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216 Cards in this Set

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What does G6PD do?
reduces FREE RADICALS to WATER
The main cause of RELATIVE erythrocytosis
dehydration (diuretics, ethanol, excessive perspiration)
The main cause of ABSOLUTE erythrocytosis
hypoxemia (certiain hemoglobinopathies which increase Hb affinity to O2; high altitude; pulmonary dz; kidney dz (artery stenosis); neoplastic conditions)
RBC mass equation
Production x survival = RBC mass

if survival is decreased (anemia of some sort)...production can increase up to 10x!
Lab eval for anemia requires what 3 main things?
CBC
Reticulocyte Count
Blood Smear Exam
5 parts to a CBC
Erythrocyte count
Hematocrit
Hemoglobin concentration
RBC Indices (MCH/MCV/MCHC)
Peripheral smear review
Which two of the CBC measurements have highest value birth, drops at two months, and rises to adult values at puberty?
Hematocrit
Hemoglobin concentration
Which CBC measurement is used to classify cells & anemias as normocytic, microcytic or macrocytic?
MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
Which CBC measurement is used to classify cells cells & anemias as normochronic or hypochromic?
MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)
Which CBC index measures the VARIATION in RBC size?
RDW (red cell distribution width)
What does a HIGH RDW tell you?

What does a LOW/NORMAL RDW tell you?
HIGH - huge variation in cell size - ANEMIA e.g. Iron deficiency anemia

LOW/NORMAL - all cells are about the same size (HEREDITARY problem - e.g. Thalassemia)
What is poikilocytosis?

What is anisocytosis?
nonspecific variation in red cell SHAPE

nonspecific variation in red cell SIZE
MACROCYTOSIS:

Oval large RBC signifies:

Round large RBC signifies:
oval: underying DNA defect

round: liver dz or alcoholism
This RBC is made when erythrocyte membranes contain excess cholesterol compared to phospholipid content
Acanthocytes
Main associated dz's of ACANTHOCYTES
ADVANCED LIVER DZ:
- neonatal hepatitis
- metastatic dz
- alcoholism
These RBC's have spicules with a narrow base, and are unevenly distributed; smaller than normal RBC's and have no central pallor
acanthocytes
This RBC is due to an artifact of improperly prepared smears
echinocytes
These RBC's have evenly distributed projections, are the same size as a normal RBC, and retain central pallor
echinocytes
What are some associated dz's of schistocytes?
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia ******
DIC
TTP
HUS

Uremia
Malignant HTN
Severe Burns
Name the three possible processes that cause teardrop cells
artifact of staining
RBC's with inclusions
Abnormal vasculature/fibrosis/malignancies!
Three main reasons for spherocyte formation
Immune hemolytic anemia ******
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Thermal injury
These cells have increased surface membrane to volume ratio

They are most commonly seen in which dz processes?
target cells

Hemoglobinopathies (HbC, HbE, Thalassemia's, etc)
Immature RBC's

Why do they look blue?
Reticulocytes - LARGER & more BLUE than normal due to INCREASED RNA content (polychromatophilic)
Which dz process is the only one with a HIGH reticulocyte turnover?
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA's!
Equation for a corrected reticulocyte count
% observed reticulocytes x (Pt's Hct/45)
What does increased reticulocytes indicate?
the degree of EFFECTIVE bone marrow compensation for anemia
What is the Immature Reticulocyte Fraction (IRF) indicate?

What does a HIGH IRF mean?
What does a LOW/NORMAL IRF mean?
used for evaluating bone marrow compensation for anemia & RESPONSE TO THERAPY!

HIGH IRF = adequate BM response or sign of successful therapy/graft
Normal/LOW IRF = inadequate BM response
To monitor the outcome of therapy, which one of these will have an observable increase before all of the others?

IRF, reticulocytes, Hb, Hct, RBC count
IRF (immature reticulocyte fraction)
What does course basophilic stippling represent?
accumulation of ribosomal RNA due to incomplete degradation or abnormality in the RNA

- causes impaired Hb synthesis
In this RBC, there are little pieces of fragmented DNA that are visible as little blue specs in a smear
Howell-Jolly Body (the little blue pieces are pieces of old DNA that's stuck in the cell...NOT iron!)
In this RBC, there is visible iron containing particles on WG stain
Pappenheimer body
Which is iron stain + and which is - ? (Howell-Jolly body; Pappenheimer body)
Howell-Jolly Body = iron negative

Pappenheimer Body = iron positive
"Eat Cabot cheese & get _______ __________"
lead poisoning

Cabot Rings are seen with lead poisoning = a RING around the RBC!
What is Rouleaux formation?

