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29 Cards in this Set
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Q: Monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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A: Rituximab. (Binds to the CD20 antigen on B cells; adverse reactions are associated with infusion, and include fever, chills, headache, and nausea).
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Q: Primary agent used in the treatment of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer.
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A: Tamoxifen. (An estrogen receptor partial agonist, which may increase the risk of endometrial carcinoma).
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Q: Monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer.
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A: Trastuzumab. (Binds to the receptor tyrosine kinase Erb-B2 [HER-2], overexpressed on some breast cancers).
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Q: Vinca alkaloid used as part of the MOPP regimen for lymphomas, Wilms tumor, and choriocarcinomas.
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A: Vincristine (Oncovin). (M phase inhibitor that blocks microtubule polymerization and spindle formation; a similar agent, vinblastine, is part of the ABVD regimen.The ABVD regimen includes the combined use of adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine whereas the MOPP regimen includes the use of mechlorethamine, Oncovin [vincristine], procarbazine, and prednisone.)
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Q: Used to treat the ingestion of suicidal doses of acetaminophen.
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A: N-acetylcysteine. (Given early, it may protect from the development of fulminant hepatic failure).
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Q: Antispasmodic used for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
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A: Dantrolene. (Decreases the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum).
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Q: Used for the treatment of acute iron toxicity.
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A: Deferoxamine. (Rapid infusion has been associated with hypotensive shock).
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Q: Fab fragment antibody used for the treatment of digitalis toxicity.
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A: Digibind. (Treatment also includes the correction of Mg2+ and K+, as well as lidocaine for induced arrhythmias).
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Q: Agent used to treat heavy metal poisoning due to lead, arsenic, and mercury.
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A: Dimercaprol. (Given parenterally, it chelates metals, preventing them from damaging proteins; succimer is an orally available derivative used for similar applications).
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Q: Ingestion, industrial inhalation, or absorption through the skin causes metabolic acidosis and the precipitation of damaging oxalate crystals in the kidney.
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A: Ethylene Glycol. (A major component of antifreeze, toxicity is managed by the administration of ethanol).
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Q: Used in the event of benzodiazepine overdose.
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A: Flumazenil. (This benzodiazepine derivative antagonizes the actions of benzodiazepines and zolpidem, although it does not block the actions of barbiturates).
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Q: Intoxicant that can cause retinal damage and blindness along with metabolic acidosis and coma.
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A: Methanol. (Damage is due to the conversion to formaldehyde by the liver; the treatment includes ethanol, which competes for alcohol dehydrogenase.)
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Q: Used to treat the symptoms of opioid overdose.
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A: Naltrexone, Naloxone. (Pure antagonists, primarily of mu opioid receptors).
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Q: Anticholinesterases used as insecticides and as possible agents of chemical warfare, inducing motor paralysis, respiratory depression and convulsions.
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A: Organophosphates (Isoflurophate/Echothiophate/Parathion). (Antidote includes the use of atropine and acetylcholinesterase regenerators, such as pralidoxime).
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Q: Derivative of penicillin with the ability to chelate copper ions, used for the treatment of copper toxicity.
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A: Penicillamine. (Also used for the treatment of Wilson disease, and an adjunct therapy for rheumatoid arthritis).
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Q: Drugs that cause significant ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
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A: Aminoglycosides (antibiotics), Loop Diuretics, Cisplatin (Antineoplastic). (Vancomycin rarely is associated with mild ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, although both may become significant when used in conjunction with aminoglycosides).
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Q: Drugs that lead to pulmonary fibrosis and subsequent restrictive lung disease.
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A: Bleomycin (Antineoplastic), Amiodarone (Class 1A Antiarrhythmic), Busulfan (Antineoplastic). (Patients may manifest with dyspnea, tachypnea, and eventual cyanosis, with a decreased forced expiratory volume at 1 second [FEV1] and a decreased forced vital capacity [FVC]).
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Q: Drugs that cause gynecomastia.
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A: Cimetidine (Antiulcer), Ketoconazole (Antifungal), Spironolactone (Antihypertensive). (All compete for androgen receptors, leading to antiandrogenic effects).
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Q: Common drugs that inhibit hepatic P450 system.
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A: Cimetidine (Antiulcer), Ketoconazole (Antifungal), Erythromycin (Antibiotic). (Such drugs potentiate the action of other drugs which are normally metabolized by the P450; often doses must be lowered when such drugs are used together).
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Q: Drugs that can cause massive hepatic necrosis.
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A: Halothane (Anesthetic), Acetaminophen (Analgesic), Valproic Acid (Anticonvulsant) (Histologically, damage to the liver is indistinguishable from that caused by chronic viral hepatitis).
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Q: Drugs that cause a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome.
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A: Hydralazine (Vasodilator), Procainamide (Class 1A Antiarrhythmic), Isoniazid (Antituberculoid), Phenytoin (Anticonvulsant). (Symptoms include arthralgias, myalgias, skin rashes, and fever).
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Q: Drugs that inhibit microtubule function.
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A: Mebendazole (Antihelminthic), Thiabendazole (Antihelminthic), Paclitaxel (Antineoplastic), Vincristine (Antineoplastic), Colchicine (Antigout), Griseofulvin (Antifungal). (These agents either block intracellular transport, interfere with locomotion, or disrupt the formation of the mitotic spindle.)
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Q: Drugs that cause a disulfram-like reaction.
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A: Metronidazole (Antibiotic), Certain Cephalosporins (Antibiotic), Procarbazine (Antineoplastic). (Cause flushing, headache, nausea, sweats, hypotension, and confusion).
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Q: Drugs that cause cutaneous flushing on administration.
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A: Niacin (Antihyperlipidemic), Calcium Channel Blockers, Adenosine (Antiarrhythmic), Vancomycin (Antibiotic). (Often this side effect can be controlled by slow infusion or coadministration with histamine blockers).
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Q: Bactericidal antibiotics.
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A: Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Vancomycin, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole. (Most of the other antibiotics are bacteriostatic).
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Q: Drugs that induce the hepatic P450 system.
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A: Phenytoin (Anticonvulsant), Carbamazepine (Anticonvulsant), Griseofulvin (Antifungal), Rifampin (Antituberculoid), Barbiturates, Chronic Ethanol Use. (The hepatic P450 microsomal mixed function oxidase system is involved in phase I metabolism of many drugs).
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Q: Drugs that cause a Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a febrile, erosive hemorrhagic crusting on the lips and oral mucosa of children.
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A: Sulfonamides (Antibiotic), Ethosuximide (Anticonvulsant), Lamotrigine (Anticonvulsant). (Other agents such as penicillins, barbiturates, salicylates, hydantoins, and antimalarials may be associated with a less severe form of erytheme multiforme, with macules, papules, vesicles and bullae).
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Q: Drugs that can cause hemolysis in patients with glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PDH) deficiency.
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A: Sulfonamides (Antibiotic), Isoniazid (Antituberculoid), Primaquine (Antimalarial). (In patients with G6PDH deficiency, these agents cause oxidative stress on RBCs because of a deficit of reducing equivalents of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate [NADPH], normally generated by the hexose monophosphate shunt).
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Q: Drugs that cause photosensitivity.
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A: Tetracycline (Antibiotics), Amiodarone (Class 1A Antiarrhythmic), Sulfonamides (Antibiotics).(Barbiturates can precipitate photosensitivity in patients with acute intermittent porphyria).
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