts GTP to GDP and creates cAMP.
what are the adverse effects of benzos?
CNS depression-the candy drug each one you take makes you feel better and better.

anterograde amnesia

sleep driving-dont take benzos during day if you going to be driving

paradoxical effects-rare but can cause increased HR, sleeplessness, ects opposite of what you expect

respiratory depression

abuse

dont use in preg especially first trimester probaly shouldnt use during lactation either
what is typical duration of secondary herpes outbreak?
14 days
finasteride
5alpha recutase inhibitor
effective in benign prostate hyperplasia

other stuff?
3. Explain how atypical antipsychotics differ from classical antipsychotics
a. The atypical antipsychotics have a greater occupancy at 5-HT2 receptors relative to D2 receptors. Several of these drugs have also been reported to selectively block dopamine receptors on mesolimbic neurons rather than nigrostriatal neurons. These drugs are typically now first-line agents for schizophrenia due to far fewer extrapyramidal side effects. However, all have been reported to induce severe hyperglycemia and obesity.
what is important about the release of GnRH?
its pulsatile over a course of a few mins
what catalyzes coupling reaction in T3/4 synthesis?
TPO
what is the most dangerouse adverse effect of tricyclics?
cardiac toxicity
what is the tissue pattern seen in synovial sarcoma?
mixture of fasiccles of spindle cells and groups of epitheloid cells-biphasic

glands and spindle cells
what is the MOA of calcitonin?
calcitonin lowers blood Ca2+ levels in three ways:

Inhibits Ca2+ absorption by the intestines[7]
Inhibits osteoclast activity in bones[8]
Inhibits renal tubular cell reabsorption of Ca2+ allowing it to be secreted in the urine[9]

Vitamin D regulation
what are the cells of the anterior pituitary?
somatotrophs
lactotrophs
corticotrophs
thrytorhops
gonaodotrohps
what is pegloticase use for?
chronic refractory gout
what is the cause of subchondral cysts in osteoarthiritis?
bone on bone leads to flaking and break down of bone to create cavities which will house the excess synovial fluid
what is the cause of acute hemmorhaic pancreatitis?
release of protyolytic enzymes from the pancreas during pancreatitis leads to blood vessel daamage
what are the effects of low levels of mineral corticoids?
decreased blood pressure
hyperkalememia, hyponatremia, and acidosis.
what are the requirements to diagnose RA?
Four of the following are needed to diagnose RA:

Morning stiffness √
Arthritis in three or more joint areas √
Arthritis of hand joints √
Symmetric arthritis √
Rheumatoid nodules √
Serum rheumatoid factor √
Typical radiographic changes (erosive synovitis)
what is unique about the km of glucokinase?
it is very close to the physiologic concentration of glucose so when glucose concentration goes up it is not saturated the metabolism goes up.
how does T3 and T4 travel in the serum?
most is bound to thyroxine binding globulin,albumin, or transthyretin protiens

small amount travels in a free unbound state.
what are the drug interactions of the benzos?
additive with any other CNS depressants
what is another name for (common term) for herpes labialis?
cold sore, fever blister most common presenation of secondary herpes infection
male contraceptives
?
what is now the frontline drugs used in treatment of schizophrenia?
the atypical antipsychotics
what are the two gonadotropins?
FSH and LH
what are the two ways T3 is produced IN THYROID GLAND?
MIT coupling with DIT creates T3

after proteolysis and release from storage and prior to release into the blood some T4 will be deiodinated into T3 by 5`deiodinase.
what drug do many tricyclics resemble chemically?
phenothiazine antipsychotics
what two soft tissue tumors show palisadinf features?
schwann cell and smooth muscle

if its near spine or nerves think schwann

if in area with lot of smooth muscle then think smooth muscle
what is cinacalcet?
Cinacalcet (INN) is a drug that acts as a calcimimetic (i.e. it mimics the action of calcium on tissues) by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor

Cinacalcet is used to treat secondary hyperparathyroidism (elevated parathyroid hormone levels), a consequence of having end-stage renal disease.[1] Cinacalcet is also indicated for the treatment of hypercalcemia in patients with parathyroid carcinoma.[2];
what does somatotrophs produce?
growth hormone
when is rasboricase used?
in cancer therapy to deal with tumor lysis syndrome
what is the gene associated with rheumatoid aritirs?
HLA-DRBI create altered area that acts as a binding site for athritogens

PTPN22 -creates abnormal T cell response
what are the two signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis?
cullens sign-discoloration around umbilicus

grey turner sign- discolorations around the flank
What other system stimulates aldosterone release other than ACTH?
renin angiotensin system
what is definition of arthritis/
Arthritis is the inflammation of any joint. Acute inflammation is defined with rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), calor (heat), and functio laesa (loss of function).
what is the chain of events that leads to insulin secretion in the beta cell?
glucose uptake by GLUT2
glucose phosphorylation by glucokinase
glucose metabolism generating ATP
increaced ATP/ADP ratio closes ATP sensitive potassium channel
this causes depolarization
depolarization opens voltage gated calcium channel
calcium influx is what signals the release of insulin containing vesicles that migrate and excrete insulin
what is the activity of T3 compared to T4?
T3 binds to nuclear receptors with 10 fold affinity compared to T4
what is issue with long term use of benzos?
can lead to tolerance and dependence espeically when used for sleep aid
how do you tell primary herpes from other oral ulceration disease?
primary herpes always presents with inflamed markedly red and often swollen gingiva. with hemorrhage not always generalized but always present
1. Describe the sources of anabolic/androgenic hormones.
a. In males the androgens are synthesized in the testes and adrenal cortex.
b. In females the androgens are synthesized in the ovaries and adrenal cortex.
what are the atypical antipsychotics
clozapine
Olanzipine
Risperidone
Quetaipine
Ziprasidone
Aripiprazole
what is the structure of FSH and LH?
they are alphabeta dimers

the alpha units is common to hCG, TSH, FSH, and LH

the beta subunit confers biological specificyt
what is important about 5'deiodinase activity that takes place in the thyroid gland as oppposed to the periphery?
This 5'deiodinase is not targetable by PTU.
what is the classic prototypic tricyclic?
imipramine
what is a spindle cell?
rod shaped long axis twice as great as short acess
what is cholecalciferol?
form of vitamin D
what does lactotrophs produces?
prolactin
what are the main treatment of acute gouty attack?
NSAIDs
corticosteroids
what is the pathology of rheumatoid arthiris?
systemic autoimmune process causing sever chronic synovitis leadin gto destruction adn ankylosis of affected joints

can be caused by initial infection
what are the immediate complications that arise in acute pancreatitis?
shock
ARDS
acute renal failure
DIC,
pleural effusion
jaudince
hypcalcemia/hypomagnesemia
acidosis(lactic and diabetic ketoacidiosis)
what are the uses of synthetic adrenocorticosteroids?
replacement therapy in primary deficiencies and gentic enzyem deficieencies

anti-inflammatory-cortisol(glucocorticoid)

immunosuppressive therapy- cortisol, used mainly in allergies and asthma

diagnostic purposes
what is needed before diagnosis of gouty arthritis can be made?
gout may be suspected but cannot be proved without uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid or phagocytized by WBCs
what is the structure of insulin?
dipeptide linked together by two disulfide bonds
what does T3 (and T4) bind to in the target tissue?
binds to a multiprotiene hormone receptor complex that binds thyroid homrone response elements(TREs) in target genes
what is the key way to treate acute toxicity with benzos?
flumazenil works rapidly to block receptors that benzos target
what differentiates herpes 1 from herpes 2?
1 above the waste 2 is genital
How are anabolic steroids synthesized?
c. For synthesis of androgens from cholesterol, functioning 17-hydroxylase and 3-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase are needed (also cholesterol desmolase and 17,20-desmolase). Adrostenedione is synthesized in the adrenal cortex (zona reticularis) and converted to testosterone in the testis.
clozapine info
i. Blocks 5-HT2, D2, and alpha receptors
ii. Side effects include somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, hyperglycemia, and obesity.
iii. Lowers seizure threshold.
iv. Agranulocytosis may occur.
what are the actions of FSH?
stimulates ovarian follicular development
increases estradiol output
promotes matureation of ovum
induces LH receptors
what are the differences btw T3 and T4? in relation to acitivty and orgin?
T3 is hormonally active but T4 is probably just a prohormone that is converted into T3.

T4 comes exclusively fromt eh thryoid gland

T3 also comes from peripheral deiodination of T4

Treating anathyroidal individuals with T4 will give near normal levels of T3
what is the MOA of tricyclics?
block reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
what tumors of soft tissue do you think of when you see small round cells that are the size of lymphocytes with little cytoplasm(small blue cells)
rhabdomyosarcoma, primitive neuroectodermal tumor(pnet)
what is doxercalciferol?
Doxercalciferol (trade name Hectorol) is drug for secondary hyperparathyroidism and metabolic bone disease.[1] It is a synthetic analog of ergocalciferol (vitamin D2). It suppresses parathyroid synthesis and secretion.[2]
what does corticotrophs produce?
adrenocotiocotrophic homrone(ACTH_
what is the frontline treatment for chronic gout?
allopurinol
what is presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?
joints are red, painful, warm, and over time less mobile
what are the long term complications of acute pancreatitis?
pancreatic abscess
pancreatic pseudocyst
duodenal obstruction
hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia
chonic pancreatitis 75% progress if reccurrent.
what are the effects of prednisolone?
4x the activity or glucocoticoid
with only .5 the effect of mineral corticoid.
are urate crystals always present in synovial fluid in gout?
Examination of the synovial fluid under polarized light may not always reveal uric acid crystals in gout. The crystals may be sparse, or they may be deposited in soft tissue, and not present in the fluid at time of examination.
what are the parts of the insulin receptor?
and what doe they do?
2alpha subunnits- act as actual receptor for insulin

2 beta subunits- these are tyrosine kinases that span the membrane and autophosphoralate in response to alpha subunit binding insulin they also phosphorylate insulin receptor substrate proteins(IRS)
what is the effect of TREs?
when activated they bind to target genes and upregulate transcription
what are the benzodiazepine like drugs?
drugs with similar effects but slightly different structure

zolipidem

zaleplon

eszoplicone
what is important about the contgiousness of primary herpes(gingivostomatitis) infection?
extremely contagious AND no antibodies present so it is common for patient to spread disease to themselves in other location.

like the eye and this is the most common cause of infection induced blindness

SO DON'T TOUCH THE SORES YOURSELF OR OTHERS
what regulates secreation of androgens?
d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus and causes release of leutenizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone from the pituitary. LH and FSH work on the testis to stimulate testosterone production and spermatogenesis. Testosterone gives negative feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary to suppress GnRH and LH/FSH secretion, respectively.
olanzipine info
i. Blocks several 5-HT receptors, D2 receptors, and alpha receptors
ii. Side effects include somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, hyperglycemia, and obesity.
what are the actions of LH?
supports corpus luteal function
midcycle surge of LH leads to ovulation
what is the difference in distribution of T4 as opposed to T3?
T4 is limited to plasma while T3 can distribute to entire body water.
what is the half-life and dosing of most tricyclics?
long half life 24-36 hours

usually only given once a day
what are epithelioid cells?
polyhedral with abundant cytoplasm, nucleus is centrally located
what is ergocalciferol?
Ergocalciferol is a form of vitamin D, also called vitamin D2
what does thrytophs produce?
TSH
what is the pathology of gout?
Hyperuricemia can be caused by either under-excretion of uric acid by the kidney or overproduction of uric acid.
b. Urate crystals deposited in a joint are phagocytosed by synoviocytes, which then secrete inflammatory mediators, which attract and activate PMNs and MNPs.
what is a pannus formation?
mass of synovium and stroma with marked inflammation

after destroying cartilage, bridge of fibrous tissue forms btw bones, leain to immobility of joint(ankylosis)

seen in RA
what are lab findings in acute pancreatitis?
serum and urine amylase elavated early(55-60kD)

serum lipase elvated later 72-96 hours nor in urine only serum

hypcalcemia

elvated WBC neutrophils

radiogrphic left sided pleural effusion, sentinel loop
what is the key difference btw prednisolone and cortisol?
presence of a extra double bond
what can be done if there is suspician of gout but no crystals seen in fluid?
Examination of stained sediment in which white blood cells are concentrated, under polarized light can increase the sensitivity of the test.
what are the actions of the IRS proteins?
IRS proteins activate phosphotidylinositol 3 kinase pathway and the MAP kinase pathway.
what are the metabolic effects of thyroid hormone?
upreg of carbs and lipid catabolism

stim of protein synthesis

net effect increases basal metabolic rate
what is use of zolpidem
is ambien
used as sedative-hypnotic
short term managment of insomnia
where do herpes virus stay when latent?
tirgeminal ganglion
2. Define the roles of LH and FSH on gonadal function. Define the importance of androgens for sexual differentiation and puberty.
a. Prior to puberty testosterone levels are low. At puberty, LH secretion increases and stimulates testosterone production in the testes (Leydig cells produce testosterone). Testosterone is required for spermatogenesis.
b. Follicle stimulating hormone binds to Sertoli cell receptors in the testes and stimulates spermatogenesis. Once this occurs, spermatogenesis can be maintained by adequate levels of testosterone.
c. In addition to the increase in testosterone that occurs at puberty, there are surges of testosterone during certain periods of gestation and infancy. The first surges of testosterone are important for development of primary sex characteristics (reproductive organs). The second surge during puberty induces the development of secondary sex characteristics (masculinization).
risperidone info
i. Blocks 5-HT and D2 receptors. Also blocks alpha-1, alpha-2, and H1 receptors with lower affinity.
ii. Sedation
iii. Dose-related hypotension/reflex tachycardia
iv. Hyperglycemia, obesity
v. May prolong QT interval with possibility of arrhythmias
what does ovary secrete ?
estrogen
progesterone
androgens
what are the half lifes of T3 and T4?
T3- 1-2 days

T4- 6-7 days
what is difficult about dosing any drug in depression?
everyone is different in the quality of their symptoms and the way they respond to them so you always have to start low and slowly work your way up
what type of soft tissue tumors have epithelioid cells?
smooth muscle, schwann cell endothelial, epithelioid sarcoma
what is teriparatide?
Teriparatide (Forteo, also available in generic form[1]) is a recombinant form of parathyroid hormone, used in the treatment of some forms of osteoporosis
what do gnoadotrophs produce?
FSH and LH
what is acute gouty arthritis?
c. Acute gouty arthritis refers to an acute attack with pain, swelling, and redness of a joint.
what is a test of RA?
rheumatoid factor
what is the triad of sypmtoms for chonic pancreatitis?
pseudocyst/calcifications, steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus
what is the activity of cortisol?
1x activity as a glucocorticoid
1x activity as a mineral corticoid
what is a possible kidney issue that can result of gout?
uric acid kidney stones. Urine is normally slightly acidic; possibly slightly more acidic in this diabetic patient increasing the chances of uric acid stone formation.
what is the overall function of the map kinase pathway?
promotes cell growth and differentiation
what is thyroid hormone effects on brain?
critical role in brain development absence fo thryoid hormone during fetal/neonatal development = profound intellectual stunting
what is use of zaleplon?
new class of hypnotics callled the pyrazolpryrimidines
short term managment of insomnia
prolonged use does not appear to cause tolerance
what is secondary intraoral herpes?
occurs less common than the cold sore type, similar presenation, but in the oral mucosa.
periodic crops of vesicles ulcers
androgens have what two effects?
a. Androgens have anabolic and androgenic effects. The androgen effects include the production of masculine characteristics. The anabolic effects include overall body growth, including increased protein synthesis and decreased protein breakdown.
Quetiapine info
i. Blocks DA, 5-HT, and H1 receptors
ii. Toxicity: marked somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, hyperglycemia, and obesity.
what are three parts of the ovary that secrete and what do they secrete?
follicle-estrogen

corpus lueteum-estrogen/progesterone

stroma secretes androstenedione/testosterone
what are the two indirect mechanisms of modulating T3/4 activity
affecting binding proteins

inhibiting 5'deiodinatino of iodothryonines
what is blocked by tricyclics to prevent NE and serotonin reuptake?
transmitter pumps located in the presynaptic nerve terminal that actively uptake after release.
what is odd about epitlioid sarcoma?
they metastasize to the lymphnodes. most sarcoma don't.
what is MOA of teriparatide?
Teriparatide is a portion of human parathyroid hormone (PTH), amino acid sequence 1 through 34, of the complete molecule (containing 84 amino acids). Endogenous PTH is the primary regulator of calcium and phosphate metabolism in bone and kidney. PTH increases serum calcium, partially accomplishing this by increasing bone resorption. Thus, chronically elevated PTH will deplete bone stores. However, intermittent exposure to PTH will activate osteoblasts more than osteoclasts. Thus, once-daily injections of teriparatide have a net effect of stimulating new bone formation leading to increased bone mineral density.
how does immunohistochem work?
if you use a stain for something the cells containing that substance will light up on the slide. this can be used to visualize the different cell populations in the ant. pit.
what is chronic tophaceous gout?
d. Chronic tophaceous gout refers to chronic deposition of monosodium urate in subcutaneous tissue, joints, cartilage, and renal parenchyma. Nodular masses (tophi) are deposited throughout the body.
what is rheumatoid factor?
IgM antibody against Fc portion of patients own IgG circulatinog complexes of IgM/IgG contribute to process but is not he sole factor in causatino
what are the causes of chronic pancreatitis?
recurrent acute pancreatitis usually causesd by alcohol abuse or duct obstuction
what is the activity of 9 alpha fluorocotisol?
10x GCC
125x MCC
what increases risk of a patient getting uric acid kidney stones from grout?
diabetes
what are the two enzymes phosphorylated by PI3Kinasae? and what are their functions?
AKt-glucose/protein metabolism

PKClambda- lipid synthesis
what is thryoid effect on bone?
thyroid also produces calcitonin via the parafollicular cells(c cells)

promotes absorption of calcium by skeletal system

inhibits resorption of bone by osteoclasts
what is use of eszopiclone?
lunesta
is the S-isomer of zopixlone
used for insomnia
no limitation on how long it can be used.
where is the main site of secondary intraoral herpes and almost diagnostic?
gingvia/hard palate
what is relation of testosterone to DHT?
b. In most tissues, testosterone serves as a prohormone. Many tissues contain 5-reductase, which catalyzes the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). The cytosolic androgen receptor exhibits a higher affinity for DHT than testosterone, and the DHT-receptor complex is more readily transported to the nucleus than the T-receptor complex

c. In the hypothalamus and pituitary, testosterone is the active steroid and is responsible for feedback inhibition.
ziprasidone info
i. Blocks D2, 5-HT2, and alpha receptors
ii. Toxicity
1. Somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, hyperglycemia, obesity
2. May prolong QT interval. There is a risk of sudden death, so the use of this drug is restricted to patients who fail other drugs.
what are the feed back relationships of the female hormones?
all products feedback to inhibit the pituitary and hypothalmus

BUT at midcycle there is a LH surge even in the presence of high estradiol levels, this leads to ovulation
what are the T3/4 binding protiens/
TBG-thyroxine binding globulin, binds t3 and 4

TBPA- thyroxine binding prealbumin binds T4 only

albumin- binds just about everything including T3 and T4.
what are some of the secondary uses of tricyclics?
bipolar
neuropathic pain
chronic insomnia
adhd
panic disorder
OCD
how are sarcomas grades?
0-3 scale
resemblance to normal tissue- exact-1, identifiable-2, none-3

necrosis, none-0, <50%-1, >50%-2

mitosis/10hpf, <10-1, 10-20=2, >20-3
what is Denosumab?
monoclonal antibody used to treat osteoporosis by targeting RANKL
what is produced in the neurohypophysis?
ADH (vasopressin)
Oxytocin
how is uric acid handled by the kidney?
b. Uric acid is freely filtered at the glomerulus. It also both reabsorbed and secreted in the middle segment (S2) of the proximal tubule. Reaborption is predominantly by the organic anion transporter family URAT-1. Net uric acid excreted is ~10% of what is filtered, meaning that most is reabsorbed.
what is CCP
anticyclic citrullinated peptide
what is the differentail of causes of chronic pancreatitis?
trauma
autoimmune(sjogrens syndrome)
cystic fiborsis
idiopathic
pancreas divisum
hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia
drugs
tropical pancreatitis
hereditary(AD)
what is the activity of dexamethasone?
30x GCC
0X MCC
how is a diagnosis of gout made?
Serum uric acid is the classical test for gout, but it has poor specificity and sensitivity.
90% with hyper-UA do not have gout (PV+ = 10%)
Serum UA may be normal at the time of an acute attack
Identification of monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid, especially if present within phagocytes, has the highest probability for the diagnosis of gout.
Gout may mimic septic arthritis & vice versa.
Arthrocentesis with adequate fluid for crystal analysis and culture is crucial to the diagnosis.
what is the main mechanism of insulin action in liver/fat/muscle?
insulin binds insulin receptor
insulin receptor stimulates IRS
IRS stimulates PI3 Kinase
PI3 kinase stims Akt
Akt phosphoylates vessicles containing GLUT4 glucose channels
those vessicle insert the GLUT4 into the plasma membrane and increase uptake of glucose.
what is throtoxicosis?
hypermetabolic state brought on by hyperthyroidism
what are the melatonin agonist?
Ramelteon
new hypnotic non benzo
activation of melatonin receptros
approved for chronic insomnia due to difficulty with sleep onset

no real side effects and it seems to work very well.
what is herpetic widlow?
herpes that occurs by touching herpetic ulcer on fingers
what are the causes of primary hypogonadisM
b. Primary causes include genetic/chromosomal causes (i.e. Klinefelters syndrome) and direct damage to Leydig cells or seminiferous tubules.
aripiprazole inof
i. Complex, unique mechanism that is thought to involve mixed agonist and antagonist activities at the D2 and 5-HT receptor subtypes.
ii. Toxicity
1. Somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, hyperglycemia, obesity
2. Weight gain may be less than other atypicals
what are the effects of estrogen?
growth development and maintence of primary and secondary sex characteristic

proliferation of the endometrium

increase uterine and tubal motility

watery cervical secretions

suppression of FSH

***************below are the pertinent side effects that estrogens cause medically

Na and water retention

increased in clotting factors(eps,. if orally given)

lipid alterations decreased LDL increased HDL decreased cholesterol
what is the effect of decreased levels of TBG?
relative hyperthyroidism bc there will be an increase in the amount of free T3/4.
what is the main benificial effect in the secondary uses of tricyclics
sedation helps all of them
what is score of grade I sarcoma?
2-3
what is Rikets?
bone softening diseases in children often due to deficiency or imparired metabolism of vitamin D, magnesium, phsoporus, or calcium.
what is the usual cause of hyperpituitarism?
excess sectrtion usually by an adenoma
what transporter is reponsible for reabsorption of uric acid?
organic anion transporter family URAT-1
what is the best indicator for RA?
postiive test of both anti-CCP and rheumatoid factor

presence of only anti-CCP may indicate early RA

rheumatoid factor alone is not really specific for RA, but can be useful if clear history is suggestive
what is seen on histo with chronic pancreatitis?
sparing of islets
dilated ducts
fibrosis and atrophy
inspissated concretions within dilated ducts
what is the difference in structure of 9alpha flurorocotisol from cortisol?
presence of a florine
what is metabolized to form uric acid?
purines
What is the difference in metabolism of endogenous insulin vs injected insulin?
endogenous insulin secreted into portal cirulation with about 50% destroyed in first pass through the liver before even reaching the majority of tissue. Only 30% is metaabilized by the kidney

injected insulin does not pass through the liver first and as such the kidney plays a much larger role metabolizing 60% of injected insulin.
what are the causes of primary hyperthyroidism?
diffuse gland hyperplasia related to graves disease
hyperfunctional multinodular goiter
hyperfunctional adenoma
what are the three classes of barbiturates?
ultrashortacting(thiopental)

short acting(secobarbital)

long acting(phenobarbital)
what is a dangerous possible complication of herpes infection in children?
herpies hepatitis and encephalopathy. can be fatal
what is the level of testerone and gonadotrpin in primary hypodandism?
testerone-low
gonadotropin - high

