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75 Cards in this Set
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What is the common signalment for equine OCD?
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young fast growing horses (warmblods, QH, standardbred, THB, belgians)
Show signs 6mos to 2 yrs |
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The 4 main sites of OCD in the horse hock are...
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DIRT
Larteral trochlear ridge of talus Medial malleolus of tibia Medial trochlear ridge of talus |
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What is the #1 OCD lesion in the horse stifle? Hock? Which is #1 overall?
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Lateral Trochlear Ridge of Distal Femur in stifle
DIRT (distal intermediate ridge of tibia) in hock is #1 overall |
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The 4 main sites of OCD in the horse stifle are...
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Lateral trochlear ridge of distal femur
Patella Medial femoral condyle (cyst) Medial trochlear ridge of femur |
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What are some nutritional factors that possibly contribute to OCD?
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High glucose and insulin
Low Cu High P, Zn, or Mo |
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What is the MOST IMPORTANT factor contributing to OC development?
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RAPID GROWTH RATE
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Describe the changes in collagen in OC cartilage.
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Changes in types I, II, VI, and X
Increased col I and decreased col II |
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What are some medical treatments for OC?
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decrease nutritional plane (eliminate grain and alfalfa)
Decrease exercise Hyaluronic acid joint injections |
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Which joints have the worst prognosis for moderate to severe OC?
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Stifle and shoulder
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What are the 3 types of growth plates and where are they found?
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Discoid (long bone ends)
Spherical (cuboidal bones) Traction epiphysis (where muscle attaches) |
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Which histologic zone of the growth plate is most susceptible to injury?
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hypertrophic zone
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When do the following growth plates close?
tibial physis proximal P1 distal radial physis distal MC3/MT3 |
tibial physis - 8 mos
proximal P1 - 4 mos distal radial physis - 12 mos distal MC3/MT3 - 4 mos |
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A "windswept" foal often has carpal __________ on one leg and carpal _________on the other.
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valgus on one; varus on the other (d/t intrauterine positioning)
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When viewing joint radiographs for angular deformities, joint spaces should be ____________ in normal animals while long axes should be _______________.
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Both should should be PARALLEL (but perpendicular to one another)
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T or F:
Where the skewed lines of joint spaces cross indicates where the developmental abnormality lies. |
False!
This describes where the long bone axes cross! |
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Which of the following are appropriate treatments for angular deformities due to incomplete ossification?
a) stall rest b) corrective trimming/shoeing c) growth acceleration d) external coaptation e) transphyseal bridging |
a) stall rest
d) external coaptation |
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Which of the following are NOT appropriate treatments for angular deformities due to developmental abnormalities?
a) stall rest b) corrective trimming/shoeing c) growth acceleration d) external coaptation e) transphyseal bridging |
a) stall rest (should have controlled exercise)
d) external coaptation (should use various forms of implants) |
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Which are true regarding periosteal stripping?
a) perform on the concave aspect of the limb b) perform at the level of the growth plate c) perform on the convex aspect of the limb d) perform above growth plate e) tip $5 and wash the glitter off before going home |
a) perform on the concave aspect of the limb
d) perform above growth plate |
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Periosteal stripping should be performed __________ rapid growth ends while transphyseal bridging should be performed _________ rapid growth ends.
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Stripping before
Bridging after |
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Which are true regarding transphyseal bridging?
a) performed on the concave limb aspect b) performed on the convex limb aspect c) possibility for overcorrection d) performed above the growth plate e) releases growth inhibition |
b) performed on the convex limb aspect
c) possibility for overcorrection |
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T or F:
Septic physitis is not very common in horses. |
True! Physitis is generally aseptic.
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What are common sites for equine physitis?
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Distal radial physis
Distal MC/MT 3 physis Distal tibial physis Proximal tibial physis |
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How can non-septic physitis be treated?
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NSAIDS
Decrease nutrition and exercise |
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Common sites for tendon laxity in horses include...
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...fetlock
carpus hock |
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Name the joint and tendon involved in...
...coffin joint flexure |
Distal interphalangeal joint d/t
"contracted" DDF |
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Name the joint and tendon involved in...
