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Action of Hemicholinium
Affects Acetylcholine Neurotransmission
Mechanism of Hemicholinium
Inhibits synthesis of neurotransmitter.
blocks choline transport into the neuron and thereby inhibits the synthesis of acetylcholine
Action of vesamicol
Prevent vesicular storage of neurotransmitter
define α-latrotoxin
substance in black widow spider venom
action of α-latrotoxin
markedly stimulate vesicular release of acetylcholine producing excessive activation of acetylcholine receptors
effects of a black widow spider bite
severe contraction and pain in local muscles, which then spreads to regional muscles and throughout the body. Abdominal pains are usually the most severe, mimicking appendicitis or food poisoning. Salivation, lacrimation, sweating, changes in heart rate, high blood pressure, shock, and coma may occur, though death from black widow spider bite is rare.
What produces Botulinum toxin A
Clostridium botulinum
Action of Botulinum toxin A?
blocks the exocytotic release of acetylcholine and inhibits neuromuscular transmission
Uses of Botulinum toxin A?
It is used to treat localized spasms of various muscles, including those of the eyes, face, and hands, and it is employed in treating tremor, dystonia, excessive salivation, and other symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
Cosmetic uses of Botulinum toxin A?
Injections of a preparation of this toxin known as Botox have been shown to reduce facial wrinkles and have been widely utilized for cosmetic purposes.
Recent uses Botulinum toxin A?
to treat excessive sweating (hyperhidrosis) of the palms and soles, and botulinum toxin is being studied as an alternative to acetylcholine receptor antagonists in the treatment of overactive urinary bladder.
side effects of botulinum toxin injections?
dry mouth and dysphagia
What is bethanechol?
choline ester
Action of bethanechol?
mimic the effect of acetylcholine
What is pilocarpine
choline ester
Action of pilocarpine
mimic the effect of acetylcholine. direct-acting acetylcholine receptor agonists because they directly bind and activate acetylcholine receptors.
What is physostigmine?
cholinesterase inhibitor (indirect-acting acetylcholine receptor agonist)
Action of physostigmine?
prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine and thereby increase the synaptic concentration of acetylcholine
The most important group of drugs that inhibit cholinergic neurotransmission?
acetylcholine receptor antagonists
two subgroups of acetylcholine receptor antagonists?
muscarinic receptor antagonists and nicotinic receptor antagonists
What is trimethaphan?
ganglionic blocking agent (subcategory of nicotinic receptor antagonists)
What is tubocurarine?
neuromuscular blocking drugs (subcategory of nicotinic receptor antagonists)
How is Norepinephrine synthesized?
tyrosine → dopa → dopamine → norepinephrine
How is norepinephrine released into the synapse?
calcium-mediated exocytosis in response to nerve stimulation
What does norepinephrine activate?
postjunctional α- and β-adrenoceptors. It also activates prejunctional autoreceptors that exert negative feedback and inhibit further release of norepinephrine
How is Norepinephrine removed from the synapse ?
by neuronal reuptake via a transport protein known as the catecholamine transporter that is localized in the presynaptic neuronal membrane
What do enzymes catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) do?
inactivate norepinephrine that is not sequestered by presynaptic neurons. These enzymes are found in many tissues, including the liver and gut.
What is metyrosine?
a drug that is a competitive inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase. Metyrosine can be used to inhibit norepinephrine and epinephrine synthesis in persons with an adrenal medullary tumor (pheochromocytoma) that secretes large amounts of these substances and thereby causes severe hypertension. The drug has also been studied as a treatment for dystonia or dyskinesia in persons being treated with neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drugs.
What is trade name of metyrosine?
demser
What does reserpine do?
inhibits the transporter for amines located in the vesicular membrane
What does Bretylium do?
blocks the release of norepinephrine in response to nerve stimulation
What are neuronal blocking agents?
Drugs that block the synthesis, storage, or release of norepinephrine
What are direct-acting adrenoceptor agonists?
endogenous substances and synthetic compounds that directly activate α- or β-adrenoceptors
