- Shuffle
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Alphabetize
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Front First
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Both Sides
Toggle OnToggle Off
Front
How to study your flashcards.
Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key
Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key
H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
93 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What are arguably the two most commonly used alpha-2 agents in equine anesthesia?
|
Xylazine and detomidine
|
|
What are indications where acepromazine should not be used in the horse?
|
Excitable animal
Shock or anemia is present Cachexia Hypotension |
|
How should your alpha-2 agonist dose be modified in older horses? In draft horses? In quarter horses?
|
Older horses and draft horses are more susceptible (reduce dose);
quarter horses (use normal dose) |
|
When should alpha-2 agonists be avoided in horse premeds?
|
Shock or anemia
Cachexia Hypotension (pretty much like ace) |
|
What are the alpha-2 reversal agents?
|
Yohimbine
Tolazoline Atipamezole |
|
What is the generic recipe for neuroleptanalgesia in the horse (bonus points if you can name specific drugs)?
|
Tranquilizer + Analgesic
(usually xylazine or romifidine + butorphanol) |
|
In which of the following animals should preanesthetic fasting NOT be implemented?
a) horse b) cow c) goat d) cat e) 2 wk old puppy f) llama |
not puppy since it is a neonate
|
|
Which of the following is/are unacceptable induction protocol drug combinations in the horse?
a) Thiopental alone b) Ketamine followed by Guaifeniesen c) Thiopental + Guaifeniesen d) Xylazine followed by Ketamine e) Xylazine + Ketamine + Guaifeniesen |
b) Ketamine followed by Guaifeniesen (should be Guaifeniesen FIRST)
e) Xylazine + Ketamine + Guaifeniesen (this is a MAINTENANCE mixture) |
|
Which type of laryngoscope blade is commonly used for equine intubation?
|
NONE -- blind intubation is usually used!
|
|
A period of tachypnea followed by apnea is known as...
Which species does this generally occur? |
Biot's Breathing occurs in 24-30% of foals
|
|
What is the normal MAP range for a horse?
|
75 - 100 mmHg
|
|
What is the normal respiration rate in an anesthetized horse? A foal?
|
Horse (4-10)
Foal (6-20) |
|
Describe the desired CNS reflexes that are desired in an anesthetized horse?
|
Ocular reflex (should MAINTAIN a slow palpebral reflex)
|
|
What points should be protected during horse anesthesia?
|
Coronary band
Eye Brachial plexus Nose roll prevents laryngeal hemiplegia |
|
What is the most important factor in preventing myopathy in the horse?
|
Maintenance of perfusion pressure
|
|
What are common options for cardiovascular support in the horse with low perfusion pressure?
|
Dobutamine
Ephedrine Calcium gluconate |
|
What can prevent soft palate displacement during equine extubation?
|
Get horse to swallow
|
|
What are causes of difficult jugular venipuncture in camelids?
|
Thick skin
Close jugular/carotid proximity Jugular valves |
|
Regurgitation is common in which of the following animals?
a) Camelids b) Horses c) Oxen d) Sheep and goats e) Pigs |
a) Camelids
b) Oxen d) Sheep/Goats e) Pigs |
|
Which of the following is NOT commonly used in camelid sedation protocols?
a) Xylazine b) Medetomidine c) Butorphanol d) Acepromazine e) Nalbuphine |
d) Acepromazine
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable mode of chemical restraint in the camelid?
a) Xylazine IM followed by Ketamine IM 15-20 min later b) Xylazine + Ketamine given together IM c) Xylazine alone (IM or IV) d) Medetomidine IM e) Romifidine IV |
a) Xylazine IM followed by Ketamine IM 15-20 min later
(Ketamine should be IV) |
|
What are the components of "Keatmine Stun"? Which animal(s) is this associated with?
|
Ketamine + Xylazine + Burorphanol (pretty much same as BKX but with more xylazine and butorphanol)
Associated w/Camelids |
|
What are the relative proportions of BKX?
|
10mg butorphanol
100mg xylazine 1000mg ketamine |
|
What can often help when catheterizing a camelid?
|
Using a needle or scalpel to incise the skin first
|
|
Which animal has the highest rate of syncope during anesthesia?
a) horse b) cow c) llama d) sheep e) fainting goat |
Probably a fainting goat but in reality, LLAMAS have a high degree of syncope
|
|
Which of the following are acceptable induction regimens in camelids?
a) Thiopental alone (IV) b) Thiopental + Guaifensen (IV) c) Ketamine + Guaifensen (IV) d) Propofol (IV) e) Xylazine followed by Ketamine (IV) |
ALL are acceptable!
|
|
What is triple-drip? How do the proportions differ between the camelid, horse, and ruminant?
|
Triple drip = Xylazine, Ketamine, Guaifensen
(Use less xylazine in camelids, even less in ruminant) |
|
Which method describes intubation of the camelid?