***************
4. List the uses of phenothiazines
i. Schizophrenia
ii. Mania, schizoaffective disorder, Tourette’s syndrome
iii. Treatment of agitation and other symptoms of dementia
iv. Anti-emetic
what is the dominant control fo estrogen?
everything is set up for fertilization
what is the effect of Propylthiouracil(PTU)?
inhibits peripheral 5'deiodinase
What are the adverse effects of tricyclics?
orthostatics hypotension
anticholinergic effects
Diaphoresis(sweating) seen in low dose
sedation
cardiac tox
seizures
hypomania
yawngasm
what is score of grade II sarcoma?
4-5
what is the cause of hypopituitarism?
hormone defcit usually bc of destructive proccess like ischemia, surgery, radiation, inflammation
what are the extrea articular manifestations of hyperuricemia?
i. Gouty nephropathy
ii. Obstructive nephropathy: acute intratubular crystal deposition leading to acute renal failure.
iii. Nephrolithiasis: kidney stones
what are some systemic findings in RA?
Rheumatoid nodules
vasculitis-of the medium and small arteries
what is the presentation of chonic pancreatitis?
abdominal pain
nausea vomiting
weight loss/malabsorption
hyperglycemia
jaundice
fever and elvated amylase
steatoreahea
what is the difference btw dexamethasone and cortisol structurally?
presence of florine and a extra double bond.and an extra methly group
what can raise uric acid levels other than gout?
tumor lysis
kidney failure
ingestion of high protein diet
What is the half life of endogenous insulin?
5mins
what is the most common cause of primary hyperthyroidism?
graves disease 85%
what is the MOA of barbiturates?
binds to the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex
what is caversy varicellaform eruption? and what is its cause?
herpies type 1 in a patient with a concurrent skin disease like pemphigus or excema. the herpes virus goes crazy and cause small pox like eruptions that can be fatal.
what is used to treat primary hypogonadism?
enanthate or cypionate
4. List the uses of buterophenones(haloperidol)
i. Schizophrenia
ii. Mania, schizoaffective disorder, Tourette’s syndrome
what are the effects of progestins?
develop of secretory endometrium
viscous, low volume cervical secretions
decreased uterine motility
thermogenic effect(1degree F increase)
suppression of LH release
What is the effect of propranolol on thyroid hormone?
inhibits 5'deiodination

secondary benifit when used to treat thyroid storm.

primary use is to treat the hypertension and tachycardia.
what are the drug interaction with tricyclics?
MAOIs-increased effects
direct aciting sympathomimetics-additive
indirect-acting sympathomimetics-additive
anticholinergic agents-additive
CNS depressants- this can lead to respiratory depression
what is score of grade III sarcoma?
6-8
what are the mass effects of a pituitary tumor?
visual feild deficit(bilarteral temporal anopsia)

elevated intracranial pressure

pituitary apoplexy(massive hemmorhage at the gland)
what are the causes of under excretion of uric acid?
i. Drug induced hyperuricemia: diuretics (most common), aspirin (dual effect), ethambutal, L-dopa, cyclosporine, alcohol, nicotine
ii. Miscellaneous medical disorders: uncontrolled diabetes
what are the characteristics of the rheumatoid nodules?
usually cutaneous, can occur in viscera.

central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by histiocytes and chronic inflammatory cells

often develop in area of trauma, often seen on back if you sleep on ur back
what is the calceum condition in chonic compared to acute pancreatitis?
chonic is hypercalcemia-
acute is hypocalcemia-because of suponification of lipids that release free FA that bind calcium and magnesium
what are the three classes of cortisol derived drugs?
cortisol like mixed function

delta double bond derivatives

6 and 9 alpha fluorinated/ 16 alpha or beta substituted prenisolones
what are the normal serum values for uric acid?
6 mg/dL in women & 7 mg/dL in men.
As levels increase over 8 mg/dL monosodium urate is more likely to precipitate in tissues.
what are the main tissues whose glucose uptake is insulin dependent/
fat, liver, muscle

brain can take up glucose just fine withou any insulin
what are the causes of secondary hyperthyroidism?
pituitary adenoma
exogenous thyroid hormone intake
inflammatory conditions
what are the effects of barbiturates?
same as benzos but more severe
CNS depression
cardivascular effects
induction of hepatic drug metabolizng enzymes

tolerance to most CNS effects overtime but no toleracne to respiratory depression
physical dependence
what is the intranuclear inclusion in herpies type 1 called?
lipshit bodies
what are enanthate and cypionate?
long acting testoserone esters
what occurs under dominent progesterone effects?
condition in the feamle reproductive tract are optimzed for implantation
what are the drugs that can inhibit 5'deiodinase?
Propylthiouracil(PTU)

iodinated contrast media(iopanioc acid)

Amiodarone(antiarrhythmic agent)

propranolol

pharmacologic doses of glucocorticoids
what is the toxicity of tricyclic
primary from anticholinergic and cardiotoxic actions

dysrhythmias
tachycardia
intraventricular blocks
complete atrioventreicular block
ventricular tachycardia
V-fib
what immunohistochemistry should be done if spindle cells found and why?
keratins-rule out spindle cell sarcoma

melanin, hb45- rule out melanoma

s-100- neural, schwannoma

smooth muscle actin- smooth muscle

desmin-smooth muscle

cb34,31- vascular
what are the two catagories of adenomas of the pituitary?
functional
nonfunctional
what are the causes of overproduction of uric acid?
i. Increased rate or purine synthesis due to an enzyme defect: decreased HGPRT or increased PRPP synthetase
ii. Increased rate of cellular turnover: myeloproliferative and lymphoproliferative disorders or cancer chemotherapy.
what is the characteristic RA joint?
radial deviation of wrists and ulnar deviation of fingers

articular erosions, subchondral cysts, osteoporosis, and fibrous ankylosis are results of inflammation.
what are the cysts of the pancreas?
psuedocysts
congenital cysts(polycystsic kidney disease)
cystic neoplasm(<5%)
what are the cortisol like mixed function drugs?
9 alpha flurocortisol
cortisone
corticosterone
11-deoxycorticosterone
aldosterone
cortisol
what protects women from gout?
Men have higher serum uric acid levels than women and estrogen protects women (until menopause)
why are type 1 DM patients skinny with low muscle mass?
one of the effects of Insulin is protien synthesis. so no insulin = no protein and muscle building
what is thyroid storm?
abutp onset severe hyperthyroidism
how do barbiturates stimulate P450s?
stimulate prodcution of porphrin which leads to heme and stims cytochrome P450
what is the cause of hand foot and mouth disease?
coxsackie virus
c. Secondary testicular failure is due to ?
lack of gonadotropins. This again may be a genetic abnormality (i.e. Prader-Willi syndrome) or may be due to hypopituitarism or decreased hypothalamus release of GnRH.
what are the phases of ovulatory cycle?
follicular phase-development
ovulation
leuteal phase-corpus leuteum
what is myxedema?
hypothyroidism
what are the treatments for tricylic tox
gastric lavage(rare)
ingestion of activated charcoal(only if not in intestines yet)

physostigimine

propanolol, lidocaine, or phenytoin-block the arythmic effects
what soft tissue tumors arise from fat cells?
lipoma(most common)

liposarcoma
what is typical about functional adenomas of the pituitary?
they produce only one hormone. usually but can produce more
what is the MOA of colchicine?
i. Mechanism: binds intracellular protein tubulin, preventing its polymerization into microtubules. This inhibits migration of leukocytes and phagocytosis, and inhibits the formation of leukotriene B4.
what is the histology of rheumatoid nodules?
fibrinoid necrosis and peripheral palisading of histiocytes
what are the cystic neoplasms?
serious cystadeoma-benign
muscinous cysademona
muscinous cystadenomcarcioma
solid-pseudoppallillary neoplasm(young female, benign)
what are the main functions of the cortisol like mixed function drugs?
all of them have either both GCC and MCC activity at equal or near equal levels or they are mainly MCC activity
what are the primary causes of overproduction of uric acid?
Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl-transferase deficiency
Primary idiopathic hyperuricemia (increased production & decreased excretion)
what are the hormones produced by adipose?
leptin-stims satiety

adiponectin- enhances insulin response

TNF-alpha- stimulates inflammation which promotes insulin resistance
what are the cardiac features of hyperthyroidism?
earliest and most consiten features
increased cardiac output b/c of increased contractility and peripheral oxygen needs
tachycardia, palpitation, cardiomegaly, arrhythmias
what are pharickinetics of barbiturates?
lipid solubilty high will cross BBB, placental and into breast milk

rapid onset brief druation
who commonly get coxsackie virus infection?
children to young adults
in secondary hypogonadism what will testerone and gonadotropin levels be?
test-low
gonad-low

*******
what phase produces the greates variablity in length that can make a cycle more irregular?
follicular phase
what are the causes of myxedema?
congential defect of thyroid
iodine deficiency
chronic autoimmune(hashimotos) thyroiditis
postablative

panhypopitutarism(secondary hypothyroidism)

hypothalmic problems(tertiary hypothyroidism)
what is important with dosing tricyclics?
takes weeks to months for onset start low and go slow give each amount a long time before assessing its function
what soft tissue tumors arise from fibrocytes?
reactive pseudosarcomatous proliferations(nodular pasciitis, myositis ossificans)

fibromatoses

fibrosarcoma
what is typical about the nonfunctional pituitary adenomas?
they do not produce hormone/hormones dont get released/homrones produced are not functional

can destroy surrrounding tissue leading to hypopituitarism.
what are the toxic effects of colchicine?
abdominal discomfort, nausea, and diarrhea
what areas often are sites of rheumatoid nodules?
usually aries in the skin of the ulnar area, elbows, occiput, and lumbosacral area. Soft tiusse locations include the lungs, spleen, pericardium, myocardium, heart valves, aorta
what it the most common cause of chronic pancriatitis in children?
cystic fibrosis
which of the mixed function drugs are mainly MCC function?
aldosterone
11-deoxycorticosterone
corticosterone
9 alpha flurocotisol
what are the causes of secondary hyperuricemia by over production?
Proliferative disease; incr. tissue turnover; rhabdomyolysis, tumor lysis
what percent of pregnancies develope gestational diabetes?
4%
what are the ocular effects of hyperthryoidism
wide staring gaze with lid lag
graves Ds with exopthalmos
what is barbiturates used in?
seizure disorders
induction of anesthesia
insomnia
what is the presentation seen in hand foot and mouth disease?
Acute outbreak of vesicles and ulcers throughout mouth accompanied by viral constitutional symptoms and cervical adenopathy and concomitant lesions on hands, feet and buttocks. Resolves and does not recur.
how is secondary hypogonadism treated?
ii. Treatment should include treating the underlying cause of the hypogonadism if possible. Gonadotropins have been used, and adrogens are not added until the time of normal puberty. You want to slowly increase to mimic the normal surge of testosterone
what hormone sustains the corpus leuteum? and what is the relations btw them?
LH sustains corpus

coprus release progesterone

progesterone inhibits LH

loss of LH cause death of corpus
what are neonatal symtoms of hypothyroidism?
cretinism
usually presents firist month after birth
manifests as jaundice, constipation, somnolence, and feeding problems

this can be hard to differentiate from normal behavior and since this can lead to major developmental concerns all infants are screened for T4 and or TSH levels
what is used to determine what type of tricyclic you use?
there are 9 equally effective ones selection is based on side effects.
what arises from fibrohistiocytes
dermatofibroma
what is a genetic compentent with pituitary adenoma of somatotroph cells
mutation of gene encoding the alpha subunit of the Gs
what is the main use of colchicine?
acute gouty arthritis
what is the diagnostic presentation of RA?
morning stiffness
arthritis in three or more joints areas
arthritis of hand joints
symmetric arthritis
rheumatoid nodules
serum rheumatoid factor
typical radiographic changes(osteoporosis/subchondral cyst)

any four of the above
what is cystic fibrosis?
inhertied epithelial transport disorder
abnormal fluid secretion in exocrine glands, sweat, pancreatic respriatory tract, GI, and reproductive
extremely thick secretions
abnomral clearance and obstuctions
what are the delta double bond derative drugs?
prenisolone
prednisone
6 alpha methylprednisolone.
what are the causes of secondary hyperuricemia by decreased excretion?
Renal insufficiency
Diabetes mellitus (ketoacidosis)
Lactic acidosis
Lead intoxication
Drugs - salicylates, diuretics, alcohol
Many more
what is the drug of choice for treatment of gestastional diabetes?
insulin
what are the neuromuscular effects of hyperthyroidsm/
overactive sympthaetic nervous system
-tremors, hyperactivity, emotinoal lability, anxiety, inability to focus, insomnia
adverse effects of barbiturates
Resp. depre.
suicide
abuse
use in pregnancy bad
excerabation of intermittent prphyria
hangover
paradocial excitement
hyperalgesia
what characteristics of coxsackie differentiate it from herpies infections?
lacks gingivitis, has digital lesions, does not recur.
i. Symptoms of high androgen levels (exogenous or endogenous) include:
1. Virilizing effects in adolescent males and females – acne, hirsuitism, male pattern baldness, coarsening of the voice
2. Inhibition of spermatogenesis
3. Feminizing effects because testosterone is converted to an estrogen by aromatase enzymes in peripheral tissues.
4. Hepatic abnormalities – cholestatic hepatitis, hepatic adenocarcinoma
5. Changes in lipoprotein profiles (decrease HDL, increase LDL)
6. Increase in aggressive behavior (roid rage) can cause psychotic symptoms
what occurs after menses?
progesterone is low, and estrogen is low as well as LH and FSH low.

all these are low so there is no feedback inhibition on pituitary. so it starts to amp back up its production and starts cycle over again.
what are the young child symptoms of hypothyriodism?
protruding tongue
broad flat nose, wide set eyes
dry skin, coarse hair
imparied mental development
retarded bone growth/dentition
enlarged gland
what is the most commonly prescribed antidepressant
SSRIs
what arises from myocites
skeletal-rhabdomysoarcoma

smooth- leiomyomas, leiomyosaromas
what is the cut off for microadenoma and macroadenoma?
microadenoma-less than 1cm
macroadenoma ->than 1cm
Is colchicine widely used for gout anymore?
iv. Because of the toxic effects, treatment of gout is largely switching to NSAIDs.
what is a good radiographic finding that helps differentiate RA from lupus?
bone erosion is found in RA but not in lupus
what is the presentation of cystic fibrosis?
recurrent pulmonary infections
bronchiectasiss
pancreatic insufficiency
steatorrhea/malnutrition
hepatic cirrhosis,
intestinal obsturction
male infertility
what is the main action of the delta double bond derivative drugs?
all have 4 to 5 x GCC activity with only 0.5 to 0.8x MCC activity
what are the two major conditions causes by hyperuricemia?
acute gouty arthirtis
gouty nephropathy
what complication of DM is not really controlled by good glucose control?
cardiovascular -atherosclerosis
infarcts and strokes
heart failure
periperal vascular disease

these are the leading cause of death in DM
what are the skin effects of hypethyroid?
vasodilated warm flushed moist trying to rid heat

graves disease with inlfitrative dermopathy
what are the symptoms of barbiturate overdose?
resp. dep.
coma
pinpoint pupils
what is herpangina?
coxsakie viral infection that presents with acute fever with small vesicles and ulcers, but is limited to the SOFT PALATE and PHARYNX as oppesed to hard palate and gingiva as in herpes.
ii. Some situations in which suppression of androgens would be favorable include
1. Male pattern baldness
2. Virilizing syndromes in women (i.e. hirsutism)
3. Acne
4. Hyperplasia and carcinoma of the prostate
5. Male contraception
how must you take temp to check for ovulation?
very carefully dont even get out of bed little movement at all can lead to increased temp. use of special thermometer
what is the presentation of hypothyroidism in older children?
retardation of linear growth
delayed puberty
poor school performance
what are the manifestation of hypothyroidism in adults?
fatigue, lethargy, constipation
slowing of the central and muscular activity
decreased appetite, increased weight
deeper, hoarse voice
severe myxedema-doughy cool skin, enlarged heart, can lead to coma
what is the comparison btw SSRIs and tricyclics(TCAs)
as effecive as TCAs but do not cause hypotension, sedatino or anticholinergic effects, and does not cause cardiac tox
what arise from perisynovial cells
synovial sarcoma
what is the typical appearance of pituitary adenoma on histo?
a homogenous appearance of one cell type

atypial, hemorrhage, and necrosis may be present but dont imply malignancy

decreased reticulin network(black outlines) now only seen around vessels

normal pituitary histo is very diverse with different colors and glands this is not its all homogenous
what are the NSAIDs usually used in gout?
indomethacin
naproxen
sulindac
what are some differences btw juvenile onst RA and normal RA?
occurs before age 16,
larger joints
absent rheumatoid nodules and factor, commonly positive ANA(antinuclear antibody)
what is the prognsosis of CF?
most common lethal genetics disease affecting the caucasion populations
what are the 6 and 9 alpha flouirinated, 16 alpha beta substited prednisolones drugs?
paramethasone
triamcinolone
dexamethasone
betamethasone
What is the significance of finding inflammatory cells in the joint fluid?
Quantitation of white blood cells is an important part of synovial fluid analysis, especially because it is the major basis for classification of an effusion as septic, inflammatory, or noninflammatory
what complications of DM are reduced with good glucose control?
blindness/retinopathy
neuropathy
renal failure
what are the GI effects of hyperthyroidism?
hypermotility, malabsoprtion, diarrhea
how do you treat barbiturate overdose?
removal from the body
maintain adequate O2 supply to brain
does coxsackie have cytologic inclusions?
no
iii. Hypergonadism can be treated by
androgen suppression, inhibitors of androgen synthesis, 5-reductase inhibitors, and androgen receptor antagonists.
what is an important enzyme in synthesis of estrogen?
all estrogens are synthesyzed from an androgen by the action of aromatase.
what are expected T4 and freeT4 values seen in differnt hypothyroid conditions?
T4 and FT4I are low in all conditions that induce hypothyroidism.
what is the risk with overdose of SSRIs?
death by overdose is extremely rare
what is the most common adult soft tissue tumor?
lipomas
what type of adenoma usually gets big?
nonfunctioning
what is the MOA NSAIDs for gout?
i. Mechanism: inhibits PG synthesis, inhibits urate crystal phagocytosis
what is felty syndrome?
RA with splenomegaly, and neutropenia due to sequesters neutrophils in the spleen
what is the genetics behind CF?
AR
chromosome 7
CFTR gene-cholorid channel
500 to 600 different mutations
clinical testing for most common 70
most common mutation is F508
what is the activity of the 6 and 9 alphal flurinated 16 alpha beta substied predinolones?
all have 5-25x GCC with 0x MCC
Does the history of diabetes and hypertension in this obese patient help in the diagnostic work-up?
Obesity, diabetes, and hypertension increase the risk factors for many disease.
Increased weight can contribute to arthritis
Acidosis and progressive renal disease in diabetics can contribute to under excretion of uric acid.
Hyperuricemia is also associated with the use of diuretics, especially thiazides, which are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension.
what are the treatment goals in DM short term and long term?
short term-
relieve hyperglycemia
overcome acute ketoacidosis

long term-
aim to decrease complications with good blood glucose control.

limited most by pt. compliance, requires multiple daily injetions and frequient finger sticking


limited by risk of hypglycemia
what are the skeletal effects of hyperthyroidism?
osteoporosis
what are teh misc. sedative-hypnotics?
nonselective CNS depressants
actions much like those of barbiturates
acute overdose resembles poinsing with barbiturates
avoid use during preg/lact

chloral hydrate

meprobamate

paraldehyde
what is varicella zoster or shingles?
secondary infection of varicella, with primary disease being chicken pox. shingles appear after immunity is weakened due to stress or another disease.
c. The effects of androgens on increasing muscle mass is controversial. ?
i. They are effective when used to counter muscle wasting due to various causes, such as muscle wasting due to anti-inflammatory steroid use. They induce a positive nitrogen balance in hypogonadal individuals.
ii. Use by athletes with normal gonadal function has not been proven to reliably increase muscle mass. There is often an increase in muscle mass seen in these individuals, but this may be due to increased aggressiveness leading to a greater training limit, rather than the steroids actually causing more muscle to form.
iii. Increased muscle mass is seen in well-trained athletes who use these, but not in a normal male.
iv. There may be a more beneficial effect in females
v. Double-blind studies have yielded both positive and negative results regarding use of androgens to increase muscle mass.
what are the sites of estrogen production?
ovary primary source
adrenal secondary source-this is where men and postmenopausal women get estrogen from) they are secreted as androgen and converted peripherally to estrogen
what is T3 and FT3I levels in hypothyroid conditions?
in most cases it will be low, but it can be normal if T4 deiodination is able to compensate in this case T4 will be low and T3 will be normal pt still considered hypothyroidic even though they will be asymptomatic.
what is the most widely prescribed SSRI in the world?
fluxetine
what is prognosis of lipomas?
cured by simple excision benign
what is another cause of hyperprolactin other than an adenoma?
stalkeffect/lactotroph hyperplasia,
what are the uricosuric agents?
probenecid

sulfinpyrazone
what is RA associated with?
ulcerative colitis
Sjogren syndrome(autoimmune disorder in which the glands that produce tears and saliva are destroyed, causing dry mouth and dry eyes)
what are some deficiencies found in CF patients?
vit. a, d e, and K
what is addisons disease?
primary adrenal insufficinecy
Catabolism of Adenine & Guanine is important to study of synovial fluid why?
Uric acid is the end product of purine (adenine and guanine) metabolism
Humans don't have uricase which converts uric acid to soluble allantoin
what is the issue with tight blood glucose control?
poor glucose control leads to problems with blindness/renal/neuro stuff but it does not increase mortatlity. there is some evidcence that suggest that tight glucose control (keeping blood glucose as low as normal population) has increased risk of hypoglycemia, and as a result may actually lead to increased mortality.