Examples of direct-acting adrenoceptor agonists?
albuterol, dobutamine, and epinephrine
What do indirect-acting adrenoceptor agonists do?
indirectly increase the activation of adrenoceptors by increasing the synaptic concentration of norepinephrine
Examples of indirect-acting adrenoceptor agonists?
amphetamine and cocaine
What do indirect-acting agonists require?
the presence of a functional postganglionic neuron
How does cocaine work?
Cocaine binds to and competitively inhibits the catecholamine transporter located in the presynaptic nerve terminal, thereby increasing the duration of action of norepinephrine at the synapse.
How do amphetamines work?
Amphetamine and related drugs are substrates for the transporter, which transports the drugs into the presynaptic neuron where they inhibit the storage of norepinephrine by synaptic vesicles, leading to reverse transport of norepinephrine into the synapse by the catecholamine transporter. These actions serve to increase the synaptic concentration of norepinephrine and its activation of adrenoceptors.
How do catechol-<O-methyltransferase inhibitors and monoamine oxidase inhibitors work?
act by inhibiting the breakdown of norepinephrine. primarily exert their effects on the central nervous system.
What are neuronal blocking agents and adrenoceptor antagonists?
Drugs that inhibit sympathetic stimulation of target organs
Examples of adrenoceptor antagonists?
phentolamine, propranolol, labetalol
What does phentolamine do?
selectively blocks α-adrenoceptors
What does propranolol do?
selectively blocks β-adrenoceptors
What does labetalol do?
blocks both receptor types
What is the the baroreceptor reflex?
(Fig. 5-4). (A). Increased arterial pressure activates stretch receptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus. (B) Receptor activation initiates afferent impulses to the brain stem vasomotor center (VMC). (C) Via solitary tract fibers, the VMC activates the vagal motor nucleus, which increases vagal (parasympathetic) outflow and slows the heart. At the same time, the VMC reduces stimulation of spinal intermediolateral neurons that activate sympathetic preganglionic fibers, and this decreases sympathetic stimulation of the heart and blood vessels. By this mechanism, drugs that increase blood pressure produce reflex bradycardia. Drugs that reduce blood pressure attenuate this response and cause reflex tachycardia.
What happens when a drug or a physiologic action increases blood pressure?
this activates stretch receptors (mechanoreceptors) located in the aortic arch and in the carotid sinus at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. Receptor activation initiates impulses that travel via afferent nerves to the brain stem vasomotor center. Stimulation of the vagal motor nucleus (via nerves from the solitary tract nucleus) leads to an increase in vagal (parasympathetic) outflow, a decrease in heart rate, and a decrease in the sympathetic nerve outflow from the vasomotor center. The effect on the heart rate is called reflex bradycardia.
What is reflex tachycardia?
If a drug lowers the blood pressure sufficiently, it may reduce the baroreceptor tone and thereby produce an acceleration of the heart rate and activation of sympathetic vasoconstriction.
the primary neurotransmitter at parasympathetic and somatic neuroeffector junctions?
Acetylcholine
the transmitter at most sympathetic junctions?
norepinephrine
What do most autonomic drugs do?
activate or block receptors for acetylcholine or norepinephrine in smooth muscle, cardiac tissue, and glands
What does activation of muscarinic and α-adrenoceptors produce?
smooth muscle contraction
What does activation of β-adrenoceptors produce?
smooth muscle relaxation and cardiac stimulation
What are indirect-acting drugs?
drugs that have effects on neurotransmitter synthesis, storage, release, or metabolism
What do indirect-acting agonists do?
increase the concentration of a neurotransmitter at synapses, either by inhibiting transmitter inactivation (cholinesterase inhibitors), increasing transmitter release (amphetamine and tyramine), or blocking transmitter reuptake (cocaine).
Chapter 26
What are Autocoid drugs
Autacoids (also spelled autocoids) are substances produced by neural and non-neural tissues throughout the body and act locally to modulate the activity of smooth muscles, nerves, glands, platelets, and other tissues (Table 26-1). Several autacoids also serve as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system (CNS) or enteric nervous system.
What do Autocoid drugs do?
