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216 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does G6PD do?
|
reduces FREE RADICALS to WATER
|
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The main cause of RELATIVE erythrocytosis
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dehydration (diuretics, ethanol, excessive perspiration)
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The main cause of ABSOLUTE erythrocytosis
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hypoxemia (certiain hemoglobinopathies which increase Hb affinity to O2; high altitude; pulmonary dz; kidney dz (artery stenosis); neoplastic conditions)
|
|
RBC mass equation
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Production x survival = RBC mass
if survival is decreased (anemia of some sort)...production can increase up to 10x! |
|
Lab eval for anemia requires what 3 main things?
|
CBC
Reticulocyte Count Blood Smear Exam |
|
5 parts to a CBC
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Erythrocyte count
Hematocrit Hemoglobin concentration RBC Indices (MCH/MCV/MCHC) Peripheral smear review |
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Which two of the CBC measurements have highest value birth, drops at two months, and rises to adult values at puberty?
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Hematocrit
Hemoglobin concentration |
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Which CBC measurement is used to classify cells & anemias as normocytic, microcytic or macrocytic?
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MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
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Which CBC measurement is used to classify cells cells & anemias as normochronic or hypochromic?
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MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)
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Which CBC index measures the VARIATION in RBC size?
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RDW (red cell distribution width)
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What does a HIGH RDW tell you?
What does a LOW/NORMAL RDW tell you? |
HIGH - huge variation in cell size - ANEMIA e.g. Iron deficiency anemia
LOW/NORMAL - all cells are about the same size (HEREDITARY problem - e.g. Thalassemia) |
|
What is poikilocytosis?
What is anisocytosis? |
nonspecific variation in red cell SHAPE
nonspecific variation in red cell SIZE |
|
MACROCYTOSIS:
Oval large RBC signifies: Round large RBC signifies: |
oval: underying DNA defect
round: liver dz or alcoholism |
|
This RBC is made when erythrocyte membranes contain excess cholesterol compared to phospholipid content
|
Acanthocytes
|
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Main associated dz's of ACANTHOCYTES
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ADVANCED LIVER DZ:
- neonatal hepatitis - metastatic dz - alcoholism |
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These RBC's have spicules with a narrow base, and are unevenly distributed; smaller than normal RBC's and have no central pallor
|
acanthocytes
|
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This RBC is due to an artifact of improperly prepared smears
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echinocytes
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These RBC's have evenly distributed projections, are the same size as a normal RBC, and retain central pallor
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echinocytes
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What are some associated dz's of schistocytes?
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Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia ******
DIC TTP HUS Uremia Malignant HTN Severe Burns |
|
Name the three possible processes that cause teardrop cells
|
artifact of staining
RBC's with inclusions Abnormal vasculature/fibrosis/malignancies! |
|
Three main reasons for spherocyte formation
|
Immune hemolytic anemia ******
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thermal injury |
|
These cells have increased surface membrane to volume ratio
They are most commonly seen in which dz processes? |
target cells
Hemoglobinopathies (HbC, HbE, Thalassemia's, etc) |
|
Immature RBC's
Why do they look blue? |
Reticulocytes - LARGER & more BLUE than normal due to INCREASED RNA content (polychromatophilic)
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Which dz process is the only one with a HIGH reticulocyte turnover?
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HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA's!
|
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Equation for a corrected reticulocyte count
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% observed reticulocytes x (Pt's Hct/45)
|
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What does increased reticulocytes indicate?
|
the degree of EFFECTIVE bone marrow compensation for anemia
|
|
What is the Immature Reticulocyte Fraction (IRF) indicate?
What does a HIGH IRF mean? What does a LOW/NORMAL IRF mean? |
used for evaluating bone marrow compensation for anemia & RESPONSE TO THERAPY!
HIGH IRF = adequate BM response or sign of successful therapy/graft Normal/LOW IRF = inadequate BM response |
|
To monitor the outcome of therapy, which one of these will have an observable increase before all of the others?
IRF, reticulocytes, Hb, Hct, RBC count |
IRF (immature reticulocyte fraction)
|
|
What does course basophilic stippling represent?
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accumulation of ribosomal RNA due to incomplete degradation or abnormality in the RNA
- causes impaired Hb synthesis |
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In this RBC, there are little pieces of fragmented DNA that are visible as little blue specs in a smear
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Howell-Jolly Body (the little blue pieces are pieces of old DNA that's stuck in the cell...NOT iron!)
|
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In this RBC, there is visible iron containing particles on WG stain
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Pappenheimer body
|
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Which is iron stain + and which is - ? (Howell-Jolly body; Pappenheimer body)
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Howell-Jolly Body = iron negative
Pappenheimer Body = iron positive |
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"Eat Cabot cheese & get _______ __________"
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lead poisoning
Cabot Rings are seen with lead poisoning = a RING around the RBC! |
|
What is Rouleaux formation?