This means that its possible that you don't want to have glucose control be to tight or too loose. possilby best to keep glucose as slithglty above normal population but below level that can lead to the dangerous DM complications.
what is the earlist and most constistant symptom seen in hyperthyroid?
cardiac effects
what is problem in insomnia with sleep cycles?
sometimes its a failure to get into deep sleep. the sedatives will help pts get into stage IV.
what is the common prodrome to shingles outbreak?
pain often in the flank that is so severe that simpley brushing it with clothing can cause severe burning sensation
5. Describe the rationale for the clinical uses of anabolic/androgenic hormones in: anemia
b. Androgens stimulate RBC development, both directly and indirectly. They stimulate the synthesis of erythropoietin by the kidney (indirectly increasing RBC production) and also directly stimulate elements in the bone marrow causing stem cell differentiation. Because of these effects, androgens are useful in treating various anemias.
what is the interaction of LH and FSH with the granulosa/theca cells?
LH stims theca cell to produce androstenodione(androgen)

the androgen floats over to a granulos cells which is stimulated by FSH to produces estrogen from the androgen.
what is serum TSH levels in the different forms of hypothyroidism?
TSH is high in primary hypothyroidism and usually results in a goiter

TSH will be normal or low in secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism.
what is the MOA of SSRIs?
acts on serotonin reuptake pumps to inhibit them and keep serotonin in the synapse longer

excitatory effect on CNS
what is the clinical presentation of lipomas?
1-2 cm, shallow, soft, mobile and painless mass
what is lactotroph hyperlasia
normally lactorphs want to produce tons of prolactin but that action is inhibited by dopamine released from hypothalmus if that is inhibited then lactotrophs will produce in excess
what is the MOA of the uricosuric agents?
a. Mechanism: inhibit uric acid reabsorption, decrease urate concentration, decrease body pool of urate in patients with tophaceous gout.
What is the definition of arthritis in SLE?
nonerosive arthritis which involves two or more peripheral joints, and tenderness, swelling, or effusion
what is the main cause of death in CF?
recurrent respiratory infection
treated with lung/liver/pancreas transplantation
how is addisons disease treated?
replacement therapy with cortisol

30-40mg of cortisol (2/3 given in am and 1/3 given late afternoon)

cortisol usually supplies suffiecient glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid activity but if additional MCC is needed

fludrocotisone is usually given
at what pH level are uric acid stones more likey to form?
less than 7
Which group is likley to be most in danger with tight blood glucose control?
elderly have bad reactions with hypoglycemia
what is the most useful test for hyperthyroid?
Serum TSH
will be low in primary
will be elevated in secondary
what is the classic drug used to treat anxiety?
benzodiazepines specifically Busprione
what is the presentation of shingles?
vesicular eruption followed by redness and ulceration. ALWAYS ALONG NERVE CLUSTER

usually in flank area but can aries in the head and neck along the trigeminal nerve cluster.
6. Compare the routes of administration, absorption, and relative duration of action of synthetic androgens and testosterone.
a. Testosterone is a poor drug. It exhibits a high first pass effect when given orally. When injected, it is rapidly absorbed and metabolized. It also has mixed anabolic and androgenic effects that cannot be separated out.
b. Synthetic manipulation of testosterone seeks to solve these problems.
i. Type B manipulation: 17 substitution (methyltestosterone)
ii. Type C manipulation: ring alteration (mesterolone)
iii. Type B and Type C manipulation allows drugs to be orally active. These drugs are not metabolized to testosterone proper. They can cause liver toxicity and liver cancer.
iv. Type A manipulation: 17 esterification (enanthate or cypionate)
1. This modification causes absorption of the drugs to be greatly delayed. They are injected weekly or monthly and are metabolized to testosterone proper.
v. Most preparations involve combinations of type AC or type BC changes.
how is GnRH suplemented?
can be made synthetic'
given parentally or nasally

cant take orally
What is TRH response?
TRH response is a test which measures TSH levels in response to TRH.

in primary hypothyroid TSH levels will be high in response to a dose of TRH

in secondary TSH levels will be low and flat even in response to TRH

in tertiary TSH levels will go up but only after a delayed response and will be low prior to dose. this is bc it takes some time for the pituitary to react to sudden TRH after going so long without it.
What is the main Therapeutic uses of SSRIs
main use is depression

other uses- OCD,bulimia, premenstrual dysforic disorder.
what is the histiologic finding in lipomas?
variants with fibrosis, vessels, spindle cells, pleomorphic, encapsulated with mature fat cells

often can seem to be a dangerous tumor bc its histo presentation is so irregular but its totally benign
what is stalk effect
lactroph hyperplasion caused by tumor in the suprasellar compartment that compresses the stalk and prevent dopamine from getting down to pituitary.
what are the toxic effects of the uricosuric agents?
GI irritation, hypersensitivity
what occurs in the acute phase of SLE artithritis?
neutrophils and fibrin enter the synovium, with perivascular mononuclear cell infiltrate in subsynovial tissue

termed proliferative synovitis
what is found in adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
obstructive jaundice
pain
weight loss
anorexia,
acholic stools
courvoisiers sign-dialated GB palpable in RUQ
mirgratory thrhombophlebitis

all these symptoms are seen late
what is used in addisons if cortisol alone is not providing enough MCC activity?
fludrocotisone
can uric acid stones be visualized on xray?
unlike many of the calcium-containing stones, are radiolucent.
what are the three indications for use of insulin in DM?
type 1 diabetes
type 2 DM when diet alone or oral agents fail or during periods of illness or stress
gestational diabetes
what labs will be elevated in hyperthryoidism?
TSH if secondary
Free T4 (used to confirm diagnosis)
Free T3 sometimes
increased radioactive iodine uptake
what are the good characters of buspirone?
non-CNS depressant
does not cause sedation
has no abuse potential
does not inensify the effects of CNS depressants
anxiolytic effects develop slowly
well absorbed orally
what is key feature in often seen in spread of shingles on the face?
stops at halfway mark becuase its following the nerve
what are the type B and C manipulations of testostoner?
methyltestosterone-typeB

mesterolone-type C
how is FSH, LH and hCH given?
derived from natural, cant synthesize

not given orally, must be parentally
what are some of the indicators and lab values important in measuring and assessing hypothyroidism?
T4,FT4I
T3, FT3I
TSH
123I uptake- low in hypothyroidisms
elevated serum cholesterol(primary hypothyroidism)

elevated CPK and ALT

Pernicious anemia(autoimmune mediated hypothyroidism hashimotos)
what is serotonin syndrome?
excessive serotonin response.

it take the normal effects of serotonin and ampilfies them by factor of 10

very rare less than 2% of pt have this response, but it can be life threatening
what found in myelolipoma?
marrow elements
what are some properties of the prolactinomas?
most are macroadenomas
can be found with imunostain for PrL
serum PrL tend to correlate with size of adenoma
what is MOA of febuxostat?
i. Mechanism: non-purine, potent, selective inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
what is seronegative spondyloarthopathies negative for? what is it positive for?
arithritis negative for RF, but it is HLA-B27 positive
what is the prognosis of adenocarinoma?
4th more common lethal cancer
what can occur that requires dose adjustment with cortisol in addisons disease?
illness or stress requires dose adjustment up to 2-3 timex nomral dose.
how can you test beta cell function in DM who is taking insulin?
check for C-peptide
what is the triad of graves disease?
hyperthyroidism due to hyperfunctional diffuse enlarged thryoid

infiltrative opthalmopathy with resulting exopthalmos

infiltrative localized dermopathy-pretibial myxedema
what are the adverse effects of buspirone?
dizziness
nausea
heachache
nervousness
lightheadedness
excitement

most are transient
what is important about shingles that are found on the tip of the nose?
almost always has eye invovlement. refer to opthamology immediately can lead to blindness
what is use/problems of Type B and C?
iii. Type B and Type C manipulation allows drugs to be orally active. These drugs are not metabolized to testosterone proper. They can cause liver toxicity and liver cancer.
how is estrogen found in blood?
most bound to proteins main protein is Sex hormone binding globulin. only 2% is free and available for action.

therefore there is a huge resouire for estrogens.
what are the treatments for hypothyroidism?
iodide supplementation
thyroid hormone suppliementation
how long after treatment does serotonin syndrome usually occur?
2-72 hours usually within first 24
what differentiates liposarcoma from lipoma grossly?
large, deep
what is the most common functioning pituitary tumor?
prolactinomas 30% of all adenomas
what is the use of febuxostat?
well tolerated when there is allopurinol intolerance
What is ankylosing seronegative spondyloarthritis?
occurs in males in the vertebrae and sacroiliac joints, follows an infection of adolescence.
what r the mutations associate with carcinoma of the pancreas?
codon 12 K-ras
inactivation of p16 and p53
What is the most common ezyme deficiency associated with cortisol levels?
21 hydroxylase defeiency
what are the differences in the types of insulin?
the rate of absorption: this affects duration of action and time till onset
what is the difference btw exopthalmos and normal hyperthyroidism effects?
normal is just wide staring gaze and lid lag but in exopthalmos eyes are bulging out.
what are the interactions of buspirone?
erythromycin and ketoconazole and grape fruit juice interfere with oral absorption.
what is the recomendation for people over the age 60 in reference to shingles?
should have shingles shot which is 14 times stronger than chicken pox vacine
what are the type A manipulations of testosterone?
enanthate or cypionate
how is progesteron found in blood?
just like estrogen except its bound to coticosteroid binding globulin mainly
what is the epidemiology of iodide defiency ?
rarely seen in US since 1920 due to iodide added into salt.
what is the problem with stopping SSRIs?
you can get withdrawal syndrome, which has aggitation, and behavior changes. only occurs if stopped suddenly not seen if you properly taper down off dose
what is the presentation of liposarcoma?
40-60 yo
large deep tumor
how is prolactinomas present clinically?
amenorrhea, galactorrhea, loss of libido, infertility,
what are the side effects of febuxostat/
diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, liver function.
what is reiter syndrome?
triad of arthritis, nongonococcal urethritis or cervicitis, and conjunctivitis.
where do most carcinoma of pancreas arise?
60% found in head
why is cortisol level often normal in 21 hydroxylase deficiency and what is the implication of this?
decreased cortisol leads to increased ACTH production until cortisol is high enough to produce inhibition. This causes adrenal hyperplasia and overproduction of all the products that dont require 21 hydroxylase.
what slows the rate of absorption of insulin?
self aggregation or binding to protiens like protamine
what is pretibial myxedema?
thickening of skin on anterior shins
what is used in generalized anxiety disorder?
antidepressants
-venlafaxine
-paroexetine
-escitalopram
what is a dangerous complication of shingles in population over 60?
necrosis in jaw

SEVERE pain. so severe and long lasting people commit suicide even after the outbreak is resolved due to continueing pain.
what is use of type A manipulations
1. This modification causes absorption of the drugs to be greatly delayed. They are injected weekly or monthly and are metabolized to testosterone proper.
how is estrogen and progesterone metabolized?
phase 1 oxidations
phase 2 conjucation with sulfates and glucuronides
what is Iodide supplementation used to treat?
endemic goiter
what is the neonatal effects of serotonin?
little risk if given in early pregnancy(may be some risk of teratogenesis, but not well documented)

main risk is when taken in late pregnancy it can lead to babies being born with serotonin syndrome
what are the common types of liposarcom?
well differentieated, myxoid, round cell, and pleomorphic,
what is the treatement for prolactinomas?
surgury and bromocripitine(dopamine style drugs that inhibit lactotrohps from secretion)
what are the adverse drug intereactions of febuxostat and allopurinal?
a. 6-MP and azathioprine are partially metabolized by xanthine oxidase. Inhibition of xanthine oxidase by allopurinol and febuxostat decreases metabolism of 6-MP and azathioprine, increasing the chance of toxicity.
b. There may also be interactions with oral anticoagulants and an increased risk of ampicillin-induced rash.
what is enteritis associated spondyloarthritis?
arthritis following GI infections

usually salmonella and shegella

antibodies against these infections become cross sensitive to antigen sources in the joinst
what are the three most common organs of metastatiss for cacinoma of pancreas?
liver lung and bone
what is elevated in 21 hyroxylase deficiency?
DEHP(androgen)
what is the only insulin that can be given intravenously?
regular human insulin
what type of condition is graves disease?
autoimmune
what is given to treat panic disorder?
propanolol to block the sympathetic response

antidepressants
-SSRIs
-Tricyclicls
-MAOIs

benzodiezepines- THIS IS FIRST LINE TREATMENT
what does ANUG stand for?
acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
also known as trench mouth.
how are most preparations of synthetic androgens done?
v. Most preparations involve combinations of type AC or type BC changes.
how are estrogens and progesterones excreted?
urinary and fecal as conjugates
what is complicated about treating endemic goiter?
problem is not in the gland. its a defiency of iodine.

gland is enlarged so if you provide iodine you will actually cause massive surge in production which will cause hyperthyroidism.
what are the adverse effects of SSRIs?
serotonin syndrome(2-3%risk)
withdrawal if taken off to fast
neonatal effects when used late in preg
teratogenesis(only known for sure in animals)
extrapyramidal side effect(movement disorders)-seen in high dose and extended use
bruxism(clenched teeth) seen in most pt who are on it for long time
bleeding disorders
sexual dysfunction
weight gain
what is the problem with resection of liposarcoma from retroperitoneum?
very hard to find the border because its a fatty tumor and the surrounding tissue is fat.
what is the second most comon functioning adenoma?
somatotroph cell growth hormone adenoma
how is hyperuriciemia defined?
>7mg/dL in men
>6mg/dL in women
what is psoriatic arthritis?
seroneagtive spondyloarthritis that occurs mainly in the small joints of the hand and feet but may extend to larger joints

occurs in people with severe psoriasis rarely
what is a marker of very poor prognosis in carcinoma of the pancreas?
invasion of the celiac axis
What is the treatment for 21 hydroxylase deficiency?
100mg/day of cortisol for 5days then reduced to replacemnt therapy levels.
what are the 4 classes of insulin drugs?
rapid acting- fastest
short acting- second
intermediate acting- third
long acting- slowest
what is the pathology behind graves disease?
autoantibodies to TSH receptors
they bind and stimulate
what is the main drug therapy in OCD?
SSRIs
what is the cause of ANUG?
anerobic, fusopriochetal bacterial infection.
7. Describe the adverse effects of androgens/anabolic steroids when used in males and females
a. Side effects of high androgen levels:
i. Virilizing effects: acne, hirsutism, male pattern baldness, coarsening of the voice.
ii. Inhibition of spermatogenesis
iii. Feminizing side effects
iv. Hepatic abnormalities, including hepatocellular carcinoma
v. Changes in lipoprotein profiles (decrease HDL and increase LDL)
vi. Increase in aggressive behavior
what are the conjugates of estrgen found?
premarin and CEE
how do you prevent hyperthyroidism in treatment of endemic goiter?
suppliment for a time with thyroid hormone to decrease enlargment then suppliment Iodine.
what are the drug interactions with SSRIs?
MAOIs- increased risk of serotonin syndrome
Warfarin-increased bleeding effects
TCAs and lithium- elevate levels of SSRIs and can lead to serotonin syndrome as well.
what are good factors to differentiate btw liposarcoma and lipoma?
greater than 8 cm
nucleus present in nearly every fat cell
nuclear atypia in shape and larger size
presence of lipoblasts
what is the genetic cause of somatotroph adenoma?
40% with mutant GTPase defeicient alpha subunit of G protien Gs
how is Uric acid eliminated from body?
freely filtered at glomerulus
both reabsorption and sectretion in proximal tubule

net uric acid excreted is 10% of that filtered.
what are the seronegative spondyloarthritises?
ankylosing
rieters
enteritis associated
psoriatic
what are the biomarkers of pancreatic cancer early?
CA19-9-elevated in many types of GI cancer and 10% of caucasions lack the lewis antigen and do not produce CA19-9

CEA-also elavated in GI cancers as well as lung and breast, elvated in smokers, pancreatitis, cirrhosis and COPD
what are the early levels in 21 hydroxylase deficiency?
low cortisol
low aldosterone
slightly high DEHP
What concentration are almost all insulins sold at?
U100
who are the most likely people to get graves disease/
20-40yo women
What are the SSRIs?
citalopram
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Clomiprmaine
what is presentation of ANUG?
Anterior gingiva are painful and swollen with punched out necrotic ulcers of gingival papillae. Foul odor. Sialorrhea. Fever, malaise and lymphadenopathy present.
. Correlate the hepatotoxicity of certain androgens/anabolic steroids with their chemical structure.
b. High, prolonged doses of drugs that have a 17 substitution or a ring alteration can cause liver toxicity and hepatocellular carcinoma. (types B and C)
how long does it take for the estrogen/progestones to effect after release/administration?
minutes to hours to be turned on and to be turned off
what are some concerns with administration of replacement thyroid hormone?
patients are quite sensitive to exogenous thyroid hormone due to decreased metabolic acitivy especially the elderly and those with CHF so full replacement dose is not given immediatedly but titrated up to.
what is sertraline?
SSRI
what are lipoblasts
nonspecific marker of liposarcoma

nucleus is scalloped or indented in a fat cell.

this is found in many sarcomas found in fatty areas, but is useful to differentiate liposarcoma from lipoma
what is seen clinically in somatotroph cell adenomas?
children before epphyseal closure-gigantism increased total body size

adults after epiphyseal closure-acromegaly
what is the main transporter responsible for uric acid reabsorptino?
URATE-1
what are the most common causes of infectious arthritis?
gonococcus, staph, strep, H influenza, gram neg coliforms.

tuberculous

lyme

viral
what are the three types of islet cell tumors?
insulinoma

glucagonoma

somatostatinoma
what are the late levels in 21 hydroxylase deficiency?
normal cortisol an aldosterone

super high DHEA
how is insulin administered?
subcutaneous injection or pump

regular insulin can be given IV for emergency
what are some genes associated with graves disease?
PTPN22, CTLA-4, HLA-DR3
what is true about clomipramine?
used second line drug bc its less tolerated than the SSRIs

it is a trycyclic antidepressant
what are the predisposing factors of ANUG?
poor oral hygiene (plaque and calculus)
what are the drugs used for androgen suppression
GnRH long acting- constant GnRH is inhibitory instead of stimulating

ketoconazole-blocks androgens synthesis at super high levels(higher than used in corticosteroid blocking) only mildly effective will lead to adrenal hyperplasia to overcome

finasteride- 5alphareductase inhibitor

cyproterone acetate/flutamide-androgen receptor blockers

androgen receptor blockers/5alphareductase inhibitors are both used in prostate cancer.
how long does it take for FSH/LH/GnRH to work?
seconds to minutes to turn on and turn off.
what is the replacement dose of thyroid homrone?
thryoid secretes 80ug of T4/day

full replacement dose is 150-200ug/day in a 70kg male bc only 50-75% oral absorption.

must monitor regularly to ensure that dose is both adequet and not reaching toxic levels bc amount of replacement needed is directly related to severeity of deficit.
what is specail about sertraline?
blocks uptake of serotonin and dopamine
what is gross appearance of pleomorphic liposarcoma as oppsed to well differentiated liposarcoma?
well differentiated looks like fat, its well circumscribed, and hard to differentiate from lipoma

pleomorphic may not even look like fat cell tumor. It is often necrotic and hemorrhagic,
what is the oral glucose challenge test in GH adenoma?
failure to suppress GH production with oral glucose is a very sensitive test for acromegaly
what are the drug causes of underexcretion of uric acid?
diuretics,
aspirin
ethamutal
L-dopa
cyclosporine
alcohol
nicotine
where does tuberculous spread from into the joint?
spread from nearby bone,
what is presenation of insulinoma?
usually benign, hypoglycemia, elevated C-peptide and insulin distinguishes from injected insulin
what important enzymes are required for aldosterone and cortisol production?
11 beta hydroxylase

21 hydroxylase
what emergency will warrent IV insulin?
ketoacidosis
what is graves disease often associated with?
other autoimmune diseasese

such as lupus, type I DM, pernicious anmeia, Addisons disease
what is key for treatment of OCD with SSRIs?
must maintain drug and dose for 1-2 months to check for efficacy before switching takes a long time for these meds to work
what is used to differentieate ANUG from herpies?
necrosis of papillae, not common in children, the ulcers are only on the ginigiva. REALLY BAD smell.

gingival papillae=area between teeth
what is gossypol?
destroys seminefarious tubules inhibits speratogenesis also decreases sperm motility
what is the most important estrogen receptor agonists?
the ones the have ethine addition to the 17 alph carbon. this prevents liver metabolism of them and allow them to survive first pass metabolism when given orally. normal estrogen will be almost entirely metabolized in first pass if given orally so they arent.

mestranol
quiestrol
ethyl estradiol
what is the pathology behind normal T3/4 with goiter?
enlarged thyroid is needed to meet demands due to problem treat this with supplimentation of TH to maintian normal levels and take stress off gland so it can shrink back to normal.
what are the uses of sertraline?
major depression
panic disorder
OCD
PTSD
PMDD
social anxiety disorder

minimal effects on reducing seizures so not used alone in seizure pt but if seizure pt comes in with depression this could be a good drug to use.
what is the usual cause of fibrous tumors(reactive pseudosarcomas)
non neoplastic lesions usually due to trauma physical or ishcemic
what is corticotroph cell adenomas also called?
cushing disease
what is normal 24h secretion of UA?
600mg
what is potts disease?
tuberculous infection arthritis with spinal invovlement
what is the presenation of glucogonoma?
usually malignant, hyperglycemia, DM rash(migratory necrolytic erythema)
what enzymes are imorpontant and required for DHEA production
17alpha hydroxylase
what are the rapid insulins?
insulin lispro, aspart, glulisine
what are the 4 causes of exopthalma in graves disease?
T cell infiltration of retro orbital space

inflammaroty edema/swellling of muscles

extracellulary matrix compenets accumulate in space

increased adipocytes in area

all these things work together to increase pressure and take up space behind eye pushing it out
treatment for PTSD and social phobia?
SSRI
benzos
other antidepressants
same stuff as with the other anxiety disorders
how is ANUG treated?
dental prophalaxis, and antibiotics
like penicillin
no antivirals
levels in semineforous tubule disease?
high FSH
normal LH
low T
what is another name for mestranol?
17 ethinylestradiol
What are the organic TH extracts?
thyroid USP
Thyroglobulin USP
what are the adverse effects of sertraline?
TRANSIENT AND RARE
headache
nausea
tremor
diarrhea
insomnia