What main thing should it be associated with?
RBC's clumping together in coin-like fashion

Multiple Myeloma; lymphoma
What does Rouleaux formation do to MCV?
FALSLY elevates it.....RBC's clump & look like one giant MCV with a lot of volume
What's the name of the anemia classification most commonly used?
Cytometric (Morphological) classification
Dz's associated with Normochromic, Normocytic anemia
HI ACE

anemia of acute Hemorrhage
Immune hemolytic anemia

Aplastic anemia
anemias of Chronic disease
End organ failure (renal, endocrinopathy = decreased EPO!)
Dz's associated with Hypochromic Microcytic anemia
TIC(l)

Thalassemia **
Iron deficiency anemia **
anemia of chronic dz (LONG standing = infrequent)
Dz's associated wit normochronic, macrocytic anemia
LVR ('liver')

Liver dz
Vitamin B12/Folate deficiency***
Refractory anemias/Myelodyspastic syndrome
Megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic are both types of ________ anemia
macrocytic
Megaloblastic anemia shows _______ shaped RBC's and is mainly due to ______________________

Non-megaloblastic anemia shows ________ shaped RBC's and mainly due to _______________
oval macrocytosis; DNA dysfunction****

round macrocyctosis; Alcoholism*** & Liver dz******
Which affects RBC's only, and which affects RBC's, WBC's & platelets?
(megaloblastic anemia; non-megaloblastic anemia)
RBC's only - non-megaloblastic anemia

RBC/WBC/platelets - megaloblastic anemia
Hypersegmented PMN's are seen with what?

How about hyposegmented PMN's?
Both can be seen in megaloblastic anemia:
Hypersegmented PMN's - B12/Folate deficiency

Hyposegmented PMN's - Myelodyspastic syndrome
Give a few reasons for spurious/false increased MCV's
Auto Ab production
hyperglobulinemia
cold agglutinins
Increased reticulocyte counts (larger cells)
Extreme leukocytosis (larger cells)
What dz do you have to consider in all infants with failure to thrive?
Megaloblastic anemia (DNA dysfunction in cells)
Neuropsychiatric disorders may occur first before hematological findings in which dz?
B12 DEFICIENCY leading to megaloblastic anemia
What is the lab 'triad' in megaloblastic anemia?
oval macrocytes
Howell-Jolly bodies
hypersegmented neutrophils
What is the active form of folate?

What is it used for?

Deficiency in folate causes what?
THF (tetrahydrofolate)

vital in the metabolism of nucleotides & amino acids

deficiency causes a block in the conversion of dUMP to dTMP = defective DNA synthesis!
Liver stores folic acid for how long

Liver stores Vit B6 for how long?
folic acid = 3-6 months

B12 - 2-6 years
What is usually the first MORPHOLOGIC observation in a pt with folic acid deficiency?
hypersegmented neutrophils = will see before anemia..which comes a few weeks later! (will lead to megaloblastic anemia!)
A B12 deficiency leads to what 2 problems?
homocysteine accumulation (can't convert to methionine)
folate deficiency

BOTH of which will cause decreased DNA synthesis
Deficiency due to dietary intake in uncommon for Vit B12 deficiency or folate deficiency?
B12 (B12 has a 2-6yr supply whereas there is a 3-6 mo supply of folate)
Achlorhydria or partial gastrectomy will affect what?
B12 release from foods = b12 deficiency = megaloblastic anemia (B12 needs gastric acid to free it)
Pernicious anemia is used to define megaloblastic anemia due to absence of ____, secondary to ______________.

What causes it?
Intrinsic Factor (IF)

gastric atrophy! (Auto-Ab against parietal cells!)
Gastrin Test is used for Pernicious anemia. Serum gastrin levels _________ in gastrin atrophy.
INCREASE (can't excrete gastrin into the GI, so increases in serum)
Goldstandard test for Pernicious anemia
Schilling test
Which metabolites can you measure to indirectly test for B12 & folate deficiencies?
Total homocystein (elevated in B12 & folate deficiencies)

Methylmalonic acid (elevated in B12 deficiency)
Deficiency in HEME synthesis will cause:
iron deficiency = hypo/micro anemia
Deficiency in GLOBIN synthesis will cause:
thalassemia = hypo/micro anemia
Two main causes of Hypochromic/microcytic anemia
Decreases heme synthesis (IDA)

Decreases globin synthesis (thalassemia)
In adult men & post-menopausal women, iron deficiency is _________________ until proven otherwise
blood loss
Koilonychia & Pica are seen in what?
Iron deficiency anemia
Which one can you see with iron stain (Prussian blue) and which one won't stain?

Ferritin or Hemosiderin
Ferritin - won't stain (water soluble = washes away with stain)

Hemosiderin - will stain (water insoluble)
If there is a decrease in iron in the body, what happens to transferrin?
increases to suck up any available iron it can find
How does gastric acid play a role in iron absorption?
reduces all ferric iron (+3) to ferrous iron (+2)...which is the only form that can get absorbed in the duodenum
Achlorydia & gastrectomy affects the absorption of which two nutrients, which can lead to anemia?
B12
Iron
List the stages of progressive IDA
1) decrease serum ferritin
2) increase transferrin
3) decrease serum iron
4) initial Normochromic/normocytic anemia...followed by classic hypochromic/microcytic anemia
What does low % Sat mean?
low transferrin saturation by iron (ie. <30% = IDA!)
TIBC is _______ in IDA and __________ in ACD
increased in IDA
decreased in ACD
What is often the first lab indication of developing IDA?
decreased serum ferritin
Why can serum ferritin sometimes be falsely elevated?
serum ferritin is an ACUTE PHASE REACTANT, meaning that it's levels will be elevated in an inflammation or autoimmune dz = falsely elevated!
Serum ferritin is _______in IDA and ________ in ACD.
decreased in IDA
increased in ACD (iron overload!)
Why doe FEP (Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin) build up in IDA & ACD?
FEP is a precursor to heme, and if there is iron deficiency (IDA) OR a condition which blocks iron utilization (CDA), excess protoporphyrin that was destined to be converted to heme accumulates as FEP
FEP is increased in which three anemia's, but NORMAL in one?
Increased - IDA, ACD, lead poisoning