Autacoids regulate certain aspects of gastrointestinal, uterine, and renal function, and they are involved in pain, fever, inflammation, allergic reactions, asthma, thromboembolic disorders, and other pathologic conditions. Drugs that inhibit autacoid synthesis or block autacoid receptors are helpful in treating these conditions, whereas drugs that activate autacoid receptors are useful for inducing labor, alleviating migraine headaches, counteracting drug-induced peptic ulcers, and other purposes.
Examples of autocoids?
Autacoids include monoamines, such as histamine and serotonin, as well as fatty acid derivatives, including prostaglandins and leukotrienes.
How do autocoids work?
Autacoids activate specific membrane receptors in target tissues, mostly of the G protein-coupled receptor type.
Are autocoids effects restricted?
Their effects are usually restricted to the tissue in which they are formed, but under pathologic conditions, extraordinarily large amounts of autacoids can be released into the systemic circulation.
What do carcinoid tumors and anaphylactic shock cause?
These disorders cause the release of copious amounts of serotonin and histamine, respectively, and exert systemic effects including CNS effects.
What happens to autocoids?
Most autacoids are rapidly metabolized to inactive compounds, as seen with prostaglandins, and some autacoids undergo tissue reuptake, as evidenced by 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) reuptake transporter proteins in neurons and peripheral cells.
What is histamine?
Histamine is a biogenic amine produced primarily by mast cells and basophils, which are particularly abundant in the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and respiratory tract. Histamine is also produced by paracrine cells in the gastric fundus, where it stimulates acid secretion by parietal cells. Histamine also functions as a neurotransmitter in the CNS
How is histamine formed?
Histamine is formed when the amino acid histidine is decarboxylated in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme, l-histidine decarboxylase.
Where is histamine stored?
Histamine is stored in granules (vesicles) in mast cells and basophils until it is released.
When is histamine released?
It is released from mast cells when membrane-bound immunoglobulin E (IgE) interacts with an IgE antigen to cause mast cell degranulation.
What is cromolyn sodium?
respiratory drug that blocks histamine reaction.
What stimuli can also cause the release of histamine from mast cells?
Stimuli that increase cyclic guanosine monophosphate increase histamine release, whereas those that increase cyclic adenosine monophosphate oppose this action.
What can trigger mast cell degranulation?
Mast cell degranulation can also be triggered by bacterial toxins and by drugs such as morphine and tubocurarine. Some of these stimuli result in the formation of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). As with neurons, this causes the release of intracellular calcium and the fusion of granule membranes with the plasma membrane, thereby releasing histamine and other compounds. The release of histamine that can occur with morphine administration does not appear to be mediated by opioid receptors because the opioid antagonist, naloxone, does not inhibit morphine-induced histamine release from mast cells.
How is histamine inactivated?
Histamine is inactivated by methylation and oxidation reactions that are catalyzed by a methyltransferase enzyme and diamine oxidase, respectively.
What are the three Histamine receptor clasifications?
H1, H2, and H3. All three types are typical, seven-transmembrane G protein-coupled receptor proteins.
What are H1 receptors involved in?
allergic reactions that cause dermatitis, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, and other forms of allergy.
What does activation of H1 receptors in the skin and mucous membranes cause?
vasodilation; increases vascular permeability; and leads to erythema (heat and redness), congestion, edema, and inflammation
What does stimulation of H1 receptors on mucocutaneous nerve endings cause?
pruritus (itching), and in the lungs, it initiates the cough reflex
What happens if large amounts of histamine is released into the circulation?
total peripheral resistance and blood pressure fall and the individual may progress to anaphylactic shock.
What does activation of H1 receptors do to lungs and digestive tract?
bronchoconstriction and contraction of most gastrointestinal smooth muscles.
What are H2 receptors most noted for?
increasing gastric acid secretion, but they are also involved in allergic reactions
