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177 Cards in this Set

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Allergy (immediate) is which type of hypersensitivity?
Type I
What is the major mediator of type I hypersensitity?
IgE
Cytotoxic or antibody-dependent hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity?
Type II
What are the major mediators of type II hypersensitivity?
IgM
IgG
Complement
Immune complex disease is which type of hypersensitivity?
Type III
Type III hypersensitivity is mediated by which chemicals?
IgG
Complement
Delayed-type hypersensitivity or antibody-independent hypersensitivity is which type?
Type IV
Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by which cells?
APCs (T-cells, macrophages, basophils)
Autoimmune disease is which type of hypersensitivity?
Type V
Type V hypersensitivity is mediated by which chemicals?
IgG
IgM
Complement
Arthrus reaction is an example of which type of hypersensitivity (pick one: local or generalized)?
Local
What are the cell types involved in the arthrus reaction?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Mast Cells
What are two examples of the arthrus reaction discussed in class?
Blue eye
Actinomyses (moldy hay)
Where is the most common sites of manifestation for generalized type III hypersensitivity (list 3)?
Kidneys
Blood Vessels
Joints
Which type of hypersensitivity is the only cell-mediated response?
Type IV
How are immune complexes normally removed?
RBCs
Platelets
Macrophages
Immune complexes deposited into the glomeruli causes which disease?
Membronoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Which of the three types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by a large immune complex?
Type I
Which of the three types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has no Ig (only complement) present?
Type II (factor H deficiency)
Which of the three types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis produces a wire-loop lesion?
Type I
Which of the three types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has very small immune complexes?
Type III
Give the agents that can cause type I, II, and III glomerulonephritis:
Type I - Streptococcus
Type II - Circovirus
Type III - Dirofilaria (heartworm)
Type III hypersensitivity manifesting in the joint capsules is called:
polyarthritis (rhumatoid and osteoarthritis)
What is the general mechanism of type IV hypersensitivity?
Antigen (purified protein derivative) injected
Stimulates dendritic cells
What test is used to detect TB in cattle herds?
Caudal fold tuberculin test
T or F:
A positive caudal fold tuberculin test is indicative of a TB infection.
False!
Further testing is necessary for a positive animal due to possible cross reactions.
What are possible cross-reactants with the caudal fold TB test?
Avian TB (M. avium)
Johne's dz (M. avium TB)
M. phlei
What is in the center of a tubercle?
necrotic material
What surrounds the center of a tubercle?
macrophages and lymphocytes walled-off by fibroblasts
Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
Type IV
T or F:
No scratching is associated with allergic contact dermatitis.
True!
Where does allergic contact dermatitis usually manifest on the body?
Hairless part of skin
What do lesions from allergic contact dermatitis look like?
From mild erythema to extreme vesiculation
How can allergic contact dermatitis be tested for?
Closed and open patch test
What therapy or therapy is used in allergic contact dermatitis?
Hyposensitization therapy NOT effective
Need corticosteroids w/ antibiotics to control secondary infections
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of clinical signs?
Type I has hyperemia, urticaria and pruritis

Type IV has hyperemis, vesiculation, alopecia, and erythema
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of distribution
Type I - face, nose, eyes, feet, perineum

Type IV - hairless areas (belly and feet)
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of major allergens.
Type I - pollen, food, fleas, inhaled allergens

Type IV - chemicals and dyes
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of diagnosis response
Type I - intradermal testing; immediate testing

Type IV - delayed response on a patch
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of pathology
Type I - eosinophilic infiltration edema

Type IV - mononuclear cell infiltrateion, vesiculation
Compare/contrast type I and type IV hypersensitivity in terms of treatment
Type I - steroids, antihistamines, hyposensitization