NORMAL - THALASSEMIA (defect in the number of normal globin synthesis...so heme binds iron fine)
Sideroblastic Anemia
block in the incorporation of iron into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme = abnormality of mitochondrial iron metabolism
What are the two anemias due to abnormal iron metabolism
Sideroblastic Anemia (can't hook up iron + protoporphyrin to make heme)

Anemia of Chronic Dz (defective iron reutilization)

BOTH cause the end result of lack of iron for Hb synthesis
Pt has anemia & ringed sideroblast in the CBC smear. What will their total body iron level be?
Increased....this is a defect in hooking up iron with heme = can't make Hb...so iron deposits in the periphery of RBC = sideroblasts
10% of Acquired sideroblastic anemia terminate in ______________
acute myelogenous LEUKEMIA! because it's a STEM CELL DISORDER!
Two main causes of Acquired sideroblastic anemia
Alcohol
Lead (remember that microcytic hypochromic anemia is NOT characteristic of elevated lead levels in children..so can't use this to dx lead poisoning!! - most likely cause of micro/hypo anemia is IDA!)
Plumbism is caused by what?
Lead toxicity = low I, impaired development, mental concentration disorders)
What is the physiologic basis for Anemia of Chronic Dz?
normal physiologic immune response to protect the host from bugs &/or tumor cells...release of CYTOKINES result in iron deprivation, and inhibitor cytokines decrease erythropoiesis

cytokines are released due to CHRONIC inflammation = RA, SLE, Chron's, etc!
they're also released due to CHRONIC infections

cytokines shunt iron into macrophages and decrease macrophage release of iron = impaired iron recycling!
Also inhibit erythroid progenitor cell proliferation
Also decrease RBC survival time
BM can be suppressed by which viruses, causing anemia?
HIV-1
parvovirus
Hep C
Anemia Associated with Endocrine Dz is common in pts with ________ and __________
Diabetes
HYPOthyroidism (mild; don't need tx)
Anemia Associated with Liver Dz is usually a normochromic __________ anemia...however, often why do these cells often look normal?
MACROCYTIC

these changes are often masked by concurrent RBC abnormalities from IRON deficiency...so the macrocytic cells shrink & look like normal cells
Increased heme catabolism will present with what clinical features?
Jaundice (due to increased bilirubin)
Gallstones (due to increased bilirubin)
Dark red urine (due to intravascular hemolysis)
Fever, chills, headache and LOW BACK PAIN are associated with what?
Acute hemolysis
Why does someone with acute hemolytic anemia present with BONE PAIN and possible bone deformities?
Bone marrow hyperplasia
- thickened bone
- thin cortex
Usually people can compensate for hemolysis with BM hyperplasia and not become severely anemia...UNLESS: (3 things)
hemolytic crisis - viral infection = macrophages activated

Aplastic crisis - parvovirus B19 or Hep C causing impairement/cessation of BM red cell production

Marrow Exhaustion - depletion of nutrients, folic acid, or iron
In intravascular hemolysis, when would you see hemoglobinemia & hemoglobinuria?
when transport proteins for Hb (haptoglobin) are depleted, and free Hb floats around
The one anemia where you see a markedly increased reticulocyte count
hemolytic anemia (accelerated red cell turnover)
Major method of extravascular hemolysis
immune mediated
In hemolytic anemia, the corrected retic count will be high or low?
high
If immune hemolytic anemia is a hormocytic normochromic anemia, why then does the MCV sometimes appear elevated?
immune hemolytic anemia = marked red cell turnover = increase reticulocyte release = increase MCV due to a big number of polychromatophilic cells released into the blood, which are larger than normal RBC's = increased MCV!
If there is >10% spherocytes on a CBC, what do you have to take into account?
Immune hemolytic anemia!

Hereditary spherocytosis
What two cell types are prominent in immune hemolytic anemia?
schistocytes
spherocytes
The classifications of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
Autoimmune (warm; cold; paroxysmal cold hemoglobinemia)
Drug induced
Alloimmune - Ab to foreign Ag (hemolytic transfusion rxn; hemolytic dz of the newborn)
WARM autoimmune hemolytic anemia is mediated by which Ab?
IgG @ 37*C
A lab for a pt shows normal MCV, MCH, MCHC; spherocytes & reticulocytes, and a + DAT
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (normochromic normocytic)
In WARM autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Ab is directed against what
high incidence Ag's such as the anti-Rh system!
COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia is due to which Ab?
IgM (Ice Cream....MMM)
WARM & COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia may be due to which cancerous dz?
Lymphoproliferative dz (CLL or Lymphoma/leukemia)! - low-grade B-cell process
In COLD autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Ab is usually directed against ________-
the "I" Ag - a high incidence Ag...hard to find compatible blood!
Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria, has a district ______________ Ab, which activates compliment.