What are H2 receptor antagonists sometimes used in combination with in the treatment of allergies?
H1 receptor antagonists
What does activation of H2 receptors in the heart do?
increases the heart rate and contractility, but the cardiac effects of histamine are not prominent under most conditions.
Where are H3 receptors located?
in various tissues in the periphery and on nerve terminals. Activation of these presynaptic receptors in the brain inhibits the release of histamine and other neurotransmitters.
Antihistamines, or histamine receptor antagonists, have been categorized on the basis of?
their receptor selectivity as H1 receptor antagonists or H2 receptor antagonists.
What are histamine receptor antagonists?
Antihistamines
What are the two categories of antihistamines?
H1 receptor antagonists and H2 receptor antagonists.
What are Chlorpheniramine, clemastine, dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, meclizine, and promethazine?
first-generation H1 drugs
What are Cetirizine, fexofenadine, loratadine, and desloratadine?
second-generation H1 drugs
How are drugs in these two groups administered?
orally or parenterally
Whats the major difference in the two groups?
first-generation antihistamines are distributed to the CNS and can cause sedation, whereas the second-generation antihistamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier significantly
What is Azelastine?
an intranasal antihistamine
Which are used for ophthalmic treatment?
levocabastine, ketotifen, epinastine, and olopatadine
How do H1 drugs work?
The H1 antihistamines contain an alkylamine group that resembles the side chain of histamine and permits them to bind to the H1 receptor and act as competitive receptor antagonists. The drugs can block most of the effects of histamine on vascular smooth muscles and nerves and thereby prevent or counteract allergic reactions.
What happens when antihistamines are administered orally?
they are rapidly absorbed and are widely distributed to tissues. Many of them are extensively metabolized in the liver by cytochrome P450 enzymes.
Which H1 has an active metabolite and what is its name?
Hydroxyzine has an active metabolite that is also available as the drug, cetirizine, and this drug is excreted unchanged in the urine and feces.
What is Azelastine?
an H1 antihistamine that is marketed as a nasal spray for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It blocks H1 receptors and inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells, and it is much more potent than either sodium cromoglycate or theophylline in its inhibition.
What is the systemic bioavailability of azelastine following intranasal administration and the plasma half-life?
about 40%, and the plasma half-life is about 22 hours
What is azelastine metabolized to?
Azelastine is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes to an active metabolite, desmethylazelastine, a substance whose plasma concentrations are 20% to 30% of azelastine concentrations. Azelastine and its principal metabolite are both H1 receptor antagonists. The unchanged drug and its active metabolite are excreted primarily in the feces.
What generation antihistamine is Chlorpheniramine?
First-generation antihistamine
Chlorpheniramine duration of Action (Hours)?
6
Chlorpheniramine Sedative Effects?
Medium
Chlorpheniramine Antiemetic Effects?
none
Chlorpheniramine Anticholinergic Effects?
Medium
Dimenhydrinate generation?
First-generation Antihistamine
Dimenhydrinate Duration of Action (Hours)
8
Dimenhydrinate Sedative Effects
high
Dimenhydrinate Antiemetic Effects
medium
Dimenhydrinate Anticholinergic Effects
high
Diphenhydramine Genertion?
First-generation Antihistamine
Diphenhydramine Duration of Action (Hours)
8
Diphenhydramine Sedative Effects
high
Diphenhydramine Antiemetic Effects
medium
Diphenhydramine Anticholinergic Effects
high
Hydroxyzine Generation?
First-generation Antihistamine
Hydroxyzine Duration of Action (Hours)
6
Hydroxyzine Sedative Effects
high
Hydroxyzine Antiemetic Effects
high
Hydroxyzine Anticholinergic Effects
medium
Meclizine Generation
First-generation Antihistamine
Meclizine Duration of Action (Hours)
12
Meclizine Sedative Effects
Medium
Meclizine Antiemetic Effects
high
Meclizine Anticholinergic Effects
medium
Promethazine Generation?
First-generation Antihistamine
Promethazine Duration of Action (Hours)
12
Promethazine Sedative Effects
high
Promethazine Antiemetic Effects
high
Promethazine Anticholinergic Effects
high
Cetirizine Generation
Second-generation Antihistamine
Cetirizine Duration of Action (Hours)