What main thing should it be associated with? |
RBC's clumping together in coin-like fashion
Multiple Myeloma; lymphoma |
|
What does Rouleaux formation do to MCV?
|
FALSLY elevates it.....RBC's clump & look like one giant MCV with a lot of volume
|
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What's the name of the anemia classification most commonly used?
|
Cytometric (Morphological) classification
|
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Dz's associated with Normochromic, Normocytic anemia
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HI ACE
anemia of acute Hemorrhage Immune hemolytic anemia Aplastic anemia anemias of Chronic disease End organ failure (renal, endocrinopathy = decreased EPO!) |
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Dz's associated with Hypochromic Microcytic anemia
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TIC(l)
Thalassemia ** Iron deficiency anemia ** anemia of chronic dz (LONG standing = infrequent) |
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Dz's associated wit normochronic, macrocytic anemia
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LVR ('liver')
Liver dz Vitamin B12/Folate deficiency*** Refractory anemias/Myelodyspastic syndrome |
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Megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic are both types of ________ anemia
|
macrocytic
|
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Megaloblastic anemia shows _______ shaped RBC's and is mainly due to ______________________
Non-megaloblastic anemia shows ________ shaped RBC's and mainly due to _______________ |
oval macrocytosis; DNA dysfunction****
round macrocyctosis; Alcoholism*** & Liver dz****** |
|
Which affects RBC's only, and which affects RBC's, WBC's & platelets?
(megaloblastic anemia; non-megaloblastic anemia) |
RBC's only - non-megaloblastic anemia
RBC/WBC/platelets - megaloblastic anemia |
|
Hypersegmented PMN's are seen with what?
How about hyposegmented PMN's? |
Both can be seen in megaloblastic anemia:
Hypersegmented PMN's - B12/Folate deficiency Hyposegmented PMN's - Myelodyspastic syndrome |
|
Give a few reasons for spurious/false increased MCV's
|
Auto Ab production
hyperglobulinemia cold agglutinins Increased reticulocyte counts (larger cells) Extreme leukocytosis (larger cells) |
|
What dz do you have to consider in all infants with failure to thrive?
|
Megaloblastic anemia (DNA dysfunction in cells)
|
|
Neuropsychiatric disorders may occur first before hematological findings in which dz?
|
B12 DEFICIENCY leading to megaloblastic anemia
|
|
What is the lab 'triad' in megaloblastic anemia?
|
oval macrocytes
Howell-Jolly bodies hypersegmented neutrophils |
|
What is the active form of folate?
What is it used for? Deficiency in folate causes what? |
THF (tetrahydrofolate)
vital in the metabolism of nucleotides & amino acids deficiency causes a block in the conversion of dUMP to dTMP = defective DNA synthesis! |
|
Liver stores folic acid for how long
Liver stores Vit B6 for how long? |
folic acid = 3-6 months
B12 - 2-6 years |
|
What is usually the first MORPHOLOGIC observation in a pt with folic acid deficiency?
|
hypersegmented neutrophils = will see before anemia..which comes a few weeks later! (will lead to megaloblastic anemia!)
|
|
A B12 deficiency leads to what 2 problems?
|
homocysteine accumulation (can't convert to methionine)
folate deficiency BOTH of which will cause decreased DNA synthesis |
|
Deficiency due to dietary intake in uncommon for Vit B12 deficiency or folate deficiency?
|
B12 (B12 has a 2-6yr supply whereas there is a 3-6 mo supply of folate)
|
|
Achlorhydria or partial gastrectomy will affect what?
|
B12 release from foods = b12 deficiency = megaloblastic anemia (B12 needs gastric acid to free it)
|
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Pernicious anemia is used to define megaloblastic anemia due to absence of ____, secondary to ______________.
What causes it? |
Intrinsic Factor (IF)
gastric atrophy! (Auto-Ab against parietal cells!) |
|
Gastrin Test is used for Pernicious anemia. Serum gastrin levels _________ in gastrin atrophy.
|
INCREASE (can't excrete gastrin into the GI, so increases in serum)
|
|
Goldstandard test for Pernicious anemia
|
Schilling test
|
|
Which metabolites can you measure to indirectly test for B12 & folate deficiencies?
|
Total homocystein (elevated in B12 & folate deficiencies)
Methylmalonic acid (elevated in B12 deficiency) |
|
Deficiency in HEME synthesis will cause:
|
iron deficiency = hypo/micro anemia
|
|
Deficiency in GLOBIN synthesis will cause:
|
thalassemia = hypo/micro anemia
|
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Two main causes of Hypochromic/microcytic anemia
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Decreases heme synthesis (IDA)
Decreases globin synthesis (thalassemia) |
|
In adult men & post-menopausal women, iron deficiency is _________________ until proven otherwise
|
blood loss
|
|
Koilonychia & Pica are seen in what?
|
Iron deficiency anemia
|
|
Which one can you see with iron stain (Prussian blue) and which one won't stain?
Ferritin or Hemosiderin |
Ferritin - won't stain (water soluble = washes away with stain)
Hemosiderin - will stain (water insoluble) |
|
If there is a decrease in iron in the body, what happens to transferrin?
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increases to suck up any available iron it can find
|
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How does gastric acid play a role in iron absorption?
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reduces all ferric iron (+3) to ferrous iron (+2)...which is the only form that can get absorbed in the duodenum
|
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Achlorydia & gastrectomy affects the absorption of which two nutrients, which can lead to anemia?
|
B12
Iron |
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List the stages of progressive IDA
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1) decrease serum ferritin
2) increase transferrin 3) decrease serum iron 4) initial Normochromic/normocytic anemia...followed by classic hypochromic/microcytic anemia |
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What does low % Sat mean?
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low transferrin saturation by iron (ie. <30% = IDA!)
|
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TIBC is _______ in IDA and __________ in ACD
|
increased in IDA
decreased in ACD |
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What is often the first lab indication of developing IDA?