Unlike the regular Cold HA, this one binds to ________ Ag on the RBC's
biphasic IgG Ab

Anti-P Ag on RBC's - high incidence Ag ******
The mother is giving birth to her second child. Lab tests show a positive DAT....what could be going on?
Hemolytic Dz of Newborn (Rh incompatibility)

Mother was sensitized with "Anti-D (fetal)" Ab from her last pregnancy..which are now going to attack the 2nd fetus.

Will cause severe anemia & bilirubinemia (kernicterus) in the fetus!!!!*********
How are hemolytic dz of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility and ABO incompatibility differ?
Rh incompatibility - only pregnancies after the 1st one affected; Severe anemia & bilirubinemia in fetus....need a transfusion

ABO incompatibility - 1st & subseqient pregnancies may be affected; mild anemia & bilirubinemia...usually jaundice after 48 hrs....use phototherapy as tx!
3 mechanisms of drug-related hemolytic anemia
Drug adsorption - drug binds RBC = acts as a hapten = Ab production for extravascular hemolysis in spleen (mac's bind Fc receptor of bound Ab) ... no compliment activation!
Immune complex - Anti-drug Ab forms an immune complex with the drug in the PLASMA. IC then binds to the drug and activates compliment
Membrane modification/autoAb - drug modifies the membrane of RBC = Ab attacks
a + DAT (Direct antihuman globulin test) signifies what?

How about an + Indirect DAT?
coombs test detects Ab AND/OR Complement on RBC's in-vivo

Ab's in patient's SERUM as opposed to RBC's
What are the three major inherited NON-IMMUNE hemolytic anemia's?
Enzyme deficiencies*********
Hemoglobinopathies (thalassemia)
Membrane disorders
What's the role of G6PD in preventing hemolytic anemia's?
As glucose is broken down, we generate free ATP as well as free radicals which can oxidize Hb = Hb precipitation = Heinz body formation (anemia) --> G6PD reduces these radicals by reducing NADPH & thus glutathione!
Why are the effects of low doses of an oxidative drug tend to be self-limiting in terms of the hemolysis they produce?
in hemolysis/hemolytic anemia's you always see an INCREASE in reticulocytes...which are young RBC's with increased NADPH = less susceptible to oxidation
What does a pyruvate deficiency cause?
can't convert ADP to ATP
RBC potassium leak & membrane deformity
Sequestration in the red pulp of spleen
What are the three main types of hemolytic anemias caused by INTRINSIC DEFECTS of the RBC
Hereditary Spherocytosis - deficiency in cytoskeleton spectrin protein = cells lack felxibility = trapped in spleen; cells run out of ATP to pump out Na
Hereditary Elliptocytosis - same as above, but cells are elliptical rather than spherocytes
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria - (PNH is acquired...where as the two above are inherited!)
Only dz state where there is an INCREASED MCHC
hereditary spherocytosis
About 6% of PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria) pts will present with ________________.

Why?
acute myelogenous LEUKEMIA

because PNH is an acquired STEM CELL DISORDER...thus can cause leukemia!
What's the mechanism of PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)?

Why is PNH considered a membrane disorder?
intermittent bouts of IVH/nocturnal hemoglobinuruia...possibly due to increased acidosis/hypercapnia at night = complement more active

ALSO..there is deficient regulation of compliment...so can't downgrade compliment = it goes crazy & lyses cells!

PNH is a membrane disorder because there is a membrane deficiency resulting from an absence of an anchoring protein (GPI) on ALL CELL LINES (RBC/WBC/platelets) for CD55/59, which downgrade compliment!
What is the method of choice for detecting PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)?

Are there problems associated with this method?

What do the newest methods use?
Flow Cytometry to identify the absence of CD55/59 on cell membranes

- but can be insensitive, especially if a pt has had a transfusion, he'll get normal cells with CD55/59 on them = cytometry won't detect anything

Newest flow methods have toxins binding to GPI....so if there is lysis of the cell, you know that GPI is present = NOT PNH...if cells aren't lysing, GPI is absent = PNH!
What's one of the most significant causes of hemolytic anemia due to extrinsic factors?
Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia

(direct physical injury, chemicals, drugs are also extrinsic causes of HA, but not as significant!)
The most common morphological finding in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is ______________
SCHISTOCYTES!
What is the tetrad of clinical findings in HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)?
HUS is a Childhood dz...usually from eating food infected with a verocytotoxin producing E. coli (VTEC)

hemolytic anemia w/ schistocytes
ARF!
Thrombocytopenia
CNS SYNDROMES! (Seizures)

May also present with Diarrhea!! (Diarrhea +)...if D-negative then most likely a mutation in thrombomodulin
Unlike HUS, if TTP is gone untreated...._______________

TTP is clinically similar to HUS..except that TTP is ________-
mortality is 90%...so have to catch it!