24
Cetirizine Sedative Effects
low
Cetirizine Antiemetic Effects
none
Cetirizine Anticholinergic Effects
very low
Fexofenadine Generation?
Second-generation Antihistamine
Fexofenadine Duration of Action (Hours)
12
Fexofenadine Sedative Effects
very low
Fexofenadine Antiemetic Effects
none
Fexofenadine Anticholinergic Effects
very low
Loratadine Generation?
Second-generation Antihistamine
Loratadine Duration of Action (Hours)
24
Loratadine Sedative Effects
Very low
Loratadine Antiemetic Effects
none
Loratadine Anticholinergic Effects
very low
Azelastine type of antihistamine?
Intranasal Antihistamines
Azelastine Duration of Action (Hours)
12
Azelastine Sedative Effects
low
Azelastine Antiemetic Effects
none
Azelastine Anticholinergic Effects
very low
Why are second-generation antihistamines preferred?
second-generation antihistamines cause little or no sedation, so they are often preferred for the treatment of allergies
When should antihistamines be taken?
Antihistamines are usually more effective when administered before exposure to an allergen than afterward. Hence, persons with seasonal allergies, such as allergic rhinitis should take them on a regular basis throughout the allergy season.
What other uses do first generation antihistamines have?
Because the first-generation antihistamines have sedative effects, they are occasionally used to produce sedation. They are also used to treat nausea and vomiting, to prevent motion sickness in persons traveling by plane or boat, or to treat vertigo (an illusory sense that the environment or one's own body is revolving).
What are the most sedating first generation antihistamines?
diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, and promethazine. These drugs have been used to induce sleep or for preoperative sedation. Their sedating properties can also be useful in relieving distress caused by the severe pruritus associated with some allergic reactions. Persons taking these drugs should be cautioned against driving or operating machinery.
What are pheniramine drugs (e.g., chlorpheniramine) primarily used for?
Pheniramine drugs (e.g., chlorpheniramine), are less sedating than other first-generation drugs and are used primarily in the treatment of allergic reactions to pollen, mold spores, and other environmental allergens.
Which first generation antihistamines have higher antiemetic activity?
Meclizine, diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, and promethazine
Which first generation antihistamine is used to prevent motion sickness or treat vertigo
Meclizine is less sedating than diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, and promethazine, so it is frequently used to prevent motion sickness or treat vertigo.
What is Dimenhydrinate?
Dimenhydrinate is a mixture of diphenhydramine and 8-chlorotheophylline and is used to prevent motion sickness or treat vertigo.
What are Promethazine suppositories are often used for?
to relieve nausea and vomiting associated with various conditions
What do second-generation drugs lack?
lack antiemetic activity, so their use is limited to the treatment of allergies
Which second-generation drug is more likely than astemizole, fexofenadine, or loratadine to cause some sedation?
cetirizine
Which Second-Generation Antihistamine has a shorter half-life, and must be taken twice a day, whereas the other second-generation drugs are taken once a day.
fexofenadine
How are fexofenadine and cetirizine eliminated?
primarily as the unchanged drug in the feces and urine, respectively
Which second-generation drugs are metabolized to active metabolites, which are excreted in the urine and feces.
Loratadine and desloratadine
What is Azelastine indicated for?
for the treatment of symptoms of allergic rhinitis, including sneezing, nasal itching, and nasal discharge. It is administered as two sprays per nostril twice daily. The drug can cause drowsiness so should be used cautiously when patients are driving or operating machinery
What are the four antihistamine eyedrop formulations that are available?
Levocabastine, epinastine, and olopatadine are selective H1 antagonists for topical ophthalmic use. They are indicated for the temporary relief of the signs and symptoms of seasonal allergic conjunctivitis. Ketotifen is a selective, noncompetitive H1 antagonist and mast cell stabilizer.
Which anithistamine is indicated for the temporary prevention of itching of the eye caused by allergic conjunctivitis.
Ketotifen
H1 antihistamine ADVERSE EFFECTS AND INTERACTIONS?
The H1 antihistamines produce few serious side effects.