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decreased serum ferritin
|
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Why can serum ferritin sometimes be falsely elevated?
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serum ferritin is an ACUTE PHASE REACTANT, meaning that it's levels will be elevated in an inflammation or autoimmune dz = falsely elevated!
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Serum ferritin is _______in IDA and ________ in ACD.
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decreased in IDA
increased in ACD (iron overload!) |
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Why doe FEP (Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin) build up in IDA & ACD?
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FEP is a precursor to heme, and if there is iron deficiency (IDA) OR a condition which blocks iron utilization (CDA), excess protoporphyrin that was destined to be converted to heme accumulates as FEP
|
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FEP is increased in which three anemia's, but NORMAL in one?
|
Increased - IDA, ACD, lead poisoning
NORMAL - THALASSEMIA (defect in the number of normal globin synthesis...so heme binds iron fine) |
|
Sideroblastic Anemia
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block in the incorporation of iron into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme = abnormality of mitochondrial iron metabolism
|
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What are the two anemias due to abnormal iron metabolism
|
Sideroblastic Anemia (can't hook up iron + protoporphyrin to make heme)
Anemia of Chronic Dz (defective iron reutilization) BOTH cause the end result of lack of iron for Hb synthesis |
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Pt has anemia & ringed sideroblast in the CBC smear. What will their total body iron level be?
|
Increased....this is a defect in hooking up iron with heme = can't make Hb...so iron deposits in the periphery of RBC = sideroblasts
|
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10% of Acquired sideroblastic anemia terminate in ______________
|
acute myelogenous LEUKEMIA! because it's a STEM CELL DISORDER!
|
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Two main causes of Acquired sideroblastic anemia
|
Alcohol
Lead (remember that microcytic hypochromic anemia is NOT characteristic of elevated lead levels in children..so can't use this to dx lead poisoning!! - most likely cause of micro/hypo anemia is IDA!) |
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Plumbism is caused by what?
|
Lead toxicity = low I, impaired development, mental concentration disorders)
|
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What is the physiologic basis for Anemia of Chronic Dz?
|
normal physiologic immune response to protect the host from bugs &/or tumor cells...release of CYTOKINES result in iron deprivation, and inhibitor cytokines decrease erythropoiesis
cytokines are released due to CHRONIC inflammation = RA, SLE, Chron's, etc! they're also released due to CHRONIC infections cytokines shunt iron into macrophages and decrease macrophage release of iron = impaired iron recycling! Also inhibit erythroid progenitor cell proliferation Also decrease RBC survival time |
|
BM can be suppressed by which viruses, causing anemia?
|
HIV-1
parvovirus Hep C |
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Anemia Associated with Endocrine Dz is common in pts with ________ and __________
|
Diabetes
HYPOthyroidism (mild; don't need tx) |
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Anemia Associated with Liver Dz is usually a normochromic __________ anemia...however, often why do these cells often look normal?
|
MACROCYTIC
these changes are often masked by concurrent RBC abnormalities from IRON deficiency...so the macrocytic cells shrink & look like normal cells |
|
Increased heme catabolism will present with what clinical features?
|
Jaundice (due to increased bilirubin)
Gallstones (due to increased bilirubin) Dark red urine (due to intravascular hemolysis) |
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Fever, chills, headache and LOW BACK PAIN are associated with what?
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Acute hemolysis
|
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Why does someone with acute hemolytic anemia present with BONE PAIN and possible bone deformities?
|
Bone marrow hyperplasia
- thickened bone - thin cortex |
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Usually people can compensate for hemolysis with BM hyperplasia and not become severely anemia...UNLESS: (3 things)
|
hemolytic crisis - viral infection = macrophages activated
Aplastic crisis - parvovirus B19 or Hep C causing impairement/cessation of BM red cell production Marrow Exhaustion - depletion of nutrients, folic acid, or iron |
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In intravascular hemolysis, when would you see hemoglobinemia & hemoglobinuria?
|
when transport proteins for Hb (haptoglobin) are depleted, and free Hb floats around
|
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The one anemia where you see a markedly increased reticulocyte count
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hemolytic anemia (accelerated red cell turnover)
|
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Major method of extravascular hemolysis
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immune mediated
|
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In hemolytic anemia, the corrected retic count will be high or low?
|
high
|
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If immune hemolytic anemia is a hormocytic normochromic anemia, why then does the MCV sometimes appear elevated?
|
immune hemolytic anemia = marked red cell turnover = increase reticulocyte release = increase MCV due to a big number of polychromatophilic cells released into the blood, which are larger than normal RBC's = increased MCV!
|
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If there is >10% spherocytes on a CBC, what do you have to take into account?
|
Immune hemolytic anemia!
Hereditary spherocytosis |
|
What two cell types are prominent in immune hemolytic anemia?