-Present in YOUNG ADULTS (mainly children in HUS)
-more organ systems damaged in TTP
-neurological sx more severe
-renal dysfunction LESS SEVERE in TTP
-mortality rate HIGHER
MOA in TTP?
Mutation in metalloprotease/ADAMTS13 = can't breakdown vWF = abnormally large vWF multimers
Explain the qualitative and quantitative defects of hemoglobinopathies
Qualitiative = defect in FORMATION of the Hb molecule (functional defect)

Quantitative = defect in SYNTHESIS of the globin molecule = decrease Hb formation (abnormal amount)
Sickle Cell anemia is an example of ________

Whereas Thalassemia is an example of __________
mutations (deletions/substitutions) involving abnormal globin structure formation

genetic defect resulting in reduced production of structurally NORMAL chains (so it's just a reduced # of globin molecules)
Hemolobinopathies clinical manifestations are determined by the amount of _____________

Hemolobinopathies don't present until about 6 mo of age when the ___________
variant Hb present

HbF becomes inactive (until then, HbF is protective!)
HbS, HbC and HbE are all caused due to mutations of the _____
beta-chain = structurally abnormal globin
What are the effects of altered function hemolobinopathy?
AA substitutitions/deletions affect O2 affinity for Hb

High affinity for O2 - decreased O2 delivery to tissue = compensatory erythrocytosis!

Low affinity for O2: premature O2 release into tissue

No affinity for O2: Hb always in reduced state (Fe+3) = HbM = homozygous condition NOT compatible w/ life...so only heterozygous forms are seen!)
The most common symptomatic hemolobinopathy worldwide
Sickle cell anemia/disease
B6 Glu to Val
Sickle cell dz

(polar --> nonpolar AA = BAD! - change in net charge can be used to quantify how much HbS is present!)
What systemic conditions promote sickling of RBC's?
hypoxia (cells go back to normal shape with reoxygenation!)
acidosis
hypertonicity
temp >37*C

All these states promote DEOXYGENATION = formation of HbS
With what dz state is the life span of RBC's as low as 14 days?
Sickle Cell Anemia (progressive sickling (from deoxy to oxy) state damages the cells = irreversible sickling = hemolysis)
What bony changes occur in people with sickle cell anemia?
Hyperplastic bone marrow ...so thick marrow but thin cortex (all due to chronic extravascular hemolysis, which leads to hypercellularity of the BM as a result of compensation for increased red cell turnover)
The majority of the clinical signs of sickle cell anemia are due to:

What are some of sx of sickle cell dz?

Also, which two infections are common?
blockage of microvasculature by rigid sickled cells

Sx: pain, fever, tissue necrosis, infarction of tissues, dactylitis (infarction of metacarpas & metatarsals), thombosis leading to stokes, blindness, ulcers

PNEUMONIA (common) & MENINGITIS (common cause of death!)
What is one of the most common causes of death in children with sickle cell dz?
CHEST SYNDROME***
- fever, chest pain = due to pulmonary infiltrates from SLUDGING IN THE MICROVASCULATURE!
Of the 3 types of anemia's, which does sickle cell dz fall under?
normochromic normocytic anemia
Even if you suspect that a pt has heterozygous sickle cell trait, why is it important to dx?
because 1/4 children can get sickle cell dz (homozygous), while 2/4 will be heterozygous for sickle cell trait
Beta 6 Glu to Lys
Hemoglobin C
Hemoglobinopathy with intracellular Hb crystals...
Hemoglobin C (or also C/S)
This heterozygous dz is almost as severe as homogyzous sickle cell dz

What will a blood smear show?
Hemoglobin C/S = NO HbA formed!

sickling & HbC intracellular crystals
Beta 26 Glu to Lys
Hemoglobin E
Unstable hemoglobins are heterozygous or homozygous?
heterozygous (homozygous = death sentence!)
Hereditary Persistance of Fetal Hemoglobin falls under _______ thalassemia, and pt's are symptomatic/asymptomatic
beta thalassema

completely asymptomatic!
In thalassemia is RDW normal or elevated? What other dz process has the same RDW?
NORMAL! it's a hereditary dz (ACD also has normal RDW....but all other anemia's, RDW is elevated)
Why in Thalassemia's are there unstable Hb's?
excess of globin chains from the chain NOT affected results in production of RBC's with abnormal Hb containing an excess of a particular globin chain = unstable Hb = precipitate = Heinz body formation = extravascular removal by the spleen
What are the two type of Beta Thalassemia is also known as
HOMOzygous Beta Thalassemia MAJOR (Cooley's Anemia)