Most over-the-counter medications include what antihistamine?
diphenhydramine, a first-generation antihistamine, but these preparations are known to cause drowsiness
Why do second-generation antihistamines fexofenadine and loratadine not cause drowsiness?
they do not readily gain access into the CNS
What nose sprays contain steroids?
beclomethasone, fluticasone, or triamcinolone
What are the drawbacks to steroid medications?
they may take a week or so to be maximally effective
What is the most common side effect of the first-generation antihistamines?
Sedation
What can first-generation antihistamines cause in infants and children?
excitement
Which first-generation antihistamines have the highest anticholinergic activity?
Diphenhydramine and promethazine
What are the adverse effects of Diphenhydramine and promethazine?
block cholinergic muscarinic receptors. As a result can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, and other atropine-like side effects.
What is an overdose of first-generation antihistamines called?
Anticholinergic toxicity
What is physostigmine?
a cholinesterase inhibitor that crosses the blood-brain barrier, that may be required to counteract the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines in the CNS.
Trade name of Astemizole?
Hismanal
Why was Astemizole removed from the market?
caused prolongation of the QT interval
Fexofenadine, is the active metabolite of?
terfenadine (Seldane).
Why was Terfenadine withdrawn from the market by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
it prolonged the QT interval on the electrocardiogram, leading to a type of cardiac arrhythmia called torsades de pointes
Which second generation antihistamines lack cardiac effects?
Fexofenadine, Cetirizine and loratadine
INTRANASAL ANTIHISTAMINES Adverse effects?
Adverse effects of azelastine are rare and include dizziness, fatigue, headache, nasal irritation, dry mouth, and weight gain.
OPTHALMIC ANTIHISTAMINES Adverse effects?
Adverse effects of levocabastine, epinastine, olopatadine, and ketotifen are usually limited to the eyes and include transient stinging and burning. These occur in less than 5% of patients.
What are H2 receptor antagonists primarily used to treat?
peptic ulcer disease
Another name for Serotonin?
5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT),
What is 5-hydroxytryptamine ?
an autacoid and a neurotransmitter that is produced primarily by platelets, enterochromaffin cells in the gut, and neurons.
Where is the the greatest concentration of serotonin?
in the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract.
What amino acid is serotonin synthesized from?
tryptophan and is converted to 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) by monoamine oxidase and aldehyde dehydrogenase
What are the four main types of serotonin receptors?
5-HT1 through 5-HT4
In the peripheral tissues, what is the physiologic effects of serotonin?
platelet aggregation, stimulation of gastrointestinal motility, and modulation of vascular smooth muscle contraction.
What does Serotonin cause?
vasoconstriction in most vascular beds and contraction of most smooth muscles. In the CNS, serotonin is involved in the regulation of mood, appetite, sleep, emotional processing, and pain processing
What are drugs that affect serotonin activity classified as?
serotonin agonists, serotonin antagonists, and serotonin reuptake inhibitors
What is Buspirone and what is it used for
a partial agonist that acts at the 5-HT1A receptor, is used to treat anxiety and depression
What are sumatriptan, triptan compounds, and ergot drugs?
5-HT1D/1B receptor agonists that are used to treat migraine headaches
What is Cisapride (Propulsid)?
the first 5-HT4 receptor agonist used for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease and gastrointestinal hypomotility. Activation of 5-HT4 receptors increases the peristaltic action of the gastrointestinal tract, which is helpful in the treatment of both gastroesophageal reflux disease and gastrointestinal hypomotility.
Why was cisapride (Propulsid) pulled from the market in the United States in 2000?
postmarketing surveillance revealed a risk of rare but sometimes fatal prolongation of the QT interval on electrocardiogram records ('long QT syndrome').
What is tegaserod (Zelnorm)?
A newer 5-HT4 agonist, tegaserod (Zelnorm), was approved for a narrower indication for women who have irritable bowel syndrome with constipation as their main symptom, but it was recently withdrawn from the market due to increased risk of heart attack or stroke.
What are clozapine, cyproheptadine, methysergide, and ondansetron?