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schistocytes
spherocytes |
|
The classifications of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
|
Autoimmune (warm; cold; paroxysmal cold hemoglobinemia)
Drug induced Alloimmune - Ab to foreign Ag (hemolytic transfusion rxn; hemolytic dz of the newborn) |
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WARM autoimmune hemolytic anemia is mediated by which Ab?
|
IgG @ 37*C
|
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A lab for a pt shows normal MCV, MCH, MCHC; spherocytes & reticulocytes, and a + DAT
|
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (normochromic normocytic)
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In WARM autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Ab is directed against what
|
high incidence Ag's such as the anti-Rh system!
|
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COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia is due to which Ab?
|
IgM (Ice Cream....MMM)
|
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WARM & COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia may be due to which cancerous dz?
|
Lymphoproliferative dz (CLL or Lymphoma/leukemia)! - low-grade B-cell process
|
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In COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Ab is usually directed against ________-
|
the "I" Ag - a high incidence Ag...hard to find compatible blood!
|
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Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria, has a district ______________ Ab, which activates compliment.
Unlike the regular Cold HA, this one binds to ________ Ag on the RBC's |
biphasic IgG Ab
Anti-P Ag on RBC's - high incidence Ag ****** |
|
The mother is giving birth to her second child. Lab tests show a positive DAT....what could be going on?
|
Hemolytic Dz of Newborn (Rh incompatibility)
Mother was sensitized with "Anti-D (fetal)" Ab from her last pregnancy..which are now going to attack the 2nd fetus. Will cause severe anemia & bilirubinemia (kernicterus) in the fetus!!!!********* |
|
How are hemolytic dz of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility and ABO incompatibility differ?
|
Rh incompatibility - only pregnancies after the 1st one affected; Severe anemia & bilirubinemia in fetus....need a transfusion
ABO incompatibility - 1st & subseqient pregnancies may be affected; mild anemia & bilirubinemia...usually jaundice after 48 hrs....use phototherapy as tx! |
|
3 mechanisms of drug-related hemolytic anemia
|
Drug adsorption - drug binds RBC = acts as a hapten = Ab production for extravascular hemolysis in spleen (mac's bind Fc receptor of bound Ab) ... no compliment activation!
Immune complex - Anti-drug Ab forms an immune complex with the drug in the PLASMA. IC then binds to the drug and activates compliment Membrane modification/autoAb - drug modifies the membrane of RBC = Ab attacks |
|
a + DAT (Direct antihuman globulin test) signifies what?
How about an + Indirect DAT? |
coombs test detects Ab AND/OR Complement on RBC's in-vivo
Ab's in patient's SERUM as opposed to RBC's |
|
What are the three major inherited NON-IMMUNE hemolytic anemia's?
|
Enzyme deficiencies*********
Hemoglobinopathies (thalassemia) Membrane disorders |
|
What's the role of G6PD in preventing hemolytic anemia's?
|
As glucose is broken down, we generate free ATP as well as free radicals which can oxidize Hb = Hb precipitation = Heinz body formation (anemia) --> G6PD reduces these radicals by reducing NADPH & thus glutathione!
|
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Why are the effects of low doses of an oxidative drug tend to be self-limiting in terms of the hemolysis they produce?
|
in hemolysis/hemolytic anemia's you always see an INCREASE in reticulocytes...which are young RBC's with increased NADPH = less susceptible to oxidation
|
|
What does a pyruvate deficiency cause?
|
can't convert ADP to ATP
RBC potassium leak & membrane deformity Sequestration in the red pulp of spleen |
|
What are the three main types of hemolytic anemias caused by INTRINSIC DEFECTS of the RBC
|
Hereditary Spherocytosis - deficiency in cytoskeleton spectrin protein = cells lack felxibility = trapped in spleen; cells run out of ATP to pump out Na
Hereditary Elliptocytosis - same as above, but cells are elliptical rather than spherocytes Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria - (PNH is acquired...where as the two above are inherited!) |
|
Only dz state where there is an INCREASED MCHC
|
hereditary spherocytosis
|
|
About 6% of PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria) pts will present with ________________.
Why? |
acute myelogenous LEUKEMIA
because PNH is an acquired STEM CELL DISORDER...thus can cause leukemia! |
|
What's the mechanism of PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)?
Why is PNH considered a membrane disorder? |
intermittent bouts of IVH/nocturnal hemoglobinuruia...possibly due to increased acidosis/hypercapnia at night = complement more active
ALSO..there is deficient regulation of compliment...so can't downgrade compliment = it goes crazy & lyses cells! PNH is a membrane disorder because there is a membrane deficiency resulting from an absence of an anchoring protein (GPI) on ALL CELL LINES (RBC/WBC/platelets) for CD55/59, which downgrade compliment! |
|
What is the method of choice for detecting PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)?
Are there problems associated with this method? What do the newest methods use? |
Flow Cytometry to identify the absence of CD55/59 on cell membranes
- but can be insensitive, especially if a pt has had a transfusion, he'll get normal cells with CD55/59 on them = cytometry won't detect anything Newest flow methods have toxins binding to GPI....so if there is lysis of the cell, you know that GPI is present = NOT PNH...if cells aren't lysing, GPI is absent = PNH! |
|
What's one of the most significant causes of hemolytic anemia due to extrinsic factors?
|
Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia
(direct physical injury, chemicals, drugs are also extrinsic causes of HA, but not as significant!) |
|
The most common morphological finding in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is ______________
|
SCHISTOCYTES!
|
|
What is the tetrad of clinical findings in HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)?
|
HUS is a Childhood dz...usually from eating food infected with a verocytotoxin producing E. coli (VTEC)
hemolytic anemia w/ schistocytes ARF! Thrombocytopenia CNS SYNDROMES! (Seizures) May also present with Diarrhea!! (Diarrhea +)...if D-negative then most likely a mutation in thrombomodulin |
|
Unlike HUS, if TTP is gone untreated...._______________
TTP is clinically similar to HUS..except that TTP is ________- |
mortality is 90%...so have to catch it!