HETERozygous Beta Thalassemia MINOR - not as severe as beta major since there is still one normal beta gene present...often confused with IDA, but can r/o by doing iron & serum ferratin tests!
In homozygous beta thalassemia major, why can a pt get iron toxicity?
erythroid hyperplasia stimulates iron absorption in the gut = iron toxicity (hemochromatosis)
Classify the four possible types of Alpha Thalassemia's based on number of mutations
1 deletion - silent carrier
2 deletions - alpha thalassemia trait - mild hypo/micro anemia, target cells, basophilic stippling
3 deletions - HbH dz - moderate hypo/micro anemia, target cells, basophilic stippling, severe hemolytic anemia, HbH (high affinity for O2)
4 deletions - Hydrops Fetalis (fatal!), severe anemia, numerous NRBC's, Hb Barts (gamma4..no alpha's at all = high affinity for O2 = no release of O2 into tissues)
Alpha Thalassemia Hydrops fetalis is seen almost excussively where in the world?
SE Asia!
Why does an increase in 2,3-DPG cause the dissociation curve to shift to the right and thus decrease Hb oxygen affinity/stimulate unloading?
2,3-DPG COMPETES with O2 for binding sites on Hb

so as 2,3-DPG increases, O2 on Hb decreases (& vice versa)
Hypoproliferative Anemia is a group of acquired or hereditary disorders characterized by ________________
Bone Marrow HYPOCELLULARITY.....much of the normal marrow is replaced by FAT!

due to depletion, damage, or inhibition of STEM CELL proliferation
Aplastic anemia's are mainly due to acquired or inherited causes?
ACQUIRED - most common being idiopathic (drugs, rx to chemicals, ciruses, radiation, PNH, neoplasms, etc)
Are there NRBC's or teardrop cells in aplastic anemia? Why or why not.
NO...those suggest bone marrow replacement disorders & hypercellularity.....Aplastic Anemia has no bone marrow damage, just hypocellularity and a decrease in stem cell production by the bone marrow!
In aplastic anemia...pt's often have an increase in EPO as a compensatory method...but why is there no increase in NRBC's?
EPO tries to increase erythropoiesis...but there are no stem cells to do so in aplastic anemia (all 3 germ lines affected)..
5% of pt's with pure red cell aplasia have ________ & _________
thymoma
autoimmune dz's
Name a type of bone marrow replacement disorder
Myelophtisic Anemia
NCRB's + teardrop cells are a sign of what?
Myelophthisic Anemia (a bone marrow replacement disorder!)
When you hear "leukoerythroblastic picture", what do you think about?

What type of cells does a leukoerythroblastic reaction/picture show?
a bone marrow occupying lesion = leukemia, lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, sarcoidosis, TB, fibrosis of BM

- NRBC's, polychromasia teardrop cells, aniso/poikilocytosis
What's the MOA of Myelophthisic anemia?


What will a smear of cells show?
BM infiltration by space occupying lesions: tumor, fibrosis, granulomas

leukoerythroblastic reaction/picture = a lot of NRBC's, polychromasia teardrop cells, aniso/poikilocytosis
What is the characteritsistic feature of Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)?
80-100% BM HYPERcellularity with peripheral cytopenias
What's the difference between Myelophthisic Anemia & myelodysplastic syndrome?
Myelophthisic Anemia - space occupying lesion in the BM = BM damage = release of immature cells

myelodysplastic syndrome - clonal pluripotential stem cell disorder (refractory anemia!) where there is 80-100% hypercellularity in the bone marrow, but peripheral cytopenia with anemia! >20% blast cells then progresses to LEUKEMIA!
As a response to vascular injury, what 3 vascular responses occur virtually simultaneously?
vascular constriction (always 1st!)
platelet aggregation - 1* hemostasis
fibrin formation 2* hemostasis (with almost simultaneous fibrinolysis starting)
Vascular endothelium has both thrombogenic & anti-thrombogenic functions...which factors are in each one?
thrombogenic - vWF

anti-thrombogenic - thrombomodulin
Where does thrombomodulin come from and what is it's role in the coagulation cascade?
found in vascular endothelium, it activates Protein C...which goes on to inhibit Factor 5a & 8a
What do the Dense Bodies and Alpha Granules have in platelets?
Dense Bodies - mediators of plt function:
ADP
ATP
Ca****
serotonin

Alpha Granules - pro-coag function: Factor 5
fibrinogen
vWF
plasminogen (fibrinolysis)
PAI-1 (inhibits plasminogen)
What are the 4 phases of primary hemostasis? (1* plug formation)
platelet:
adhesion - GPIb receptors on platelet bind vWF
activation - exposure of GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelets
aggregation - fibrinogen & calcium work together to bind platelets together
secretion - platelets release GRANULE contents (ADP, Ca),etc, which exposes more GPIIb/IIIa receptors

and thus...the priamary heomstatic plug is formed
What is the 'templete bleeding time' and what hemostatic stage is it measuring?
make an incision on the forum and time how long it takes bleeding to stop with a stopwatch

done to measure primary hemostasis!
Most common lab method in measure primary hemostasis.

It's results are reported as:
Platelet Function Analyzer

Closure Time (a high CT = platelet dysfunction)
You are using a platelet function analyzer to check the pt's platelet function. You give them collagen & epinephrine. It comes back ABNORMAL. What 2 things could it be?

You give the pt collagen & ADP. The test comes back NORMAL. What does this tell you? What does an ABNORMAL test result tell you?
inherited platelet defect
acquired drug related disorder

Normal after collagen&ADP = drug reaction
Abnormal after collagen&ADP = inherited platelet defect
Contact factors (Factor 12, prekallikrein, kininogen) play what role in the intrinsic pathway?