RARE BUT LONGER LASTING
weight gain
agitation
sexual dysfunction

when used late in preg can lead to neonatal abstinence syndrome/neonatal pulmonary hypertension

can also cause nervousness
what is the presenatation of fibrous tumors?
develop suddenly and grow rapidly(can develop over a week)

mimic sarcomas with hypercellularity , mitosis and primitive cells

include nodular fasciitis and myositis ossifiacans
what is the difference btw cushing disease and cushing syndrome?
cushing syndrome is any time a pt has high levels of cortisol

cushing disease is when that syndrome is caused by adenoma in the pituitary.
what is the duel effect of aspririn on UA?
low does preferentially inhibits UA secretion causing hyperuricemia

high doses such as those used in treatment of inflammation preferentially causes inhibition of UA reabsorption causes hypuricemia.
what are the characters of lyme disease arthritis?
follows skin infection, remitting and migratory, primarily occurs in the large joints
what is the presentation of somatostatinoma?
DM steatorrhea, gallstones, achlorhydria
what is the major symptom of 21 hydroxylase deficiency?
masclinization

not low cortisol or aldosterone effects bc of the eventual adrenal hypertrophy
what are the short acting insulins?
regular insulin
what is gross and micro finding in graves disease?
gross-diffusely enlarged thyroid

histo-hypertrophy and hyperplasia of follicular epithelial cells

crowding of colmnar follicular cells into irregular papillary folds

decresed colloid due to excess size of follicle cells

hyperplastic lymphoid tissue
what kind of infection is it that causes ANUG?
endogenous. these are common bacteria of the mouth that only act up due to poor hygiene.
levels in leydig cell failure?
normal FSH
High LH
low T
what is important about synthetic estrogen receptor agonsist and pregnancy?
they are teratogenic so you must make sure they are not pregnant when you give them.

especially diethylstibestrol.(DES)
what are the advantages and disadvantages of organic TH use?
they are cheaper but have major variability and safetly issues mainly with immune responses
what are the drug interactions with sertraline?
MAOIs
pimozide
what are the types of fibrous tumors?
nodular fasciitis

myositis ossificans

Fibromatoses:
dupuytren contracture
peyronie disease
desmoid tumors
what is nelsons syndrome?
removal of the adrenals= loss of inhibitons of cortisol on ACTH= development of large adenomas= mass effects and hyperpigmentatino of skin.
what enzyme deficinecy can cause gout?
HGPRT defiency

HGPRT is responsible for purine salvalge pathway.
what is the usual caues of viral arthritis?
may be due to direct infection or triggered by immunodifficency process like HIV.
what is the definition of diabetes mellitus?
chronic disorder of carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism, accompanied in most cases by a deficient or defective insulin secretory response to a carbohydrate load, with resultant hyperglycemia.
what are the toxic effects of GCC steroids?
CNS effects drugs may produce euphoria

steroid diabetes-prediabetic may exhibit signs of clinical diabetes

skeletal effects- osteoporosis bc steroid decrease Ca absorption which leads to increased PTH stimulation of bone resorption.

increased infectivity- pt may need prophylacitc antibiotics

ulcers- may play a permisive role in ulcer developement(dont cause just make it easier for them to develop)

delayed wound healing

adrenal atrophy
what are the intermediate acting insulins?
NPH
what is TSH level be in graves disease?
low
what is steven johnson syndrome also known as?
erythema multiforme that affects the mouth, eyes, skin and genital mucosa.
what are the estrogens found in the environment?
phytoestrogens-soy flavones often taken as dietary supplement

DDT- not on market but still present in enrivonement as pesticide

bisphenol- found in some plastics

genistien- one of the soy derived phytoestrogens
what type of TH is prefered for treatment?
synthetics
what is fluvoxamine and what is it used for?
SSRI used in OCD much more often than depression
what is presenation of nodular fasciitis?
trauma-15-20%
Rapidly growing painful tumor of adults
volar aspact of forearm, chest and back
cellular, mitoitcally ative, plump immature fibroblasts

can be hard to distingihs from a sarcoma like fibrosarcoma

cured by simple excision.
why does hyper ACTH lead to hyperpigmentation?
ACTH is complexed to form preopiomelanocorticotropin(POCM) has a stimulatory effect on melanocytes
what are the causes of overproduction of uric acid?
HGPRT deficicney accompanied by increased rate of purine synthesis de novo ie increased PRPP

increased rate of cell turnover; such as myeloproliferative and lyphoproliferative disorders and in cancer chemotherapy.
What is important about infectious arthritis?
no antibodies can make it into the synovial fluid so if an infection occurs there it will rapidly proliferate and destroy the joint, septic joint disease is considered a medical emergency
what is proinsulin
insulin and C-peptide
what is the problem with adrenal atrophy and steroid use?
adrenal atrophy may start after only 1 week of therapy

adrenal atrophy leads to impaired reactions to stress
what are the long acting insulins?
insulin determir
insulin glargine-longest
what are the causes of primary hypothyroidism?
intrinsic problem of thryoid
goitrous: Hashimotos, dietary iodine def, inborn errors of metabilism, medications

small thryoid-surgury, radiation, infiltrative disroder, genetic
what is the pathologic process involved in steven johnson syndrome?
cytotoxic T cell mediated, type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction
what are the three major ways to inhibit estrognic action?
interfere with gonadotropin release and susequent ovarian estrogen production

inhibit synthesis (aromatase inhibitors)

block estrogen receptors
what is thyroid USP?
desiccated powder from animal thyroid glands

contains .17 to .23% of organic iodide

bc of variabliliity in batches comercially available products are not bioassayed so potency is not know.

availabe in tablets containing 15-500mg of the powder
what is the pharmacokinetics of fluvoxamine?
rapidely absorbed from GI tract
half life about 15hours
interacts adversely with MAOIs
what is the presentation of mysitis ossificans?
trauma - 50%
seen in young athletes
metaplastic bone formation after about 3 weeks
early signs swollen and painful
later painless, hard well demarcated mass, may also miim sarcoma
what are signs of gonatroph adenoma?
not usually detected till the start causing neuro symptoms by mass effect
what is the MOA of colchicine?
binds intracellaur protein tubulin prevents polymerazation into microtubules

inhibits migration of leukocytes and phagocytosis

inhibits the formation of leukotriens B4
what is the pathogenesis in gout?
hyperuricemia leads to precipitation of urate cystals in the joints

this causes compliment activation and phaocytosis by moncytes which release IL-1, TNF alpha, IL-6 and IL-8

This causes inflammation and swelling

Also neutrophils phagocytize the crystals and lyse bc they are unable to break them down or fully absorb them this releases lysosomal enzymes which further increase swelling and inflammation and tissue damage
what is the 4 different ways to dx criteria for Diabetes millitus?
fasting plasma glucose greater than 126mg/dL on more than one occasion

random PG greater than 200mg/dL plus classic signs/symptoms of DM(polyuria/polydipsia/polyphagia)

PG greater than 200mg/dL 2 hours after glucose load(normal 75-100)

Hb A1c> 6.5%
how are patients treated for adrenal atrophy from steroid use?
slowly titrated off of the steroids

recover from adrenal atrophy long term
if > 30mg/d for >4 weeks
or > 80mg/d for >2 weeks
there could be atrophy for over a year with needed supplimental GCC.
how long after injection do rapid acting work and for how long?
almost 1 hour till peak onset decent action at 15mins

with 2-3 hour duration
what is the most common autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism?
Hashimotos
what are the common triggers of steven johnson syndrome?
recent herpes outbreak, medication, URI, lymphoma

often we don't know what the cause is but these are the ones we do recognize
what are the two estrogen receptor antagonist?
clomiphene
tamoxifen
what is Thyroglobulin USP?
purified extract of pig thyroid

contains USP standard iodide content

it is bioassayed( potency is known)

available 15-300mg tablets.
what are the normal SSRI side effects?
nausea
vomiting
constipation
weight gain
dry mouth
headache
sexual dysfunction
what is a good way to differentiate fibrous tumors from sarcomas?
develop fast over a few weeks
occur after trauma
painful
what are the two types of nonfunctioning adenomas?
null cell- generate no detectable hormonal product

nonsecretory variant= silent adenoma more common of the two hormone is being produced but no secreted
what are the toxic effects of colchicine?
abdominal discomfort
nausea and diarrhea
what is the main primary cause of gout?
idiopathic, alcohol and obesity enhances a genetic predisposition for hyperuricemia
what are the three tissues affected by insulin?
adipose
striated muscle
liver
How is adrenal atrophy prevented?
given acutely not long term
pt switch to alternate day dosing if possible with double daily dose

if dose is given like this adrenals do not atrophy stress repnse remains nomral and other side effets are decreased.
what is the normal insulin regimen for diabetics?
rapid or short acting injection prior to each meal, with one long acting taken at begining of day.
what is secondary hypothyroid?
probelm of pituitary, TSH defcit
who gets steven johnson syndrome most often and when?
young adult males, with seasonal recurrence in spring and fall
what is clomiphen used fore?
anovulatory inhertility treatment
helps people get pregnant

originally created to be used as a contraceptive but ended up making people have twins and triplets instead!
what is the drug of choice for TH replacement?
levothyroxine
what is a specific adverse effect to fluvoxamine?
abnormal liver function in long term use

so you need to take regulary liver enzyme tests when on this drug long term.
what is typical history and progression of myositis ossifiacans?
adolescent athlete undergoes trauma, develops mass over a week or two, mass turns in to boney lesion, cured by simple excision

bone shows up on xray while soft tissue mass shouldn't
what is likelyhood of pituitary carcinoma?
very very rare

must have demonstation of metastases to call it carcinoma bc necrosis atypia and all that occur in the adenoma
what is the main use of colchicine?
acute gouty arthritis

can be used profalcatively
what are the secondary causes of gout?
associated with increased nucleic acit turnover such as hematologic diseases, drugs or renal failure.

Uric acid is the end product of purine metabolism so any process which increases the amount of purines being broken down can lead to hyperuricemia.

such things like tumor lysis syndrome in chemo therapy
what is the effect of insulin on the fat?
increase glucose uptake
increase lipogenesis
decrease lipolysis
what is cushing syndrome?
results from pituitary gland secreting excess ACTH(pituitary adeonma=true cushing disease not syndrome),
what are the three concerns with insulin therapy?
lipoddystrophy-atrophy of subcutaneous fat at injection site- rare now

allergy- rare now with pure insulins

hypoglycemia- main concern by far
what is Tertiary hypothyroid?
problem with hypothalmus, TRH deficiency

very rare
what is the presentation of steven johnson syndrome?
Acute onset of debilitating, confluent oral ulcers producing bloody, crusted lips. Typically spares the gingiva. Skin lesions are red macules, papules, blisters and TARGETOID LESIONS of palms and soles. Resolves in 1 month.
what is tamoxifen used for?
useful fro the manegment of estrogen dependent cancers but it is being replaced by the aromatase inhibitors
what is levothyroxine?
L isomer of synthetic T4
sodium salt
what is the fastest acting SSRI?
paroxetine
can see effects a week or two instead of several weeks to months
what is the most common fibromatoses
dupuytren contracture-hand/foot mainly hand

peyronie disease- penis

all these may be called dupuytren contractures though its usually in the hand that are called this
how much of the gland must be destroyed for there to be hypopituitarism?
75% must be gone before hypofunction occurs
what is the MOA of indomethacin?
inhibits PG synthetase, inhibits urate crystal phaogcytosis
What is characteristically seen grossly and on histo left behind by gout?
tophi which are deposits of cystals in the tissue
what is the effect of insulin on liver
decrease gluconeogenesis
increase glycogen synthesis
increase lipogenesis
what is the renin angiotensin aldosterone system?
i. R-A-A system: decreased blood volume  increased renin secretion  conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I  angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-convering enzyme (ACE)
ii. Angiotensin II acts on the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to increase synthesis of aldosterone.
what are the main issues of hypoglycemia?
confusion, coma, seizure,and death most common in patient with very tight control
what is TSH level in primary vs secondary hypothyroid?
primary-high
secondary-low
what are some thing that differentiate steven johnson syndrome from herpies?
spares gingiva, confluent slough, skine an dother mucosal lesions.
what are the aromatase inhibitors?
anastrozole
exemestane
Ietrozole

used in treatment of estrogen dependent cancers as well as just overall decreasing of endogenous estrogens.
what is a SERM?
selectie estrgen recepotr modulator

RALOXIFENE- SERMs are drugs that have a selective affinity for sublasses of estrogen receptors.
what is the dosages available for levothyroxine?
25-5--ug
what is unique about citalopram?
it is an SSRI but it does not block recetpros for seotonin, acetlcholine, NE, or histamine.

we don't know how it works but is has simialar side effects including neonatal serotonin withdrawal/syndrome so we call it an SSRI
what is the epidemiology and progonosis for dupuytrens contractures
more frequent in males, cause contractions and masses, may recur aftger excision
what is normal presentation of pituitary apoplexy?
sudden rapid enlargment of tumor which causes really bad headache, diplopia, hypopituitaritarim, and can even have sudden death

sudden enlargment caused by hemorrhage into the pituitary usually the result of damage from an adenoma
when is indomethacin used?
in acute gouty attacks

prefered over colchicine because of the side effects colchicine has
What is required for gout diagnosis?
must see the crystals
what is the effect of insulin on strieted muscle?
increase glucose uptake
increase glycogen synthesis
increase protein synthesis
what occurs in fat mobilization from cortisol?
fat accumulation at the trunk

stress raises cortisol cortisol increases belly fat!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
what are the symptoms of hypoglycmeia prior to confusion, coma, siezure? and what is the cause?
sympathetic symptoms: increased HR, palpatations, sweating, hunger, and weakness.

rapid fall in BG detected by hypthalamus and leads to increased epinephrine production which promtes glycogenolysis
what is cretinism?
hypothryoidism which develops during infancy or early childhood
what is the normal treatment for steven johnson syndrome?
steroids
what is Raloxifene used for?
targets the bone estrogen receptors to prevent post menapausal osteoporosus, but it does not stimulate breast or uterine tissue which could cause increased risk for estrogen induced cancers.
what are the advantages of levothyroxine?
more uniform preparation when compared to thyroid USP

provides large pool of T4 that can be converted to T3

missing a dose is not as serous as compared to supplementing T3

T3 serum profiles more uniform than with T3 administration(bc the body decided when to convert this to T3 and when to just keep it as T4)
what is escitalopram?
S-isomer of citalopram

same as citalopram we dont know how it works bc doesnt block any of the reuptakes things

main difference btw this and citalopram is that escitalopram is better tolerated the side effects are less severe less common and last less time.
what is the presenation of desmoid tumors?
usually in women
abdominal wall/mesyntery most common but can occur elseware
hard to excise
reccurent
what is the main cause of ischemic necrosis to the pituitary?
Sheehan syndrome
what is prefered for treatement of acute gouty arithritis?
NSAIDs are prefered over colchacine due to GI side effects of colchacine
what is a problem with finding crystals in gout?
sometimes all the crystals have been deposited in these gouty tophi so none can be seen in the fluid aspirated.

however if patient has hyperuicemia and you have a flare up that looks very much like gout you can make a diagnosis of "presumptive gout" and then next time they have a flare up you will try again to find the crystals.
contrast the effects of insulin and glucagon?
insulin- anabolic hormone, causes transmembrane transport of glucose and amino acids, and fromation of glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle
glucose conversion to triglycerides
decreases plasma glucose


glucagon-catabolic hormone, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, ketogenesis, increases plasma glucose
what is the main cause of addisons disease?
autoimmune 70-80%
What are the normal causes of hypoglycemia when on insulin therapy?
overdose, excerise, skipped meals
what is the most common cuases of cretinism?
mainly caused by lack of dietary iodine

some cases result from inborn errors of metabolism or congenital developmental failure of the thryoid
what is the most extreme version of erythema multiforme?
lyle disease
what is diference btw progestin and progesterone?
progestin is name of class of agents and progesterone is the name of a specific molecule that is in that class (the main biologic one)
what is the problem with Levothyroxine?
its not effective in people who can't convert T4 to T3 such as people with liver disease
what are the SNRIs?
venlafaxine
duloxetine
what is diagnostic histology of desmoid tumors?
bland fibroblastic cells infiltrating btw skeletal muscle.
what is sheehan syndrome?
postpartum necrosis of the anterior pituitary secondary to sudden infarction b/c of obstetic hemoorhage/shock
what is MOA of naproxn?
inhibits migration of leukocytes inhibits urate cystral phagocytosis

useful in acute gouty attack

NSAIDs
Where else can you look for crystals in gout if none are seen in aspirate?
in the urine
what a lab finding in type 1 diabetes mellitus not found in type 2?
ketonuria
what is the dexamethasone suppression test?
low dose dex turns off ACTH in normal pt

4x hither needed to turn off true cushing disease

if that is still not enough then you suspect cancer.
what is the treatment of hypoglycemia?
oral or IV glucose
what are signs of cretinism?
impaired develpment of skeletal sytem and CNS

severe MR

short

coarse facial features

wide set eyes

large proturding tongue

umbillical hernia
what occurs in lyle disease?
skin falls off all over

from this you lose fluid and electrolytes constantly

extremely vulnerable to infection

often fatal
what are the progesterone receptor agonists?
natureal-progesterone

semi-synthetic
medroxyprogesterone and derivatives

synthetic
19-notestosterones
Why is it hard for people with severe liver disease to convert T4 to T3?
because liver is main site of peripheral 5'deiodoninase.
what is the MOA of the SNRIs?
block reuptake pumps for both serotonin and NE.
what is a good indicator of sarcoma?
fish flesh consistency

carcinoma are usually hard
why is sheehan syndrome specific to pregnancy as opposed to other cuases of shock?
bc in pregnancy ant. pituitary is hyperplastic due to gearing up for elevated secretion of prolactin, but there is not increased blood flow to support this increased tissue. It is common to lose a lot of blood during delivery so the pituitary is the most vulnerable thing during this time it becomes ischemic and then necrotic.
what are the NSAIDs used in gout?
naproxyn, and indomethcin
what is psuedogout?
calcium pyrophosphate deposition in the joints

presents very similar to gout

is hereditary, sporadic of associated with trauma or surgyer, seen often in osteoarthritis
what is the pathologic process of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreatic islets (insulitis) by T lymphocytes resulting in deficiency of insulin production.
what is petrosal sinus testing?
blood sample from viens that directly drain pituitaries

CRH given and ACTH levels are measrued

compared with peripheral veinous blood.

if ACTH elevated due to cushings then petrosal will be higher than peripheral

if its due to peripheral tumor then it will be higher in the periphery.
what is a problem with repreated hypoglyucemic episodes?
reduced hypoglycemic response means less symptoms and pt may not recognize the need for treatment.
what is Myxedema?
generalized hypothyroid state in the older child or adult
what is the classic lesion triad of erythema multiforme?
oral lesions
ocular lesions
gential lesions
what drugs are used primarily as the oral progesterone contraceptives?
19-nortestosterones
what is liothyronine?
L isomer of synthetic T3
sodium salt
what are the indications for use of venlafaxine?
used in major depression, generalized anxiety disorder and social anxiety disorders.

basically its used for depression and anxiety instead of mainly depression like the SSRIs
what is the gross appearance of fibrosarcoma?
unecapsulated, infiltrative, soft fish flesh, with hemorrhage and necrosis
what is empty sella syndrome?
enlarged, empty sell turcica lacking pituitary tissue

primary- anatomic defect in which CSF is able to leak into pituiatary space and compress it leading to hypopituitarism

secondary- surgury done that removes tumor and results in hole that allows CSF in.
what is the main effects of the uricosuric agents?
inhibits uric acid reabsorption
decreases serum urate concetration
decreases pool of urate in pts with tophaccous gout
maintains large urine volume
how can you differentiate btw gout and psuedogout?
crystals are rhomboid rather than needle shaped, and polarization is not the same.

knee most common site
what gene is type 1 diabetes linked to?
HLA-D linked
what is cushign syndrome symptoms?
cotisol excess
truncal obesity
buffalo hump
muscle wastin
steroid diabetes
bone demineralization
growth retardatin
CNS
Hypertension
delayed wound healing
hypokalemic alkalosis

hirsutism
amenorrhea
what is the treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar coma?
IV regular insulin
electrolyght and fluid replacement
what are the signs of myxedema?
progressive over time slowing of mental an physcial activity

fatigue, cold intolerance, apathy

periobital edema(NO EXOPTHALMIA)

coarsening of skin/facial features

cardiomegaly,

pericardial effusion,

fine hair/hair loss

accumulation of MPS rich ground substanc with dermis of all tissue(specifically the myxedema)
what is the appearance of erythema multiforme lesions?
can be many different way erythemous
vesicular, ulcers, plaques etc

the main one is TARGETOID lesions
often seen on PALMS and FEET
what are the synthetic progestin?
....gestrels
.....drone
nore.....
norg......

norethindrone
norethyndodrel
norethindrone acetate
ethynodiol diacetate
levonorgetrel
di-Nogestrel
desogestrel
gestodene
norgestimate
what is dosing for Liothyronine?
5-50ug
what are the drug interactions of Venlafaxine?
serious reaction if combined with MAOIs
what isthe histo of fibrosarcoma?
herringbone, high cellualrity, pleomoprhic with mitoses
where do the cells of the post. pit. orginate from?
supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalmus
what is important consideration for uricosuric agents use in pt with urine issue?
must be able to maintain high urine volume otherwise all the UA that is secreted into the tubules may cause obstuctions or stones. you need high flow to keep the tubules clear.
what are the tumor like lesions of the joint?
ganglion lesion

baker cyst
what is a dangerous complication of type 1 DM?
ketoacidosis
how is cushing disease treated?nonpharm
removal of pituitary adenoma-surgical ressection or radiatino

exctopic acteh syndrome treated with aggressive ablation therapy

adrenl tumors- treated with adrenalextomy
when are the antidiabetic drugs other than insulin indicated?
symptomatic type 2 diabetes not controlled by diet alone, and pateint cannot or does not want to use insulin
what is the difference btw mxyedema and pretibial myxedema
myxedema is due to hypothyroid and is generalized

pretibial edema is in graves disease and is only in the pretibial region.
when would you not use steroids in erythema multiforme?
lyle disease it would encourage infection
what is important to know about the generations of the synthetic progestins?
increasing progestin potency and decreaseing androgenic effects as you get to higher and higher generations

4th gen drugs desogetrel and gestodene have high levels of cardiac negative effects than any of the prior gen drugs.
what is Liotrix?
mixture of levothyroxine and liothryonine

4:1 mix

developed to mimic normal thryoid releases.
what are the side effects seen in venlafaxine?
same the side effects of the SSRIs exept that they can cause hyponatremia as well mainly in elderly

bc of this you need to run electrolyte panels routinely on pts taken these.
what is the prognosis of fibrosarcoma?
aggressive-50% reccurrent
and 25% metastasizing
what is the effect of oxytocin?
stims contraction of uterine smooth muscle in gravid uterus and cells of lactiferous ducts in mammary glands

no clinically recognized diseases that are affected by this.
how is uricosuric agents dosed?
start low and slowly increase
what is a baker cyst
synovial cyst herniation of the knee usually associated with excess fluid
what are the three islet cell autoantibodies that cause damage in type 1 DM?
anti-islet auto antigen
anti-insulin
anti-GAD(glutamic acid decarboxylase)
how is cushing treated with drugs?
o,p-DDD(mitotane)
-aminoglutethimide
-metyrapone
what is the actions of the sulfonylureases?
insulin secretagogues
closes beta cell potassium channels leading to depolarization and sitmulation of more insulin secretion.
what is thyroiditis?
inflammation of the thyroid gland
what is another name of recurrent apthous ulcers?
canker sores
what are the pregnane progestins?
chlormadinone acetate
megestrol acetate
medroxyprogesterone acetate

more closely resemble chemical progesterones.
what is thyrotoxicosis?
hyperthyroidism
what can you see if a pt is hyponatremic due to use of venlafaxine?
cardiac and neurologic effects
what is the the appeance of fibrohistiocytic tumors?
storiform/pinwheel appearance
what are effects of ADH deficiency?
poluria
polydispsia
hypernatremia
when is uricosuric agents used?
pt can pee freely
pt has no kidney stones
mainly used in tophous chronic gout not acute gouty attack.
what is the ganglion lesion?
small multicystic lesion of joint capsule or tendon ssheaths, arising from myxoid defeneration fo connective tissue

usually palpable yeilding, subcutaneous nodule of the wrist easily surgically treated.
when are islet cel autoantibodies seen?
appear years before onset of DM due to failure of self tolerance in T cells
what is probelm with pharm treatment of cushing?
pharm treatments focus on blocking cortisol production

however the problem is usually excess ACTH production

cortisol inhibits ACTH production so blocking cortisol actually increases ACTH production

This will lead to eventual hyperplasia and overcoming of the drugs to bring back the hypercortisol levels

also ACTH stims mineralcorticoids as well so super high ACTH during this treatement leads to increased androgen and MCC productions

so pharm treatment is only good as a temporary bridge till cause of cushing is established and fixed.
what are the first gen sulfonylureas?
tolbutamide, tolazamide, chlorpropamide
what are signs of acute thyroiditis?
fever chills, pain in neck, malaise

caused by several differnt organisms
what is protective against apthous ulcers?
smoking if you quite it can develop even later in life when its less common
what is mifepristone(RU486)
pregesterone receptor antagonist
inhibits the uterine quieting effects of progesterone which leads to less ability to implant or maintain a pregancy

used as early term abortion pill.
what are the causes of hyperthyroidism?
graves disease
trophoblastic tumor
chronic thryoiditis

pituitary tumor(secondary)
nigestion of contaminated foods.
what is speacial about duloxetine?
inhibits serotonin and NE and also weakly inhibits dopamine reuptake

this is the first drug so far that causes increase in all these neurtransmitters that are implicated in depression
what is the cell type of fibrohistocytic tumors?
facultative fibroblasts: makes collagen(fibro) and resembles phagocytic cells(histiocytics)
what can cause ADH deficiency?
spontaneous
result of head trauma
tumors, inflammatory disorders or surgical procedures of hypothalmus/pituitary
what are the uricosuric agents?
probenecid
sulfinpyrazone
What is the only tumor of the joint?
tenosynovial giant cell tumor.
what is the 5 risk of developing DM type 1 if all 3 islet cell autoantibodies are present?
almost 50%

risk is less if you don't have all three present
what is mitotane devrieve from?
DDT
what are the second gen sulfonylureas?
glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide
what is hashimotos thyroiditis?
autoimmune disorder
that causes inflammation of the thyroid
what percent of pop gets apthous ulcers?
20%
what is needed alone with mifepristone to induce abortion more effiecently?
alone only 75% effective

usually given with a prostaglandin-prostaglandins direclty stimulate uterine contractions which in combo with mifepristone will cause abortion
what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
graves disease.
what is a very speacial indication that duloxetine has?
it is the drug of choice in diabetec peripheral neuropathy.

it is also used in depression and OCD but its frontline in DPN.
what is prognosis of fibrohistiocytic tumors?
common lesion of dermis and subcutis
usually mid life, simply excised
example is dermatofibroma which is benign which is the most common one
what are the two types of Diabetes insipidus?
lack of ADH secondary to pituitary is central DI

when kidney doesn't respond to ADH its nephrogenic DI
what are the toxic effect of probenecid?
GI irritation
hypersensitivity:mild skin rash
what is the tneosynovial giant cell tumor?
a neoplastic process with tumor expression of colony-stimulation factor I a chemoattractant for macrophages
what are the three theories of viral cause of DM type 1?
bystander-direcet beta cell injury releasing antigens by the virus

molecular mimicry- viral proteins mimic beta cell antigens

viral deja vu- early viral infection that persists in tissue with subsequent infection by a related virus that shares teh antigenci epitopes and leads to inmmune response to the infected islet cells
what is the MOA of Mitotane?
reacts with cytochrome P-450 compenets of hyroxylase reactions in 21, 17alpha, and 11beta hydrozylases
what is hte MOA of the second gen sulfonylureas?
same as 1st gen but higher potency which allows once a day dosing
who gets hashimotos?
women 45-60
treatment? cause? of apthous ulcers?
hypersensitivity maybe?
stress, trauma, certain foods, mentration.

no decent treatment
what are some other uses for mifeprisone?
it has some level of corticosteroid activity so it may have some potential utility in treatment of cushign, glaucoma, and other OB/gyns stuff
what is graves disease pathology?
autaoantibodies to receptors for TSH stimulate cells to overproduce T3/4
what are the pharmacokinetics of duloxetine?
FOOD REDUCES RATE OF ABSORPTION

highly bound to albumin so it can knock off other medicine that bind albumin

half life of 12 hours

Undergoes mainly liver metabolism
what is the most aggressive form of fibrohistiocytic tumor?
dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
what is SIADH?
syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretions
causes increased free water resportion.
how is probenecid dosed?
250mg twice daily for 1wk, 500mg twice daily increased gradually to a max dose of 2g
what are the two types of tenosynovial giant cell tumor?
nodular-giant cell tumor of the tendon

diffuse- pigmented villonodularsynoviits

Diffuse leads to destruction of underlying bone
what is the genetic predisposition for DM type 1
HLA DR3 DR4
what area does mitotane target?
specific for reticulans and fasciculata

so there is less effect on MCC in the cortex
what is a contraindication of sulfonylureases?
all metabolized in liver and contraindicated in liver failure
what is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of sufficient dietary iodine?
hashimotos
what differentiates apthous ulcers from herpies?
almost never occurs on hard palate or ginvia. no vesicular formation first
what is a major source of gonadotropins?
derived from urine and placenta
who is graves disease most common in?
older women
what is the adverse effects of duloxetine?
all the normal SNRI ones

major difference is that most patients will expereince blurred vision as well.
what is the course of dermatofibrosaroma protuberans(DFSP)
infiltrative
well differentiatated
slow growing, locally aggressive, can recurrr, rarely metastasize
mainly on trunk, protrudes above skin
storiform growth pattern
what are effects of SIADH?
hyponatremia
cerebral edema
neurologic dysfunction
what is difference btw sulfinpyrazone and probenecid?
sulfinpyrazone lacks antiinflammortay and analgesic effects
what is the appeance of synovium in pigmented villonodular synovitis (diffuse type tenosynovial giant cell tumor)
pigmented macrophages hemosiderin give synovium a characteristic red braown to orange yellow color, with finger like projections covering synovial surface.
what is the DM1 classic triad?
polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
what is an advantage to mitotane?(and also a disadvanatage)
ACTH does not overcome drug effects

because it destroys the tissue, this toxicity has led to it being removed fro US market.
what are the adverse reactions of the sulfonylureases?
hypoglyciemia can occur and last several days increased risk if hepatic disease present

decreased efficacy as type 2 DM progresses and beta cells become exhausted and fail to respond
is there a genetic compenent to hasimotos?
yes it clusters in families
what are the causes of Red, white and speckled mucosal lesions?
lichens planus
cicatricicial pemphigoid(BMMP)
geographic tongue
candida
snuff patch
nicotine stomatitis
dysplasia/carcninoma in situ
oral cancer
what is the cause of lichen planus?
immune-mediated disease in which there is a T cell response to basal cells.
what is the antigonadotropin?
danazol
what are the symptoms of graves disease?
thyroid enlargment
heat intolerance
decreased weight, increased in appetite, diarrhea, tiredness, irritablility, heart problems, ocular changes, hand tremors.
what is important about duloxetine and new mothers?
can cross placental barrier and can also enter breast milk.
what are the 4 types of muscle tumors?
leiomyoma
leiomyosarcoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
rhabdomyoma
what is often a cause of SIADH?
paraneoplastic syndrome with tumor that secretes ectopic ADH.
what is the doseing for sulfinpyrzone?
start100-200mg twice a day incresae to maintainence dose of 200-800mg/d
what is the polarization of gout crystals?
negatively birefrigent

parralell and yellow
what is the onset age for DM1?
less than 20. presence of anti islet autoantibodies can be at 10 with continuous loss of insulin production till no insulin is produced but actual DM is not clinical till usually around 20
What is amphenone B derived from?
DDT as well
what is MOA of replaginide and nateglinide?
same as the sulfonylureas except short duration of action
what are the three pathways that can occur to bring on hashimotos?
T-cell mediated cytotox

CD4 cell activation of macophages causing damage

anti-thyroid antibodies form that lead to antibody dependent cell mediated cytotox.
what is usually true about the skin and mucosal lesions of lichens planus?
they rarely present together.
what is danazol used for?
endometriosis
what is the eye problem in graves disease?
eyes bug out due to muslce behind eyes that has receptors for T3/4
what are the drug interaction of duloxetine>
alcohol(liver stuff)
MAOi
drugs that afftect CYP1A2 or CYP2D6 (liver enzymes bc this is metabolized in liver)
what is the difference btw rhabdo and leio tumors?
rhabdo- skeletal muscle
leio- smooth muscle
what tumor is most often associated with SAIDH? from paraneoplastic syndrome
small cell carcinoma of the lung
what are the 2 MOA of allopurinol?
inhibition of xanthine oxidase

decresaes intracellular concentration of PRPP

also its metobolite oxypurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase
what is the polarization of psuedogout crystals?
positively birefringent

parrallel and blue
what is diabetic ketoacidosis?
hyperglycemia greater than 250mg/dL with acidosis (pH<7.3) and ketosis
What is difference btw amphenone B and mitotane?
amphenone is more potent
does not destroy tissue
ACTH secretion can overcome it and leads to gland hypertorphoy
what is an advantage of repliginide and nateglinide over the sulfonylureases?
due to short duration if they cause hypoglycemia its shorter duration and when hypoglycemic these drugs are inhibited so their actions stop.
what is gross appearance of hashimotos thyroid?
usually enlarged vaguely nodular, but pale

can be small if its the atrophic varient
what is the epidemiology of lichens planus?
2% of women over age 40
what are the GnRH analogs?
gonadorelin
leuprolide
nafarelin
goerelin
what are the drug therapies for hyperthyroidism?
thiourea derivatives(thioamides)

monovalent anion inhibitors

High dose iodides

iodinated contrast media

radioactive iodide

adrenoreceptor antagonists
when is MAOi used?
2nd or 3rd choice for antidepressant
What are the three types of rhabdomyosarcoma?
embryonal, pleomorphic, alveolar.
what are nonneoplastic causes of SIADH?
lung disease, local injury to hypothalmus/pituitary.
what is toxicity of allopurinol?
allergic skin reactions
GI intolerance
what is required for Diabetic ketoacidosis to occurs?
lack of insulin and Increased glucagon
what is use of amphenone B
not used was also removed from US market due to toxicity
What is the first line drug treatment for all type 2 diabetics that cannot get by on diet and excersise alone?
metformin
what is the histo look of hashimotso?
exuberant infiltrate of lymphocytes, plamsa cells, and macrophages with germinal center formation

HURTHLE CELLS/oncocytes- follicular cells with ample eosinophilc(pink) cytoplasm(pink and puffy)
what is the clinical presenation of lichens planus?
chronic lesions that wax and wane, may burn
a. lacy white striae of buccal mucosa sometimes with atrophic red background;
b. diffuse, red, shiny, atrophic, burning gingiva;
c. large, soft, well-demarcated serpiginous yellow ulcers on a red/white background
d. atrophic, bald plaque-like white dorsal tongue
e. skin lesions when present are pruritic plaques on wrists-ankles
what are oral estrogens used for?
hormone replacement in menopause
what are the thioamides?
propylthiouracil
(PTU)
methaimazole
why are MAOIs not used as first line drugs?
as effective as TCA or SSRIs but more dangerous
what is the epidemiolgy of the three types of rhabdomyosarcoma?
embryonal and alveolar are both most common in children and not overly rare

pleomorphic occurs mainly in adults and is very rare.
what is the pituitary effect of hypothalamic suprasellar tumors?
can cause hypo or hyperfunction of pituitary
what is the half life of allopurinol?
2-3hours but its metabolite has half life of 18-30hours
what is the pathologic process of ketoacidosis?
glucogneogeneiss and glycogenolysis lead to marked hyperglycemia

peripheral lipolysis, dramaticallly increased free fatty acids and glycerol

FFA is converted to ketoacids in the liver

leads to high amounts of ketone bodies
What is MOA of metyrapone?
specific inhibitor of 11beta hydroxylase
blocks conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol
What class does metformin belong to?
biguanides, only member still available.
what is the clinical coarse of hashiomotos?
initial transient hyperthyroid with gradual deelopment of hypothyroid

painless enlargement of gland

chronic will eventually lead to atrophy and gland fibrosis and shrinking
what is seen on hystology for lichens planus?
hyperkeratosis, band-like lymphocytes infiltrating and hugging the basal layer. liquefaction of basal cells, saw toothing of th rete ridges, exocytosis
who is more likely to have fractures caused by loss of bone density in menopause?
white female
what are the monovalent anion inhibitors
potassium perchlorate
what is the major danger for patients on MAOIs?
risk of triggering hypertensive crisis if pt eats foods rich in tyramine
what is prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma?
agressive treated with surgery chemo and radiation
what are the two hypothalamic suprasellar tumors?
glioma and craniopharyngioma
how is allopurinol dosed?
300mg once daily
what are the ketone bodies?
acetoacetic acid, beta hydroxybuteric acid and acetone
what is the use of metyrapone?
rarely used due to side effects

but not so toxic as others so its still on the market

sometimes its used if cortisol is high for unknown cause

can be used to test pituitary reserve of ACTH by decreasing cortisol and seeing how high ACTH gets.
what it the MOA of metformin?
increase tissue glucose uptake and reduce hepatic gluconeogensis

PROBABLY by activation of AMP kinase
what lab values do you expect in hashimotos?
suppression of TSH, decreased radioactive iodine uptake, elevated free T4,T3 seen in the begining during a transient thyrotoxicosis

expeceted that after that passes you will see T4 adn T3 levels fall with compensatory elevation in TSH.
what is associated with hashimotos?
increased risk of autoimmune disorders

SLIGHTLY INCREASED RISK OF LYMPHOMA in thyroid
what is appearance of skin lesions with lichens planus?
pruritic(itchy) plaques on wrists-ankles
what is the controversy in hormone replacment therapy?
improves bone strength may help cognitive, but does increase risk of cardiovascular problems
what are the iodinated contrast media?
ipodate
iopanoic acid
what is MOAIs the drug of choice for?
atypical depression
What is the epidemiology of leiomyosarcoma?
somewhat common tumor in women associated with large veins
what are the characteristics of the craniopharngioma?
rathke's pouch
slow growing
what are the drug intereactions of allopurinol?
6-MP and azathioprine(are both inactivated by xanthine oxidase)

oral anticoagulants(inhibit metabolism)
what is usually the trigger of dibabetic ketoacidosis?
infection or other stress may trigger DKA
which of the DDT derived drugs is still on the market?
metyrapone
What are the big benifits of using metformin?
delays or prevents onset of type 2 diabetes in prediabetics

does not depend on insulin secretion

does not preoduce hypoglycmeia
what is subacute (granulomatous) thyroididis?
aka quervain thyroiditi

viral or postviral eiology
what is the classic case of lichens planus?
bilateral presentation of lacy white striae that dont rub off called whichums stria
what is important when giving progestin to woman to help prevent loss of pregnancy?
must be careful with doseing too much can virilize the fetus
what are the adrenorecptor antagonsts?
propanolol
What food is high in tyramine?
cheese
what is the histo seen on leiomyosarcoma?
cigar shaped nuclei with myogenic cytoplasm and mitosis
who does craniopharyngioma affect most often and how does it present in them?
duel peak incidicne in children and adults in their 60s

children present with endorcrine deficiency epseacially growth retardation

adults present with visual disturbance due to mass effect
what is febuxostat?
nonpurine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
what is the most important ketone body in DKA?
beta hydroxybuteric acid
what is MOA of aminoglutethimide?
inhibits an early step in steroid synthesis
cholesterol to pregnenolone

this reduces secretion of all of them: MCC, GCC, and androgens

not specific to andrenals
How is metformin metabolized?
Renal inactiveation with short duration of action
what is the expected history of pt with subacute thyroiditis
history of URI, coxsuki, mumps, measles, adenovirus
what is atypical lichens planus examples and usually mistaken for?
erosive
atrophic-plaque like

mistaken for cancer until hystology is seen
progestin only has what problem
33% intolerance due to break through bleeding sporadically at unexpected times
what is the MOA of the thioureas?
inhibit orgnification and coupling reaction by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase(TPO)

PTU also inhibits peripheral dediodination of T4 to T3.
What is the MOA of the MAOIs?
blocks monoamine oxidase from converting NE, dopamine, and serotonine into inactive products

also is responsible for inactivating tyramine and other biogenic amines
what are the most common locations of rhabdomyosarcoma?
head and neck and genitourinary tract
what are histologic features of craniopharyngiomas?
cycstic tumor with calcifications

mixture of squamous and stroma

MACHINE OIL appeareance of wet keratin
what are the side effects of fubuxostat?
diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, liver function issues with increased transaminase
what is the histologic hallmark of type 2 DM?
amylin deposition in the pancreatic eyelets
what are the downsides to aminoglutehimide?
not specific to adrenals
effects are overcome by ACTH
what are the adverse effects of metformin?
GI distress common at start of therapy
can promote lactic acidosis by uncertain MOA, the potential for this is increased by alcohol, tissue hypoxia, and overdose or renal failure
what gene is associated with subacute granulomatous thryoiditis?
HLA-B35
what is the pathology of lichens planus?
autoimmune T cells destroy the basal cells
what is important in choosing oral contraceptive?
estrogen cause anovulation as well as cardiac problems

so must find right amount of estrogen to get effect but not cardiac issues, pair that with progesterone for increased effect.
what is the pharacokinectics of the thioureas?
both are rapidly absorbed
PTU>methimazole

both have short half-lives
PTU-1.5h
methimazole-6h

both accumulate in the thyroid

both cross placental barrier(PTU less than methimazole)
what are the two forms of MAO in the body?
type A
Type B
what is prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma in the extremeities
very aggressive needs chemo
what is normal histo for parathyroids?
composed of mainly cheif cells which are basaloid neuclei with pink cytoplasm

and stromal fat that dots all over it

also there are oxyphil cells with are pink puffy cells

the gland is small and surround by thyroid tissue
what is febuxostat used for?
chronic gout 40-80mg daily
which type of DM is more influenced by gentics?
Type 2
what are the uses of aminoglutethimide?
used primarliy for cusshings syndromes that are due to secondary adrenal cancers

also used with dexamethasone to decrease androgen secretion.
what is the MOA of thiazolidinediones?
reduced insulin resistance

acts through PPARgamma recepto which alters gene expression and promoetes genes involved in lipid storage, reducing circulating lipids, reduces expression of cytokines(TNFalpha), and increases expression of cytokins that increase insulin sensitivity.(adiponectin)
what is the the gross picture of subacute granulomatosu thryditis
variable enlargment of gland irregular or symmetric
what is the typical case of lichens planus?
bilateral
chronic
white lacey stria(wickens striae)
don't rub off

can ulcerate to cause pain but otherwise asymptomatic
what are the main interactions of oral contraceptives
increased clotting factors-so causes issues with anticoagluants doses

p450 inducers will make these drugs ineffective

broad sprectrum antibiotics- sterilzes the gut and net estrogen decreases and loss of efficacy of oral contraceptive
what is the doseing schedule for the thiourease?
PTU every 6hours

methimazole ever 24

this is because even though they have a short duration of action the effect of their actions last a longer time. ie takes a while for thyroid to rebuild its stores .
what about the MOA of MOAIs makes them so dangerous?
they are all irreversible inhibitors
what is th histo of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma as opposed to alveoloar?
embyronal is characterized by fat swollen muscle cells all over

alveolar is characterized by taking on an alveolus.
what is the hormone released form the paraythyroid?
PTH
what are the drug interaction of febuxostat?
6-MO and azathioprine
what is the pathologic process of type 2 DM?
deranged beta cell function leads to insulin ressitance
what is the MOA of ketoconazole
blocks many steroid synthesis P450s
what are the two thiazolidinediones?
rosiglitazone and pioglitazone

only pioglitazone is still on market
what is the histo picutre of subacute granumoatous thyroiditis?
neutrophilic infiltrat in early stages

lymphocytes, plamsa cells, macrophages in later stages

MULTINUCLEATE GIANT CELLS surround pools of colloid
what is the appearance of lichens planus?
raised rhompoid scally plaque
that is pink to purple in color
with white scale on surface
what is importatn about oracl contraceptive and T4 measures?
oral contraceptives increase TBG which lead to increased T4 bound to TBG which results in a raised total T4 but normal free T4 our tests measure total T4
what are some problems with using thioamides?
long onset of therapeuitc effect. because it must deplete the thyroid hormone storage pool this can take up to 4-6 weeks

also bc of this there can be some difficulty in making dose predictions so if to high of a dose is used then you could wind up in hypothyroidism
what are the adverse effects of the MAOIs?
CNS stimulation
othrostatic hypotension
hypertensive crisis from dietary tyramine
what are the vascular soft tissue tumors?
hemangioma
lymphangioma
hemangioendothelioma,
hemagiopericytoma
angiosarcoma
what is PTH released in response to?
low serum Ca
what is pegloticase?
peglyated uric acid specific enzyme not usually found in humans
what is the connection between obesity and type 2 DM?
adipose is hormone producing tissue those hormones lead to decreased sensitivity to insulin
what is a problem with ketoconazole?
causes compensaotry increase in ACTH and as a result androgens and aldosterone increase as well.