...fetlock flexure |
Metacarpo/tarso-phalangeal joint d/t contracted superficial +/- DDF tendon
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Name the joint and tendon involved in...
...carpal flexure |
carpal joint!
contracted carpal ligaments |
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What joint is affected with when the dorsal hoof wall is very steep?
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distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint
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What joint is affected when pasterns are upright and fetlock is knuckling forward?
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Metacarpophalangeal joint
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What are some signs of ruptured common digital extensor tendon?
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Swelling in tendon sheath (dorsolateral carpus)
Fetlock knuckling over Flip feet as walk Palpate ends of tendon |
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How are congenital tendon flexures treated medically?
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Oxytetracycline injection (chelates Ca and relaxes muscle)
Reduce nutritional plane Splints/casts Trimming/shoeing |
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Distal check ligament desmotomy is appropriate for which of the following?
a) Club foot b) Fetlock flexure c) coffin joint flexure d) ruptured DDF |
a) Club foot
c) coffin joint flexure (this involves DDF tendon; it may help fetlock flexure but I don't really know!) |
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What is the most important post-op measure after a distal check ligament desmotomy?
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corrective shoeing and trimming to prevent ligament reforming
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Proximal check ligament desmotomies are good for flexural deformities involving the ___________ tendon.
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SDF (fetlock flexure)
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Seroma formation is more common with ___________ check ligament desmotomy.
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Proximal
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Where are most lamenesses in food animals?
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Foot (80-90% below fetlock);
Lateral claw on back; medial claw on front |
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Economic losses from food animal lameness is pretty much equal to losses from __________.
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mastitis
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What are some infectious causes of food animal lameness and which are reportable?
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FMD, Bluetongue, MCF, VS (reportable);
Also BVD, salomonellosis |
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In general, what is the treatment for most all bovine lameness issues?
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Trim all 4 claws correctly
Soft bedding Improve hygiene |
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A circular area of hemorrhage and necrosis in the sole-bulb junction describes...
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...Sole ulcer (Rusterholz ulcer or pododermatitis circumscripta)
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You see a cow with swollen deep interdigital areas and a fever. What is the condition, etiology, and drug treatment?
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Intergital phlegmone (necrobacillosis)
d/t Fusobacterium necrophorum Tx - Penicillin! |
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T or F:
Tetracycline is generally good for treatment of infection by anaerobes. |
False!
PENICILLIN is good for anaerobes (except for Bacteriodes spp). Tetracycline is good for spirochetes, among others... |
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A cow with swollen interdigital epidermis and no fever probably has...
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Interdigital dermatitis d/t Dichelobacter nodosa
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You see a strawberry to wart-like lesion above the coronary band and interdigital space in a cow. What is the condition, etiology, and drug treatment?
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Digital dermatitis
d/t spirochete Tx - tetracycline |
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Describe a POOR candidate for digit amputation in large animals.
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>1500 lbs
Lateral hind claw affected Medial front claw affected |
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Digital amputation would be a great choice in which of the following:
a) P3 fractures b) lateral hind claw in breeding bull <1500 lbs c) sole ulcer of medial hind claw d) septic arthritis e) pedal osteitis |
a) P3 fractures
d) septic arthritis e) pedal osteitis |
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What are some advantages to arthrodesis over digit amputation?
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Longer production life
Better for heavy animals Better for lateral hind/medial front claws Better cosmetic outcome |
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What is the best diagnostic procedure for septic arthritis in food animals?
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Synoviocentesis
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Choose the Salter-Harris classification involving...
...complete physis separation. |
Type I
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Choose the Salter-Harris classification involving...
...a physeal fracture that also involves the metaphysis. |
Type II
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Choose the Salter-Harris classification involving...
...intra-articular fracture through physis and epiphysis. |
Type III
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Choose the Salter-Harris classification involving...
...intra-articular fracture through epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis. |
Type IV
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Choose the Salter-Harris classification involving...
...crushing injury leading to physis. |
Type V or VI
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What type of coxofemoral luxation is most common in cattle? How can you tell if luxation has occurred?