How do they go about doing that?
mainly activating fibrinolysis! & serve as inflammatory mediators

F12 & kallikrein convert PLASMINOGEN to PLASMIN
What is the most POTENT stimulator of tissue plasminogen activator from endothelial cells?
Bradykinin = clot breakdown!
What 5 'factors' does thrombin activate?
Other than converting fibrinogen to fibrin, thrombin activates:
Factor 5
Factor 8
Factor 11
Factor 13 - helps in fibrin cross-linking (hard clot)
Protein C/S by binding thrombomodulin - goes on to inhibitor thrombin...so self-regulation!
What factors are part of the PROTHROMBIN GROUP?

What do they require?
Factors 2, 7, 9, 10

Require Vit K, Ca, & Phospholipid!!!
***************Vitamin K & Carboxy Group are needed for what???**********

What happens in the absence of Vit K
to provide the critical Calcium receptors necessary for binding the pro-coagulant factors (factors 2, 7, 9, 10) to phospholipid!

Factors still synthesized in the liver, & released into the plasma, but nonfunctional
What's the difference between plasma & serum?
plasma = contains all coagulation factors
Serum = plasma w/o clotting factors
Activated Coagulation Time is used to monitor which phase of hemostasis?

What is it often used?
secondary hemostasis (coagulation) - fibrin formation

used during surgery when a person is on a pump to make sure the person is adequately anticoagulated
Thrombin Time measures what specifically?

Which pathway does it represent?

What drug does it measure?
only conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

common pathway

it monitors the PRESENCE of heparin (not therapy...but just whether it in the body or not!)
What is the main enzyme for clot breakdown?

What does it breakdown?
plasmin

both fibrinogen & fibrinm, (but pretty much all serine proteases factors...which are all factors except factor 13!)
What is the primary plasminogen activator? Where is it released from?
tPA - tissue plasminogen activator..released from endothelium

but there are many others: streptokinase (drug), urokinase, factor 12, kallikrein
What assay is used to detect fibrin & fibrinogen breakdown products?

What is the name of the SPECIFIC marker used to assess degradation of fibrin? If it is positive, what does this tell you?
Fibrin Degradation Product Assay - uses a monoclonal Ab specific to the break down product

D-dimer - it's specific only F13 cross-linked fibrin (hard clot) = tells you that the coagulation cascade has been activated (since F13 was working) = so an excellent marker for cascade activation!!!
Antithrombin is the most important inhibitor of coagulation.

What binds to it to increase it's effect?
****** Heparin binds to antithrombin, causing a conformational change, enhancing the rate of thrombin/Antithrombin complex by a factor of 1000!!!!!
When Protein C is activated, what does it do?

How is Protein C activated?
inhibits Factor 5a, 8a & PAI-1 (it's a Vit K dependent factor!)

Thrombin binds thrombomodulin on the endothelium, and with Ca, it activates protein C
What's the role of Protein S?
helps bind Protein C to phospholipid surface of platelets (due to it's high affinity for phospholipids) and to endothelium...increasing inactivation of Factor 5a & 8a
Petechiae are due to an abnormality in the _____________

Ecchymosis is due to an abnormality in the ____________
platelet or vessel = mainly 1* hemostasis

platelet, vessel or coagulation factors = 1* OR 2* hemostasis
Acute Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura occurs mainly in ________; What's the MOA? How is the outcome?

Chronic Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura occurs mainly in ________; What's the MOA? How is the outcome?
Kids (2-6yo); IgG Ab against platelets; outcome is good = spontaneous remission

young women (20-40yo); Ab against GPIIb/IIIa; Spleen is the site of Ab production & destruction...so if reoccurs..need a splenectomy!

DAT test should be positive!!!
If the mother has Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura, can she pass it on to her fetus?
YES...Ab (IgG!) can cross the placenta and attack the fetus's platelets
What's the MOA in Type I Heparin induced Thrombocytopenic Purpura?

How soon after giving heparin will the pt experience this?

How is the prognosis?
Type I = non-immune = direct effect of heparin on platelet activation = platelet count decreases to >50,000

first few days of drug

Often asymptomatic; Spontaneous recovery of platelet count EVEN IF heparin is continued
What's the MOA in TYPE II Heparin induced Thrombocytopenic Purpura?

How soon after giving heparin will the pt experience this?

How is the prognosis?
Type II = Immune mediated = HITS SYNDROME!!!

Ab to Heparin-PF4 complex = Fc affixing to platelet surface resulting in platelet activation = increases thrombosis but ineffective

SEVERE DROP in platelet count (<50k) with thrombosis (SKIN GANGRENE, MI, STROKE!)