-Present in YOUNG ADULTS (mainly children in HUS) -more organ systems damaged in TTP -neurological sx more severe -renal dysfunction LESS SEVERE in TTP -mortality rate HIGHER |
|
MOA in TTP?
|
Mutation in metalloprotease/ADAMTS13 = can't breakdown vWF = abnormally large vWF multimers
|
|
Explain the qualitative and quantitative defects of hemoglobinopathies
|
Qualitiative = defect in FORMATION of the Hb molecule (functional defect)
Quantitative = defect in SYNTHESIS of the globin molecule = decrease Hb formation (abnormal amount) |
|
Sickle Cell anemia is an example of ________
Whereas Thalassemia is an example of __________ |
mutations (deletions/substitutions) involving abnormal globin structure formation
genetic defect resulting in reduced production of structurally NORMAL chains (so it's just a reduced # of globin molecules) |
|
Hemolobinopathies clinical manifestations are determined by the amount of _____________
Hemolobinopathies don't present until about 6 mo of age when the ___________ |
variant Hb present
HbF becomes inactive (until then, HbF is protective!) |
|
HbS, HbC and HbE are all caused due to mutations of the _____
|
beta-chain = structurally abnormal globin
|
|
What are the effects of altered function hemolobinopathy?
|
AA substitutitions/deletions affect O2 affinity for Hb
High affinity for O2 - decreased O2 delivery to tissue = compensatory erythrocytosis! Low affinity for O2: premature O2 release into tissue No affinity for O2: Hb always in reduced state (Fe+3) = HbM = homozygous condition NOT compatible w/ life...so only heterozygous forms are seen!) |
|
The most common symptomatic hemolobinopathy worldwide
|
Sickle cell anemia/disease
|
|
B6 Glu to Val
|
Sickle cell dz
(polar --> nonpolar AA = BAD! - change in net charge can be used to quantify how much HbS is present!) |
|
What systemic conditions promote sickling of RBC's?
|
hypoxia (cells go back to normal shape with reoxygenation!)
acidosis hypertonicity temp >37*C All these states promote DEOXYGENATION = formation of HbS |
|
With what dz state is the life span of RBC's as low as 14 days?
|
Sickle Cell Anemia (progressive sickling (from deoxy to oxy) state damages the cells = irreversible sickling = hemolysis)
|
|
What bony changes occur in people with sickle cell anemia?
|
Hyperplastic bone marrow ...so thick marrow but thin cortex (all due to chronic extravascular hemolysis, which leads to hypercellularity of the BM as a result of compensation for increased red cell turnover)
|
|
The majority of the clinical signs of sickle cell anemia are due to:
What are some of sx of sickle cell dz? Also, which two infections are common? |
blockage of microvasculature by rigid sickled cells
Sx: pain, fever, tissue necrosis, infarction of tissues, dactylitis (infarction of metacarpas & metatarsals), thombosis leading to stokes, blindness, ulcers PNEUMONIA (common) & MENINGITIS (common cause of death!) |
|
What is one of the most common causes of death in children with sickle cell dz?
|
CHEST SYNDROME***
- fever, chest pain = due to pulmonary infiltrates from SLUDGING IN THE MICROVASCULATURE! |
|
Of the 3 types of anemia's, which does sickle cell dz fall under?
|
normochromic normocytic anemia
|
|
Even if you suspect that a pt has heterozygous sickle cell trait, why is it important to dx?
|
because 1/4 children can get sickle cell dz (homozygous), while 2/4 will be heterozygous for sickle cell trait
|
|
Beta 6 Glu to Lys
|
Hemoglobin C
|
|
Hemoglobinopathy with intracellular Hb crystals...
|
Hemoglobin C (or also C/S)
|
|
This heterozygous dz is almost as severe as homogyzous sickle cell dz
What will a blood smear show? |
Hemoglobin C/S = NO HbA formed!
sickling & HbC intracellular crystals |
|
Beta 26 Glu to Lys
|
Hemoglobin E
|
|
Unstable hemoglobins are heterozygous or homozygous?
|
heterozygous (homozygous = death sentence!)
|
|
Hereditary Persistance of Fetal Hemoglobin falls under _______ thalassemia, and pt's are symptomatic/asymptomatic
|
beta thalassema
completely asymptomatic! |
|
In thalassemia is RDW normal or elevated? What other dz process has the same RDW?
|
NORMAL! it's a hereditary dz (ACD also has normal RDW....but all other anemia's, RDW is elevated)
|
|
Why in Thalassemia's are there unstable Hb's?
|
excess of globin chains from the chain NOT affected results in production of RBC's with abnormal Hb containing an excess of a particular globin chain = unstable Hb = precipitate = Heinz body formation = extravascular removal by the spleen
|
|
What are the two type of Beta Thalassemia is also known as
|
HOMOzygous Beta Thalassemia MAJOR (Cooley's Anemia)
HETERozygous Beta Thalassemia MINOR - not as severe as beta major since there is still one normal beta gene present...often confused with IDA, but can r/o by doing iron & serum ferratin tests! |
|
In homozygous beta thalassemia major, why can a pt get iron toxicity?
|
erythroid hyperplasia stimulates iron absorption in the gut = iron toxicity (hemochromatosis)
|
|
Classify the four possible types of Alpha Thalassemia's based on number of mutations
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1 deletion - silent carrier
2 deletions - alpha thalassemia trait - mild hypo/micro anemia, target cells, basophilic stippling 3 deletions - HbH dz - moderate hypo/micro anemia, target cells, basophilic stippling, severe hemolytic anemia, HbH (high affinity for O2) 4 deletions - Hydrops Fetalis (fatal!), severe anemia, numerous NRBC's, Hb Barts (gamma4..no alpha's at all = high affinity for O2 = no release of O2 into tissues) |
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Alpha Thalassemia Hydrops fetalis is seen almost excussively where in the world?