a) Orotracheal b) Blind nasotracheal c) Nasotracheal w/laryngoscope d) a and b only e) all of the above |
e) all of the above
|
|
Which structures must be avoided during nasotracheal intubation of a llama? What are some complications of this?
|
Avoid middle meatus, pharyngeal diverticulum (epistaxis is a complication)
|
|
In which animal is atropine a common part of the preanesthetic preparation?
|
Camelids
|
|
What are normal heart rates of camelids?
|
60-90 bpm (w/atropine)
28-40 bpm (w/xylazine) 100-125 bpm (juvenile w/atropine) |
|
What is a good MAP range for camelids? How about respiratory rate?
|
75-90 mm Hg
10-25 bpm (adults) 20-30 bpm (juveniles) |
|
When should the ET tube be removed from camelids?
|
It should remain in-place as long as possible!
|
|
What is the common injection site for epidural anesthesia in camelids? What are common drugs used for epidurals?
|
Sacrocaudal joint
Use xylazine or pretty much anything ending in -caine |
|
Which pre-anesthetic drug is NEVER used in bulls?
|
Acepromazine
|
|
Place the following in order of greatest to least sensitivity to alpha-2 agonists:
Sheep Pig Calf Goat Llama Horse |
Goat (most sensitive)
Calf Sheep Llama Horse Pig (least sensitive) |
|
What are two side-effects of using xylazine in ruminants?
|
Hypoxemia
Oxytocin-like effects |
|
Xylazine + Butorphanol is commonly used as neuroleptanalgesia in which of the following animals?
a) camelids b) pigs c) horses d) ruminants |
ALL OF THE ABOVE
|
|
T or F:
Ruminants should undergo a preanesthetic fasting period of 8-24 hrs to prevent regurgitation. |
False!
Fasting only prevents BLOAT in ruminants |
|
T or F:
Orotracheal intubation is blind in cattle but can be done with a laryngoscope in most other ruminants. |
True
|
|
What are normal MAP values for cattle? Sheep/goats?
|
Cattle (90-120 mm Hg)
Sheep/Goats (70-90 mm Hg) |
|
A palpebral response is NOT desired during anesthesia in which of the following animals?
a) horse b) cow c) camelid d) dog e) cat |
b) cow
d) dog e) cat |
|
Which drug is used in swine for sedation that isn't used in any other large animal/ruminant/camelid?
|
Azaperone
|
|
Which 3-drug combination (technically a 4-drug combo) is used in chemical restraint of swine?
|
TKX (Tiletamine, Zolazepam, Ketamine, Xylazine)
|
|
What additional technique must be used when intubating swine?
|
Lidocaine on arytenoids
|
|
Which physical anesthetic monitoring characteristics are the most important in swine anesthesia?
a) palpebral reflex b) Heart rate c) Corneal reflex d) Movement |
HR and movement (response to pain); ocular reflexes are worthless
|
|
Name the condition that causes anesthetic complications in the following animals:
Horses Dobermans Sighthounds Boxers Pigs |
Horses (HYPP)
Dobies (Von Willebrand's Dz) Sighthounds (Thiobarbiturates) Boxers (Cardiac dz; Acepromazine) Pigs (Malignant hyperthermia) |
|
What are complications associated with animals at either extreme of body condition scoring?
|
low score = cachexic (poor anesthetic candidate)
high score = fat (frequently overdosed) |
|
Which of the following has the least impact on changing anesthetic protocols?
a) Body condition score b) Age of patient c) Preanesthetic labwork d) Patient temperament |
c) Preanesthetic labwork (recent paper showed that labwork had little impact on protocol change)
|
|
What is the ASA status of a patient awaiting a TPLO? Of a patient with pulmonic stenosis?
|
TPLO = ASA - 1
Stenosis = ASA - 3 |
|
What are the 8 main steps to patient anesthesia? (hint - remember what you did for the dog anesthesia lab)
|
Physical exam
Calculate doses Premedicate Set-up machine Place catheters Intubate Maintenance Recover |
|
What drugs were used for pre-anesthetic in the dog lab? For induction?
|
Pre (Ace + Hydromorphone)
Induction (Propofol) |
|
What are two main differences between cats and dogs with regard to anesthesia?
|
Cats more prone to hypothermia (small size)
Decreased hepatic capability alters pharmacokinetics |
|
What is a good premed drug combo for an aggressive dog?
|
Dexmedetomadine + Telazol
|
|
What is a possible complication to hydromorphone use in cats?
|
Hyperthermia
|
|
What are procedural indications for anticholinergic use in small animals?
|
Endoscopy
Opthalmic procedures |
|
Describe the premedication used for a geriatric dog with a fractured mandible.
|
Benzodiazepine + opioid
(eg: midazolam + hydromorphone); also nerve blocks |
|
Describe the premeds used for a juvenile english bulldog in for ovariohysterectomy.
|
Butorphanol or low-dose hydromorphone
|
|
Which long-lasting opioid works really well in cats?