Occurs 5-15 days if new heparin user, but hours to days if previous heparin user

Prognosis = platelet count recovers only after heparin is discontinued
What's the difference between Primary & Secondary Thrombocytosis?
Primary - symptomatic - platelet count >1 million

Secondary - asymptomatic - platelet count <1 million
What artifact can EDTA (an anticoagulant) cause on blood smears?
platelet satellitism - platelets surrounds neutrophils due to Ab activation
Bernard-Soulier Disease is a defect in ________________

Is this a qualitative or quantitative disorder?
B-Sad! (Bernard-Soulier = adhesion!)

adhesion of platelets to the endothelial membrane

due to decreased/abnormal GPIb on platelet surface

This is a QUALTATIVE (functional) platelet defect (normal platelet count & morphology)
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia is a defect in __________________

Is this a qualitative or quantitative disorder?
Glanzmann = platelet aGgregation

due to absent GPIIb/IIIa on platelet surfaces

This is a QUALTATIVE (functional) platelet defect (normal platelet count & morphology)
If platelets appear agranular...what is it probably due to?
deficiency in ALPHA granules = since they are so numerous = Gray Platelet Syndrome!
vWF is a carrier protein for Factor ____.
8

So in vWB Dz...absence of vWF = decrease activity of Factor 8 = bleeding
What is considered the 'hallmark' of von Willenbrand's Dz?
Its variability = sx may begin at birth or second decade of life...with no correlation to levels of vWF!
In von willenbrand's dz, what will the values of Platelet Count, Bleeding Time, PT & aPTT be?
Platelet Count = normal
Bleeding Time = elevated
PT = normal
aPTT = normal or elevated (due to Factor 8 deficiency)
Hemophilia A is associated with a deficiency in Factor ___

Will PT or aPTT increase?
8 = no amplification of the intrinsic pathway = increase aPTT

(remember...it's X-linked...so only MALES affected!)
Hemophilia B is associated with a deficiency in Factor ___

Will PT or aPTT increase?
9 = no amplification of the intrinsic pathway = increase aPTT

(remember...it's X-linked...so only MALES affected!)
Pt presents with a bleed...the bleed stops and they go home. They come back 12 hours later with a painful and swollen knee
Hemophilia A/B!

initial bleeding was stopped due to platelets binding (1* hemostasis not affected)

second bleed due to absence of secondary pathway (bleeding into joints = hemarthrosis)
Clinical severity of Hemophilia correlates with what?
Factor Activity Level - the more of factor 8/9 present, the better the outcome (don't need much!!!)
How can a pt acquire Factor 8/9 inhibitors?

How do you tx this?
pt's treated with FACTOR CONCENTRATES may develop an allo/auto-Ab to Factor 8/9 = severe bleeding

Tx by giving EXCESS Factor 8/9 to overwhelm the inhibitor!
This tx is often used during surgeries for hemophiliacs to prevent bleeding
Recombinant Factor 7a = initiatie the extrinsic cascade to kick off the common pathway...but NO AMPLIFICATION
Widespread activation of clotting, which leads to a deficiency in clotting factor = bleeding
DIC
In DIC...there is a lot of formation of __________________, which interfere with both platelets and fibrin formation!
fibrin degradation products (FDP) = so increased clotting (platelets used up), but the clots are being broken down quickly = increased FDP
Acute DIC presents as
hemorrhagic bleeding, which starts abruptly from at least 3 sites
Chronic DIC presents as
a lot of thrombosis (more than bleeding) = infarcts;
In DIC, what will the D-dimer test be and changes in platelets, fibrinogen, PT, aPTT and TT
D-dimer = positive = pt is clotting
platelet = decreased count
fibrinogen = decreased
PT = increased
aPTT = increased
TT = incrased
What's the status of the coagulation factors in a pt with liver dz?
procoagulation factors ARE NOT produced (usually made in the liver) = bleeding
In Vit K Deficiency, what happens to factor binding?
nonfunctional calcium binding sites = Factors 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S do NOT bind the endothelium!
Why does the Lupus-like Anticoagulant/Antiphospholipid syndrome prolong blood test results?

Does this present a problem?
it's a lab phenomonenon = not associated with bleeding!

Ab reacts with phospholipid surfaces, which are used for the test reagents = prolonging the test results!

may demonstrate thrombosis (placental abortions!)
What are two two group of Ab which are in the Antiphospholipid family?
Systemic lupus er.

Anticardiolipin (ACA) = does same thing as lupus....binds phospholipd membrane where the test reagents bind = prolong the test result
Which one affects production of Vit K dependent factors, Warfarin or Heparin?
Warfarin
Which type of heparin is treated like a drug, with dose being determine by weight?

They tend to work more on what factor?
fractioned (low-molecular weight) heparin

Incrase the effect of AT on Factor 10a inhibition
What is the problem in Factor V Leiden?
Production of mutant Factor V that cannot be degraded by protein C
What's the problem in Prothrombin Gene Mutation?
mutation in prothrombin increases the effect and conversion of prothrombin to thrombin = hypercoagulable!
Pt tests + for syphilis...but has not had exposure. What Hypercoagubale state is this associated with?
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome = syphilis is a FALSE positive!
What kind of hematological problems can Hyper Homocystinemia cause?
hypercoagulation = arterial thrombosisi
skeletal & occular defects
mental retardation
What is the most common reported cause of death from transfusions?

What's the MOA?
TRALI = Transfussion Related Acute Lung Injury

Granulocyte/HLA Ab IN THE DONOR**** that react with the patients WHITE cells = white cells aggregate in the lungs to mimic ARDS & pulmonary edema!