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SE Asia!
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Why does an increase in 2,3-DPG cause the dissociation curve to shift to the right and thus decrease Hb oxygen affinity/stimulate unloading?
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2,3-DPG COMPETES with O2 for binding sites on Hb
so as 2,3-DPG increases, O2 on Hb decreases (& vice versa) |
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Hypoproliferative Anemia is a group of acquired or hereditary disorders characterized by ________________
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Bone Marrow HYPOCELLULARITY.....much of the normal marrow is replaced by FAT!
due to depletion, damage, or inhibition of STEM CELL proliferation |
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Aplastic anemia's are mainly due to acquired or inherited causes?
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ACQUIRED - most common being idiopathic (drugs, rx to chemicals, ciruses, radiation, PNH, neoplasms, etc)
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Are there NRBC's or teardrop cells in aplastic anemia? Why or why not.
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NO...those suggest bone marrow replacement disorders & hypercellularity.....Aplastic Anemia has no bone marrow damage, just hypocellularity and a decrease in stem cell production by the bone marrow!
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In aplastic anemia...pt's often have an increase in EPO as a compensatory method...but why is there no increase in NRBC's?
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EPO tries to increase erythropoiesis...but there are no stem cells to do so in aplastic anemia (all 3 germ lines affected)..
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5% of pt's with pure red cell aplasia have ________ & _________
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thymoma
autoimmune dz's |
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Name a type of bone marrow replacement disorder
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Myelophtisic Anemia
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NCRB's + teardrop cells are a sign of what?
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Myelophthisic Anemia (a bone marrow replacement disorder!)
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When you hear "leukoerythroblastic picture", what do you think about?
What type of cells does a leukoerythroblastic reaction/picture show? |
a bone marrow occupying lesion = leukemia, lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, sarcoidosis, TB, fibrosis of BM
- NRBC's, polychromasia teardrop cells, aniso/poikilocytosis |
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What's the MOA of Myelophthisic anemia?
What will a smear of cells show? |
BM infiltration by space occupying lesions: tumor, fibrosis, granulomas
leukoerythroblastic reaction/picture = a lot of NRBC's, polychromasia teardrop cells, aniso/poikilocytosis |
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What is the characteritsistic feature of Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)?
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80-100% BM HYPERcellularity with peripheral cytopenias
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What's the difference between Myelophthisic Anemia & myelodysplastic syndrome?
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Myelophthisic Anemia - space occupying lesion in the BM = BM damage = release of immature cells
myelodysplastic syndrome - clonal pluripotential stem cell disorder (refractory anemia!) where there is 80-100% hypercellularity in the bone marrow, but peripheral cytopenia with anemia! >20% blast cells then progresses to LEUKEMIA! |
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As a response to vascular injury, what 3 vascular responses occur virtually simultaneously?
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vascular constriction (always 1st!)
platelet aggregation - 1* hemostasis fibrin formation 2* hemostasis (with almost simultaneous fibrinolysis starting) |
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Vascular endothelium has both thrombogenic & anti-thrombogenic functions...which factors are in each one?
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thrombogenic - vWF
anti-thrombogenic - thrombomodulin |
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Where does thrombomodulin come from and what is it's role in the coagulation cascade?
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found in vascular endothelium, it activates Protein C...which goes on to inhibit Factor 5a & 8a
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What do the Dense Bodies and Alpha Granules have in platelets?
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Dense Bodies - mediators of plt function:
ADP ATP Ca**** serotonin Alpha Granules - pro-coag function: Factor 5 fibrinogen vWF plasminogen (fibrinolysis) PAI-1 (inhibits plasminogen) |
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What are the 4 phases of primary hemostasis? (1* plug formation)
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platelet:
adhesion - GPIb receptors on platelet bind vWF activation - exposure of GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelets aggregation - fibrinogen & calcium work together to bind platelets together secretion - platelets release GRANULE contents (ADP, Ca),etc, which exposes more GPIIb/IIIa receptors and thus...the priamary heomstatic plug is formed |
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What is the 'templete bleeding time' and what hemostatic stage is it measuring?
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make an incision on the forum and time how long it takes bleeding to stop with a stopwatch
done to measure primary hemostasis! |
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Most common lab method in measure primary hemostasis.
It's results are reported as: |
Platelet Function Analyzer
Closure Time (a high CT = platelet dysfunction) |
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You are using a platelet function analyzer to check the pt's platelet function. You give them collagen & epinephrine. It comes back ABNORMAL. What 2 things could it be?