serotonin antagonists
Buspirone
Serotonin Agonist, 5-HT1A, Anxiety; depression
Sumatriptan
Serotonin Agonists, 5-HT1D/1B, Migraine headaches
Clozapine
Serotonin Antagonists, 5-HT2, Schizophrenia
Cyproheptadine
Serotonin Antagonists, 5-HT2, Carcinoid syndrome; pruritus; urticaria
Methysergide
Serotonin Antagonists, 5-HT2, Carcinoid syndrome; migraine head-aches
Ondansetron
Serotonin Antagonists, 5-HT3, Nausea and vomiting
What is Clozapine?
atypical antipsychotic that acts partly by blocking 5-HT2 receptors in the CNS. They are used in the treatment of schizophrenia
What is Cyproheptadine?
a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist that also has H1 antihistamine activity. This makes it useful in managing urticaria (hives) and other allergic reactions in which pruritus is a prominent feature. Cyproheptadine is administered orally every 8 to 12 hours and can cause slight to moderate drowsiness.
What are Cyproheptadine and methysergide used for?
in the care of patients with carcinoid tumor. This tumor can produce huge quantities of serotonin, histamine, and other vasoactive substances that cause a constellation of clinical effects called the carcinoid syndrome. Affected patients suffer from malabsorption, violent attacks of watery diarrhea and cramping, and paroxysmal vasomotor attacks characterized by sudden red to purple flushing of the face and neck. The malabsorption and diarrhea can be managed by giving cyproheptadine or methysergide in combination with opioid antidiarrheal drugs.
What is Ondansetron?
the first selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used as an antiemetic agent in cancer chemotherapy as well as treating nausea and vomiting from other causes. It prevents nausea and vomiting by blocking the effects of serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and in vagal afferent nerves in the gastrointestinal tract
What are granisetron, alosetron, palonosetron, and dolasetron?
5-HT3 receptor antagonists used as an antiemetic agent in cancer chemotherapy as well as treating nausea and vomiting from other causes.
What is Alosetron used for?
for treatment of women with irritable bowel syndrome whose predominant bowel symptom is diarrhea.
What is Palonosetron used for?
an injectable-only formulation for the prevention of acute or delayed nausea and vomiting associated with initial and repeat courses of emetogenic cancer chemotherapy.
What are Serotonin reuptake inhibitors used for?
the treatment of depression and other CNS disorders
What are Eicosanoids and autacoids derived from?
arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and other 20-carbon fatty acids
When are Eicosanoids made?
They are freed from their esteric attachment to membrane phospholipids by phospholipase A2, an enzyme that is activated by numerous chemical stimuli and by physical stimuli such as cell damage.
The two main groups of eicosanoids are?
prostaglandins and leukotrienes
What do Prostaglandins affect?
smooth muscle, platelet aggregation, neurotransmission, glandular secretion, and other biologic activities by activating specific prostanoid receptors in target tissues
platelet aggregation is stimulated by
thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
platelet aggregation is inhibited by
prostacyclin (prostaglandin I2 [PGI2]).
Where are leukotrienes produced?
primarily in inflammatory cells, including mast cells, basophils, eosinophils, macrophages, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Leukotrienes C4 and D4 (LTC4 and LTD4) are the main components of the slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis. These two leukotrienes are secreted in the presence of asthma and anaphylaxis and play a major role in bronchospastic disease.
What are the groups of drugs that inhibit eicosanoid synthesis?
leukotriene inhibitors, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids
How do Leukotriene inhibitors act?
by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase or by blocking leukotriene receptors. They are currently used in the management of asthma, but other therapeutic applications are being explored.
How do NSAIDs act?
by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and are used primarily to alleviate pain and inflammation
How do Corticosteroids act?
Corticosteroids block the formation of all eicosanoids, partly by inhibiting phospholipase A2. They have anti-inflammatory, antiallergic, and antineoplastic effects and are used in the treatment of a wide variety of adrenal diseases and nonadrenal disorders.
Alprostadil
PGE1