Type IV - steroids and antibiotics
A tissue graft between the same species is a/an _____________.
Allograft
A tissue graft between different areas of the same animal is a/an ______________.
Autograft
A tissue graft between two genetically identical individuals is a/an _______________.
Isograft
A tissue graft between two different species is a/an _____________.
Xenograft
Which three antigens are important in organ graft rejection?
MHC I
MHC II
Blood group
What cell-type mediates allograft rejection?
Cytotoxic T cells mostly
(Some NK and Macs)
What substances do the Th cells produce that activates the cytotoxic T cells?
IFN gamma
IL-2
What is the mechanism for graft rejection in a blood type mismatch?
Kill via complement pathway
Rejection within 48 hours is ____________ rejection.
Hyperacute
Rejection within 7 days is ____________ rejection.
accelerated
Graft rejection within weeks is ___________ rejection.
acute
Graft rejection within months is ______________ rejection.
Chronic
In which two types of rejection are antibodies a major factor?
Hyperacute (due to preexisting Ab)
Chronic
In which two types of rejection are cytotoxic T cells a major factor?
Accelerated
Acute
What is the survivability of a renal allograft in a dog?
8mos to 5yrs
Preventing the development of __________ greatly increases the success of a skin allograft.
lymphatic connection
The rejection rate of liver allografts is _____________.
Slow
Why is liver graft rejection slow?
INdolamine dioxygenase destroys tryptophan which is essential for T-cell response.
The phenomenon leading to cardiac failure in a cardiac allograft is known as ___________ ___________.
Graft arteriosclerosis
Besides immunoprivileged sites, where else are allografts rarely rejected?
Bone cortical allografts
What is the procedure for performing a bone marrow allograft?
1) Irradiate the entire body
2) Inject bone marrow IV
What are features of the eye making it an immunoprivelaged site?
Blood/tissue barrier
No dendritic cells
Low levels of MHC I and II
High levels of immunosuppressive molecules
What is a possible consequence of a bone marrow injection after host total body irradiation?
Graft-vs.-host disease
What are treatments for graft-vs-host disease?
Give antibodies to IFNy and TNFa (reduces the cytotoxic T cell destruction of host cells)
Grafts between two closely related species are known as _______________ _______________.
concordant xenografts
Grafts between two unrelated species are known as ____________ ______________.
Dischordant xenografts
What are the three mechanisms of rejection in pig/human xenografts?
1) Anti-pig-carbohydrate antibodies in humans
2) complement activation
3) natural inhibitors of complement not present in pig tissue
How do sperm bypass the immunological rejection mechanisms?
Seminal plasma is immunosuppressive
How does the fetus prevent immunological rejection?
Releases immunosuppressive factors (alpha fetoproteins)
What are some immunosuppressive chemicals that tumors may release?
IL-10
TGF beta
Prostaglandin E2
A tumor derived from hematopoetic cells is a _____________.
leukemia
T or F:
There is generally a weak immune response to tumors.
True!
Due to self antigens mainly
What are four tumor-associated antigens?
1) Tissue specific antigens, produced in excess
2) Viral antigens
3) Reactivated fetal antigens
4) Mutated gene products
What are some examples of viral antigens expressed by cancer cells?
FOCMA
Marek's dz
Which produces cancer cells with a greater variety of antigens, oncogenic viruses or chemical carcinogens?
Chemical carcinogens
What common factor are NK, T cells, and macrophages all activated by?
IFNy
Which three cell types are important for tumor suppression?
NK cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Macrophages
(also NK/T hybrids)
Which type of tumor immunotherapy stimulates the patients immune system to respond to the tumor?
Active immunotherapy
What are the two main types of passive immunotherapy for tumors? Which is more effective?
Cytokine
Antibody (most effective!!)
What is an examples of a successful antitumor vaccine?
FOCMA against FeLV
Marek's Disease vaccine
How are lymphokine activated killer cells used to treat tumors?
Extract lymphocytes
Incubate with IL-2
RE-inject into tumor-bearing animal
What virus causes papillomas?
Papilloma virus!
What virus causes equine sarcoids?
Bovine papillomas
How is ocular squamous cell carcinoma treated in cattle?
1) excise tumor
2) extract in phenol-saline
3) inoculate
What is the most common bovine cancer? What causes it?
Bovine lymphosarcoma caused by delta retrovirus (fly vector)
you will have been called
vocatus eris
vocati eritis
What is the most common lymphoid tumor in birds? What cell line does it impact?
Marek's dz in T cells
What protein secreted in feline leukemia is highly immunosuppressive?
P15E
The process of mounting an immune response against a normal body component is ____________.
autoimmunity
T or F:
Autoimmunity can result from an aberrant response to a single specific antigen.
True
T or F:
Autoimmunity may be due to a general defect in the regulation of B or T cell functions.
True
What are some physiological functions of autoimmune disease?
Phagocytosis of old RBCs
What are some of the major failures of regulatory control in an autoimmune response?
Apoptosis
Virus infections
Failure of self-reactive T-cells to be killed
In rhumatoid arthritis, new epitopes are exposed on the ______ region of Ig.
Fc
What can trigger autoimmunity after a heart attack?
Ab to mitochondria
Maternal Ab to fetal cells can be due to ______________.
microchimerism
What is another name for rheumatoid factor?
IgM
What is molecular mimicry?
Epitope cross reaction. Similar or identical epitope from infectious agent induces autoimmunity.
Which two epitopes (host and agent) cross react to cause rheumatic fever?
Streptococci and cardiac myosin
Which two epitopes (host and agent) cross react to cause Multiple Sclerosis?
Epstein Barr and Myelin basic protein
Which two epitopes (host and agent) cross react to cause periodic opthalmia?
Leptospira interrogans and horse eyes
T or F:
Thymoma is always associated with myasthenia gravis in dogs.
True as far as I know
An autoimmune disease caused by reovirus in mice is....
...diabetes mellitis
What are predisposing factors to autoimmune disease?
Genetics (breed)
Antigens against thyroglobulin causes what autoimmune disease? What signs are shown? What animals are commonly affected?
Lymphocytic Thyroiditis presents as hyporthyroidism in humans, dogs, and chickens
Which symptoms would antibodies to thyroid peroxidase cause? What animals are commonly affected?
Hyperthyroidism in old cats
How would the hypothyroidism in lymphocytic thyroiditis be treated?
Give synthetic T4
Antibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase causes what autoimmune disease? Which animals are commonly affected?
Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitis affects humans and dogs
What is the causative antigen in coonhound paralysis?
Antigen in raccoon saliva; can be post vaccination rabies
Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the adrenal cortex causes what autoimmune condition? How would this present?
Autoimmune adrenalitis
Hypovolemia, acidosis, circulatory shock, cardiac dysrhythmias & low corticosteroids
What is the antigen in equine polyneuritis? How is this condition resolved?
Peripheral myelin protein P2
NO resolution; treat w/anti-inflammatories
T or F:
Coonhound paralysis self-resolves with time.
True
What is the most common cause of blindness in horses? What is the antigen in this case?
Equine recurrent uveitis
Ag is retinoid-binding protein
Besides severe eye disease (uveitis), what other issues do dogs with uveodermatological syndrom exhibit?
Poliosis (whitening of the hair)
Vitiligo (skin whitening)
What are some ways to take advantage of autoimmune reproductive reactions?
Immunocontraception
Enhance production
Sex selection
A superficial autoimmune skin disease is called __________ _________.
pemphigus foliaceus
A deep epidermal autoimmune skin disease is called __________ _________.
pemphigus vulgaris
What type of lesion denotes a pemphigus reaction?
vesicular lesion
Pemphigus vulgaris is due to autoantibody attack on which cell adhesion protein?
Desmoglein-3
A rare and mild variant of a deep epidermal autoimmune skin disease is called __________ _________.
pemphigus vegetans
Pemphigus foliaceus is due to autoantibody attack on which cell adhesion protein?
desmoglein-1
A mild variant of an epidermal autoimmune skin disease is called __________ _________.
pemphigus erythematosus
What is the most common type of the pemphigus diseases?
pemphigus foliaceus
Which antibiotics can cause epidermal autoimmune skin disease?
trimethoprimsulfadiazine
oxacillin
cephalexin
ampicillin
An autoimmune disease of the skin basement membrane characterized by subepidermal vesicles is ____________ ____________.
bullous pemphigoid
What is the antigen responsible for bullous pemphigoid?
type XVII collagen
Deposition of IgA in the lamina lucida causes which autoimmune disease of the skin basement membrane?
Linear IgA dermatosis
Autoantibodies against hair follicle cells causes ___________ ________.
alopecia areata
Autoimmunity to type II catilage causes which autoimmune skin disease? How does this disease present?
Relapsing polychondritis
Bilateral curling of ears and ocular changes
RBCs tagged by IgG are destroyed by which organ?
Tagged by IgM?
Spleen (IgG)
Liver (IgM)
How would the cytology of a blood smear appear of a dog with autoimmune hemolytic disease?
Many spherocytes
What are the antigens involved in polymyositis?
Sarcolemma and nucleic acid
Autoimmunity to myosin isoform 2M causes ___________ ___________ ________.
Autoimmune masticatory myopathy
Chronic active hepatitis is characterized by autoantibodies to the cell membranes of which cell type?
hepatocytes dumbass!
What is a histological presentation phagocytes in a dog with lupus?
opsonized nuclei (LE cell)
What is the KEY DEFECT in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)?