|
Buprenorphine
|
|
Which anesthetic drug should usually be avoided in geriatric cats?
|
Ketamine (renal excretion)
|
|
What are the two major (common) options for IV induction in small animals?
|
Propofol
Ket/Val |
|
When properly placed and properly sized, where should the ET connection be located in relation to the patient's anatomy?
|
At tip of the nose
|
|
How does intubation of cats differ from dogs?
|
Need lidocaine for arytenoids in cats
|
|
What are some adjuncts that can be used during IV induction of small animals?
|
Diazepam/midazolam
Lidocaine Opioids |
|
What is a great physical monitoring parameter for anesthetic depth in small animals?
|
Jaw tone
|
|
Which dog breeds generally have poor recoveries? What can be done for this?
|
Curly-tailed breeds (give acepromazine)
|
|
What are some advantages to using local anesthesia IN CONCERT with general anesthesia?
|
Reduces necessary amt of other meds (general anesthetics, post op pain meds)
Prevents wind-up Minimizes negative effects of other anesthetic drugs (due to decreased amounts) |
|
What are the three general sites of action for local anesthetics? Generally speaking of mechanisms here...
|
Inhibit transduction (locally)
Inhibit transmission Modulation of spinal pathways |
|
Chemically speaking, what are the three parts to a local anesthetic?
|
Hydrophilic part
Lipophilic part Intermediate chain |
|
What is the general MOA for local anesthetics?
|
Binds to receptor site in Na channel, which inactivates the Na channel and prevents depolarization.
|
|
What are cardiovascular signs of local anesthetic toxicity?
|
Hypotension, bradycardia, dysarrthymias
|
|
What is a rough estimate for total volume of lidocaine to administer? Bupivicaine?
|
<0.5ml/kg for both
|
|
What effect does the addition of bicarbonate to a local anesthetic injection have?
a) Prolong block duration, increase intensity of block b) Hasten block onset, decrease pain of injection c) Local vasoconstrictor d) Part of multimodal analgesia |
b) Hasten block onset, decrease pain of injectio
|
|
What effect does the addition of epinephrine to a local anesthetic injection have?
a) Prolong block duration, increase intensity of block b) Hasten block onset, decrease pain of injection c) Local vasoconstrictor d) Part of multimodal analgesia |
c) Local vasoconstrictor
|
|
Which nerves are affected in a brachial plexus block?
|
Musculocutaneous
Median Radial Axillary Ulnar |
|
What tool can ensure the precision of local blocks?
|
Peripheral nerve stimulator
|
|
Which block is useful in onychectomies? Which nerves are blocked?
|
4-point block (distal foot block)
Superficial radial n. Dorsal br. of ulnar n. Median n. Palmar br. of ulnar n. |
|
T or F:
Blocking at the mandibular foramen and/or the infraorbital foramen blocks M4 to I1 on the side of administration. |
False! This only describes blocking at the mandibular foramen! At the infraorbital foramen you block PM3 to I1.
|
|
Give some examples of non-drug anti-pain therapies.
|
Acupuncture
Ultrasound Heat/cold therapy Massage "Laser" Electromagnetic treatments |
|
What are the major classes of therapeutic anti-pain drugs?
|
NSAIDs
Opioids Alpha-2 agonists NMDA blockers Local anesthetics |
|
What is the difference between anesthesia and analgesia?
|
Anesthesia blocks PERCEPTION of painful stimuli
Analgesia increases TOLERANCE to pain |
|
Which is safer, COX1/COX2 balanced NSAIDs or COX2 selective NSAIDs?
|
BALANCED NSAIDs are safer overall (less nephrotoxicity, less hepatotoxicity, and better analgesia overall)
|
|
What are feline concerns when using NSAID therapy?
|
Hepatic metabolism is variable
Nephrotoxicity in animals w/kidney dz |
|
What are benefeits of neutraceuticals? Disadvantages?
|
Benefits (positive effect on cartilage matrix, enhance hyluronic acid, inhibit catabolisis in joints)
Disadvantages (no FDA regulation, commonly below potency levels) |
|
What is the range of duration for butorphanol effectiveness in cats?
|
15min to 8 hours!!!
|
|
This newer drug has an unknown MOA and is used very early in human pain management and shows promise in veterinary pain management.
|
Gabapentin
|
|
This drug (NOT ketamine) is a NMDA antagonist and an antiviral. It also may increase DA release.
|
Amantidine
|
|
T or F:
Pain should be considered a vital sign. |
yup
|
|
Choose pathological or physiological pain...
...reaction to injury. |
physiological
|
|
Choose pathological or physiological pain...
...requires a high-threshold input. |
physiological
|
|
Choose pathological or physiological pain...
...altered nerve pathways require a low-threshold input. |
pathological
|
|
Choose pathological or physiological pain...
...no protective function. |
pathological
|
|
What are five factors to evaluate for pain? AAARP
|
Attitude
Appetite Activity Responses Physiological parameters |