also displaces estrogen and testosterone from binding protiens which increases the estrogen/testosterone ratio

can cause gynecomastia an doligospermia in males while altering menstrual cycles in females.
what is the main reason thiazolidinedones are not used as often as they used to be?
weight gain fluid retention that can promote congestive heart failure and rare hepatotoxicity.
what is clinical presentation of subacute granulomatous thyroididtis?
sudden or gradual presentaion

neck pain sometime radiating to jaw, throat, ears espeaically with swallowing

fever, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, myalgia

transient hyperthryoidism follwed by asymptomatic transient hypothyroidism

complete recovery by itself
what is the trait of skin lesions of lichens planus?
extremely puritic (itchy)
occur mainly on the wrists and ankles
what are serious contra indications to oral contraceptives?
history of throboembolic
imparied hepatic function/obst. jaundice
estrogen dependent neoplasia
pregancy
smking greater that 15 cigs a day and older than 35
what is the use of thioamide therapy?
palliative relieves symptoms but does not fix the problem

it allows for recover from stimulus of the hyperthyroid state

often combined with ablative therapy.
what are the uses of MAOIs?
can be use in depression, OCD, and anxiety

shouldnt be front line. but can be helpful if refractroy to others
what are the peripheral nerve tumors?
neruofibroma,
schwannoma,
granular cell tumor
malignant peripheral nerve sheathr tumro
what is the action of PTH?
raises CA by:

causing calcium reabsorption by renal tubules

converting vit. D to active form in kidney

increaseing phosphate excretino in kidney

augmenting GI absoptino of calcium

activatino osteoclasets to release bone calcium.
what is pegloticase used for?
treatment of chronic gout in patients refractory to conventional therapy
where is the initial abnormality in type 2 DM?
the glucose transporters are defective which means insulin is unable to bind them and direct the disposition of glucose into the cells.
what is the MOA of Mifepristone-RU486?
GCC receptor antagonists
when are thiazolidineodones contraindicated?
pregnancy, hepatic failure, and heart failure patients
what is the cause of subacute lymphocytic thryoiditis?
etiology unknown
what is the treatment for lichens planus?
topical or systemic steroids
what is treatment of hyperprolactinemia?
bromocyptine
what is the toxicity associated with thioamides?
adverse effects rate of 3-12%

maculopapular pruritic rash(most common)

lupus like symptoms

most dangerous agranulocytosis(0.3-0.6%)

urusally rapidly reversible with cessation

liver toxicity

cross sensitivity btw thioamides of about 50% therefore if adverse reaction occurs not recommened to switch to other one.
How are MAOIs metabolized?
liver
what are the tumors of uncertain histogenesis?
synovial sarcoma, alveolar soft part sarcroma, epithelioid sarcoma
what are the causes of hypercalcemia?
parathyroid adenoma

renal disease(causes secondary hyperparathyroidism)

bone destroying malignancyies(multiple myeloma, leukemia)

maltignancies that produce PTH like hormone

sarcoidosis

paget disease

hypervitaminosis D
what is the dose of pegloticase?
8mg IV infusion every two weeks
what is the chain of event in DM type 2?
genetic defects and obesity lead to peripheral tissue insulin resistance of the GLUT(glucose transporters) which leads to inadequate glucse utilization.

this causes increased insulin secretion due to hyperglycemia(increased insulin often from genetic defect as well)

persistant hyperglycemia leads to beta-cell exhaustion which is the cause of type 2 diabetes.
what is the MOA of spironolactone?
MCC receptor antagonists
acts to treat excessive alderstone secretion

used as Ksparing diruetic
what were some benifits of thiazolindinedones?
very little hypoglyemia
delayed onset of DM type 2
In whom dos subacute lymphocytic thryoiditis occur?
post partum women
what is seen on histo for lichens planus?
lymphocytes
saw toothed rete ridges
liquification of basal cells
hyperkeratosis
what is treatment of polycytic ovary syndrome?
cycling OCs clomiphene
what are the monovalent anion inhibitors?
perchlorate
pertechnetate
thiocyanate
what are the drug interactions for MAOIs
indirect acting sympathomimetics
interactions secondary to inhibiton of hepatic MAO
antidepressants:TCAs and SSRIs
antihypertensive drugs
Meperidine(displaces from albumin)
what is the prognosis for all tumors of uncertain histogenesis soft tissue
all malignant
what is the PTH like hormone and what does it do?
PTHrP affects RANKL/ostoprotegrins axis shifting bone homeostatis toward osteoclastogenesis
what are teh adverse effects of pegloticase?
anaphylaxis, gout flares, naursea
what is the normal presentation of type 2 DM?
polyuria, polydipsia, seldom polyphagia

occurs mainly in older people

obese

no ketoacidosis instead they can present with hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
What are the effects of ACE inhibitors on the steroid system?
ACE inbhitors decrease acivity of the renin angiotensin system which moderates aldosterone release.
what is the MOA of alpha-glucosidase inhibitiors?
inhibits alpha glucosidase in the guts and slows intestinal absorption of glucose from polysacchardies, lowering postprandial glucose peaks
what is clinical coarse of subacute lymphocytic thyroditis?
most common is hyperthyroidism developing over 1-2 weeks and lastup to 8 weeks before subsiding

usually subclinical no symptoms noticed found on routine labs.

non specific lypohid infilatrate of gland
what is a condition that seems like lichens lichens planus?
geographic tongue
unfavorable cercical mucus treatment
topical estrogen
what are problems of the monovalent anion inhibitors?
can be overcome by large doses of iodide

can cause aplastic anemia
what is a problem with the oral use of antidepressants?
people tend to abuse them. many of them take a long time to work people who are depresed may feel like they are not working so they take more to see if it will make them feel something.
what is the most common soft tissue tumor of uncertain histogenesis?
synovial tumors account for 10% of all soft tissue sarcomas
what are the most common sites of neoplasms secreteing PTHrP?
small cell carcinoma of lung

breast or kidney
what is rasburicase?
recombinant uricase

only used single course in hyperuricemia due to turmo lysis

adverse effects is hemolysis in pt with G6PD deficiency.
why is there seldom ketosis in type 2 DM?
because there is usually still some insulin produced
what is a common presenatino of young male who is exposed to insecticde that inhibits 21 hydroxlase?
mustache

cortisol and aldosterone normal due to compensation of elevated ACTH hyperplasia but a lot of activiy is shunted to androgen production so there will be increased masculinization of the boy who is still prepubescent.
what are the two Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
Acarbaose and miglitol

acarbose used more often
what is prognosis for subacute lymphocytic thryoiditis?
1/3 go on to develop hypothryoidisim(Hashimotos)
what is geographic tongue
conditions with red and white lesions that comes and goes, its not dangerous but we don't know what causes it. may cause some burning, but may be asymtomatics until you eat something spicy or acidic.
oyxtocis are what?
agenst that simtulate uterine contraction

Also stims milk ejection(not production)
what are the uses of monovalent anion inhibitors?
Usually used for acute issues rarely used for chronic therapy


perclorate sometimes used in iodide induced thyrotoxicosis such as amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism
where are the two types of MAO located in the body?
in the brain and in the liver
where do synovial tumors usually develope?
near large joints of extremeites usually lower extremeity
what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia that is clinically appareent(ie shows symptoms)
malignancy
what is the cause of hyperosmolar nonketotic coma?
dehydration caused by osmotic fluid loss due to peeing off glucose.
what are the important precursors to the aldosterone?
cholesterol
pregnenonlone
prednisone
11deoxycorticosterone
aldosterone
what is the adverse effects of alpha glucosidase inhibitors?
moderate GI issues little else because it doesn't leave the GI tract
what is reidels thyroiditis?
rare disorder of unknown etiology

extensive fibrosis of gland and surrounding structures.

atrophic shrunken thyroid
what is the presenation of candidiassis?
red and white lesion on tongue that resembles lichen planus, excepute that it produces white curds that can be scraped off.
what are toclytics?
agents that inhibit uterine contraction
what is the MOA of monovalent anion inhibitors?
competitively block iodide uptake by follicle cells
which MAO works on tryamine?
the one in the liver.
what do synovioal tumors arise from
unknown its not synovium
what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia that is picked up on routine labs and does not show other symptoms?
parathyroid adenoma.
contrast type1 and type2 DM?
type 1-
insulin dependent,
onset less than 20
normal or decreased weight
antiislet antibodies
ketoacidosis
50%twin link
HLA-D linked
autoimmunity
severe insulin deficiency
insulitis, cell depleteion

type 2
may or may not need insulin
onset greater than 20
obese
no anti islet Ab
ketoacidosis is rare
hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
90-100% twin concordance
no HLA-D linkage
insulin resistance
relative insulin deficiency
islet amyloid protien(amylin)
no insulitis and atrophy
what are the important precursors to cortisol?
cholesterol
prenenolone
17OH pregnenolone
11 deoxycortisol
cortisol
what is the use of the alpha glucosidase inhibitors?
only has modest potency for lowering blood glucose main function is to reduce post prandial glucose spikes so usually taken as a combination drug with other oral medications
what is the pathology of reidels thryoiditis?
extenseiv fibrosis that pentrates capusle and extends into the contiguous structures of the neck can mimik carcinoma

causes obstuctive symptoms, hypothryoidism

associated with fibrosis at other sites as well.
what is lost on the tongue with geographic tongue?
the papilla are lost in the erythemoatous areas
what is oxytocin similar to?
ADH

has about 1/10 effect of ADH
what is the woff-chigot effect?
you only need a few mg of iodide a day if you get more than that into ur system it will actually inhibit thyroid peroxidase and inhibits synthesis of T3 and T4.
what is selegiline?
MAOI
what is the histo of synovial tumors?
deep mass with biphasic tumor cells
epithelial like and spindle
monomorphic
what are the parathyroid pathologies?
adenoma-produces PTH
carcinoma
primary hyperplasia-seen in MEN
secondary hyperplasia
agenesis-
accidental-from surgery
autoimmune
what is MODY?
genetic defect in beta cell function
no beta cell loss
defect in insulin secretion/production in response to elevations of plasma glucose

AD inheritance

onset usualy before 25

absence of obesity and autoantibodies
what are the important precursors to estradiol?
cholesterol
pregnenolone
17OHpregnenolone
DHEA
androstenedione
testosterone
estradiol
what is the MOA of pramlintide?
injectable analogue of amylin

slows GI absorption and reduces appetis and reduces glucagon secretion
what is thyroglossal duct cyst?
congenital midline neck mass

cyst lined by cuboidal cells with follicles in the stroma.
when does candidiasis occur?
candida is everywhere espeacially in the mouth, it only manifests when you are imunocomprimised by something like steroid treatment or immunedisfuction
what is good about oxytocin half life?
very short half life allow for us to use it to induce labor and if we give to much we can just stop it and it will break down fast.
what are the prepartations of Iodide that are given?
lugols solution(5% Iodine, 10%KI that is reduced to I- in the GI tract)

potassium Iodide

Sodium Iodide

Potassium Iodide oral solution.
what is speacial about selegiline?
first transdermal treatment for depression

much lower risk of adverse effects especially hypertensive crisis when administered transdermally

adverse effects still exist when using sympathomimetic though
what is the gene defects associated with synovial tumors?
t(x:18) and fused gene(SYT-SSX)
what is the cause of secondary hyperplasia?
gland stimulated to produce PTH by low serum calcium usually caused by renal failure
what are the complications of DM?
cardiovascular
-atherosclerosis
-microangiopathy

ocular
-cataracts
-retinopathy

renal
-proteinuria
-glomerular injury
-renal failure

neuropathy
infectious disease
what is amylin?
when beta cells release vessicles they contain insulin, c-peptide, and amylin

it was once thought that amylin was not biologically active but now we know it is. and loss of amylin release in diabetics is part of the cause of their issues.
what is a goiter?
enlargment of the thryoid gland reflects imparied synthesis of thryoid homone most commonly do to iodine deficiency
how is candidiassis diagnosed?
scrape lesion
add potassiam hydrate
histo will show psudohyphae with football shaped spores.
labor inductino indications
?
what is the MOA of Iodide treatment of hyperthyroidism?
wolff chaikoff effect
inhibition of the organification of iodide
transient

main action is to inhibit proteolysis which leads to decreased release of T3 and T4 from the thyroid this is why the onset of action is so fast and ignores the storage pools.
what is the MOA in bupropion?
appears to only work on NE increasing amounts

acts as a stimulant and suppresses appetite
what is prognosis of synovial tumors?
limb sparing therapy has 40% 5 year survival rate
what conditions often involves agenesis of the parathyroids
diGeorge syndrome
what are the three key metabolic pathways that create complications from diabetes ?
non-enzymatic glycation-advanced glycation end products(AGEs)

activation of protein kinase C

polyol pathways
what is the adverse effect of pramlintide?
hypoglycemia
what are the two types of goiter?
diffuse nontoxic

multinodular goiter
how is candidiasis treated?
antifungal meds
labor induction contraindications?
?
What are the benifits of Iodide treatment?
very fast onset of action
what is an advantage to the use of bupropion?
does not cause weight gain
increases secual desire and pleasure
can provide andtidepressant effects in 1 to 3 weeks.
what can be used to stain for synovial sarcoma?
EMA stains for epithelioid tissue so if you see a tumor that meets the history of synovial tumor and shows spindle cells with areas that may be epithelioid you can use this stain to make sure.
what is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
adenomas
what are the products of nonenzymatic glycation?(AGE)
changes in:
hemoglobin
collagen, connective tissue
protiens, LDL, receptors, nucleic acids
what is a nice thing about who can use pramlintide?
only oral medication that can help type one diabetics as well as type 2
what is functionality of diffuse nontoxic goiter?
typically euthyroid problems arise from mass effects
What does diagnosis with candidiassis infer?
that patient is immuno compreimsed
such as by antibiotics, steroids, diabetes uncontrolled, lymphoma, AIDS


candidiasis is rarely the primary condition
effects of ergot alkaloids?
bleeding???
what are the problems with Iodide treatments?
only a transient effect. gland rapidley overcomes the wolff chiakoff effect after that inhibition still occurs but less effective.
what are the adverse effects of bupropion?
can cause seizures
agitation
tremor
tachycardia
blurred vision
dizziness
headache
insomnia
dry mouth
GI upset
constipation
weight loss
what are osteopgenitor cells/
pluripotent stem cell gives rise to osteoblast
what is the genetics associated with parathyroid adenomas?
cyclinD1 and MEN1
what is the mechanism of non enzymatic glycation?
glucose binds protein to create schiff base that turns into amadori product which turns into protein cross linked product
what are the effects of incretins?
they are secreted by the gut in response to food to aid in insulin sectreion, increased beta cell growth, reduced glucaogn secretion, slower gastic emptying, reduced appetitie
what is the cause of diffuse nontoxic goiter/
endemic form caused by lack of iodine leads to decreased syntheiss of thryoid hormone which leads to incrase in TSH with stims folliculars celsl to hypertrophy and hyperplasia
not common anymore do to iodine salt

sporadic form
-femals in young adulthood
ingestoin of substance that interfere with thryoid hormoen syntheiss
hereditary enzymetic defect.
what are nonimmune related condition that could cause candidiasis?
dry mouth
dentures
presence of other oral lesinos

you should always test for candida if you find another condition like lichens planus?
importance of cervix role in induction?
cervix must be ripened or it will rupture can do this with prostaglandins
How is iodide used in treatment?
almost always given in conjunction with thioureas which have a very long onset of action but more long lasting effects

benificial in thyoid surgury because it reduces vascularity of the hyperfunctioning thyroid.

also used in acute thyroid crisis and severe thyrocardiac disease.
what are the drug interactions with bupropion?
MAOIs can increase risk of toxicity
what are osteoblast
synthesize matrix and initiate bone mineralization and growth
what are the familial conditions associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
MEN syndromes

familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
what is an implication of build up of AGE products?
all the age products increase cholesterol and free radical damage to endothelial cells this means the AGE products play a role in increased atherosclerosis in diabetes patients
what are the incretins and where are they released?
GLP-1- released by L cells in the illeum

GIP- released by K cells in the jejunum
what are some foods that inhibit thyroid syntheiss?
cabage
calliflour
what is found in patients who use snuff?
snuff patch, known as benign keratosis
not dangerous, will resolve in about a month its rare for cancer to develop in a place that patient uses snuff its takes a long time as well.
what are tocoyltics used for?
to prevent preterm labor
what is the toxicity of iodide treatements?
uncommon and reversible with discontinuation

acneiform rash, drug fever, metalilc taste, bleeding disorders.
what are the atypical antidepressants
bupropion
nefazodone
mirtazapine
amoxopine
reboxetine
trazodone
what are osteocytes?
encased by bone, control calcium and phosphorus levels, respond to mechanical forces
what is familal hypocalciuric hypercalcemia?
parathyroid gland has decreased sensitivity to extracellular calcium bc of mutation in the calcium sensing receptors(CASRs)
How can we monitor AGE products?
Hb A1c 4-6% is normal any greater than 7% in diabetics is uncontrolled
what is exenatide?
GLP-1 analogue
must be injected SC
what is the cause of multinodular goiter?
end point of stimuation and nvolutio episodes of a simple diffuse goiter
what is a white lesion with red dots in it along the top of the hard palat?
nicotinic hyperkeratosis
seen in pipe smokers
benign caused by heat not the carcinognens, resolves in a month
what are the tocolytics?
MgSO4
beta-2 adrenergic agonists
indomethacin
nifedipine-ca channel antagonist
what is the use of iodinated contrast media?
used predominantly for diagnosis of thryoid diseases, but it is useful as an adjevant therapy in thyroid storm do to its ability to rapidly inhibit peripheral deiodination as well as suppress T3 and T4 production with longer administration(most likely by same mech as normal iodine)
what is the main effect of Trazadone
sedation thought to help deal with depression by improving sleep.
what are osteoclast
bone resorbtions cells, bread down matrix stimulate bone renewal.
what are the features of the parathyroid adenoma?
almost always solitary involving only one gland remaining glands are shrunken

compsed of sheets, trabeculae or follicucles of cheif cells

STOMAL FAT DECREASED-halmark feature of adenomas and primary hyperplasia
What is the process of the protien kinase C pathway in diabetics?
hyperglycemia leads to diacylglycerol which increased PKC

PKC increases:
proangiogenci molecules(VEGF)
profibrogenic moelcules(TGF-beta)
procoagluant molecules(PAI-1)
pro-inflammoatory cytokines

this creates an inflammed state that leads to free radical damage in tissue and increase deposition within vessel walls
what it he half life of exenatide?
2.4 hours given twice a day
what are the risks invovled in multinodular goiter/
some induce thyrotoxicosis ie become true hyperthyroid state

can result in hemorrhage, fibrosis, calcification, and cystic changes.
what is the main type of oral cancer/
squamous cell
how do you reverse MgSO4?
calcium gluconate
what are the two curative treatments of chronic hyperthyroidism?
surgury and radioactive iodide
what are the two types of pt that may be candidates for electroconvulsive therapy?
those who have failed to respond to medication

severely depressed suicidal patients
what type of collagen is found in bone?
type 1
what are features of primary hyperplasia?
involves all glands
cheif cells are hyperpalstic in a diffuse or multinodular pattern

stromal fat decreased
what is the cause of diabetic neuropathies?
polyol pathways
what is exiciting about exenatide?
in animal models of type 1 diabetes exenatide can reverse diabtes if immuse response is suppressed.
what is the clinical presentation of multinodular goiter?
most are euthryoid
radioiodine uptake is uneven different activty if different regions
mass effect leds to cosmetic deformity , esophageal compression, tracheal compression, SVC obstuction

hemorrhage may cause pain and add to enlargment
what are the main causes of oral cancer?
smoking
alcohol will add risk to smoking but wont add risk by itself
what is risk in beta 2 adrenergics?
stimulation of heart bc no such thing as pure alpha 2 agonist
what is the radioactive iodide?
I131
what are the advantages of electroconvulsive therapy?
effective
rapid onset
can be used to terminate ongoing depressive episodes
what are the two types of bone?
woven bone-fetal and growth plate
layered or lamellar bone- strong replacement for woven
what are the features of carcinoma of parathyroid gland?
can cause hyperparathyroidism

only one gland affected

diagnosis based on local invasion/metasteses or both.
what is the polyol pathway?
hyperglycemia is turned to sorbital by aldose reductase

sorbital somehow reduces the amount of NADH in the cell which leads to inabitly to keep glutathione in a reduced form which makes it harder for cells to handle oxidative damage

obviously this is most important in nerves that can't be regenerated.
what are the adverse effects of exenatide?
GI and rare fatal pancreatitis
what is plummer syndrome?
ocassionally hyperfuctioning nodules may lead to hyperthyroidism in multinodular goiter.
what is the main cause of lower lip cancer?
UV light
what is norethindrone?
is the prototype of the 19-nortestosterone family of progestins. 17-ethinylation yields an orally acting agent; removal of C-19 changes an androgen to a progestin
what is the MOA of radioactive iodide?
emitts beta particles that destroy some surrounding follicular tissue. with results in deacresed hormone synthesis and destroyes some of the stores

only penetrates a small distance into the tissue and Iodine is only found in the thyroid so damage is very localized and selective.
what is an adverse effect of electroconvulsive therapy?
can cause memory loss for event immediately surrounding treatment.
what are the groups of noncollagneous protein in bone?
adhesion
mineralization
growth
maturation
metabolism
what are the systemic effects of hyperparathyroidism?
skeletals-bone resorption

osteitis fibrosa cystica- marrow increased fibrosis, hemorrhage and cycst formation

brown tumors- aggregates of osteoclasts, reacivte gaint cells and hemoorhagic debris, somtimes mistaken for malignancy