You give the pt collagen & ADP. The test comes back NORMAL. What does this tell you? What does an ABNORMAL test result tell you? |
inherited platelet defect
acquired drug related disorder Normal after collagen&ADP = drug reaction Abnormal after collagen&ADP = inherited platelet defect |
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Contact factors (Factor 12, prekallikrein, kininogen) play what role in the intrinsic pathway?
How do they go about doing that? |
mainly activating fibrinolysis! & serve as inflammatory mediators
F12 & kallikrein convert PLASMINOGEN to PLASMIN |
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What is the most POTENT stimulator of tissue plasminogen activator from endothelial cells?
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Bradykinin = clot breakdown!
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What 5 'factors' does thrombin activate?
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Other than converting fibrinogen to fibrin, thrombin activates:
Factor 5 Factor 8 Factor 11 Factor 13 - helps in fibrin cross-linking (hard clot) Protein C/S by binding thrombomodulin - goes on to inhibitor thrombin...so self-regulation! |
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What factors are part of the PROTHROMBIN GROUP?
What do they require? |
Factors 2, 7, 9, 10
Require Vit K, Ca, & Phospholipid!!! |
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***************Vitamin K & Carboxy Group are needed for what???**********
What happens in the absence of Vit K |
to provide the critical Calcium receptors necessary for binding the pro-coagulant factors (factors 2, 7, 9, 10) to phospholipid!
Factors still synthesized in the liver, & released into the plasma, but nonfunctional |
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What's the difference between plasma & serum?
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plasma = contains all coagulation factors
Serum = plasma w/o clotting factors |
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Activated Coagulation Time is used to monitor which phase of hemostasis?
What is it often used? |
secondary hemostasis (coagulation) - fibrin formation
used during surgery when a person is on a pump to make sure the person is adequately anticoagulated |
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Thrombin Time measures what specifically?
Which pathway does it represent? What drug does it measure? |
only conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
common pathway it monitors the PRESENCE of heparin (not therapy...but just whether it in the body or not!) |
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What is the main enzyme for clot breakdown?
What does it breakdown? |
plasmin
both fibrinogen & fibrinm, (but pretty much all serine proteases factors...which are all factors except factor 13!) |
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What is the primary plasminogen activator? Where is it released from?
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tPA - tissue plasminogen activator..released from endothelium
but there are many others: streptokinase (drug), urokinase, factor 12, kallikrein |
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What assay is used to detect fibrin & fibrinogen breakdown products?
What is the name of the SPECIFIC marker used to assess degradation of fibrin? If it is positive, what does this tell you? |
Fibrin Degradation Product Assay - uses a monoclonal Ab specific to the break down product
D-dimer - it's specific only F13 cross-linked fibrin (hard clot) = tells you that the coagulation cascade has been activated (since F13 was working) = so an excellent marker for cascade activation!!! |
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Antithrombin is the most important inhibitor of coagulation.
What binds to it to increase it's effect? |
****** Heparin binds to antithrombin, causing a conformational change, enhancing the rate of thrombin/Antithrombin complex by a factor of 1000!!!!!
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When Protein C is activated, what does it do?
How is Protein C activated? |
inhibits Factor 5a, 8a & PAI-1 (it's a Vit K dependent factor!)
Thrombin binds thrombomodulin on the endothelium, and with Ca, it activates protein C |
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What's the role of Protein S?
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helps bind Protein C to phospholipid surface of platelets (due to it's high affinity for phospholipids) and to endothelium...increasing inactivation of Factor 5a & 8a
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Petechiae are due to an abnormality in the _____________
Ecchymosis is due to an abnormality in the ____________ |
platelet or vessel = mainly 1* hemostasis
platelet, vessel or coagulation factors = 1* OR 2* hemostasis |
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Acute Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura occurs mainly in ________; What's the MOA? How is the outcome?
Chronic Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura occurs mainly in ________; What's the MOA? How is the outcome? |
Kids (2-6yo); IgG Ab against platelets; outcome is good = spontaneous remission
young women (20-40yo); Ab against GPIIb/IIIa; Spleen is the site of Ab production & destruction...so if reoccurs..need a splenectomy! DAT test should be positive!!! |
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If the mother has Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura, can she pass it on to her fetus?
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YES...Ab (IgG!) can cross the placenta and attack the fetus's platelets
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What's the MOA in Type I Heparin induced Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
How soon after giving heparin will the pt experience this? How is the prognosis? |
Type I = non-immune = direct effect of heparin on platelet activation = platelet count decreases to >50,000
first few days of drug Often asymptomatic; Spontaneous recovery of platelet count EVEN IF heparin is continued |
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What's the MOA in TYPE II Heparin induced Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
How soon after giving heparin will the pt experience this? How is the prognosis? |
Type II = Immune mediated = HITS SYNDROME!!!
Ab to Heparin-PF4 complex = Fc affixing to platelet surface resulting in platelet activation = increases thrombosis but ineffective SEVERE DROP in platelet count (<50k) with thrombosis (SKIN GANGRENE, MI, STROKE!) Occurs 5-15 days if new heparin user, but hours to days if previous heparin user Prognosis = platelet count recovers only after heparin is discontinued |
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What's the difference between Primary & Secondary Thrombocytosis?
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Primary - symptomatic - platelet count >1 million
Secondary - asymptomatic - platelet count <1 million |
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What artifact can EDTA (an anticoagulant) cause on blood smears?