Vasodilation

Erectile dysfunction; patency of the ductus arteriosus

available in injectable, pellet, and cream formulations

Adverse effects in men treated with alprostadil include penile pain, penile fibrosis, priapism (persistent erection), flushing, diarrhea, headache, and fever.
Carboprost tromethamine
PGF2α analogue

Contraction of uterine muscle

Abortifacient; postpartum bleeding

Carboprost is administered intramuscularly

It can cause flushing, diarrhea, vomiting, altered blood pressure, blurred vision, respiratory distress, and other adverse reactions.
Dinoprostone
PGE2

Contraction of uterine muscle

Abortifacient; cervical ripening

Dinoprostone is available as a vaginal insert, gel, or suppository.
Epoprostenol
PGI2

Vasodilation

Pulmonary hypertension

The drug is administered by continuous intravenous infusion, and the dosage is titrated on the basis of clinical improvement and adverse effects. The most common adverse reactions include flushing, tachycardia, hypotension, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and flulike symptoms.
Latanoprost
PGF2α analogue

Increase in aqueous humor outflow

Glaucoma

It can alter the color of the iris and cause a permanent eye color change by increasing the amount of melanin in melanocytes.
Misoprostol
PGE1 analogue

Gastric cytoprotection

Gastric and duodenal ulcers induced by use of NSAIDs

available in an orally administered formulation

Diarrhea, one of the most common adverse effects of misoprostol use, can be minimized by starting patients on a low dose of the drug and then gradually increasing the dose. In pregnant women, misoprostol is absolutely contraindicated because it can stimulate uterine contractions and cause premature labor.
Treprostinil
a stable analogue of prostacyclin which has a half-life of between 2 and 4 hours and can be safely administered by a continuous subcutaneous infusion, via a self-inserted subcutaneous catheter using a microinfusion pump designed specifically for subcutaneous drug delivery. It is approved to diminish the symptoms (e.g., shortness of breath) associated with physical activity in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Endothelin-1 (ET-1)
a peptide autacoid produced by vascular endothelial cells. It activates ETA and ETB receptors in vascular smooth muscle and other tissues. The results of ETA receptor activation are vasoconstriction and cell proliferation, while ETB receptors mediate vasodilation, anti-proliferation, and increased ET-1 clearance. ET-1 may serve physiologically to counteract the vasodilation produced by the endothelin-relaxing factor (nitric oxide),
Bosentan (Tracleer)
a dual ETA and ETB receptor antagonist that is approved for treating pulmonary arterial hypertension. Clinical trials have shown that bosentan significantly improves 6-minute walking distance in persons with class III or IV pulmonary arterial hypertension, while decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance and dyspnea.
Bosentan is administered orally and is generally well tolerated, but 11% of patients experienced elevated serum aminotransferase levels. For this reason, liver function tests should be monitored at baseline and then monthly in persons taking bosentan. Based on animal studies, bosentan is very likely to cause major birth defects if used by pregnant women, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy and in women of childbearing age who are not using hormonal contraceptives.
ambrisentan
ET receptor antagonist, ambrisentan, was recently approved for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension. Ambrisentan has much greater selectivity for ETA receptors compared to ETB receptors (>4000-fold), although the clinical impact of such high selectivity is not known. Like bosentan, similar warnings are made regarding hepatic function and enzyme level monitoring.
sildenafil
marketed under a new trade name, Revatio, for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension. As sildenafil inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5, an increase of cyclic guanosine monophosphate within pulmonary vascular smooth muscle cells results in relaxation and vasodilation of the pulmonary vascular bed.
Four types of autocoids?
histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
Stimulation of H1 receptors causes
vasodilation, edema, congestion, and pruritus
Stimulation of H2 receptors mediates
gastric acid secretion
first-generation H1 receptor antagonists
chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine, meclizine, promethazine,
second-generation H1 receptor antagonists
cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine, and desloratadine
H1 receptor antagonists are used primarily to treat
allergies
meclizine is used to
prevent motion sickness
promethazine is used to treat
nausea and vomiting
•Fexofenadine is the active metabolite of the now-banned
terfenadine
fexofenadine does not
prolong the QT interval or cause torsades de pointes
Cetirizine, desloratadine, and loratadine lack
cardiac effects
Drugs that affect serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) are classified as
serotonin agonists, serotonin antagonists, and serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Some 5-HT1 receptor agonists (e.g., sumatriptan) can be used to treat
migraine headaches
some 5-HT2 receptor antagonists (e.g., methysergide) can be used to prevent
migraine headaches
•Cyproheptadine and methysergide, both of which are 5-HT2 receptor antagonists, are used in the management of
carcinoid syndrome, which is caused by excessive production of serotonin and other vasoactive substances in patients with carcinoid tumors from enterochromaffin tissue
Ondansetron, granisetron, and many others "setron" drugs are
5-HT3 receptor antagonists used in the treatment of nausea and vomiting.
Eicosanoids are derived from
arachidonic acid and other precursor 20-carbon fatty acids.
The two main groups of eicosanoids are
prostaglandins and leukotrienes. The ratio of omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acids in the diet plays an important role in the activity of eicosanoid end products.
Alprostadil is used to maintain
patency of the ductus arteriosus in neonates awaiting surgery for heart defects. It is also used to treat erectile dysfunction in men.
Misoprostol is used to prevent
gastric and duodenal ulcers in persons taking NSAIDs.
•Dinoprostone, the same as PGE2, is used for
cervical ripening before induction of labor and for evacuation of the uterine contents.
•Carboprost and latanoprost are
PGF2α derivatives
Carboprost is used to
control postpartum bleeding and to terminate pregnancy
Latanoprost and other prostaglandin antiglaucoma drugs that increase the aqueous humor outflow are used to treat
glaucoma.