Renal effects:

nephrolithiasis
nephrocacinosis-cacification of interstiuti and tubueles

OTHER
metastatic calcifications of other tisue
what occurs in the islets of infants of diabetic mothers?
increased islet mass
what are the DPP IV inhibitors?
sitagliptin- blocks GLP1 degradation
what is the epidemeology of solitary nodules of the thyroid?
incidence of 1-10% of adults in US
incidence increases as you age
4x more common in women
most are benign
what is the overall survival for oral cancer?
58%
why is urine used to get gonadotropins
The urine of postmenopausal women is rich in gonadotropins because they do not have estrogen suppressing their release from the pituitary.
what is the major drawbacks of usage of radioactive iodide?
postradiation hypothyroidism
-therefore radioactive therapy usually followed by replacement therapy.usually for rest of life

crosses plancetal barrier and is exreted in breast milk.
what is usually given along with electroconvulsive therapy?
some sort of sedative like valium to prevent clenching of teeth and stuff
what are the different types of bone modeling?
modeling-formation of a growing skeleton

remodeling- breakdown andrenewal of mature bone

enchondral formation- preformed cartilaginous model

intramembranous formation- bone laid directily on fibrous layer of mesenchyme.
what are the two ways in which hyperparathyroidism can present?
asymptomatic-
presents for routine test shows serum Ca elevation, additional tests show elevated PTH in the presence of high serum calcium levels

symptomatic-
constellatio of symptoms: bones, stones, moans, and groans.
1. bone pain, fractures secondary to osteoporosis
2.renal nephrolithiasis
3. GI ulcers-increased gastrin bc of hypercalcemai, pacreatitis, gallstones
4. CNS depression, lethargy, eventual seizures.
which type of diabetes is associated with reduced islet mass?
type 1
how is stagliptin given?
orally
WHAT ARE THE CLINCIAL CRITERIA FOR DETERMINING WHETHER A NODULE IS NEOPLASTIC?
solitary nodules more likely to be neoplastic than multiple nodules

nodules in younger under 40 more likely to be neoplastic

nodules in males mroe liekly to be neoplastic

history of prior radiation treatment to head and neck is increased risk for neoplasi

hot nodule(take up radioacive iodine) more likely benign(most cold are benign as well but most neoplasia are cold)
what is a problem with diagnosising oral cancer?
once they look like cancer its too late. They look like so many other oral conditions when they are still small enough to treat, and its hard to justify biospying all these oral pathches.
13. Describe the periodic patterns of secretion for GnRH and the relationship to the therapeutic uses of synthetic analogs: intermittent versus continuous administration
a. Under normal conditions, GnRH is released in a pulsatile pattern from the hypothalamus.
b. GnRH analogs can be used to either increase or inhibit gonadotropin release. The effect that the analogs will have depends on the rate/frequency of administration.
what cell type is targeted by radioactive iodide?
acinar cells
what is Vagus nerve stimulation used for?
long term therapy of treatment resistan depression(TRD)
what is the pathogeneiss of osteoporosis?
aging, decreased estrogen levels, slowing osteoblastic activity and increasing osteoclastic activity.
what is the moa of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
chronic renal disease with phosphate retention depresses serum caclium levles

all 4 parathyroids become hyperplastic and secrete PTH to restore serum calcuim

resutls i renal osteodystrophy(bone changes like primary but less severe)

vasular calcificiation causes painful debilitating skin necrosis (calciphylaxis)
what are the cardiovascular complication of DM
accelerated atherosclerosis
ischemic heart disease
vascular insufficiency in extremeities(this is why they lose finger and toes)
abnomral clotting
hyaline arteriolosclerosis
microangiopahty, thickening of the basement membranes
what is the ending of the name for all DPP IV inhibitors?
gliptin
what is a good way to evaluate thyroid nodules
fine needle aspriation
What are the high risk areas for cancer of the mouth?
favored areas are lower vermillion of lip, lateral tongue, ventral tongue, floor of mouth, soft palate. Less commonly, buccal mucosa and gingiva.

Rarely, hard palate, dorsal tongue, lip mucosa, upper vermillion
how GnRH used to stimulate pituitary gnadotropin secretions and increase ovarian functino?
c. To stimulate pituitary gonadotropin secretion and increase ovarian function you want to mimic endogenous GnRH release (give pulsatile doses). Typically use an infusion pump. May be used to “kick-start” delayed puberty.
What is the role of adrenorecptor blocking agents?
effects of thryoid are analogous to symptthectic stimulation TH acts a a permissive to adrenergic stimuli

so these can be used to relieve symptoms indirectly.
what is TRD?
treatment resistant depression when at least 4 antidepressant meds have failed.
what is the effect of menopause on bone?
decreased serum estrogen
increased IL-1, IL-6, and TNF levels
increased expression of RANK, RANKL

increased osteoclast activity
what is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
when parathyroid gland becomes autonomous in the setting of secondary hyperPTH
what are the renal complications of DM?
glomeruloar lesions
-capillary basement memberane thickening
-diffuse glomerulosclerosis (increased glomerular caplillary permability)
-nodular glomerulosclerosis
(kimmelstiel-wilson disease)

renal vascular lesions-due to atherosclerosis

pyelonephirtis- due to decreased immune function
what is the MOA of dapgliflozin?
inhibits SGLT2 tubular glucose transportoer and lowers blood glucose and weight
what is an adverse effect of dapgliflozin?
UTI
increased urination
what are the characteristic of thyroid adenoma?
derived from follicular epithelium

discrete solitary painless mass

most are nonfunction(if functioning called toxic adenoma and causes thyrotoxicosis very rare)

most are cold nodules

not usually a precursor to malignancy
what is the rule of biopsy of mouth lesions?
Management: since early curable dysplasias present as asymptomatic, innocuous red, white and red/white patches as do many other irritational, inflammatory and mucocutaneous disorders, the rule of thumb is if a non-descript white, red or speckled mucosal patch is present for more than 2 weeks without obvious cause or attribution to some specific disease and is in a high risk location for oral cancer - it gets biopsied.
To decrease pituitary gonadotropin release using GnRH?
constant or depot administration is necessary. This is usually given in the form of a depot injection or as a nasal spray. This is used in endometriosis, prostatic cancer, and precocious puberty.
what is the main adrenorecptor blocking agent?
beta blockers -mainly propranolol
what is the MOA of vagus nerve stimulation
an implanted device delivers electrical pules to the vagus nere.
what is the effect of aging on bone?
decreased replicative activity of osteoprogenitor cells, decreased synthetic activity of osteoblasts, decreased biologic activity of matric bound growth factors
reduced physcial activity.
what gene is affected in autoimmune diseases that cause hypoparathyroidism?
APS1/AIRE gene
why is there decreased immune function in DM?
damage to immune cells
neutrophils?
What is the most effective therapy for type 2 DM?
combingin more than one agent with DIFFERENT MOA

weight loss is almost always beneficial as is excersise.
what is important in evaluation of cold nodules?
10% are malignatn so pathologic eval is imperative
what lesion has the highest chance of being malignant?
red lesion that does not go away after 2 weeks espeacially in high risk area.
what are the GnRH analogs?
i. Gonadorelin
ii. Leuprolide
iii. Nafarelin
iv. Goserelin
what is the doseing for propranolol in thyroid conditions?
20-40mg p.o every 8 hours
what are some side effects of vagus nerve stimulation?
hoarseness
voice alteration
caugh
dyspnea.
what is RANK and RANKL?
RANK is the receptor located on inactive osteoclasts that binds RANKL found on stromal cells and osteoblasts. after binding its becomes active
what are the signs of hypocalcemia?
neuromuscular excitabiilty
postive chvostek and trousseau signs
hyperreflexia, muscle cramps
tetany with laryngospasm
mental status changes-irritabilty, psychosis, anxiety
CALCIFICATIONS of ocular lens(cataracts) basal ganglia
parkinsonian like symptoms increased ICP/papilledema
cardiac conduction defects leading to QT interval prolongation
what is the tipoff of kidney damage in DM?
microalbuminuria- 30-300mg in urine

usually seen around 10 year mark of disease
what is the major action of GLP-1?
stimulates glucose dependent insulin secretion
what is the pathogenesis involved in Toxic adenoma?
causes thyrotoxicosis
pathgenesis related to mutaion resulting in constitutive cAMP activation
what is the metastatic potential and place for oral cancer?
very metastatic even when small, usually metastasize to lymph nodes above the clavicle.
b. Dysmenorrheal: difficult and painful menstruation. May be treated with
oral contraceptives, but the drug of choice is more likely to be an NSAID.
what is the major use of beta blockers in thyroid conditions?
used to treat symptoms of thryotoxicosis
treates hypertension, tachycardia, atrial fib, and can inhibit peripheral deiodination

palliavtive used adjevantly with antithyroid therapies.
what is the function of osteoprotegrin?
binds to RANKL preventing it from activating RANK.
what is pseudohypoparathyroidism?
genetic condition in which there is end organ resistance to PTH in target tissues

loss of calcium from kidney with resultant hypocaclemia and hyperphosphatemia

serum levels of PTH are normal or high

pts. may have short stature, round face, short neck, short metacarpals/tarsals.
why could somone in severe DKA have negative ketone bodies?
during DKA beta hydroxybutarate is the main form of the ketone bodies and our tests dont pick that up.
Which drug is a component of the saliva of the gila monster?
exenatide
what are the histo characters of thyroid adenoma?
well defined fibrous capusule
may contain the hurthle cells(pink and swollen) that are found in hashimotos

uniform appearing follciles with colloid,

much more compressed look than normal tissue
what are the three major glands of the mouth?
parotid
sublingual
submandibular
d. Hirsutism: due to excess androgen production is treated how?
If the source is ovarian, you can use oral contraceptives to decrease LH output. LH stimulates androgen production, so androgen levels will decrease.
what is thyroid storm?
sever acute thyrotoxicosis-life threatening
what is the cause of paget disease?
unknown
what is the genetic defect in pseudohypoparathyroidism
GNAS1 mutations
what is potassium level in acidosis? magnesium as well
elevated in serum bc body dumping it out of the cells
what enzyme breaks down GLP-1?
dipeptidyl peptidase IV
how do you differentiate thyroid adenoma from carcninoma?
integretiy of the capsule distinguishes adenoma from carcinoma ***********
where are the minor glands?
lips
bucal mucosa
palat
only a few in the tongue
none in the gums
f. Suppression of postpartum lactation?
Bromocryptine is the drug of choice (dopamine agonst, decreases prolactin release).
what is the treatment of thyroid storm?
propranolol
iodine(saturated) 10 drops daily
PTU(250mg p.o. every 6 hours)

antipyretics
treatements of cause usually infection
what is the pathology of pagets disease?
initially osteoclasts and then osteoblasts are affected leading to disordered bone formation(mosaid pattern)
what is produced in the adrenal medulla?
epinephrine and norepinephrine(the catecholameines)
what is the most frequent cause of death in diabetes mellitus?
MI
what is the difference btw GLP-1 and exenatide?
exenatide is resistand to the effects of dipeptidiyl peptidase IV
what are the risk factors for thyroid carcinomas?
adult female

prio ionizing radiation especially in the first 2 decades of life
where do most salivary gland tumors occur?
the parotid gland
a. Decreased ovarian function in menopause leads to
vasomotor symptoms, paresthesias, muscle cramps, arthralgia, anxiety, and dizziness. Strategy for treatment is replacement therapy with hormones.
what is risk after treating graves disease?
high level of relapse
what is the character of bone in pagets disease?
bone is soft but thickened, porous, lacks stability and is vulnerable to fracture.
what are the secretory cells of the adrenal medulla?
chromaffin cells
why is MI high cause of death in diabetes?
DM causes accelerated atherosclerosis due to creation of a proinflammatory state.
what is a disadavantage of GLP-1?
short duration of action(2-3mins half life) due to rapid degredation by DPP IV
what are the thyroid carincoma?
papillary
follicular
medullary
anaplastic
where in the parotid gland do most tumors occur?
the superfical lobe, which is palpable in front of the ear.
what is the progression of bone density with age and how is it dealt with?
b. Bone density reaches its max around age 30. It decreases in both men and women after this, but more rapidly in women, especially after menopause. The most effective way to maintain bone density is to start with more at age 30. Another goal is to extend the time to fracture threshold by slowing loss of bone density.
what are the most serious side effects of thioamines drugs
agranulocytosis(loss of white cells)
liver toxiciy
what is pathognomonic of pagets disease on histo?
jigsaw puzzle appearance of bone
what is the most common cause of hypercortisolism?
exogenous GC(physcian given steroids)
what causes the atheroslcerosis in DM
glycation end products (AGES) and activation of protein kinase C
what is a drug that is an analogue of GLP-1 but has longer duration of action due to binding albumin
liraglutide
what is the most common thyroid carcinoma?
papillary
what is the percentages of tumors that occur in all the glands?
parotid-70%
submandibular-10%
sublingual-1%
minor glands-20%
what are some therapuetic alternatives to estrogen as hormone replacement in post menapause
as bisphosphonates and SERMs
what is the preferred thioamine?
methinazole due to less side effects
what is the most common cause of osteonecrosis?avascular necrosis
steroids
what is the main cause of hypercortisolism endogenously?
pituitiary produces excess ACTH(cushings disease)
what is the cause of nerve issues like vision and loss of sensation in DM? also kidney
polyol pathway.
what is the big risk factor for papillary carcinoma
prior radiation expose is a big factor here
what is the most common site of intra oral salivary tumors?
the palate most common then the lip.

very rare to have salivary tumor of the tongue bc not many glands there
16. Explain the rationale for the use of estrogen receptor antagonists and aromatase inhibitors for the treatment of breast cancer
a. Breast cancer is often a hormone responsive tumor. Estrogen signaling stimulates proliferation of the tissue in these tumors. Therefore, blocking estrogen receptor stimulation either directly or by inhibiting the synthesis of estrogen can decrease the growth of breast cancer tumors.
how is radioactive iodide given
one dose usually does it

given orally
what occurs in osteonecrosis?
infarction of bone and marrow, due to vascular abnormality
what is character of cushing's disease?
bilateral hyperplastic adrenal glands
crook hyaline chagne seen in ACTH prodcuing basophils
elavated ACTH and cortisol
what cells do not need insulin to take up glucose and what is the implication of this with DM?
kidney,eye, nerves

in DM no insulin so high glucose enters these ares to much and causes damage
what is papillary carcinoma metastatic risk?
very likely 50% of patient have regional node invovlement at time of diagnosis

high propensity for lymphnodes.
which lip gets the most salivary gland tumors?
the upper lip lower lip is even more rare than tongue.
why are a. The naturally occurring steroids are not useful as routine oral contraceptives
Modification of C-17 enhances oral activity. otherwise it undergoes 90% first pass metabolism
what is the reccomendation of radioacitve iodide with pregancncy?
countraindicated in preg and breast feeding bc it will cross into this.

even goes farther people on this medication should stay away from children in general
what is the morphology of avascular necrosis(osteonecorisis)
geographic pale area of marrow, secondary to bone cell necrosis, softening may lead to collapse of cartilage into underlying bone.
what is crook hyline change?
dense eosinohpilc stain around edeges of a cells in the pituitary, occurs in response to hypercortisolism

composed of intermediate keratin filaments
what is the prognosis in papillary carcininoma?
95% survival rate at 10 years

only bad prog is age over 40 with distant mets .
what is presentation of salivary gland tumors.
painless slow growing free moving, submucosal lumps
females slightlymore common
blacks more than whites
30yo, but children and elderly can also get them.
mechanisms of action a. Estrogen or post-coital combination pills (“morning after”):
the mechanism is uncertain, but these probably alter tubal and uterine motility sufficiently to interfere with implantation. Not used in an attempt to influence ovulation.
why is T4 given more often then T3?
T4 has longer half life
T4 is regulated by the body to turn into T3 so less chance of causeing hyperthyroid symptoms
what are the three types of osteomyleitis and what are their respective causes?
pyogenic-bacteria, usually staph aureus, but salmonella seen in sickle cell

tubuerculous- lung or GI TB

Syphillis- congenital or acquired.
what are the characteristics of primary (adrenal) hypercortisolism?
manly due to neoplasms
ACTH is low
adenomas and carcinomas

adults equal number of adenomas and carcinama

children its predominatnly carcinoma

hypercortisolism is more marked during carcinoma,

contralateral adrenal cotex is atrophic
how does papillary carcinoma present?
usually asymptomatic single nodules often present due to mass in a node.
what is the rule about any free moving lump in the palate?
salivary tumor until proven otherwise, bc its such a common tumor its more common than other type of bumps in that area.
MOA Progestin only: contraceptive strategies
can be taken either as a minipill or in parenteral depot administration. These do inhibit ovulation but this effect does not sufficiently explain their efficacy. Effects on endometrial lining, uterine motility and cervical secretions contribute to efficacy.

issue of intolerance due to bleeding
what is the risk of radioactive iodide with cancer?
not big risk in older people not seen.

but it is a potential reason not to give to younger people
what is a common finding in bone from syphilis induced ostomyelitis?
formation of gummas(infectious granulomas)
what is the characteristics of cortisol released from carcinoma?
usually its not as effective as normal cortisol its malformed, but the carcinoma produces so much it over comes that fact.
what are the genetic of papillary carcinoma?
mutation in genes encoding fro tyrosine receptors(RET/PTC, NTRK1) or activating mutation in BRAF
what can you use to differentiate btw benign and malignant salivary gland clinically?
its impossible to distinquish, but if its fast growing, ulcerative, fixed, or has bloodvessels visible in its surface then you may suspect malignant.
c. Combination type MOA contraceptive
these are combinations of a semi-synthetic estrogen and a 19-nortestosterone. These are given in low constant doses for days 5-25 of the menstrual period and inhibit gonadotropin release. Thus no ovum matures or is released. The estrogen is primarily effective for inhibition of ovulation and the progestin ensures proper withdrawal bleeding.
in the US what is the main first line treatment for hyperthyroidism?
radioactive iodide
what is Potts disease?
TB of the spine
what is the one endocrine condition that is more common in men than women?
ectopic ACTH secretion by nonpituitary tumors.
how is papillary carcinoma diagnosed?
papilary architechture often present but not always

DIAGNOSIS MADE BY NUCLEAR FEATURES

empty nuclei devoid of nucleoli=orphan annie eyes

nuclear grooves

intranuclear inclusions

psammoma bodies
which type of salivary gland tumor is always fixed?
tumors in the palate are always fixed.
d. Progesterone receptor antagonistsMOA contraceptive
increased uterine mobility (inhibiton of implantation), some inhibition of ovulation.
what is presentation of potts disease?
curavture of the spine in TB caused by epideral abscess, drainage curative
what is the most common site associated with ectopic ACTH secretion ?
small cell cancer of lung

also seen in carcinoid tumors
medullary ca of the thyroid
islet cell tumros of pancrease
what is the second most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
follicular carcinoma
which locations in the mouth are more commonly malignant than benign.
lower lip and tongue- both very rare but when present usually malignant

behind the pharangeal tonsil is almost always malignant.
19. List the effects of estrogens on laboratory tests, including liver function, clotting factors, and thyroid hormone disposition.
a. Increased clotting factors
b. Lipid alterations
c. Increased TBG and total T4 (pt is not actually hyperthyroid, oral contraceptives just increase liver synthesis of TBG)
what is the most common matrix producing primary bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
what is the state of adrenals in ectopic ACTH secretions?
adrenals are bilaterally hyperplastic
what is a predisposing factor for follicular carcinoma?
multinodular goiter
what is odd about malignant salivary tumors?
often slow growing
often encapslated and non invasive
often painless
often well differentiated.

in all appearances many salivary malignant tumors appear both clinically and histologically benign.

conversely benign cells can appear malignant under microscopic.
20. List the most significant drug interactions with estrogens and progestins.
a. Anticoagulants: due to an increase in plasma clotting factors, the effect of oral anticoagulants may be diminished.
b. Hepatic microsomal enzyme inducers: since hepatic metabolism plays a large role in the elimination of steroids, agents that induce these enzymes may increase the rate of inactivation of oral contraceptives, diminishing their efficacy. This is especially problematic because as a rule of thumb, you chose the lowest possible dose of estrogen. Any increase in metabolism may bring estrogen levels below the therapeutic range. Inducers = Phenobarbital, phenytoin.
c. Enterohepatic cycling alterations: long term broad spectrum antibiotics may reduce intestinal flora which normally produce enzymes that regenerate active steroids from inactive Phase II conjugates. Advise patients to use alternative form of contraception during such therapy.
what is the epidemialolgy of osteosarcoma?
usually in patients less than 20 or in the elderly if other risk factors present
what zone of the adrenal cortex is usually within normal limits during adrenal cortical atrophy due to exogenous cortisol release?
the zona glomerulosa bc mineralacorticoids are under control of renin angiotnesin system.
what is the metastatic risk of follicular carcinoma?
vasular invasion with hematogenous spread to bone, lungs and liver is most common.