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Craniodorsal most common
Look at greater trochanter, tuber ischi, and tuber coxa to diagnose |
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Which are true regarding Elso Heel?
a) involves shortened peroneus tertius b) an acquired nuromuscular disorder of polled english breeds c) progressive hock extension d) treated by tenotomy |
c) progressive hock extension
d) treated by tenotomy (involves shortened GASTROCNEMIUS in HOLSTEIN FRIESLANDS) |
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In bone sequestration, the ____________ lies inside the ___________.
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Sequestrum inside the involucrum
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What is the fancy name for "big knee" in cattle? What is the etiology? What is the treatment?
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Hygroma
d/t chronic trauma (laying on hard ground) Tx - sterile drainage |
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Which are NOT true regarding femoral neuropathy/patellar luxations in cattle?
a) treated by lateral patellar imbrications b) involves quadriceps atrophy c) usually medial patellar luxation d) often d/t birthing grauma |
a) treated by MEDIAL patellar imbrications
c) usually LATERAL patellar luxation |
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Osteochondrosis in food animals is most common in which joint?
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Tibiotarsal joint
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If an animal can extend the hock and flex the stifle, what gives?
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RUPTURED PERONEUS TERTIUS
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Which are true regarding joint physiology?
a) collagen type II provides tensile strength b) proteoglycans provide compressive strength c) collagen type II provides tensile and compressive strength d) proteoglycans provide tensile strength e) none of the above |
a) collagen type II provides tensile strength
b) proteoglycans provide compressive strength |
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What are the two major categories leading to OA?
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Normal cartilage/abnormal stress
Abnormal cartilage/normal stress |
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Which are true regarding the pathology of OA?
a) the major pro-inflammatory cytokines are MMPs b) aggregates degrade proteoglycans and collagen c) MMPs break down proteoglycans and collagen d) IL-1 is released by synoviocytes and chondrocytes |
c) MMPs break down proteoglycans and collagen
d) IL-1 is released by synoviocytes and chondrocytes (aggregans only break down proteoglycans; IL-1 is major cytokine) |
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Which tissues are affected by osteoarthritis/DJD and what effect is there on each tissue?
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Articular cartilage (degeneration)
Subchondral bone (sclerosis; lysis) Joint capsule (fibrosis) Synovial membrane (hyperplasia, hyperemia, increased fluid production) |
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Which tissues elicit pain in OA/DJD?
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synovial membrane
Joint capsule subchondral bone |
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T or F:
Surgery of OA/DJD is indicated to slow or halt disease progression. |
False!
Only indicated when there is a MECHANICAL reason for continued inflammation |
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What does SMOAD and DMOAD stand for?
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Symptom-Modifying and Disease-Modifying OA Drugs
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Which of the following are true regarding OA medical treatment?
a) improved pain slows cartilage degeneration b) reducing cartilage degeneration alleviates pain c) Most NSAIDS are SMOAD and DMOADs d) Hyaluronin is not a SMOAD |
d) Hyaluronin is not a SMOAD
(note - reduced pain DOES NOT equal reduced cartilage degeneration and vice versa! Also most NSAIDS are only SMOADs) |
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Which NSAID is a SMOAD and DMOAD? What else is cool with this drug?
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Diclofenac; is TOPICAL, has minimal systemic absorption (lower GI side effects), and decreases dejenerative effects more
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NSAIDS inhibit _________ while corticosteroids inhibit _____________.
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NSAIDS (COX blockers)
Steroids (COX blockers and Phospholipase A2) |
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What is important to remember AFTER giving an intra-articular corticosteroid injection?
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Let animal rest 7-10 days to give chondrocytes time to recover from anaerobic metabolism.
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What are the main actions of hyaluronan?
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anti-inflammatory
decrease proteoglycans |
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What are the major effects of hyaluronin injection?
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Anti-inflammatory and decreases prostaglandins (DMOAD)
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Which inflammatory mediators do polysulfated polysaccharides impact?
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IL-1, PPM2, PGE2
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"Slow-acting" DMOADS comprise the ___________________.
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Polysulfated polysaccharides
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