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platelet satellitism - platelets surrounds neutrophils due to Ab activation
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Bernard-Soulier Disease is a defect in ________________
Is this a qualitative or quantitative disorder? |
B-Sad! (Bernard-Soulier = adhesion!)
adhesion of platelets to the endothelial membrane due to decreased/abnormal GPIb on platelet surface This is a QUALTATIVE (functional) platelet defect (normal platelet count & morphology) |
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Glanzmann Thrombasthenia is a defect in __________________
Is this a qualitative or quantitative disorder? |
Glanzmann = platelet aGgregation
due to absent GPIIb/IIIa on platelet surfaces This is a QUALTATIVE (functional) platelet defect (normal platelet count & morphology) |
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If platelets appear agranular...what is it probably due to?
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deficiency in ALPHA granules = since they are so numerous = Gray Platelet Syndrome!
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vWF is a carrier protein for Factor ____.
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8
So in vWB Dz...absence of vWF = decrease activity of Factor 8 = bleeding |
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What is considered the 'hallmark' of von Willenbrand's Dz?
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Its variability = sx may begin at birth or second decade of life...with no correlation to levels of vWF!
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In von willenbrand's dz, what will the values of Platelet Count, Bleeding Time, PT & aPTT be?
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Platelet Count = normal
Bleeding Time = elevated PT = normal aPTT = normal or elevated (due to Factor 8 deficiency) |
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Hemophilia A is associated with a deficiency in Factor ___
Will PT or aPTT increase? |
8 = no amplification of the intrinsic pathway = increase aPTT
(remember...it's X-linked...so only MALES affected!) |
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Hemophilia B is associated with a deficiency in Factor ___
Will PT or aPTT increase? |
9 = no amplification of the intrinsic pathway = increase aPTT
(remember...it's X-linked...so only MALES affected!) |
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Pt presents with a bleed...the bleed stops and they go home. They come back 12 hours later with a painful and swollen knee
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Hemophilia A/B!
initial bleeding was stopped due to platelets binding (1* hemostasis not affected) second bleed due to absence of secondary pathway (bleeding into joints = hemarthrosis) |
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Clinical severity of Hemophilia correlates with what?
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Factor Activity Level - the more of factor 8/9 present, the better the outcome (don't need much!!!)
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How can a pt acquire Factor 8/9 inhibitors?
How do you tx this? |
pt's treated with FACTOR CONCENTRATES may develop an allo/auto-Ab to Factor 8/9 = severe bleeding
Tx by giving EXCESS Factor 8/9 to overwhelm the inhibitor! |
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This tx is often used during surgeries for hemophiliacs to prevent bleeding
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Recombinant Factor 7a = initiatie the extrinsic cascade to kick off the common pathway...but NO AMPLIFICATION
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Widespread activation of clotting, which leads to a deficiency in clotting factor = bleeding
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DIC
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In DIC...there is a lot of formation of __________________, which interfere with both platelets and fibrin formation!
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fibrin degradation products (FDP) = so increased clotting (platelets used up), but the clots are being broken down quickly = increased FDP
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Acute DIC presents as
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hemorrhagic bleeding, which starts abruptly from at least 3 sites
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Chronic DIC presents as
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a lot of thrombosis (more than bleeding) = infarcts;
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In DIC, what will the D-dimer test be and changes in platelets, fibrinogen, PT, aPTT and TT
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D-dimer = positive = pt is clotting
platelet = decreased count fibrinogen = decreased PT = increased aPTT = increased TT = incrased |
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What's the status of the coagulation factors in a pt with liver dz?
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procoagulation factors ARE NOT produced (usually made in the liver) = bleeding
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In Vit K Deficiency, what happens to factor binding?
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nonfunctional calcium binding sites = Factors 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S do NOT bind the endothelium!
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Why does the Lupus-like Anticoagulant/Antiphospholipid syndrome prolong blood test results?
Does this present a problem? |
it's a lab phenomonenon = not associated with bleeding!
Ab reacts with phospholipid surfaces, which are used for the test reagents = prolonging the test results! may demonstrate thrombosis (placental abortions!) |
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What are two two group of Ab which are in the Antiphospholipid family?
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Systemic lupus er.
Anticardiolipin (ACA) = does same thing as lupus....binds phospholipd membrane where the test reagents bind = prolong the test result |
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Which one affects production of Vit K dependent factors, Warfarin or Heparin?
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Warfarin
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Which type of heparin is treated like a drug, with dose being determine by weight?
They tend to work more on what factor? |
fractioned (low-molecular weight) heparin
Incrase the effect of AT on Factor 10a inhibition |
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What is the problem in Factor V Leiden?
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Production of mutant Factor V that cannot be degraded by protein C
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What's the problem in Prothrombin Gene Mutation?
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mutation in prothrombin increases the effect and conversion of prothrombin to thrombin = hypercoagulable!
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Pt tests + for syphilis...but has not had exposure. What Hypercoagubale state is this associated with?
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Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome = syphilis is a FALSE positive!
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What kind of hematological problems can Hyper Homocystinemia cause?
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hypercoagulation = arterial thrombosisi
skeletal & occular defects mental retardation |
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What is the most common reported cause of death from transfusions?
What's the MOA? |
TRALI = Transfussion Related Acute Lung Injury
Granulocyte/HLA Ab IN THE DONOR**** that react with the patients WHITE cells = white cells aggregate in the lungs to mimic ARDS & pulmonary edema! |