80% present with widely invasive folicuar CA that develop mets.
what is the standard treatment for parotid glands tumors?
total removal of superficail lobe. reguardless of malignancy or benign.

going in multiple times can damage the nerve
21. Discuss major adverse effects/contraindications for estrogens and progestins and explain known causes for these
a. Estrogen excess: cervical mucorrhea, edema, nausea, bloating, breast tenderness, vascular headache, hypertension
b. Estrogen deficiency: early/mid-cycle breakthrough bleeding
c. Progestin excess: acne, hirsutism, depression, fatigue, increased appetite (and weight gain other than fluid retention), vaginitis, alopecia
d. Progestin deficiency: delayed withdrawal bleeding, late-cycle bleeding
e. In general:
i. If the problem is a menstrual irregularity, you probably have a deficiency in one or the other components.
ii. If the problem is due to excess estrogen – think salt and water retention.
iii. If the problem is due to excess progestin – think anabolic side-effects of the 19-nortestosterones.
f. Significant adverse effects of combination oral contraceptives:
i. Thrombophlebitis, thromboembolism (due to increased clotting factors)
ii. Increased risk of MI
iii. Increased risk of stroke
iv. Risk of cardiovascular disease is greatly compounded by other risk factors including age over 35, obesity, hypertension, family history, and smoking
v. Increased glucose intolerance
vi. Hypertension (usually responsive to diuretics)
vii. Increased incidence of hepatoma
viii. Increased incidence of gall bladder disease
ix. Principle: both the efficacy as an anti-ovulatory agent and the serious cardiovascular side effects of the contraceptives are due to the estrogenic component.
what are the other risk factors present in the elderly that predispose to osteosarcoma?
pagets disease, infarcts, radiation therapy.
what is the complete list of symptoms in cushing syndrome?
central obesity
moon facies
weakness and fatigability
hirsutiism
plethora
glucose intolerance/diabetes
osteoporosis
neuropsychiatric abnormalities
mentrual abnormalities
cutanous striae
delayed wound healing/bruising
what is prognosis in follicualr carcinoma?
depends on exten of invasino at presentatino but with widly invasive ca and mets 50% 10 year survival.

minimally invasive has up to 90% 10 year survivial
what is the treatment for submandibular?
removal of whole gland reguardless of malignancy
what are contraindications for estrogens and progestins?
g. Absolute contraindications:
i. History of thromboembolic disease
ii. Impaired hepatic function/obstructive jaundice
iii. Estrogen dependent neoplasia/breast CA/genital bleeding
iv. Pregnancy
v. Smoking tobacco
h. Relative contraindications
i. Migraine, hypertension, DM, epilepsy
What are the genes associated with osteosarcoma?
Rb-cell cycle regulator
p53-product regulates DNA repair and cell metabolism

7-% have acquired nonspecific genetic abnormalities.
what is the response of pituitary cushings to dexamethasone suppression test?
low dose- no effect

high dose- will decrease ACTH and urinary steroids are reduced
what is the medullary carcinoma?
derived from parafollicular cells- Ccells

neuroendorcine tumor secretes calcitonin
what is the treatment of the intraoral salivary tumors?
depends on type and malignancy.
22. Discuss the relationship between hyperprolactinemia and anovulatory infertility. Describe the mechanism of action of dopaminergic agonists used to treat this.
a. Hyperprolactinemia is one of the causes of anovulatory infertility. Dopamine from the hypothalamus normally inhibits prolactin secretion from the pituitary. Therefore, dopamine agonists such as Bromocriptine can be used to decrease prolactin secretion and allow ovulation to occur.
what are the most common locations of osteosarcoma?
50% around the knee
15% hip
10% shoulder
8% face
what is the response of extopic ACTH to dexamethasone supression test?
no resprponse to low or high dose.
what is presentation of meduallry carcinoma?
mass associated dysphagia, hoarsness, cough, rarely manifestion related to a secretiory product.
what is the problem of myoepithelial cells in the parotid glands?
they look and stain like many many other cells, chondrocyte, plasma cells, spindle cells, and clear cells
23. Describe the use of drugs such as clomiphene for the treatment of anovulatory infertility.
a. Clomiphene is a SERM that acts as an antagonist in the hypothalamus and pituitary and as a weak agonist in the ovaries. In patients who have low gonatropin levels due to abnormal feedback communication, it can be used to interrupt negative feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary and increase gonadotropin secretion from the pituitary. Blockade at the estrogen receptor in the pituitary and hypothalamus  disrupt feedback inhibition to GnRH, LH/FSH secretion  increased secretion of GnRH, LH/FSH  increased gametogenesis and steroidogenesis in ovaries.
what is the typical presentation of osteosarcoma?
rapid growth
present with pain, swelling or fracture
growth through medullar canal, throughcortex to life periosteum and form a triangle on X-ray.
what is the normal response to dexamethasone suppression test?
low dose will produce lowering in ACTH levels and urinary steroids are reduced
what are the types of medullary carcinoma?
sporadic(80%)
MEN II type A and B
FMTC-familial.
what are the important benign salivary tumors?
mixed tumor(pleomorphic adenoma)
Warthin's tumors
23. Describe the use of drugs such as gonadotropic drugs for the treatment of anovulatory infertility.
b. In patients who are anovulatory due to pituitary hypofunction (not abnormal feedback communication), you can use FSH/LH to stimulate the ovary directly.
what is the most common type of osteosarcoma?
primary solitary, intramedullary, and poorly differentiated
how will an adrenal tumor respond to dexamethasone suppression test?
doesnt respond at all HOWEVER ACTH will be low even before administering any dose
what gene is associated with all variation of medullary carcinoma?
RET proto oncogene
what are the important malignant salivary?
mucoepidermoid tumor
adenoid cystic carcinoma
acinic cell carcinoma
malignant mixed tumor
polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
Oxytocin stimulate ?
i. Endogenous oxytocin is synthesized by the paraventricular nucleus and secreted by the posterior pituitary. Secretion is stimulated by mechanical forces – uterus, breast, vagina. It elicits milk ejection in lactating women and increases the rate and force of uterine contractions.
what is a key histo characteristic of osteosarcoma?
lace like osteoid(pink stuff)
what are the effects of aldosterone?
sodium retention adn potassium excretion
causeing hypertensino and hypokalemia
what is the prognosis of the different tyeps of medullary carcnina?
FMTC fairly indolent, MEN II A lesions intermediate, MEN II B lesions aggressive with high likley hood of hematogenous spread.
what is the appearance of warthins tumor?histo
papilary infoldings into a cystic cavity that has a lymphoid stroma
24. State the usual route of administration ii. Oxytocin
ii. Oxytocin injection: can be given IM or IV. Short plasma half-life (5-15 minutes) allows for excellent control of uterine contractility using infusion during labor. Post-partum blood loss can be minimized by injection of oxytocin to simulate sustained contraction. Only the gravid uterus will respond to oxytocin.
what is prognosis and treatment of osteosarcoma/
high metastatic treat with chemo and resection and continuous resection of mets, often lung and brain mets.
what are the causes of primary hyperaldosteroneism?
aldosterone prodcuing noeplasm

primary adrenocortical hyperplasia

glucocorticoid remediable hyperaldosteronism
what is the distinguishing hist feature of medullary carcinoma?
presence of amyloid deposits in stroma
what is the most common malignant salivary tumor?
mucoepidermoid tumor
what are the oxytotic agents?
oxytocin
prostaglandins
ergot alkaloids
what is the second most common matrix producing bone tumor?
chonrosarcoma
what is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
prmary adrenocortical hyperplasia(idopathic)
what are characters of anaplastic carcinoma?
very rare

EXTREMELY AGGRESSIVE mortality rate of nearly 100%

affects mean age of 65

associated with multinodular goiter
also associate with history of other thyroid tumors

rapidly enlarging buliky mass in neck
locally invasino and mets common at presentation

mass effect causes dyspnea, dysphagia, hoarsness, and cough.
what is the most dangerous malignant salviary tumor?
adenoid cystic carcinoma(cylindroma)
character of prostaglandins?
i. Somewhat more difficult to control than oxytocin, but still excellent oxytocic agents that will contract both the gravid and non-gravid uterus.
ii. Prostaglandin E2 - Dinoprostone: useful as abortifacient and for ripening of the uterine cervix. Also useful for post-partum bleeding. Often given by vaginal suppository.
iii. 15-Methylprostaglandin F2 – IM
iv. Misoprostol
what are good differentiators btw chrondrosarcoma and osteosarcoma?
location and age

chondro-central skeleton, pelvis, shoudler, ribs, seen in people over 40

osteo- knee. people younger than 20
what is a possible gene defect in hyperaldosteronism?
CYP11B2
what is histo appearance of anaplastic carcinoma?
highly pleomorphic tumro with giant cells, spindle cells, mixed or small cells. mitotic figures
what is the most common salivary tumor?
benign mixed tumor
use of ergot alkaloids?
i. Ergonovine: IM or IV administration. Difficult to control so used for post-partum bleeding control.
ii. Methylergonovine
iii. Not for induction of labor.
what is the xray appearance of chrondrosarcoma?
snow storm, prominent endosteal scalloping with flocculent densities.
what is Conn syndrome?
hyperaldosterone caused by a solitary adenoma in the adrenal gland

35% of cases of hyperaldosteronism
what are the parathyroid gland derived from?
3rd and 4th pouches along with thymus
where are benign mixed tumors usually found?
parotid, palate, upper lip
25. Describe the sensitivity of the uterus to the various oxytocics and how this changes during pregnancy.
a. Uterine sensitivity to oxytocin increases dramatically in the third trimester of pregnancy. Oxytocin not a very active uterine stimulant in early pregnancy. If you want to stimulate the non-gravid uterus or in the first 2 trimesters, a better choice would be direct stimulation with a prostaglandin.
what is the histo key for chondrosarcoma?
producation of malignant cartilage
what are the features of glucocorticoid remediable hyperaldosteronism?
uncommon familial disorder

chimeric gene leads to hybrind steroids

under ACTH control will react to dexamethasone suppression test.
what is the origin of benign mixed tumor?
intercalated duct and myoepithelial cells
26. Discuss the clinical use of the oxytocics
a. The oxytocics are used for induction of labor, induction of therapeutic abortions and treatment of incomplete abortions, and control of postpartum bleeding.
what is the epidemiology of fibrosarcoma?
middle aged and elderly
usually de novo but may be associated with preexisting bone tumors, bone infarcts, paget disease, or irradiation
what are the secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism?
decreased renal perfusion
arterial hypoolemia
pregnancy

all these will cause increase in renin angiotensin activity
what is the risk with mixed tumor?
present with a very clean encapsulation but the tumor usually has microscopic buds that penetrate the capsule, so if you only remove the capusle it will usually recur and its not good to have to go in for more than one surgery.

Also 5% undergo malignant transformation.
indications for induction of labor and contraindications.
b. In general labor induction is indicated only when the risks of continuing the pregnancy are greater than the risks of induction.
c. Indications:
i. Diabetes Mellitus
ii. History of intrauterine demise
iii. Prolonged pregnancy (>40 wk)
iv. HTN
v. Bleeding complications
vi. Preeclampsia (HTN, edema, proteinuria)
d. Contraindications:
i. Fetopelvic disproportion
ii. Unfavorable presentation
iii. Invasive cervical ca
iv. If vaginal delivery not desirable – don’t induce
what is the key histo finding in ffibrosarcoma?
herring bone
WHAT CONTROLS ALDOSTERONE RELEASE?
ONLY RENIN ANGIOTENSIN SYSTEM THE ONLY TIME ACTH AFFECTS IT IS IN GLUCOCOTICOID REMEDIABLE HYPERALDOSTERONISM.
which mixed tumor salivary usually turn maligant?
ones allowed to grow for a long time and those surgically mismanaged
27. State the mechanism of action for mifepristone (RU 486) and other abortifacients
a. Mifepristone is a progesterone antagonist that blocks the activity of progesterone at its receptors. Since progesterone is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy, this can lead to termination of the pregnancy. It is often given in combination with Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog. Misoprostol causes strong myometrial contractions, leading to expulsion of tissue.
what is the gene defects in ewing sarcoma/PNET
fusion gene(EWS-FLI) as part of (11;22)(q24;q12) translocation
what are key features about hyperaldosteronism adneomas?
more common on left side

bright yellow bc of lipids(true of all the adrenal adenoma)

PAS reactive cytoplasmic inclusions= spironolactone bodies
what is the problem with needle biospy for mixed tumor?
different locations have extremely different appearances due to the myoepithelial cells producing a wide varity of tissue appearances
a. Toxolytics are agents that
relax the uterus. They are used to prolong pregnancy until the fetus is viable
what is the differentiated histo for EWS and PNET?
EWS-small round blue cells

PNET-homer wright rosette
what are clinical signs of hyperaldosteronism?
hypertension-main
-secondary to expanded ECF due to soduim retention

hypokalemia
-weakness
-parasthesias
-visual disturbances
-teteny
where do warthins tumors occur
only in the parotid but only 6% of parotid tumors
Toxolytics agents
i. MgSO4
ii. Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
1. Ritodrine
2. Terbutaline
iii. Indomethacin
iv. Nifedipine
what do you have to differentiate EWS from histologically and how?
leukemia/lymphoma

can be done with CD99 stain or FLI stain
what is the main adrenogential syndromes?
androgen secreting neoplasms are rare

the most common cause by far is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia(CAH)
what is the common cause of warthins tumor?
only salivary tumor that is associated with cigarret smoking
28. List appropriate indications for using pharmacological tocolysis to forestall labor
b. Treatment includes bedrest first, then if premature labor occurs, the fetus is less than 34 weeks, there is cervical dilation of 3-4 cm, and there are no contraindications, you can use pharmacologic therapy to forestall the labor.
what age group is most often affected by EWS/PNET?
10-15 yo
what is CAH?
group of AR, inihereted metabolic errors of a deficieny to total lack of a particular enzyem in the biosyntesis of cortical steroids.

steroidiogenesis is channeled into other pathways usually the androgen pathway which leads to virilization
what is the prognosis of warthings?
no recurrance, no malignant transformation, limited growth potential

but it can make you sick primariliy
what is the presentation of PNET/EWS
painful enlargin mass of the diaphysis of long tubular bones, especially femur and flat bones of pelvis

lytic tumor

onion skin deposits

system inflammatory response that may mimic infection
what is the most common/most dangerous variation of CAH?
classic salt wasting form caused by 21alpha -hydroxylase defeciency.
what is the location of mucoepidermoid tumor?
palate and retromolar pad

can occur in cysts within a tooth
what is the classic xray finding in PNET/EWS?
starburst
what pathways are blocked in 21-alphahydroxylase defiency?
blocks aldosterone and cortisol funneling steroid synthesis into the androgens
what is the most common salivary tumor in children?
mucoepidermoid
what are the most common bone mets in children?
neuroblastoma, wilms tumor, osteosarcoma, ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma.
what is the presentation of 21-alphahydroxylase deficincy?
lack of mineralocorticoid production leads to hyponatremai, hyperkalemia, acidosis, hypotension, CV collaspe, and death

excess androgen leads to virilzation seen at birth in females but not until electrolyte imbalance occurs in males


lack of cortisol leads to bylateral adrenal hyperplasia which allows for normal cortisol levels.
what is the appearance of low grade mucoepidermoid tumor?
"low grade" examples are predominantly cystic and well-differentiated with mucous cell preponderance
what are the most common bone mets in adults
prostate, breast, kidney, and lung cancer
what is gross appeance of adrenals in CAH classic salt wasting form?
bilaterally hyperplastic adrenal glands that are brown on cut surface due to lack of lipids
what is the appearance of high grade mucoepidermoid tumors?
solid, poorly differentiated and have more intermediate and squamous cells.
what is indicative of prostate origin for bone mets
osteosclerotic lesion in male
what are the less common forms of CAH?
simple virilizing- only causes the virilization

nonclassic- same as classic except with late onset in adulthood.

ALL cases have the bilateral hyperplastic adrenal glands with brown surface
what is the prognosis of mucoepidermoid tumors?
Low grade tumors are more common.
e. most are slow growing but infiltrative and have a high recurrence rate. Low grade ones rarely metastasize and when they do, may require up to 20 years to manifest symptoms.
f. 50% (high grade), 92% (low grade) 5 year survival, 15 year survival remain high in low grade tumors but is 0-20% in high grade tumors.
what type of lesion is seen in bone mets from kidney and lung?
lytic lesion
when can acute adrenocortical insufficiency occur?
can occur in chronic insuffienct pts that have some sort of crisis occur that requirs immediate steroid output that the glands cant compensate for ie trauma, surgery, illness etc

can occur in rapid withdrawal from exogenous prescribed steroids that were taken for an extended period. or if acute crisis occurs while on those steroid treatments

massive adrenal hemorrhage
what does mucoepidermoid tumor resemble?
may clinically resemble mucocele because of soft cystic composition - beware of "mucoceles" in unusual sites like retromolar pad
What kind of lesion is found in bone mets from breast cancer?
can be lytic or osteoslerotic.
what are the most common cases of massive adrenal hemorrhage/
newborns with traumatic/hypoxic delivery(complicated by lack of prothrombin that newborns have)

post surgical pt maintained on anticoags with DIC

bacteremic adrenal hemorrhage also known as waterhouse friderchisne syndrome.
what stain can be helpful in identification of mucoepidermal tumor?
mucicarmen stain for mucous cells
what is the classic presentation of osteoid osteoma?
pain at night relieved by asprin
targetoid lesion on xray
what is waterhouse freiderichsen syndrome?
overwhelmign bacterial infections associated with neiseria meningitidis

rapid hypotension leads to shock

DIC with widespread purpura, espeaically skin

rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency associated with massive bilateral hemorrhage
-hemorrhage begins in medulla cause not understood

most common in children

treat with antibiotics and hormone replacement quickly.
what is metastatic potential of mucoepidermal tumor?
more are low grade rare metastatis sometime local recurrance. high grade rare and medium metastatic potential
What is key to finding giant cell tumor of bone
SouP bubbles appearance in X-ray that is benign and well defined

Plump giant cells seen on histo with no mitosis in the giant cells but can have Some in the other cells
what is chronic adrenal insufficnecy also called?
addisons disease
what scary about adenoid cystic carcinoma?
slow growing
look benign under microscope
devastatingly infiltrative, showing persistent recurrences and eventual blood-borne metastases up till 20 years.
what % of the cortex must be lost for symptoms of adrenal insuffiency to manifest?
90%
What is seen on histo for adenoid cystic carcinoma?
swiss cheese pattern of monotonous basaloid cells compartmentalized into ovoid cylinders by hyalinized pink material,
what are the causes of addisons disease?
autoimmune adrenalitis-most common
where does adenoid cystic carcinoma arise from?
ductal and myoepithelial cells
what are the 3 types of autoimmune adrenalitis?
autoimmune polyendocrinopathy syndrome type (APS1)

APS2

isolated autoimune addisons disease
what is the prognosis for adenoid cystic carcinoma?
intraoral and submaxillary are more deadly than parotid

overall 5 year survival 70% and 15 year survival of only 20%
what is the gene associated with APS1?
AIRE1
where does adenoid cystic carcinoma usually metastasize to?
bone, brain, lung not lymph node
what is APS1 symptoms?
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, ectodermal dysplasia, hypoadrenal, hypoparathyroid, hypogona, pernicious anemia
where are adenoid cystic carcinoma found?
not parotid very often

intraoral very common

ALONG NERVES can spread from mouth up nerves into the brain.
what is APS2 symptoms?
adrenal insuffieciency and autoimmune thyroiditis or type 1 diabtes
how is adenoid cystic carcinoma treated?
wide margin excision
revmoval of bone and never in area all the way up to nearest ganglion
radiation(not very effective but you have to do something)

no need for nodal excision.


if metastasize already debulk tumor to reduce symptoms, otherwise nothing is going to help they are dead already.
What are the non autoimmune conditions that can cause addisons?
infections- espeacially TB and fungal AIDs at increased risk

metastatic neoplasms from breast or lung

rare genetics disorders
what is morphology of addisions disaease?
usually small atrophic glands

lipid depletion of the cortex with lympohocytic infiltrate
medulla spared
what is hyperpigmentation associated with in regaurds to endocrine?
only seen in addisons not in any ectopic releases of ACTH.
what are the clinical signs of addisons?
hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypotension

hyperpigmentation

nausea, anorexia, vomiting , weightloss, diarrhea

glucocortiod deficiency with resultan hypoglycemia

minor stress can cause acute fatal adrenal crisi
what is treatement in addisons?
hormone replacent
what is secondary chronic adrenal insufficiency?
problem with pituitary
loss of ACTH release
what occurs in secondary chronic adrenal insufficiency?
adrenal cortex atrophies
deficiency of glucocoticoids and sex hormones but no defcit of mineralocorticoids so no hyperkalmeia and hyponatremia(renin)

no hyperpigmentation
what is treatment for secondary chronic adrenal insufficiency?
give ACTH so that cortex will respond
what are the traits of neoplasms in adrenals?
poorly encapsulated
adenoma not functioning
carcinoma more likely to be functional than adenomas

carcinoma determined by invasion into vasuclar channels, mets to LNs and viscers espeacially the lungs are common.
what is a pheochromocytoma?
functional tumor of the adrenal medulla producing cetecholamines causing HTN.
what is the rule of 10s?
most stats in reference to pheochromocytoma are 10%

10% bilateral
10%malignant
10% extra adrenal(occuring in paraganglion system called paragangliomas)
10% arise in childhood
10% associated with hypternsion

25% associated with famililal syndromes liek MENIIA and B, NF1 von hippel lindau, and sturge-weber
what is a unique feature of pheochromocytoma?
turns brown or black when placed in a dichromate fixative bc of oxidatinoof catecholamines
what is seen micro for pheochromocytoma?
zellballen-small nests and alveolar groups of cells.
how is malignancy determined in pheochromocytoma?
only by presence of metasteses.
what is clinical features of pheochromocytoma?
hypertension is the dominent feature, but the high BP is abrupt and paroxysimal.

associated with tachycardia, palpitations, headache, sweating, tremor, and sense of apprehension

cause by paraoxsymal catecholamine release

cardiac complications due to ischemic damage secondary to catecholaming induced vasoconstiriction
what is the lab finding in pheochromocytoma?
increased urinary catecholamine and their metablites-vanillymandelic acid and metanephrines.
what are the features of the MEN syndromes?
neoplasm arise at a younger age than spordic tumors

can arise either synchronoously or metachoronously

tumors often multifocal even in one organ

tumors usually preceded by an asymptomatic stage of endocrine hyperplasia

tumors are more aggressive and recur more than sporadic tumors

****************************** know this
what are the specific features of MEN1?(wermer)
3 Ps
parathyroid, pancrease, pituitary tumors

pancreatic tumors aggressive and leading cause of morbidity and mortality

duodenal tumors also seen

mutation in MENIN gene
what are specific features of MEN2a?(Sipple)
pheochromocytoma, thryoid medullary ca, parathyroid hyperplasia

germline mut in RET protooncogene-gain of function
what are the features of MEN2B(multiple mucosal neuromas)
muliple neuromas or ganglioneuromas in skin,mouth,conjuctiva, GI and respiratory tract.

marfanoid body habitus

pheocrhomocytoma

medually thryoid ca 100% of the time

single amino acid mutation of RET
Familial medually thyroid cancer
varient of MEN2A without the other features.