impaired clearance of apoptotic cells; this causes the development of antibodies to nuclear fragments
How does lupus present in horses?
generalized skin disease (alopecia, dermal ulceration & crusting)
What tests are used to detect the possibility of systemic lupus erythematosis?
Anti-nuclear antibody test
Positive LE test
T or F:
Most dogs test positive for anti-nuclear antibodies.
False!
most CATS do
What are some diagnostic criteria for SLE?
Characteristic skin lesions
polyarthritis
antiglobulin-positive hemolytic anemia
thrombocytopenia
proteinuria
AND either a positive LE or ANA test
The type of lupus involving lesions of the face is known as ____________ ____________ ________.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus
Where does discoid lupus manifest in dogs? In cats?
Dogs - face
Cats - pinna
What are the three characteristics of Sjogren's Syndrome (and, no, umlauts is not one of them)?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Xerostomia
Rheumatoid factor
Which species develop Sjogren's Syndrome? How is it treated?
Dogs and horses
Give artificial tears and opthalmic cyclosporine
What test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic disease?
Coomb's test
What are the 5 types of autoimmune hemolytic disease and which antibody is associated with each?
I = G>M
II = M
III = G
IV = M
V = M
What are the outgrowths of the proliferating synovia in rheumatoid arthritis?
Pannus
What produces the proteases in rheumatoid arthritis? What produces the metalloproteases?
Pannus produce the proteases
Macrophages produce the metalloproteases
What are the 3 antigens involved in rheumatoid arthritis?
GAG
IgG
type II collagen
What are some major diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?
Morning stiffness (heh heh)
Persistence for 1hr lasting 6 wks
Affect 3 joints
IgM (rheumatoid factor)
radiographic changes
Antibodies to which substances can treat rheumatoid arthritis?
TNFa
CD4
IL-2 receptor
A disease of collies and shetland sheepdogs that involves a muscle disease following the onset of skin disease is.....
Dermatomyositis
What are predisposing factors for nonerosive polyarthritis?
Mostly genetics (breed specificity)
What are the three types of canine polyarthritis?
Lupus polyarthritis
Polyarthritis with polymyositis
Idiopathis polyarthritis
Which disease of beagles resembles Kawasaki disease?
Canine juvenile polyarteritis
Which autoimmune vasculitis disease is characterized by widespread focal necrosis in muscular arteries but not in the skin?
Polyarteritis nodosa
How do polyarteritis nodosa and hypersensitivity vasculitis differ in distribution?
polyarteritis nodosa does not manifest in the skin while hypersensitivity vasculitis does
A genetic and/or congenital disorder in which part of the immune system is missing or nonfunctional is called a _____________ immunodeficiency.
primary
A disorder in which part immune system is missing or nonfunctional due to disease, drug, or toxin is called a _____________ immunodeficiency.
secondary
What are 5 main points for development blocks to lead to primary immunodeficiency?
Tyymic aplasia
Neutrophil defects
Agammaglobulinemia (no Ig)
Deficiency in specific Ig class
Combined immunodeficiency (deficiency in lymphoid precursor)
Big-ass granules in a neutrophil or lymphocyte is a characteristic of which syndrome?
Chediak-Higashi
T or F:
Chediak Higashi is an equal opportunity syndrome.
False!
It likes to occur in white animals!
Failure of neutrophil nuclei to form lobes is a characteristic of which condition?
Pelger-Huet Anamoly
The recurrent bacterial infections associated with a leukocyte adhesion deficiency are caused by mutation of which class of protein? Which specific protein in this class?
Integrins
CD18 specificly
The phagocytic defect present in gray collies that Dr. Pastey seems to love is called __________ _______ ________.
Canine cyclical neutropenia
What might be the cause of gray collie syndrome?
Abnormal growth factor production
An arab horse with no serum IgM and no lymphocytes probably has which condition?
Severe Combined Immunideficiency (SCID)
T or F:
SCID foals have no DNA repair enzyme.
True!
What are the three possible criteria for SCID diagnosis?
low circulating lymphocytes (<1000/mm3_
hypoplasia of primary and secondary lymphoid organs
absence of IgM from presuckle serum
A disorder in which there are normal T cell numbers but few B cells present is characteristic of __________ _________ __________.
Common variable immunodeficiency
Livestock with a reduced ability to absorb Zn from the intestine may have which type of primary immunodeficiency?
Hereditary parakeratosis
Which IL chain is impacted in canine x-linked SCID?
y chain of the IL2r
"Moth-eaten" mice have a defect in which type of leukocyte?
Neutrophils
T or F:
Viruses typically affect primary lymphoid organs.
False! Usually secondary (but it can impact primary sometimes)
T or F:
Viruses typically affect primary lymphoid organs.
False! Usually secondary (but it can impact primary sometimes)
Name a disease in which a virus impacts a primary lymhoid organ?
Infectious bursal disease virus