BMR CHAPTER 8

Compartment designation number 1-56-2-Q is identified as follows:

The size of a ship is usually given as...

A ship’s armor is...

The term used to indicate the speed of a ship is...

The four categories of ships are…

The categories of warships include—

The battleships are named after...

The two basic classes of cruisers are—

For protection, the destroyer depends on...

The class of ship developed for the purpose of open ocean escort and patrol was...

The two classes of submarines are the—

The class of ship used to land large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy held territory is...

The term used to describe the transfer of fuel and supplies between ships while under way is...

Usually, ships maintain a distance of ______ while taking on supplies at sea.

A receiving ship can stay on station in combat formation while undergoing ________.

The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship is the....

Rescue, salvage, and towing ships provide...

Support craft designators usually start with the letter ___.

Which of the following structural components is the backbone of a ship?
1. Stringer
2. Prow
3. Stem
4. Keel

Which of the following structural components divides the interior of a ship into compartments?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales

Which of the following structural components form the ship’s hull?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales

The vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term?
1. Freeboard
2. Strake
3. Draft
4. Void

Which of the following structural components support decks?
1. Athwartships deck beams
2. Fore-and-aft deck girders
3. Stanchions
4. All of the above

The freeing ports that let water run off during heavy weather are identified by which of the following terms?
1. Companionways
2. Bulwarks
3. Scuppers
4. Flats

Which of the following terms defines the first complete deck below the main deck?
1. First deck
2. Second deck
3. Third deck
4. Fourth deck

The device that bears up tight on wedges and holds watertight doors closed is identified by which of the following terms?
1. Dogs
2. Scuttle
3. Coamings
4. Belaying pins

Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings for access through decks?
1. Hatches
2. Doors
3. Manholes
4. Scuttles

Which of the following terms defines the solid part of a ship above the main deck?
1. Superstructure
2. Upper deck
3. Forecastle

Which of the following is a type of mast?
1. Mizzenmast
2. Mainmast
3. Foremast
4. All of the above

What is the purpose of running rigging?
1. For stays and shroud support
2. To support stacks
3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
4. To support the mast

Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a commission pennant that is secured to what point?
1. The forecastle
2. Aft of the fantail
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
4. Level adjacent to the bridge

What term identifies the port and starboard halves of a yard?
1. Yardarms
2. Pigstick
3. Gaff
4. Peak

The national ensign is flown from what part of a ship when it is anchored or moored?
1. Jackstaff
2. Flagstaff
3. Pigstick
4. Peak

What is the additional ship control space used by the squadron commander or admiral called?
1. Signal bridge
2. Main control
3. Flag bridge
4. Bridge wind

In what part of a ship is main control normally located?
1. Chart hours
2. Secondary conn
3. Combat information center
4. Boiler or machinery spaces

Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how many categories?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

How many types of ships are included in the warship category?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Eight

What type of ship is the center of a modern naval task force or task group?
1. Aircraft carrier
2. Destroyer
3. Cruiser
4. Submarine

Approximately how many aircraft are embarked on Nimitz class CVs?
1. 70
2. 75
3. 80
4. 85

What class of cruiser is designated as battle force capable?
1. Ticonderoga
2. Spruance
3. Arleigh Burke

Which of the following is a principle mission of a destroyer?
1. Operate offensively against submarines and surface ships
2. Operate defensively against submarines and surface ships
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Operate short-range attack against all aircraft

What class destroyer represents a return to all-steel construction?
1. Kidd class
2. Spruance class
3. Arleigh Burke class

Which of the following is the mission of frigates?
1. Protective screens
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
3. Defensive operations against surface ships
4. Offensive operations against subsurface ships

What class of submarines has the quietest operation?
1. Sturgeon
2. Ohio
3. Seawolf

The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how many Trident missile tubes?
1. 16
2. 20
3. 24
4. 26

The LHA carries what means of defense against surface and air attack?
1. 5-inch guns only
2. Mk 38 machine guns only
3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns

How many troops can be embarked in, transported by, and landed by the Wasp class LHDs?
1. 1,500
2. 2,000
3. 2,500
4. 3,000

What is the purpose of dock landing ships?
1. To transport amphibious craft only
2. To transport vehicles only
3. To transport troops only
4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops

Which of the following means is/are used by Avenger class MCMs to find, classify, and destroy moored and bottom mines?
1. Sonar and video systems
2. Cable cutters
3. A mine-detonating device
4. Each of the above

An ammunition supply ship.
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO

Combat support ship
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO

Which of the following terms applies to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way?
1. Vertical replenishment
2. Horizontal replenishment
3. Replenishment at sea
4. Replenishment while under way

A separation of what approximate distance is maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it’s replenishing?
1. 50 feet
2. 75 feet
3. 100 feet
4. 125 feet

The AOE is designed to operate at what approximate distance between itself and the ship it’s replenishing?
1. 150 feet
2. 175 feet
3. 200 feet
4. 225 feet

Most fleet tugs are operated by which of the following organizations?
1. U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Coast Guard
3. Army Corps of Engineers
4. Military Sealift Command

Combatant craft usually operate in what areas?
1. In open waters
2. In coastal waters
3. In intercontinental waters
4. In the deep sea

Support craft designations start with what letter?
1. S
2. T
3. Y
4. Z

Fixed-wing aircraft are divided into how many basic parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?
1. Tail
2. Wings
3. Ailerons
4. Fuselage

What are the three main parts of a helicopter?
1. Tail, rotors, and empennage
2. Tail, rotors, and fuselage
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
4. Main rotor, empennage, and tail rotor

Attack class planes are used in which of the following roles?
1. Nuclear strikes
2. Ground support
3. Low-level bombing
4. Each of the above

What class of aircraft is generally used to gain air superiority?
1. Attack
2. Fighter
3. Patrol
4. Warning

The E-2C Hawkeye belongs to what class of aircraft?
1. Patrol
2. Warning
3. Antisubmarine
4. Fighter

The S-3 Viking belongs to what class of aircraft?
1. Patrol
2. Warning
3. Antisubmarine
4. Fighter

What helicopter is designated for ASW use?
1. Ch-46 Sea Knight
2. SH-2 Seasprite
3. SH-60B Seahawk

What helicopter operates and tows mine countermeasures devices?
1. CH-46 Sea Knight
2. SH-60B Seahawk
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion