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1136 Cards in this Set
- Front
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risk factors for bladder CA
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Smoking, Chronic bladder irritation (nephrolithiasis, UTI, etc), chemical exposures (cytoxan, amino biphenyl, naphthylamines), prior pelvic irradiation, Schistosoma haematobium infection (SCC only)
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radical cystectomy involves…
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removal of bladder, distal ureters, pelvic peritoneum, prostate, seminal vesicles, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and ant vaginal wall
+ urinary diversion + bilateral LND |
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simulation for bladder CA
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supine, with EMPTY BLADDER
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indications for intravesical therapy in non-mm invasive dz
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indications for adj therapy (intravesical therapy): G2-3, T1, Tis, multifocal or residual dz
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nodal staging for bladder CA
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N1 single LN in true pelvis (obturator, hypogastric, ext iliac or presacral)
N2 mult LNs in true pelvis N3 mets to common iliac |
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Contraindications to bladder preservation with concurrent CRT in pts with bladder CA
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hydronephrosis
multifocality CIS persistently + margin on TURBT non-TCC histology inappropriate bladder capacity and function inability to tolerate chemo trigone involvement stage IV dz pT3b-T4 (relative) |
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metastatic bladder CA agents
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gemcitabine and cisplatin (alt MVAC, taxane, premetrexed)
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what % of pts with mm invasive bladder CA achieve a CR after ChemoRT (induction)
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~70% (Shipley data)
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RT dose for bladder CA
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whole pelvis (bladder + LNs) to 40-55 Gy --> tumor boost to 64-66 Gy
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what % of newly dx bladder CA are Ta/Tis/T1
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70%
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% of CR in bladder CA after TURBT alone
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~15%
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probability of pelvic nodal involvement based on T stage in bladder CA
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T0-1: 5%
T2: 18% T3a: 26% --> T3b: 46% T4: 42% |
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what agents used for intravesical therapy
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BCG (bacillus Calmette-Guerin): form of immunotherapy
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operative mortality rates of radical cystectomy?
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5%
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strategy for unresectable (cT4, fixed bladder mass, LN+) bladder CA?
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chemo x 2-3 +/- RT is administered --> restage (w/ cysto and CT); if resectable, pt should proceed to cystectomy; if not, consolidation chemo +/- RT
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is there data to support preopRT --> cystectomy versus definitive RT alone in bladdder CA
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Y, randomized trials (below), results favor the surgery arms. Therefore consider preop RT to convert unresectable tumors
Danish National Cancer Group (Sell A et al.) MDA RCT (Miller et al.) |
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% of bladder pts metastatic at dx and at what sites?
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8%; bone, lungs, or liver
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% of pts w/ mm invasive bladder CA achieve a CR after preop chemo
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38% w/ MVAC (Grossman et al. NEJM 2003)
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pts w/ noninvasive bladder CA that can be observed after max TURBT?
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All of the following:
1. completely resected 2. Ta 3. grade 1 4. no residual on urine cytology |
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side effects of RT in bladder CA
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short-term: urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, UTIs,bladder spasms, loose stools, RT dermatitis, fatigue
long-term: hematuria, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, hematochezia, erectile dysfunction, increased risk of fracture, 2nd malignancies |
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N+ is what stage group in bladder CA
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IV ( I, II, III follow T1, 2, 3 (4a)
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how does race and gender affect prognosis of bladder CA
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blacks and women have poorer prognosis
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is there a role for neoadj chemo prior to radical cystectomy in management of locally adv bladder CA (cT2-T3)
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yes. Mult RCTs shown SURVIVAL benefit to neoadj chemo prior to radical cystectomy; metaanalysis ~ 5%
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how should histologic variants of urothelial carcinomas be treated in bladder CA
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agents should be selected tailored to those histologies
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5 yr OS for bladder CA based on stage
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overall ~50%
0: 98% I: 88% II: 63% III: 46% IV: 15% |
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RT fields for bladder CA
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Conventional Fields:
anterior field Superior border: L5-S1 (s2-s3) Inferior border: bottom of obturator foramen lateral border: 1.5 cm of pelvic brim block femoral heads lateral field Sup and Inf border same Anterior border: 1.5-2 cm anterior to bladder Posterior border: 2.5 cm posterior to the bladder block anal canal and tissue above symphysis |
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workup for bladder CA
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Cystoscopy
TURBT w/ bimanual exam under anesthesia urine cytology, evaluation of upper tract (IVP, renal u/s w/ retrograde pyelogram, CT urography, ureteroscopy, or MRI urogram) especially in setting of +cytology and negative cystoscopy CT, MRI, bone scan (if elevated alk phos) |
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prognostic factors for bladder CA
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1 tumor grade
2 depth of invasion 3 stage 4 histologic subtype |
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kind of surgical resection for leukoplakia or CIS of lip
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vermilionectomy w/ adv of mucosal flap ("lip shave"); excision from vermilion to orbicularis mm
|
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where in the oral cavity do most gingival cancers arise
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80% arise from lower gingiva
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standard RT field borders for post op TX of oral tongue lesions
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anterior: incisors
posterior: vertebral spinous processes superior: 1.5 cm above dorsum of tongue inferior: thyroid notch |
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when is surgery an option for cancers of the lip
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lesion involves < 30% and T1 lesion and lesion does not involve the oral commissure (WLE w/ 0.5 cm margin)
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Oral cavity lesions predisposed to bilateral LNs
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tongue, FOM that are midline
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chemo added to PORT for head and neck -
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+margin, +ECE, and/or PNI (based on Bernier and cooper)
|
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when is definitive RT used for lip cancers
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> 2 cm, large lesions (> 50%), upper lip, or if lesion involves oral commissure
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which oral cavity lesion are notorious for skipped nodal mets
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oral tongue can go to level IV
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overall bilateral nodal involvement rate for oral tongue cancers
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5% of oral tongue present w/ bilateral neck dz; if n1-n2 then 30%
|
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common sites for DM for cancers of oral cavity
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lung > bone > liver
|
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common LDR/HDR doses for oral cavity implant
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LDR: 60-70 Gy (40-60 cGy/hr); HDR: 60 Gy (5 Gy BID x 12 fx)
|
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nodal break down for H&N cancers
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N1: single, ipsi < 3 cm
N2a: single, ipsi 3-6 N2b: mult, ipsi 3-6 N2c: bilat, < 6 cm N3: > 6 cm |
|
common presenting signs of oral cavity lesions
|
asymptomatic red/raised lesions, ill-fitting dentures, bleeding mass, pain, dysphagia (2/2 tongue fixation), trismus (pterygoids are involved), and otalgia
|
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what oral cavity site has the greatest propensity for LN spread
|
oral tongue
|
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what beam energy and modifying dose used for oral cavity lesions treated with 2 opposed lats
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6 MV w/ 30 degree wedges (heels ant)
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what defines stage IVA-IVC oral cavity CA
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IVA - T4a or N2; IVB - T4b or N3; IVC - M1
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N0 oral cavity is what stage
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I and II
|
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overall rate of nodal mets for FOM
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20-30%
|
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for RMT/alveolar ridge tumors, when is RT preferred over surgery and vice versa
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RT preferred: no bone erosion or if lesion extends to ant tonsillar pillar, soft palate, or buccal mucosa; Surgery preferred if bone erosion --> PORT
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when should dental eval be done before RT
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10-14 days before starting
|
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workup for oral cavity CA
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H&P w/ palpation, direct endoscopy +bx, CBC, CMP, CT/MRI H&N, and CT or PET/CT (chest)
|
|
patient presents with tongue deviated to right; which CN
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CN XII (hypoglossal) - right is affected
|
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most common location of oral tongue cancers
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lateral undersurface
|
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RT dose for Oral cavity CA
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PORT: 54 - 66 Gy (+margins); definitive: 54 -> 70 Gy to gross dz (general given opposed lats but now IMRT (T3-T4)
|
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pathologic features that require prophlactic/elective neck management
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tumor thickness > 3 mm, grade III Dz, + LVSI, and recurrent lesion
|
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where are neck levels IA-IB located
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IA - submental; IB - submandibular
|
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premalignant lesions of the oral cavity and rates of progression
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erythroplakia (30% progression) and leukoplakia (10%)
|
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when should bilateral neck irradiation be considered for oral cavity lesions
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midline primaries, ant tongue tumors, and ipsilateral LNs
|
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risk of LN involvment for T1-T2 lip, FOM, oral tongue, and buccal mucosa
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lip - 5%; oral tongue - 20%; rest 10-20%
|
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where are the level V and VI cervical LNs located
|
level V - posterior triangle; VI - paratracheal/prelaryngeal
|
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adequate surgical margin for oral cavity CA
|
1 cm
|
|
management approach to hard palate cancer
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surgery preferred ; if there is soft palate or RMT can consider definitive RT
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pt with oral cavity lesion and ipsilateral ear pain - which nerve
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auricotemporal nerve (branch of V3)
|
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what divides the oral tongue from the BOT
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circumvallate papillae
|
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risk factors for oral cavity CA
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tobacco (smoked or chewed), betel nut consumption, alcohol, poor oral hygiene, and vitamin A deficiency
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indications for PORT in oral cavity CA
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N2a+, ECE, no neck dissection in high-risk patients, and depth of invasion > 3 mm
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most and least commonly invovled site of oral cavity
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Most: Lip (45%); Least: hard palate (5%)
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what are the sup and inf spans of the cervical level II-IV LNs
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level II: skull base to hyoid; level III: hyoid to bottom of cricoid; level IV: cricoid to clavicles
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why is a tongue depressor/bite block used in oral cavity
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spare the sup oral cavity/hard palate and to surround lateral oral tongue lesion w/ other mucosa to minimize the buildup effect on the lateral surfaces
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what must the PORT field include for gingival lesions with PNI
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must include entire hemimandible (from the mental foramen to the temporomandibular joint)
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posterior border(s) of oral cavity
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hard/soft palate and circumvallate papillae
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do most lip cancer arise arise from the upper or lower lip
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90% arise from the lower lip
|
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borders for standard lat fields for oral tongue
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sup: 1-1.5 cm above dorsum of tongue or 2 cm above tumor
inf: thyroid notch post: spinous process ant: 2 cm ant to tumor |
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what % of H%N cancers are oral cavity
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30%
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side effects of amifostine
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hypotension and nausea
|
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what sites of oral cavity is definitive RT preferred
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lip commissure, buccal mucosa, and RMT w/ tonsillar pillar involvement (because of better cosmesis with RT)
|
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what is the delphian node
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midline prelaryngeal level VI node (often involved in thyroid cancer)
|
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follow up for oral cavity CA, OPX
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largnoscopy q3 mos; imaging for signs and symptoms, TSH, speech/hearing/dental, and smoking cess
|
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taste innervation of the tongue: ant and post
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ant 2/3rd - CN VII ; post 1/3 - CN IX
|
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mandible constraint for RT
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< 70 Gy
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indications for PORT in oral cavity to the primary site
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+ or close (<2 mm) margin, depth of invasion >2 mm, PNI, T3-4 Dz
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recommended time interval btw surgery and PORT for oral cavity cancers
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6 weeks
|
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motor and sensory innervation to tongue
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motor: CN XII; sensory: CN V
|
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what type of tumors arise from the hard palate
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minor salivary gland tumors (adenoid cystic, mucoepidermoid, adenoCA)
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what is the wharton duct and where
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opens at the ant FOM and drains the submandibular gland
|
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timing of neck dissection after CRT
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6-8 wks (12-15 wks if eval by PET/CT)
|
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4 subsites of oropharynx
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base of tongue, posterior pharyngeal wall, tonsils, and soft palate
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most common presentation of oropharynx CA
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neck mass
|
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% of occult nodal mets in OPX
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30-50%
|
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are skip mets common for OPX
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no, extremely rare
|
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BOT symptoms
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sore throat, dysphagia, otalgia, neck mass, hot potato voice
|
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tonsils CA symptoms
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sore throat, trismus, otalgia, neck mass
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soft palate symptoms
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leukoplakia, sorethroat, trismus/perforation, phonation defect w/ advanced lesions
|
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pharyngeal wall symptoms
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pain/odynophagia, bleeding
|
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nerve responsible for otalgia: oral tongue, BOT, and larynx/hypopharynx
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oral tongue: CN V (auriculotemporal branch) -> preauricular area; BOT: CN IX (Jacobson nerve) -> tympanic cavity; CN X (arnold nerve) -> postauricular area
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anterior RT border on conventional lateral field for OPC
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ant to hard palat2 and 2n molar inf (or 2 cm beyond tumor)
|
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2 most common histologies encountered in OPX
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SCC and NHL
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parotid constraint
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mean dose to either < 26 Gy
|
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advantages and disadvantages of split field IMRT vs whole field IMRT in H&N cancers
|
better laryngeal sparing with split-field IMRT techniques; drawback - may have to junction RT dose through involved nodes
|
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PEG tube indication
|
if weight loss > 10% over 3 mos
|
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dose constraint for the larynx
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V50 < 30%
|
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dose constraint for the inner ears
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mean < 50 Gy
|
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what 3 structures make up the walls of the tonsillar fossa
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ant tonsillar pillar (palatoglossus mm); post tonsillar pillar (palatopharyngeal mm); inf glossotonsillar sulcus
|
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what % of OPX has + LNs and +bilateral LNs
|
70% and 30%
|
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what surrogate marker of HPV infection can be used as a inderect indication of HPV seropositivity in OPX
|
p16 staining (E7 inactivates Rb which upregulates p16)
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main indication for a neck dissection after definitive CRT for OPX
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persistent nodal dz - documented by FNA, CT (4-6 wks), or PET/CT (10-12 wks)
|
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what % of pts receiving cisplatin based chemo will experience hearing loss as a result of ototoxicity
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~30%
|
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advantages and disadvantages of "dose painting" vs sequential
|
advantage: conformality; disadvantage: nonstandard doses/fx are required
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what % of failures are locoregional and distant
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50% locally; 50% distally
|
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classic inf and post RT fields for OPC
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inferior: thyroid notch; posterior: behind spinous process
|
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borders of OPX
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ant: oral tongue/circumvallate papillae
superior: hard palate/ soft palate junction inferior: valleculae posterior: pharyngeal wall lateral: tonsil |
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prevalence of HPV infection in OPX
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40-80%
|
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1st echelon drainage region for most OPX
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upper jugulodigastric (level II)
|
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indications for PORT in OPX
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+margin, ≥ 2 LNs, + ECE, PNI, or LVSI
|
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pt population most likely to present with HPV-related OPX
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nonsmoker and nondrinkers
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4 extrinsic tongue mm and anatomic spans
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genioglossus (ant mandible to tongue), styloglossus (styloid process to tongue), palatoglossus (palate to tongue; also forms ant tonsillar pillar), hyoglossus (hyoid bone to tongue)
|
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hypothesis behind HPV+ OPX having better prognosis
|
nonmutated p53 (nonsmokers and nondrinker); p53 generally predicts poor response to txt
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what HPV serotype most commonly associated with OPX
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HPV 16
|
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4 most important risk facgtors for OPX development
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smoking, alcohol, HPV infection, betel nut consumption
|
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do HPV + patients with OPX have better or worse prognosis
|
better
|
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classic sup RT field border for OPX
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above mastoid tip, floor of sphenoid sinus (ant), external auditory meatus
|
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how does incidence trend of OPX compare to other H&N sites
|
increasing while other's are decreasing
|
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risk factors for meningiomas
|
prior RT, NF-2, and HRT in women
|
|
most aggressive grade I meningioma subtype?
|
angioblastic
|
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when should observation be considered for meningiomas?
|
for incidental/asymptomatic and stable lesions
|
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typical SRS doses used for meningiomas
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12-16 Gy to 50% IDL at tumor margin
|
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anatomic regions where GTR for meningiomas is difficult
|
cavernous sinus, petroclival region, post saggital sinus, and optic nerve
|
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what is the prevalence of grade II-III meningiomas
|
roughly 10-15 %; grade II 6%; grade III 4%; grade I 90%
|
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average time to recurrence after surgery for meningiomas
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4 years
|
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for meningiomas with what are slower growth rates associated with?
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older patients and calcifications
|
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what is latency period of RT-induced meningiomas from the time of XRT exposure
|
20 years
|
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what % of grade I meningiomas express progesterone receptors
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75%
|
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what is the grade classification of meningiomas
|
grade I - benign, grade II - atypical, grade III - anaplastic/malignant
|
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what % of all primary intracranial tumors do meningiomas account for in adults
|
15-20% (2nd only to gliomas); most common benign primary tumor
|
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what histologic feature can be seen in meningiomas
|
psammoma bodies and calcifications
|
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RT dose response datat for meningiomas
|
goldsmith et al. showed improved PFS with doses > 52 Gy
|
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OS difference in years btw atypical and anaplastic meningiomas
|
12 --> 3 years
|
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name the histologies associated with who grade II-III meningiomas
|
grade II- atypical, clear, choroid; grade III - anaplastic, rhabdoid, papillary
|
|
what protein is defective in NF2, and to what else does NF-2 predispose
|
merlin; meningiomas, bilateral neuromas/epndymomas and juvenile subcapsular cataracts
|
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optic chiasm constraint for SRS
|
8 Gy
|
|
most common presentation of meningioma
|
headache
|
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what % of meningiomas exhibit a dural tail? In what other tumors/lesions can dural tails be seen?
|
60%; chloroma, lymphoma, and sarcoidosis
|
|
5 yr LC for meningiomas after SRS
|
98% (worse in men and if RT dose < 12 Gy)
|
|
negative prognostic factors for meningiomas
|
high grade, young age, chromosome alterations, poor performance status, STR
|
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age and gender prediliction for meningiomas
|
late in life (70s) and females (2:1)
|
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RT doses for meningiomas
|
54 Gy for benign and 60 Gy for malignant tumors
|
|
10 yr recurrence rate for meningiomas following GTR and STR
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10%, 40%
|
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when should RT be used after surgery for meningiomas
|
recurrent disease, STR, atypical, anaplastic, or brain invasion
|
|
what surgical grading system is used in meningiomas? What does it predict
|
Simpson grade (I/GTR - IV/STR); likelihood of LR
|
|
what types of meningiomas is RT the primary TX modality?
|
optic nerve sheath and cavernous sinus
|
|
T1-T2 glottic cancer treatment options
|
definitive RT alone, cordectomy, partial laryngectomy, surgery + CRT (+ margin, ECE)
|
|
describe T stage of supraglottic larynx
|
T1: 1 subsite (epiglottis, aryepiglottic folds, false cords, arytenoid cartilage)
T2: 1 adjacent subsite or outside supraglottis (BOT, vallecula, pyriform sinus) w/o fixation of larynx T3: cord fixation and/or invasion of postcricoid area or pre-epiglottic space T4a (resectable): through thyroid cartilage, trachea, soft tissue neck, deep/intrinsic mm of tongue, thyroid, esophagus T4b: invasion of prevertebral space, mediastinum, carotid |
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what stage of disease do most patient with hypopharynx present with?
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stage III or IV (>80%)
|
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what structures must be encomppased by the 95% isodose line when irradiating T1 glottic cancer
|
TVCs, the FVCs, and superior subglottis
|
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treatment options for patient with advanced hypopharynx CA (T1-3N+ & T4)
|
T1-3N+: induction chemo -> RT or surgery depending on response
T4: total laryngectomy/largoesophgectomy (w/ CRT for +margin, +ECE) |
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gender prediliction for each of the hypopharyx subsites
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pyriform sinus & post pharynx: M > F post cricoid: F > M
|
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what is the survival/LC numbers for RTOG 9111 which looked at laryngeal preservation in larynx ca (arms: CRT vs chemo -> RT vs RT alone)
|
5 yr OS was same (55%); 5 yr largnectomy free survival WORSE FOR RT ALONE (35%) vs chemo+RT (con and sequ 45%); LRC also WORSE FOR RT ALONE (50%) and SEQUENTIAL (55%) versus chemo-RT (70%) --> MAKING CHEMO-RT STANDARD
|
|
describe T stage for glottic larynx
|
T1: limited to TVCs w/ normal mobility (a - 1 cord; b - both cords);
T2: extends to supra- or subglottis with impaired vocal cord mobility; T3: fixed vocal cords; T4a-b: same |
|
what % of HPC patients have nodal involvement at diagnosis?
|
75% overall have nodal involvement
|
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what most commonly involved nodal stations in hypopharynx
|
level II, III, and V and the retropharyngeal nodes
|
|
T stage breakdown for subglottic larynx cancer
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T1: limited to subglottis; T2: extension of vocal cords, with normal or impaired mobility; T3: limited to larynx with vocal cord fixation; T4a-b: same as others
|
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symptoms of hypopharngeal CA
|
neck mass, sore throat, hoarseness, and otalgia (CN X involvement/arnold nerve)
|
|
incidence of nodal involvement according to T stage of supraglottic (t1/2, T3/4)
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T1/2 - 40% ; T3/4 - 60%
|
|
stage groupings for larynx, OC, OPX, and HPX
|
stage I: T1N0; stage II: T2N0; stage III: T3N0 or T1-3N1; IVA: T4a or N2; IVB: T4b or N3; IVC: M1
|
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what are the subsites of hypopharyngeal CA and which is most common?
|
pyriform sinus (75), post pharyngeal wall (20), and postcricoid (5)
|
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what does total laryngectomy entail
|
removal of thyroid and cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, and strap mm w/ reconstruction of the pharynx as well as a permanent tracheostomy
|
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what technique can be employed if shoulders getting in way of opposed lateral fields in head and neck CA
|
caudal tilt technique (both couch tilted away from the gantry by 10 degrees and gantry angulated 10 degrees above horizontal plane) or IMRT
|
|
treatment options for pts with early stage supraglottic laryngeal CA
|
supraglottic laryngectomy, transoral laser resection, or definitive RT
|
|
LC rates for glottic CIS after stripping vs laser vs RT (5 years)
|
75 -> 85 -> 95
|
|
incidence of laryngeal CA compared to other H&N
|
20% of all H&N (most common; 12K)
|
|
preferred position of the stoma when using 3 field technique in H&N adjuvant setting
|
if stoma not being boosted: low anterior neck field will cover and isocenter can be above stoma; if stoma to be boosted: iso set below stoma
|
|
what % of hypopharyngeal CA patients present with mets? How man develop mets within 2 years despite treatment?
|
3%; 25% despite treatment develop mets
|
|
benefit of Bonner trial with addition of cetuximab to RT vs rt alone
|
OS 10%(45 -> 55); LRC 13% (34 -> 47)
|
|
what are the nodal drainage pathways of various laryngeal subsites
|
supraglottic: II-IV; glottic: no drainage; subglottic: pretrachea and delphian (level VI)
|
|
anatomic boundaries of the hypopharynx
|
spans from C4-C6/hyoid bone to the inferior edge of the cricoid cartilage
|
|
what % of patients with subglottic cancer present with nodal involvment?
|
20-50% (40%)
|
|
dose fractionation and total dose for CIS and T1 glottic lesions
|
56.25 for CIS and 63 Gy for T1 lesions at 2.25 Gy/fx
|
|
median age for dx of hypopharyngeal CA
|
60
|
|
5 yrs LC and OS for T1-T2 supraglottic lesions
|
LC: 85%; OS 90%
|
|
subdivision of the glottic larynx
|
ant/post commissures and the true vocal cords
|
|
what does loss of the laryngeal click on palpation of the thyroid cartilage indicate
|
postcricoid extension/involvement
|
|
% of patients with nodal disease in supraglottic CA? Bilateral nodal disease?
|
55% unilateral nodal dz; 15% bilateral nodal disease
|
|
main late toxicites after organ preservation for laryngeal CA
|
speech impairment, dysphagia (1/4th); xerostomia
|
|
typical RT dose used for T2 glottic lesions
|
70 Gy at 2 Gry fx or 65.25 Gy at 2.25Gy fractions
|
|
anatomic borders of the subglottic larynx
|
0.5 cm below the TVCs down to the 1st tracheal ring
|
|
possible reasons why european trial showed OS compared to US trial in post operative H&N?
|
European trials' patients: more + margins (28 vs 18), worse tumor differentiation, more HPX (20 vs 10), and more patients who started RT 6 weeks later
|
|
what preserves the voice quality better for early glottic tumors: laser or RT
|
RT (75 vs 30)
|
|
subsites of the larynx
|
supraglottic, glottic, and subglottic
|
|
describe standard RT fields used to treat advanced larynx/hypopharnx
|
opposed laterals: sup - base of skull ; ant - 1 cm flash; post - bethind spinous process; inf - shoulders ;
low ant neck: sup match with lat fiels, laterally at 2/3rd of clavicular length, inf 1 cm below clavicle (include stoma) |
|
describe hypopharynx T staging
|
T1: < 2cm or 1 subsite ; T2: 2-4 cm or > 1 subsite ; T3: > 4 cm or fixation of hemilarynx ; T4a: invades thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, esophagus, or central soft tissue ; T4b: invades prevertebral fascia, carotid aa, or mediastinal structures
|
|
subdivisions of supraglottic larynx
|
epiglottis (suprahyoid and infrahyoid), aryepiglottic folds, arytenoids, and false vocal cords
|
|
preferred option for dysplastic lesions of glottic larynx
|
mucosal stripping and close followup
|
|
salvage txt of choice for glottic lesions after RT failure
|
total laryngectomy +/- neck dissection
|
|
patient presentation w/ laryngeal cancer
|
hoarseness, odynophagia/sore throat, otalgia (via the arnold nerve, CN X), aspiration/choking, and neck mass
|
|
classical risk factors for hypopharyngeal CA
|
smoking, alcohol, betel nut consumption, nutritional deficiency (vit C, Fe deficiency), prior H&N cancer
|
|
indications for boosting the stoma w/ PORT
|
1. emergency tracheostomy 2. subglottic extension 3. ant soft tissue extension
|
|
incidence/distribution of laryngeal cancer according to subsite
|
glottic 70%; supraglottic 30%; subglottic 1%
|
|
subsites of hypopharynx?
|
postcricoid area , post pharyngeal wall, pyriform sinus
|
|
what structures are removed with a supraglottic laryngectomy?
|
FVCs, epiglottis, and aryepiglottic folds
|
|
doses recommended for early stage supraglottic cancers
|
T1: 70 Gy/2 Gy fx; T2: hyperfractionated 76.8 in 1.2 Gy BID or concomitant boost tech to 72 Gy (54 Gy /1.8 Gy fx to area of subclinical dz in last 12 days additional 1.5 Gy dose to gross disease to 72 Gy)
|
|
what RT planning technique can be use when treating T1 glottic lesions w/ ant commissure involvement
|
for T1 generally wedges used; can remove wedges to create "therapeutic" hot spot at area of disease
|
|
what % of premalignant leasions (leukoplakia/erythroplakia) progress to invasive laryngeal lesions
|
20%
|
|
treatment options for TIS of glottic larynx
|
cord stripping/laser excision or definitive RT
|
|
acute and late toxicity of RT in laryngeal CA
|
acute: hoarseness, sore throat, odynophagia, skin irritation ; late: laryngeal edema, glottic stenosis, xerostomia, L'hermitte syndrome, myelitis, laryngeal necrosis
|
|
what cervical spine level are hyoid bone and TVCs located
|
hyoid: C3 and TVCs at C5-6
|
|
what is the most superior of the lateral retropharyngeal nodes called
|
node of rouviere
|
|
risk factors for larynx cancer
|
smoking, alcohol, and voice abuse
|
|
RT field for tis/T1 glottic cancer
|
5 x5 laterals - sup: thyroid notch ; inf: cricoid cartilage; post - ant edge of vertebral body; ant - 1 cm flash of skin
|
|
what 3 blood tests needed in workup of suspicious testicular mass
|
AFP, BHCG, and LDH (CMP)
|
|
treatment of stage I good or intermediate risk NSGCT
|
following orchicetomy 3 options: 1. observation 2. RPLND 3. BEP x 2 cycles (stage IB only)
|
|
what is the median age presentation of patients with NSGCTs versus seminomatous germ cell tumors?
|
NSGCTs are younger (27 yrs) when compared to SGCTs (36) and mixed (33)
|
|
risk of positive nodes on RPLND despite negative CT scan in patients with stage I NSCGCT
|
30%
|
|
how should be an NSGCT be definitively diagnosed
|
diagnosed via a radical inguinal orchiectomy (do not bx a testicular mass)
|
|
per NCCN what imaging study should be performed in the workup of a suspicious testicular mass
|
CXR should be performed; testicular US is considered optional
|
|
what is teratoma with malignant transformation?
|
teratoma w/ malignant transformation histologically resembles a somatic cancer, such as an adenocarcinoma or sarcoma
|
|
half life of B-HCG
|
24-36 hrs
|
|
what is the role of RT in the primary Tx of NSGCT?
|
palliation of metastatic dz; no established role for RT in the primary txt of NSGCT
|
|
risk of relapse after orchiectomy alone for stage I good or intermediate risk NSGCT if tumor markers are normal postoperatively
|
30% risk of relapse
|
|
which pts w/ NSGCTs should have a CT chest?
|
CT chest should be ordered in pt with a positive CT abd/pelvis or abnl CXR
|
|
what is the worse histology of NSGCT
|
choriocarcinoma
|
|
how should a pt with pure seminoma histology and an elevated AFP be classified?
|
considered and treated as an NSGCT pt
|
|
what is the most common solid tumor in men age 15-34
|
germ cell tumor is most common
|
|
what did the german testicular study group AUO trial show for patients with stage I NSGCT
|
randomized 382 pts w/ stage I NSGCT to RPLND vs BEP x 1 cycle; 2yr RFS was 92% w/ surgery vs 99% w/ BEP. BEP superior to RPLND
|
|
major toxicity of RPLND
|
retrograde ejaculation resulting in infertility; nerve-sparing techniques can preserve ejaculation in 95% of cases
|
|
per the international germ cell cancer collaborative group, what 5 factors must be met to be classified good-risk NSGCT
|
testicular/retroperitoneal primary tumor ; no nonpulmonary visceral mets ; AFP < 1000 ; B-HCG < 5000 ; LDH < 1.5 the upper limit of nl
|
|
how should pts with stage II NSGCT w/ a + node diagnosed only after RPLND be treated
|
2 cycles of BEP chemo
|
|
how should pts with NSGCT and persistently postive tumor markes after orchiectomy be treated
|
BEP x 3 cycles or cisplatin/etoposide (EP) x 4 cycles
|
|
2 ways teratomas are classified
|
mature or immature depending on whether it contains adult-type differentiated cell types (mature) or partial somatic differentiation similar to that found in a fetus (immature)
|
|
how has the incidence of GCTs changed in past 40 years
|
more than doubled
|
|
how does the presence of a seminoma component influence outcomes in pts w/ histologically confirmed NSGCTs
|
no major impact on the clinical outcome
|
|
how are germ cell tumors classified
|
seminomatous or nonseminomatous
|
|
per the international germ cell cancer collaborative group, the presence of any of which 5 factors leads to classification of poor-risk NSGCT?
|
1. mediastinal primary tumor ; 2. nonpulmonary visceral mets ; 3. AFP > 10,000 ; 4. BHCG > 50,000 5. LDH > 10
|
|
which histology of NSGCT most commonly associated with elevated AFP
|
yolk sac tumors
|
|
5 risk factors for GCTs
|
prior personal hx of GCT; postive family hx; cryptochidism; testicular dysgenesis; klinefelter syndrome
|
|
what % of testicular GCTs are NSGCTs
|
40%
|
|
half life of AFP
|
5-7 days (a FULL WEEK p)
|
|
what imaging study should be ordered postoperatively after dx of NSGCTs
|
CT abd/pelvis
|
|
most common GCT histology in childhood
|
yolk sac tumros
|
|
how is the AJCC staging for NSGCTs different from SGCTs
|
it is not different
|
|
what is the txt of bulky stage II and III NSGCTs
|
chemo; BEP x 3 cycles or EP x 4 cycles
|
|
what is the relapse rate in patients with stage I NSGCT after orchiectomy --> RPLND
|
5-10%
|
|
name 5 histologic types of NSGCTs
|
embryonal cell carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, mixed
|
|
what 2 familial syndromes other than FAP and HNPCC have been assoc w/ higher risk of developing colon cancer
|
Cowden and Gardner
|
|
where in small bowel does cancer most freq arise?
|
duodenum > jejunum > ileum
|
|
when should individuals with a family hx of colorectal cancer be screened? How frequently?
|
at 40 yrs old or 10 yrs prior to earliest cancer dx in the family; every 1-5 years
|
|
how freq should individuals w/ IBD be screened
|
every 1-2 years
|
|
N staging for small intestine cancers
|
N1 - 1-3 LNs ; N2 >/= 4 LNs
|
|
is smoking a risk factor for colorectal cancer
|
yes
|
|
what is the most common site of mets in rectal cancer
|
liver (then lung)
|
|
initial mutation of what tumor suppressor gene leads to greater chance for developing colorectal cancer? What familial condition is associated with this?
|
APC; associated with familial adenomatous polyposis
|
|
screening options for avg risk individuals for colorectal cancer
|
colonoscopy (q10yrs), fecal occult blood test (q1yr) and sigmoidoscopy (q5yrs), or doubt contrast barium enema (q5yrs)
|
|
most common presenting symptom in rectal cancer
|
hematochezia
|
|
which type of IBD predisposes to colorectal cancer
|
ulcerative colitis
|
|
labs collected for staging workup for colorectal cancers
|
CBC, Chem 7, LFTs, and CEA
|
|
median age for sporadic colon cancer
|
63
|
|
CEA trends for colorectal cancer after surgery and in the setting of relapse
|
CEA should return to reference range 4-6 weeks following surgery; slow rise suggest LR while rapid suggest metastatic disease
|
|
stage groupings for colorectal cancer
|
I: T1-2 N0 M0
IIA: T3 N0 M0 IIB: T4a IIC: T4b IIIA: T1-2N1 or T1N2a IIIB: T3-4aN1 T2-3N2a T1-2N2b IIIIC: T4a N2a T3-4a N2b T4bN1-2 IVA: M1a IVB: M1b |
|
what is the "M" staging breakdown for colorectal cancer
|
M1A - single organ or site ; M1b - mets > 1 organ/site or deposits in peritoneum
|
|
median age for rectal cancer
|
7 th decade of life
|
|
which supplements and which drug have shown promise as a chemopreventative agent in colorectal cancer
|
calcium, vit D, and folic acid supplementation lower risk of colorectal cancer; Aspirin/NSAIDs lower risk of developing colorectal polyps
|
|
most powerful predictor of LN involvement in rectal cancer
|
depth of invasion
|
|
what % of colorectal cancer cases are attributable to HNPCC
|
5%
|
|
what is the sup/cranial extent of the rectum and how long is it?
|
S3 at region of peritoneal reflection; 15 cm long
|
|
dietary risk factors of colorectal cancer
|
rich in fat and low in fiber and antioxidants
|
|
T stage for colorectal cancer
|
T1: submucosa
T2: muscularis propria T3: invades muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues T4: a - penetrates to surface of visceral peritoneum b - adheres to other organs or structures |
|
how does Dukes staging compare to AJCC
|
Dukes A: stage I Dukes B: stage II Dukes C: any nodal involv (stage III)
|
|
2 common heritable risk factors for developing colorectal cancer
|
familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and HNPCC (aka Lynch syndrome)
|
|
HNPCC cases (Lynch) have been associated with mutations in what genes
|
hMLH1 or hMSH2 which regulate mismatch repair
|
|
mutation of what oncogene leads to greater chance for developing colorectal cancer
|
k-ras
|
|
what type of adenomas are more likely to progress to invasive rectal cancer
|
villous adenomas
|
|
f/u schedule for colorectal cancer
|
h&P, CEA q3-6 mos for 2 years then q 6mos for 5 years; CT C/A/P q1year for 3 years; colonoscopy at 1 year, then 3 years, then q5years
|
|
did patients in the german study have TME as part of their surgery
|
yes
|
|
what % of rectal patients are technically resectable at presentation
|
80%
|
|
how long after neoadj CRT should surgery be performed for rectal cancer? Why?
|
6-8 weeks (to allow for downstaging)
|
|
NSABP R03 looked at preop vs postop CRT
|
improved DFS with neoadjuvant CRT 65 vs 53; no diff in LR or OS; pCR was 15%
|
|
describe conventional fields for rectal cancer
|
3 field: PA field - superior at L5-S1; inferior at bottom of ischial tuberosity/3 cm below tumor volume; lateral - 1.5 cm from pelvic inlet; Lateral field - posterior at behind entire bony sacrum; anterior behind pubic syphisis for T3 (in front if T4); sup-inf same as PA
|
|
what does the data suggest with regards to adjuvant RT alone in rectal cancer
|
many RCTs (MRC3, NSABP R-01) that investigated adj RT alone showing improvement in LC only but no improvement in OS, DFS
|
|
what did the MRC CR07/NCIC C016 rectal cancer study which looked at preop versus postop therapy find
|
preop RT (5Gy x 5 fx) then TME surgery versus TME surgery and chemo-RT if + margin; found decrease in LF (11 to 4%) with preop RT and increase in DFS (72 -> 78); no diff in OS
|
|
which study compared surgery alone to preop RT in rectal cancer? What did it find, and what were its limitations?
|
swedish rectal cancer trial compared neoadj RT (25 Gy in 5 fx) to surgery alone and found significant improvement in OS (30 -> 38) and LR(26 -> 9); big critique is lack of TME and high recurrence rate for surgery alone arm (26%)
|
|
comparison of preoRT to postop RT (w/o chemo) in rectal cancer ( the Swedish Uppsala trial) showed what
|
OS benefit (30 -> 38)and improved LR rates (22-> 13%) with preop RT; lower SBO rates (11 -> 5)
|
|
can use of TME obviate the need for neoadj RT for rectal cancer
|
no; TME does not offset the benefit of neoadj RT based on Dutch TME study (peeters et al.) which compared TME alone to neoadj RT -> TME. There was no OS benefit but decreased LR rate (11 -> 6) with addition of neoadj RT
|
|
what is significance of positive circumferential margin at time of surgery for rectal cancer
|
predicts for inferior LC, DM, and OS rates
|
|
what was the RT dose/ fractionation in the dutch and swedish rectal cancer studies? How long after the completion of RT do patients go to surgery?
|
5 Gy x 5 fx = 25 Gy; 1 week
|
|
what structures should be included within the RT field for rectal cancer
|
tumor bed (+2-5 cm margin) and presacral/internal iliac nodes
|
|
which border is not altered for the cone down fields in the treatment of rectal cancer
|
poster border on the lateral fields usually stays the same (behind the bony sacrum) for the cone down portion; given the high rate of LR in this region
|
|
what is the pattern of failure for rectal cancer historically after surgery alone
|
locoregional
|
|
when is IORT indicated for rectal cancer and what is the dose?
|
close/+margin or as an additional boost (esp w/ T4tumors or recurrent tumors); typical dose is 10-15 Gy
|
|
treatment paridigm for nonmetastatic rectal cancer
|
T1-2N0: upfront surgery +/- adj CRT; T3-T4 or N+ neoadj CRT -> surgery and adj 5FU/leuc or FOLFOX
|
|
when should adj CRT be given after surgery for rectal CA
|
4-6 weeks
|
|
historical approximate LR for T3-4 or N1 rectal cancer after surgery alone
|
~25%; with modern (TME) techniques LR 11% (decreased further with neoadj chemo-RT to 5%
|
|
what major study investigated the role of adj RT in colon cancer? What was its findings? Limitations?
|
INT 0130 trial which compared adj chemotherapy to adjuvant chemoRT in colon cancer; found no difference in OS or LC w/ addition of RT; study was underpowered to show a diff btw groups
|
|
how do the toxicities of continuous infusion 5FU and bolus 5FU in rectal CA differ
|
continous is associated w/ greater GI toxicity; bolus with greater hematologic toxicity
|
|
major studies that established role for adj Chemo-RT in rectal cancer
|
GITSG and Intergroup/NCCTG
|
|
how should rectal patients be simulated for RT
|
CT simulation in the prone position, on a belly board, and with a full bladder (optional placement of anal/vaginal markers and/or rectal contrast)
|
|
what 3 toxicities were worse with neoadj RT in the swedish rectal cancer trial
|
median bowel movement frequency, fecal incontinence, and impaired social life
|
|
chemo of choice for rectal cancer and how is it given?
|
5FU (225 mg/m2) concurrently via continuous infusion (shown improved 4 yr OS when compared to bolus)
|
|
indications for adjuvant chemo-RT after surgical resection of rectal cancer?
|
high risk T1 lesions (poorly diff; margin < 3 mm; > 3 cm in size; LVSI); T2 after local excision; All T3-T4 or N+ cancer after LAR or APR
|
|
what did all pts in the german rectal cancer trial receive after surgery or CRT
|
4-5 cycles of bolus 5FU (at 4 weeks)
|
|
what % of pts receiving neoadj CRT will be overtreated b/c of having stage I disease instead of the presumed more advanced disease in rectal cancer (specifically german trial)
|
18% of pts will be overtreated with neoadj CRT (because of EUS suggesting T3-4 or N+ disease) which is derived from german trial's postop arm and found that on path 18 % actually had T1-2 disease and did not require CRT
|
|
sogms amd symptoms of RT in rectal CA; time frame
|
6-18 mos; diarrhea (bloody), colicky abd pain, and n/v; less common - SBO, fistulas, bowel perforation, and severe bleeding; bowel malabsorption; damage to the ileum (impair resoprtion of vitamin B12 and bile acid)
|
|
major criticism of german rectal cancer trial
|
only 54% of pts in adjuvant arm received full RT dose (versus 92% in neoadjuvant arm)
|
|
surgical options for rectal cancer pts
|
local excision (transanal excision), abdominoperineal resection (APR), or low anterior resection
|
|
german rectal study looked at neoadjuvant chemoRT versus adjuvant chemoRT, what were its findings?
|
benefit of neoadjuvant chemoRT w/ regards to LR (13 -> 6); fewer toxicities; and better sphincter preservation (19 -> 39)
|
|
what study looked at paraaortic radiation in rectal cancer? Conclusion?
|
EORTC; no benefit w/ OS, DFS, or LC
|
|
what additional nodal chain needs to be covered in the RT fields with T4 rectal cancer
|
external iliac nodes (because of bladder, vaginal or uterine invol)
|
|
when can RT be considered for colon cancer? What dose
|
fixed T4 colon cancer or w/ close/+margin 45-50.4 Gy
|
|
pathologic CR rate for preop CRT for rectal cancer
|
8%
|
|
what should the small bowel RT dose be limited to in rectal cancer
|
45 Gy
|
|
did patients in the german rectal cancer trial have TME in their surgeries
|
YES
|
|
what does TME important, surgically?
|
reduces rate of positive radial margin and improves LC
|
|
criteria for local excision (transanal excision) alone in rectal cancer
|
T1, < 3 cm, < 3 mm depth, involves < 1/3rd rectal circumference, N0 by EUS or MRI, low-grade, no LVSI………..reliable patient
|
|
major late complication of neoadj RT in the swedish rectal cancer trial
|
SBO
|
|
what was the sphincter preservation rate in the neoadj CRT arm in the german rectal cancer trial
|
39%
|
|
negative prognostic factors for endometrial cancer
|
LVSI,
age > 60, grade, deep myometrial invasion, tumor size, lower uterine segment involvement, anemia, poor karnofsky performance status |
|
protective factors for endometrial cancer
|
combination oral contraceptives and physical activity
|
|
PORTEC 1 - arms? +LND/-LND?
|
observiation vs pelvic RT
no lymphadenctomy LRR decreased from 14 -> 5; no difference in 10 yr OS 75% of LRs were in the vaginal vault; |
|
indications for PA node sampling in endometrial cancer
|
- gross PA disease
- positive pelvic LN - gross adnexal mass - more than 1/3rd myometrial involvement 25% of patients have these features |
|
LDR and HDR prescriptions for IC brachytherapy for endometrial cancer
|
30 Gy LDR and 5Gy x 3 fx (15 Gy) at 0.5 cm depth
|
|
stage II endometrial CA what adjuvant therapy
|
pelvic RT followed by VB (chemo for Grade 3)
|
|
describe whole pelvic RT fields for endometrial cancer
|
superior L4-5
inferior bottom of obturator foramen lateral 1.5-2 cm lat to pelvic brim anterior front of symphisis posterior split sacrum at s3 |
|
adj therapy for sugically stage stage III endometrial cancer
|
adj chemo +/- RT should be given
|
|
please describe stage IA endometrial cancer
|
limited to endometrium or less than 1/2 of myometrium
|
|
please describe stage IB endometrial cancer
|
limited to greater than 1/2 of myometrium
|
|
please describe stage II endometrial cancer
|
invades stromal cervix but no extension beyond uterus (endocervical cervix DOES NOT COUNT)
|
|
please describe stage IIIA endometrial cancer
|
involves serosa and/or adnexa by direct extension
|
|
please describe stage IIIB endometrial cancer
|
vaginal involvement or parametrial involvement
|
|
please describe stage IVA endometrial cancer
|
invades bladder mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient) and/or bowel mucosa
|
|
what is resected in modified radical hysterectomy
|
removal of uterus and 1-2 cm of vaginal cuff;
wide excision of parametrial and paravaginal tissues (including median one half of cardinal and uterosacral ligaments) ligation of uterine artery at ureter |
|
what determines the grade of endometrial tumors
|
grade depends on the GLANDULAR component
G1: < 5 % nonsquamous solid growth pattern G2: 6-50% nonsquamous solid growht pattern G3: >50% nonsquamous solid growth pattern |
|
the NSGO-EORTC trial randomized high risk endometrial cancer to RT vs RT+chemo what were the results w/ regards to progression free survival?
|
favored chemotherapy 75 -> 82%
|
|
surgical staging of endometrial cancer
|
vertical incision
peritoneal washing/cytology (controversial) exploration of all peritoneal surfaces with biopsy any lesion TAH/BSO uterus bivalved in OR omental biopsy sampling of pelvic LNs |
|
risk factors for endometrial cancer
|
exogenous unopposed estrogen, endogenous estrogen (obesity, functional ovarian tumors, late menopause, nulliparity, chronic anovulation/polycystic ovarian syndrome), tamoxifen, advancing age (75% postmenopausal), hereditary (HNPCC), family hx, hypertension?
|
|
3 layers of uterine wall
|
endometrium, myometrium, and serosa
|
|
at what RT dose does sterilization occur in women?
|
occurs at 2-3 Gy
|
|
how should inoperable endometrial cancer be treated
|
consider pelvic RT to 45 Gy --> intracavitary RT boost using 2 tandem intrauterine applicators to 6.3 Gy x 3 fx prescribed to 2 cm depth (serosal surface); If pelvic RT is contraindicated, consider definitive intracavitary RT alone
|
|
pirmary lymphatic drainage of the uterus
|
parametrial, internal and external iliac, obturator, common iliac, presacral
para-aortic nodes (fundus) |
|
adjuvant therapy indicated for endometrial cancers limited to the endometrium
|
none (except for grade 3 - consider VC)
|
|
japanese GOG study looked at stage II-III endometrial CA randmized to ?
|
chemo (CAP) vs pelvic RT;
no difference in PFS, OS, or toxicity in high-intermediate risk patients (stage I, age > 70 or grade 3; stage II or +cytology) there was an increase in progression free survival (66 -> 84) |
|
2 forms of endometrial cancer ?
|
type I: endometrioid, 70-80%, estrogen related
type II: nonendometrioid, typically papillary serous or clear cell, high grade, not estrogen related, aggressive clinical course |
|
describe design and results of Aalders Norwegian study looking at stage I endometrial cancer s/p TAH/BSO
|
all patients got VB then randomized to observation vs pelvic RT;
pelvic RT decreased LC (7 -> 2) but more DM (5 vs 10); no diff in OS in subset of pts with invasion of 1/2 or more and G3 (improved OS by 10% and improved LR 5->20%) |
|
when is D&C recommended in endometrial cancer
|
if endometrial Bx is nondiagnostic
|
|
what is the nordic-EORTC in highrisk endometrial cancer (hogberg et.)?
|
surgical stage I-II, positive cytology or positive pelvic LNs; randomized to pelvic EBRT (+/- VB) + / - chemotherapy (variety of regimes allowed)
5 yr PFS favored the RT + chemo arm (75 -> 82) |
|
what % of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding have endometrial CA
|
5-20%
|
|
what is the sensitivity and specificity of endometrial bx
|
95% sensitivity; 85% specificity
|
|
what is the RT tolerance of the proximal and distal vagina
|
proximal: 120 Gy
distal: 100 Gy (98 Gy) |
|
what % of endometrial cancers are adenocarcinoma
|
80%
|
|
what are the most aggressive histologies of endometrial cancer
|
papillary serous, clear cell, and pure squamous
|
|
describe design and results of GOG 99 study in endometrial cancer
|
randomized patients to observation vs pelvic RT (patients had a pelvic and PA node sampling) with improvement of LR 12 -> 3%
|
|
what is removed in a TAH
|
uterus and small rim of vaginal cuff
|
|
when do inguinal nodes need to be included in the RT fields for endometrial cancer
|
in cases of distal vaginal involvement
|
|
resected in radical hysterectomy?
|
- resection of uterus and upper vagina
- dissection of paravaginal and parametrial tissues to pelvic sidewall - ligation of uterine aa at its origin at int iliac - dissection of pelvic LNs |
|
risk of LN involvement by depth of invasion and grade per GOG 33 (creaseman) in endometrial cancer
|
endometrium involv (all grades): < 5%
inner or middle 1/3rd (all grades): 5-10% outer 3rd: G1 - 10%, G2 - 20%, G3 - 30% |
|
what % of endometrial cancer patients w/ positive pelvic LNs will also harbor disease in PA Lns? What is chance of skip mets to PA node alone?
|
33 % of patients with positive pelvic nodes have PA nodes
~1% have skip mets to PA nodes |
|
ABS recommendations for vaginal brachytherapy: treatment site and depth
|
endeometriod carcinoma: proximal 3-5 cm of vagina
CCC, UPSC, and stage IIIB: entire vaginal canal prescribe to 0.5 cm beyond the vaginal mucosa |
|
at what RT dose does ovarian failure occur?
|
occurs at 5-10 Gy
|
|
when should VB begin relative to EBRT
|
within 1 week
|
|
GOG 122 looked at what in endometrial cancer stage III/IV
|
WART versus chemothrapy (AC); chemo improved overall survival (42 -> 55); PFS (38 -> 50); increased toxicity
|
|
risk of PA node involvment based on stage for cervical CA
|
I: 7
II: 15% III: 30% IVA: 40% |
|
what is the most common point of origin for cervical cancer
|
transformation zone (dynamic area between the original and present squamoculumnar junction)
|
|
for stage IB2 cervical cancer patients, what is the advantage of preop CRT compared with preopRT alone (which study)
|
GOG 123: stage IB2 cervical cancer pts were randomized to preop RT vs chemo-RT -> adj simple hysterectomy
benefit of chemo for pCR 41 -> 52 and OS 74 -> 83 |
|
what % HGSIL progress to invasive cancers (ASCUS and LGSIL)
|
~22% of HGSIL progress to invasive cancer; ASCUS (< 1%) and LGSIL (~5%)
|
|
3 common presenting symptoms of cervical cancer
|
abnl vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, and abnl vaginal d/c
|
|
HPV is detectable in what % of cervical cancer
|
> 99%
|
|
what subset from GOG 109 did not benefit from adding chemo to adj RT Post-operative clinical stage IA2, IB, and IIA, s/p radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy, with high risk features (positive pelvic lymph nodes, positive margins, or microscopic involvement of the parametrium). Randomized to RT vs RT+CT
|
pts with tumors < 2 cm and only 1+ node positive did not benefit from CRT compared to RT alone
|
|
name histologic subtypes of adenocarcinoma of the cervix (4)
|
mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell, and serous
|
|
how should HGSIL be managed (following Pap result)?
|
all patients with HGSIL should undergo colposcopsy with biopsy
|
|
what are the benefits of surgery over RT for the treatment of early stage cervical cancer?
|
shorter txt time
preservation of ovarian function possibly better sexual functioning after treatement no 2nd malignancy risk |
|
adverse features after surgery are indications for adj RT alone without chemotherapy in cervical cancer
|
+LVSI, > 4 cm size, > 1/3rd stromal invasion ; GOG 92 stage IB cervical cancer patients who underwent surgery and had negative nodes but > 1 adverse features; RT decreased recurrence 21 -> 14% (46%) and OS trend 71 -> 80% (NS)
|
|
how should LGSIL be managed on pap smear
|
repeat PAP 6 months later (w/ colposcopy if repeat is abnormal); it can resolve ~40% of the time
|
|
what stage of cervical cancer can be treated with brachytherapy alone
|
stage IA (brachy LDR ~70 Gy or HDR 7 Gy x 5-6 fx) w/ LC of 97%
|
|
how is the bladder, rectum and vagina defined on plain film in brachytherapy for cervical cancer
|
bladder: 5 mm behind pos surface of foley balloon (filled with 7 cc of contrast)
rectum: 5 mm behind the post vaginal wall btw the ovoids at the inf point of the last intrauterine tandem source vaginal point: lat edge of the ovoids on AP film and mid ovoid on lat film |
|
definitive surgery versus definitive RT for management of early stage (IB-IIA) was looked at in what study and what was found?
|
Landoni et al. Looked at IB and IIA randomized to class III hysterectomy (radical hysterectomy) versus RT;
OS (83) and DFS (74) were equal; 64% of surgery pts received adj RT; grade 2-3 morbidity was higher in surgery arm 28 vs 12% |
|
what subset of cervical patients can be treated with simple hysterectomy alone?
|
stage IA1; (IA2 or higher should get radical hysterectomy w/ pelvic LND)
|
|
mean age of cervical cancer
|
47
|
|
what % of cervical cancer are SCC vs adenocarcinomas
|
70 % SCC vs 25% adenocarcinoma
|
|
where is point B in cervical cancer brachytherapy? What does it represent? How is the does related to the dose to point A?
|
5 cm lateral from the midline at same level of point A (2 cm above the external cervical os);
represents the obturator nodes; usually represented by 1/3rd of point A |
|
what is a radical trachelectomy? Benefits and in what stage?
|
all cervical cancer removed with margin but the internal os is left behind and stitched close (w/ small meatus for menses);
procedure allows future pregnancy, deliverved via c-section; reserved for stage IA1 as well as select IA2 and IB1 disease |
|
risk of pelvic LN by stage in cerivcal cancer
|
I: 15%
II: 30% III: 50% IVA: 60% |
|
FIGO staging for cervical cancer
|
IA: microscopic disease < 5mm DOI and < 7 mm horizontal spread (1 - < 3 mm depth; 2 - 3-5 mm depth)
IB: visible tumor (1 < 4 cm; 2 > 4 cm) IIA: upper vagina/beyond uterus IIB: parametria invasion IIIA: lower 3rd of vagina IIIB: pelvic side wall involvement IVA: invades mucosa of bladder or rectum (must be biopsy proven); (does not count bullous edema) |
|
what factors predict nodal involvement in cervical cancer
|
depth of invasion, FIGO stage, and LVSI
|
|
what HPV subtypes cause most cases of benign warts
|
subtypes 6 and 11
|
|
what subset of patients should you add PA fields in cervical cancer? What 2 studies looked at EFRT?
|
1. patients with PA disease 2. pts w/ positive pelvic nodes who are not receiving chemotherapy
RTOG 7920 (Rotman et al.) pelvic RT verus EFRT alone; addition of PA field improved 10 yr OS (44 -> 55) w/o improvement in LC or DM; increased toxicity 4 -> 8 RTOG 90-01 (Eifel et al.) pelvic chemo-RT versus EFRT (included advanced cervix and + pelvic LN patients) chemo RT improved OS (41-> 67), DFS (46-61), LRF and DM |
|
what does ASCUS stand for and how should it be managed?
|
atypical squamous cells of unknown significance; repeat pap in 6 months then colposcopy if abnormal again
|
|
for patients with bulkly (> 4 cm) early stage cervical cancer, is there an advantage to adding adj hysterectomy to definitive RT?
|
no OS and trend to improved LR benefit;
questions answered in GOG 71(Keys et al) trial; patients with > 4 cm tumors randomized to RT alone vs RT + adj hysterectomy no diff in OS or severe toxicity; trend to improved LR (RT 26 vs surgery 14) option is to give upfront CRT and assess for response at 2 months; if residual disease present then can salvage |
|
what are the typical dose rates in cervical cancer for LDR and HDR
|
LDR: 0.4 - 0.8 Gy/hr
HDR: 12 Gy /hr |
|
local extension sites of cervical cancer
|
corpus, parametria, and vagina
|
|
what imaging studies are allowed in FIGO staging of cervical cancer?
|
CXR, IVP, and cystoscopy, proctoscopy, and hysteroscopy
|
|
name 3 procedure-related complications seen in cervial cancer intracavitary brachytherapy
|
uterine perforation (< 3%), vaginal laceration (< 1 %), DVT (<1%)
|
|
where is point A and what should it correspond to anatomically?
|
point A is 2 cm above the external cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the central canal/tandem; corresponds to the paracervical triangle where the uterine vessels cross the ureter
|
|
estimate risk of pelvic LN involvment based on depth of cervical cancer invasions: < 3 mm, 3-5, 6-10, and 10-20 mm
|
< 3mm: 1%
3-5 mm: 5% 5-10 mm: 15% 10-20 mm: 25% |
|
major indications for adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer (chemo-RT)
|
+/- close margin, LN mets, microscopic parametrial invasion
|
|
what % of cervical cancers are HPV 16 and 18 positive
|
> 70%
|
|
what % reduction in mortality has been achieved with PAP screening for cervical cancer
|
~70% reduction
|
|
acute side effects associated with RT for cervical cancer
|
pruritis, desquamation, hemorrhoids, colitis, cystitis, vaginitis/ulceration, candidiasis, and nausea
|
|
when should treatment of inguinal nodes be considered in cervical cancer
|
when there is lower 1/3rd vaginal involvement
|
|
what should the dose to point A be in cervical cancer by stage?
|
stage IA: 65-75 Gy
stage IB-IIB: 75-85 Gy stage III-IVA: 85-90 Gy |
|
in cervical cancer brachytherapy - what are the dose limits to the bladder, rectum and vaginal points
|
rectal 75 Gy; bladder 80 Gy; max vaginal point 120 Gy
|
|
what is the difference btw class II and class III radical hysterectomy?
|
extent of dissection; class II dissected to just medial of ureters with removal of parametrial tissues:
class III is dissection to pelvic sidewall + LND with removal of upper 1/2 of vagina (only vaginal cuff in class II) |
|
what dose can cause ovarian failure? Sterility?
|
ovarian failure 5-10 Gy; sterility 2-3 Gy
|
|
name 3 routes of lymphatic drainage from cervix (lateral, posterior, post-lat)
|
lateral: external iliac nodes
posterior: common iliac and lat sacral nodes post-lat: internal iliac nodes |
|
risk factors for cervical cancer
|
early onset of sexual activity
multiple partners exposure to high risk partners hx of STD smoking parity (high) prolonged use of oral contraceptives |
|
longterm side effects of cervical cancer RT
|
vaginal stenosis, ureteral stricture, fistula, SBO, and femoral head fractures
|
|
most important prognostic factor in cervical cancer
|
tumor stage
|
|
how should patients with preinvasive cervical cancer (HGSIL or CIN III) be managed
|
colposcopy -> conization, LEEP, laser, cryotherapy, or simple hysterectomy
|
|
5 year OS for cervical cancer ased on stage
|
I: 80
II: 65 III: 40 IV: 15 |
|
what dose RT would you give a group III, N0 rhabdomyosarcoma of the uterus, vagina, cervix following CR to induction chemotherapy?
|
NONE, no RT indicated in these special sites
|
|
what is the seminal trial that 1st supported chemotherapy in rhabdomyosarcoma
|
Heyn et al. Found vincristine and actinomycin D improved OS after surgery (compared to observation)
|
|
3 issues in treating extremity site in rhabdomyosarcoma
|
1. evaluate regional nodes
2. include scar and drains 3. spare strip of skin or portion of joint/epiphysis |
|
non-parameningeal H&N sites
|
scalp, cheek, parotid, oral cavity, oropharynx, and larynx
|
|
how does age factor into the prognosis of metastatic embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
> 10 yo is worse than < 10 yo
|
|
what sites require LND b/c of high propensity for LN mets in rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
prostate, paratesticular, bladder, nasopharynx, extremities
|
|
what factors make parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma high risk?
|
subarachnoid space involvement w/ skull base erosion, CN palsy, intracranial extension
|
|
does WBRT prophylaxis have a role in CNS relapse in rhabdomyosarcom?
|
no; answered in IRSIII
|
|
paratesticular rhabdomyosarcoma arises from what
|
distal spermatic duct
|
|
what dose of RT would you give for a patient with stage III, group I embryonal rhadomyosarcoma? What about alveolar type?
|
NO RT for all embryonal group I patients; 36 Gy for alveolar group I (unfav histology)
|
|
what has a better prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma tumors: hyperdiploid or diploid?
|
hyperdiploid better (embryonal) than diploid (alveolar)
|
|
age peaks in rhabdomyosarcoma and their associate histologies?
|
2-6 years (embryonal) and 15-19 (alveolar)
|
|
3 year OS for rhabdomyosarcoma for unfavorable sites
|
70%
|
|
what are the most common sites for rhabdomyosarcoma
|
H&N (PM > orbit > non-PM) > GU > Ext/trunk
|
|
what 2 "sites" of H&N rhabdomyosarcoma would you not recommend surgery
|
orbit and parameningeal sites
|
|
what translocations are associated with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma? Which genes are involved in the fusion?
|
t(2:13) (70%), t(1:13) (20%)
PAX3 or PAX7 w/ FKHR |
|
what is the most common origin of rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
mesenchymal stem cells
|
|
what is the order of 5 yr OS for these subtypes of rhabdomyosarcoma: alveolar, undifferentiated, botryoid, embryonal, spindle cell
|
botryoid > spindle cell > embryonal > alveolar > undifferentiated (95 - 85 - 65 - 55 - 40)
|
|
where do most failure mostly occur after treatment for rhabdomyosarcoma? What is the #1 prognositc factor for LF?
|
local failure; LN positivity biggest predictor
|
|
most important cytogenetic tumor marker for rhabdomyosarcoma
|
myoD
|
|
rhabdomyosarcoma: % present with mets; what sites prone to have hematogenous mets?
|
15%; prostate, trunk and extremities
|
|
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - favorable site - group III?
|
low risk (embryonal + fav site + any group)
|
|
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group I-II
|
low risk
|
|
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group III?
|
intermediate risk
|
|
what risk group is: alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group I-III
|
intermediate risk (unfav histology, any site, group 1-III
|
|
what radiation would do you give to N+ rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
if R0-1 - 41.4 Gy; if gross disease 50.4 Gy; RT never omitted for node + disease
|
|
4 major types of rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
embryonal (classic, spindle cell, and botryoid), alveolar, pleomorphic, and undifferentiated
|
|
what specific workup studies are needed for parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma
|
MRI brain, CSF cytology (neuroaxial MRI if +)
|
|
genetic syndromes and environmental risk factors associated with rhabdomyosarcoma
|
genetic: beckwith-wiedermann syndrome, li fraumeni, and NF-1
environmental: parental marijuana/cocaine use and prior RT |
|
what histologic type is most common in head and neck rhabdomyosarcoma? GU? Extremities/trunk?
|
H&N: embryonal
GU: botryoid ext/trunk: alveolar |
|
what is the most common site of metastatic disease in rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
bone > BM > lung
|
|
which rhabdomyosarcoma site has the highest risk for LN mets
|
prostate (40%)
|
|
what is treatment paradigm for rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
generally: max safe resection (or bx alone) -> chemo +/- RT (timing depends of risk groupings)
|
|
what is the major side effect of VAC besides myelosuppression? VAC - vincristine, adriamycin, cyclophosphamide
|
veno-occlusive disease of the liver
|
|
what chemo regimens are commonly used for rhabdomyosarcoma
|
VAC - vincristine, actinomycin, cytoxan
IE - ifosfamide, etoposide |
|
what are the favorable organ sites?
|
orbit, non-PM H&N, non-prostate/bladder GU, biliary (BHOG)
|
|
TNM criteria for rhabdomyosarcoma
|
T1 (confined to anatomic site of origin): a ≤ 5 cm; b > 5 cm
T2 (ext or fixed to adjacent tissue): a ≤ 5 cm; b > 5 cm N1: regional node involvement |
|
most rhabdomyosarcoma present with what group of disease?
|
most (50%) present with group III disease
|
|
what is the dose limit to the lungs, if less than one half of the combined lung volume is in the PTV?
|
15 Gy (in 1.5 Gy / fx)
|
|
summarize the clinical grouping for rhabdomyosarcoma
|
I: R0 resectin, localized disease
II: R1 resection and/or resected +LN III: R2 (both primary and +LN) or biopsy only IV: distant mets |
|
describe staging of rhabdomyosarcoma
|
stage I: favorable site (any T, any N)
stage II: unfavorable site ( < 5 cm, N0) stage III: unfavorable site (> 5 cm, and/or N1) stage IV: M1 |
|
what are the parameningeal H&N sites
|
MMNNOOPP
middle ear mastoid nasal cavity nasopharynx infratemporal fossa pterygopalatine fossa paranasal sinus parapharyngeal space |
|
most common rhabdomyosarcoma histology in infants? Young children? Adolescents? Adults?
|
infants: botryoid; young children: embryonal; adolescents: alveolar; adults: pleomorphic
|
|
what stage grouping does distal bile duct cancers have in common
|
pancreatic cancer, including N staging (N0-N1); managed with similar approaches
|
|
management of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is managed like what other cancer?
|
like hepatocellular carcinoma (surgical resection vs local ablation therapy)
|
|
what % of cholangiocarcinoma present with LN mets
|
35-50%
|
|
what is preferred surgical management of stage T3-4 gallbladder adenocarcinoma?
|
radical CCY and regional nodal dissection (porta hepatis, gastrohepatic ligament, and retroduodenal nodes)
|
|
what T stage of gallbladder cancer: invades perimuscular connective tissue but not inot liver or beyond serosa
|
T2
|
|
what T stage of gallbladder cancer: tumor invades stomach
|
T3 (perforates serosa and/or liver and/or 1 adjacent organ/structure
|
|
what T stage of galld bladder cancer: tumor invades portal vein or heaptic artery
|
T4
|
|
what is the T staging for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (what is it similar to - don't repeat T stages)
|
same as primary liver tumor
|
|
what % of cholangiocarcinomas present with DM
|
30%
|
|
what surgery should be performed for incidental finding of gallbladder adenocarcinoma on CCY?
|
radical re-resection of gallbladder bed (2 cm margin), regional nodal dissection, and resection of port site
|
|
what are the 3 subsites of cholangiocarcinoma
|
intrahepatic, extrahepatic and hilar (klatskin tumor)
|
|
what % of gallbladder present with DM? What sites (2)?
|
50%; liver and peritoneal involvement
|
|
what 2 medical conditions are most associated with increasing incidence of cholangiocarcinoma?
|
primary sclerosing cholangitis
ulcerative colitis |
|
what 2 serum markers should be sent for suspected cholangiocarcinoma?
|
CEA and CA 19-9
|
|
what is the imaging study of choice for extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?
|
MRCP
|
|
2 most common presenting symptoms for patients with gallbladder cancer or cholangiocarcinoma?
|
jaundice and abdominal pain
|
|
what t stage for distal bile duct cholangiocarcinoma is tumor that invades liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and/or unilateral branches of portal vein or hepatic vein
|
T3 (T1 - confined to bile duct; T2 invades beyond bile duct; T4-celiac axis or SMA)
|
|
what % of gallbladder present with LN mets? What 4 nodal regions are most commonly involved?
|
45%; cystic (pericholedocal -> retropancreaticoduodenal), hilar, pericholedochal, and celiac
|
|
what subtype of adenocarcinoma is the most common form of cholangiocarcinoma
|
mucin-producing adenoCA
|
|
what subtype of adenocarcinoma has an improved prognosis in gallbladder and cholangiocarcinoma?
|
papillary adenocarcinoma
|
|
is liver transplantation more appropriate for intrahepatic or extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?
|
extrahepatic (intrahepatic due poorly -> contraindicated)
|
|
what common condition is linked with increased risk for gallbladder cancer
|
cholelithiasis (via chronic inflammation)
|
|
what staging procedure is recommended at the beginning of surgery for gallbladder cancer or cholangiocarcinoma?
|
staging laparoscopy (to r/o peritoneal dissemination)
|
|
how is bulkly mediastinal lymphoma disease commonly defined on PA film? How is bulkly disease outside of the mediastinum defined?
|
mass greater than 1/3rd of the intrathoracic diameter at T5-6 on upright PA film
mass > 5 cm or mass > 10 cm |
|
cytogenetic abnormalities for indolent types of NHL: follicular lymphoma, CLL, and MALT lymphoma?
|
follicular lymphoma t(14;18) -> Bcl-2
CLL -> t(14,19), trisomy 12, chromosome 13 deletion MALT lymphoma -> t(11:18) |
|
what is the most common presenting signs or symptoms of NHL?
|
painless adenopathy; 30% of B symptoms;
waxing and waning adenopathy suggests indolent form of NHL tumor bulk may cause intestinal obstruction, urinary tract obstruction, or nerve compression |
|
late effects in NHL - use of RT?
|
coronary artery disease, hypothyroidism, and 2nd malignancies
|
|
what lab studies are important in NHL?
|
cbc, cmp, ldh, beta 2 microglobulin, serum protein electrophoresis, HIV, hep B (may reactivate w/ rituximab tx), hep C
BM biopsy; LP in CNS symptoms, testicular, paranasal sinus, or immunodeficiency |
|
how does the clinical presentation of NHL differ from that of HD
|
typically involves more nodes at presentation, more likely to be extranodal, more likely to spread in noncontigous fashion, and has prognosis more affected by subtype
|
|
how is follicular lymphoma graded
|
FL is mix of centrocytes (small cells) and centroblasts (large, non cleaved cells); grade correlates to density of centroblasts
|
|
what is small lymphocytic lymphoma?
|
SLL - same as CLL but w/ predominant manifestion in spleen, liver, or nodes (vs peripheral blood or BM)
|
|
what is richter syndrome? Rate of occurrence
|
transformation of SLL/CLL to Diffuse large b cell lymphoma; occurs in 5% of cases
|
|
what are B symptoms and definitions?
|
fever (38 C or 100.4), > 10% weight loss in 6 mos, or drenching night sweats
|
|
what % of NHL is indolent and most common subtypes?
|
35% are indolent; follicular lymphoma > SLL > MALT lymphoma
|
|
what grade is mycosis fungoides? Mantle cell? Peripheral T cell? Burkitts?
|
low grade: follicular (g1-2), CLL, MALT, mycosis fungoides
intermediate grade: follicular (g3), mantle cell, DLBCL, NK Tcell, peripheral T cell, anaplastic large cell high-grade: burkitt, lymphoblastic |
|
has adj chemo demonstrated a benefit in randomized trials of early stage, low grade follicular lymphoma
|
NO (5 randomized studies)
|
|
what is most common initial multiagent chemo used in management of intermediate/high grade NHL
|
CHOP-R
cyclophosphamide hydroxydaunomycin (adriamycin) oncovin (vincristine) prednisone |
|
what factors are included in IPI?
|
APLES: age (> 60), Performance (ECOG > 2), LDH, extranodal group, stages (III-IV)
|
|
what are the factors included in FLIPI?
|
HASEL
Hgb < 12 Age > 60 stage Extranodal sites (>5) LDH |
|
what is the role of RT for stage III-IV, low grade FL
|
palliation of symptoms
|
|
current indications for RT in early-stage, intermediate/high-grade NHL
|
consolidation after 3-4 cycles of RCHOP in fav dz
partial response to chemo patients with bulky disease |
|
What did the SWOG study compare in intermediate grade NHL
|
CHOP x 8 cycles versus CHOP x 3 cycles + IFRT
initial report showed benefit OS (10%) eventually disappeared (curves crossed) |
|
standard of care for localized, low-grade follicular lymphoma
|
locregional RT to 30-36 Gy (can observe or ? Combined modality)
|
|
treatment paradigm for advanced stage, intermediate/high grade NHL?
|
R CHOP x 6-8 cycles; IFRT considered for initially bulky sites
|
|
what is the present treatment paradigm for relapsed intermediate/high grade NHL?
|
high-dose chemo + stem cell transplant
|
|
what decade of life is RCC diagnosed
|
7th decade
|
|
environmental risk factors for renal cell carcinoma
|
cigarette smoking, phenacetin exposure, heavy metal exposure
|
|
most common sites of RCC recurrence after nephrectomy?
|
lung > bone > regional LNs
|
|
RCC T-stage: grossly extends into renal vein or its segmental branches, or extends into perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but not beyond Gerota fascia or into adrenal gland? Invades wall of vena cava?
|
T3a
T3b: extends into vena cava below diaphragm T3c: extends into vena cava above diaphragm or invades wall of vena cava |
|
RCC T-stage: invades beyond Gerota fascia, including contiguous extension into ipsilateral adrenal gland
|
T4
|
|
Describe T1 and T2 for renal cancer
|
T1: ≤ 7 cm (a - ≤ 4 cm; b - 4-7 cm)
T2: > 7 cm (a - 7-10; b - > 10 cm) |
|
has incidence of RCC been increasing or decreasing? Sex predilection
|
incidence has been increasing; Men > women
|
|
time frame of recurrence following surgery for RCC
|
3-5 years after nephrectomy
|
|
most common pathologic subtype of RCC
|
clear cell
|
|
% of RCC pts present with bilateral kidney involvement?
|
3%
|
|
RCC represents what % of all urinary tract tumors
|
6%
|
|
what are the 4 pathologic subtypes of RCC
|
clear cell, chromophilic, chromophobic, collecting duct
|
|
what ethnic population is the incidence of RCC significantly higher
|
people endemic to the Balkan nations have a 50-100 fold increased incidenc of RCC
|
|
order the following 5 tissues from outermost to innermost: renal cortex, gerota fascia, adrenal gland, perirenal fat, and renal capsule
|
gerota fascia -> perirenal fat -> adrenal gland (perirenal fat sup to the kidney) -> renal capsule -> renal cortex
|
|
hand foot syndrome is associated with what RCC agent? Mucositis?
|
sorafenib associated with hand-food syndrome;
sunitive: mucositis |
|
N1 is what stage in RCC? T4?
|
III (N1); IV (T4)
|
|
classic presenting trial of RCC? Other clinical Sx
|
hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass
(fever, night sweats, and weight loss) |
|
predictors of RCC recurrence after nephrectomy
|
grade, TNM stage, DNA ploidy, genetic RCC syndromes
|
|
name some benign tumors that can exist in the kidney
|
angiomyolipomas, fibromas, lipomas, lymphangiomas, oncocytomas, hemangiomas
|
|
what are some paraneoplastic syndromes associated with RCC?
|
hypercalcemia, hepatic impairment, hypertension
|
|
sporadic RCC is characterized by what genetic mutation
|
VHL tumor suppression on 3p25
|
|
prognostic factors for RCC
|
TNM stage, performance status, furhman grade
|
|
familial RCC makes up what % of RCC cases? What familial syndromes associated with RCC?
|
3%; von hippel lindau, birt-hogg-dube syndrome, tuberous sclerosis, hereditary papillary RCC, HRCC
|
|
most common intracranial tumor
|
brain mets (20-40%)
|
|
what CNS tumors have flexner-wintersteiner rosettes?
|
pineoblastoma and RB (any PNET)
|
|
what structure produces CSF
|
choroid plexus
|
|
what CN exits on the dorsal side of the brain (midbrain)
|
CN IV exits on the dorsal side of the brain
|
|
what % of adult astrocytomas are low grade vs high grade
|
25% low grade vs 75% high grade
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: NF1
|
optic glioma and JPA
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: NF2
|
bilateral acoustic neuroma, spinal ependymoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: tuberous sclerosis
|
subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, retinal hamartoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: Von hippel-lindau
|
hemangioblastoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: cowden sndrome
|
meningioma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: gorlin syndrome
|
medulloblastoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: turcot
|
medulloblastoma, glioblastoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: RB
|
pineoblastoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: ataxia telangiectasia
|
CNS lymphoma
|
|
what CNS tumor linked to: pituitary adenoma
|
MEN 1
|
|
what common defect does tumor involving the cavernous sinus produce?
|
CN VI palsy (no abduction of the lateral rectus)
|
|
what tumors present with a dural tail sign
|
meningioma, (also chloroma, lymphoma, and sarcoidosis
|
|
where does the spinal cord end? The thecal sac?
|
in children at L3-4 and adults L1-2; the thecal sac ends at S2-3 in both
|
|
which foramen does CN VII travers the skull base
|
stylomastoid foramen
|
|
what receptors are commonly overexpressed in gliomas?
|
EGFR and PDGFR
|
|
brain region associated with receptive aphasia
|
Wernicke's area - left temporal lobe at the post end of the lateral sulcus
|
|
what structures pass through the foramen spinosum
|
middle meningeal artery and vein;
|
|
what nerve passes through the foramen ovale
|
V3
|
|
neural stem cells express which marker? Importance?
|
CD 133 - thought to be precursors for astrocytomas
|
|
strongest risk factor for developing CNS tumor
|
ionizing RT
|
|
2 most common type of primary CNS tumor
|
Glioma (40%) > meningioma (20%)
|
|
what components traverse the superior orbital fissure?
|
CNs III, IV, VI, and V1
|
|
how many spinal nerves are there in the spinal cord
|
31 spinal nerves (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal)
|
|
what CNS tumors have psammoma bodies?
|
meningioma and pituitary tumors (uncommon)
|
|
what brain region is associated with expressive aphasia
|
broca motor area (dominant/left frontal lobe)
|
|
what are some late complications of RT to the CNS ?
|
radionecrosis, leukoencephalopathy, retinopathy, cataracts, endocrine deficits, memorly loss, learning deficits, and hearing loss
|
|
what is the genetic mutation in NF-1, which sites does it predispose gliomas?
|
genetic mutation is chromosome 17; neurofibromin; predisposes to optic/intracranial gliomas
|
|
structures in the cavernous sinus?
|
CNs III, IV, V1, and V2 and internal carotid aa
|
|
what cns tumor exhibits verocay bodies
|
schwannomas
|
|
what cns tumor exhibits schiller-duval bodies
|
yok sac tumors
|
|
what structure do CNs VII - VIII pass through?
|
internal auditory meatus
|
|
what CNS tumors tend to have CSF spread?
|
medulloblastomas (and other blastomas - except astroblastoma/glioblastoma multiforme), CNS lymphoma, choroid plexus carcinomas, germ cell tumors, and mets
|
|
acute RT complications in patient receiving RT for CNS tumors
|
alopecia, dermatitis, fatigue, transient worsening of neurologic symptoms, n/v, otitis externa, seizures, and edema
|
|
what passes through the jugular foramen
|
CNs IX-XI
|
|
what is most common malignant CNS tumor in children? Adults?
|
children: juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
adults: glioblastoma |
|
what nerve passes through the foramen rotundum
|
V2
|
|
4 factors used for grading in the WHO brain tumor grading system
|
AMEN
nuclear Atypia cellularity and Mitosis Endothelial proliferation Necrosis |
|
most common functional pituitary tumor? 2nd most common? 3rd most common?
|
prolactinoma (30%) > GH (25%) > ACTH (15%)
|
|
what is the definition of micro-, macro-, and picoadenoma?
|
microadenoma (< 1 cm)
macroadenoma (> 1 cm) picoadenoma (<0.3 cm) |
|
what is the most common cause of pituitary dysfunction in adults? Children?
|
adults: pituitary adenoma
children: craniopharyngioma |
|
what are the indications for radiotherapy in the treatment of pituitary tumors?
|
medically inoperable
persistence of hormone defect after surgery macroadenoma with STR or decompression recurrent tumor after surgery |
|
what signs/symptoms do patients with pituitary tumors present?
|
bitemporal hemianopsia, HA, and oculomotor deficits
|
|
how long does it take for hormone normalization to occur after RT for pituitary tumors?
|
months to years for hormone normalization after RT for pituitary tumros
|
|
typical RT doses for fractionated IMRT for pituitary tumors if no gross disease? For gross disease?
|
45-50.4 Gy; 54 Gy
|
|
what is the most common surgical complications after resection of pituitary tumors?
|
diabetes insipidus (6%) -> hyponatremia and CSF leak
|
|
what autosomal dominant syndrome has been associated with pituitary adenomas?
|
MEN 1 (3 P's - pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas); 11q13 mutant
MEN2 |
|
what lab findings are suggestive of GH adenoma?
|
Growth Hormone > 10 (not suppressed by glucose)
elevated IGF-1 |
|
histopathologic description of the cells of nonfunctional pituitary tumors?
|
the cells of nonfunctional tumors are chromophobic
|
|
what hormones are secreted by the ant pituitary vs the post pituitary?
|
anterior: GH, prolactin, FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH
poster: oxytocin, ADH |
|
what % of pituitary tumors are functional vs. nonfunctional?
|
75% of tumors are functional
25% of tumors are nonfunctional |
|
poor prognostic factors after surgical resection of GH-secreting tumors?
|
high preop GH and somatomedin C levels, tumors > 1 cm, and extrasellar extension
|
|
what is the tolerance of the optic nerves/chiasm with the use of conventional RT?
|
with conventional RT, 50-54 Gy
|
|
what is Nelson syndrome?
|
ACTH -secreting adenoma in patients with a hx of adrenalectomy (patient can develop hyperpigmentation of skin due to alpha-melancytestimulating hormone)
|
|
what are some poor prognostic factors after transsphenoidal resection of prolactinoma
|
size > 2 cm
high preop prolactin level increasing age longer duration of amenorrhea |
|
how do GH-secreting tumors present? ACTH secreting tumors?
|
GH: acromegaly, gigantism
ACTH: cushing disease |
|
LC rates of pituitary adenomas after transsphenoidal resection? Better for macroadenomas or microadenomas? LC rate after RT
|
95%; better for microadenomas
RT: > 90% |
|
what bony structure houses the pituitary
|
sella turcica
|
|
what is considered a normal level of prolactin after RT for pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma)
|
< 25 ng/mL normal level of prolactin after RT
|
|
what do patients with prolactinomas present
|
galactorrhea, amenorrhea, decreased libido, and infertility (PL > 25)
|
|
what pharmacologic agents are used for ACTH-secreting pituitary tumors?
|
ketoconazole (best)
cyproheptadine (inhibits ACTH secretion) mitotane (decreased cortisol synthesis) RU-486 (block glucocorticoid receptor) metyrapone |
|
when is fractionated stereotactic radiotherapy preferred over SRS for pituitary adenomas?
|
pituitary lesion is > 3 cm and/or lesion is < 2 mm from the chiasm
|
|
what lab abnormalities are noted in cushing disease
|
high cortisol not suppressed by low-dose dexamethasone and normal or increased ACTH
|
|
what is the hormone normalization rate after surgery for hyperfunctioning pituitary tumor?
|
initially 80%; but decreases to 40%
|
|
what histologic features are prominent in prolactinomas?
|
calcifications and amyloid deposits
|
|
what are the physics differences btw gamma knife and linac-based SRS for pituitary tumors?
|
with GK: less homogenous dose, more precise setup, and less normal tissue treated
|
|
what types of surgical resection are used for pituitary tumors and what are the indications
|
transsphenoidal microsurgery: microadenomas, decompression, debulking of large tumors, reducing hyperfunctioning tumors
frontal craniotomy: large tumors with cavernous sinus invasion or frontal/temporal lobe |
|
what pharmacologic agents are used for GH-secreting pituitary adenomas?
|
somatostatin, octreotide, pegvisomant (GH receptor antagonist)
|
|
what are the indications/benefits of SRS in pituitary adenomas
|
microadenomas; benefit in better control of hormone secretions
|
|
what are the embryonic derivatives of the ant pituitary vs the post pituitary
|
anterior: rathke pouch
posterior: extension of the 3rd ventricle |
|
what has a better local control after RT for these hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas? ACTH, prolactin, GH
|
GH (best) > ACTH > prolactinoma
|
|
what pituitary tumors have a high recurrence rate after resection? (risk factors)
|
TSH-secreting tumors (risk factors: thyroid ablation, hashimoto thyroiditis, prior RT/surgery)
|
|
most common side effect after RT for pituitary tumors?
|
hypopituitarism
|
|
hypopituitarism after RT which hormone goes first? 2nd? What is TD 5/5?
|
40-45 Gy; GH levels first, then LH/FSH then TSH/ACTH
|
|
what should be done with medical/pharmacologic treatment before initiating RT for pituitary adenomas?
|
needs to be D/C b/c of lower RT sensitivity with concurrent medical treatment
|
|
best way to assess the response to RT in GH-secreting pituitary tumors
|
monitoring IGF-1 levels
|
|
what pituitary tumors are more common in males and the elderly? Females?
|
males/elderly: nonfunctioning or GH
females: prolactin and ACTH |
|
whats more common micro or macro adenomas of the pituitary
|
macroadenomas
|
|
what immunohistochemical stains are positive in pituitary adenomas
|
synaptophysin, chromogranin, and hormone specific stains
|
|
what is the differential of a pituitary mass
|
tumor, craniopharyngioma, meningioma, glioma, suprasellar germ cell, mets, and benign lesions (cyst, aneurysm, empty sella syndrome)
|
|
what is cushing syndrome
|
elevated cortisol due to a variety of causes (adrenal prod'n, exogenous use); patients have low ACTH, unlike in Cushing disease)
|
|
what hormone is the 1st to respond/decrease after RT
|
Growth hormone
|
|
what requires larger doses functioning or non functioning pituitary adenomas when giving RT
|
functioning (50-54 Gy FST, and 20 Gy SRS) vs non functioning (45-50 Gy FST, and 15 Gy SRS)
|
|
what hormones are secreted by basophilic cells in the pituitary? Acidophilic?
|
basophilic (FLAT): fsh, lh, acth, tsh
acidophilic: prolactin, gh |
|
rate of lymphedema after whole breast RT +/- axillary LND? SLNDbx? Addition of SCLV and PAB?
|
RT+axillary LND: 15-40%
RT and SLN Bx: 10% SCLV increases to 15-20% PAB increases to 40% |
|
what are the most important factors that predict LRR in locally advanced breast cancer
|
number of LNs (axilla) and breast tumor size
|
|
5 grave signs of Haagensen for locally advanced breast cancer
|
limited edema of skin or "peau d'orange"
ulceration of skin fixation of tumor to chest wall axillary LNs > 2.5 cm fixation of axillary LN |
|
what is the distinct prognosis of IMB compared to other patient with locally advanced breast cancer with regards to risk of death
|
twice the risk for inflamm breast cancer
|
|
what is the txt paradigm for inflammatory breast cancer? 5 yr OS?
|
neoadjuvant chemo -> MRM -> PMRT +/- add'l chemo/hormones/herceptin
OS (5 yrs): 40% |
|
what were some criticisims of the british columbia trial?
|
LRF was high
CMF chemo was used RT fields were en face photons for IM nodal coverage (though no excessive cardiac deaths) |
|
criticisms of danish trial 82b (premenopausal) looking at PMRT
|
inadequate surgical txt of axilla -> median of 7 nodes removed
excess of LF occurring in the axilla (44% in CMF arm) outdated use of CMF chemo |
|
what was the surgery in the danish 82b and 82c trials?
|
total mastectomy + axillary LN sampling (median of 7 nodes removed); significantly less than most US centers (that aim for > 10)
|
|
what levels are dissectd in axillary LND for breast cancer?
|
levels I-II; only if suspcious nodes present does level III carried out
|
|
what was the design of the postmenopausal danish trial 82 c that looked at postmastectomy RT
|
tamoxifen x 1yr +/- PMRT
LR 35 -> 8 OS 34 -> 45 |
|
what stages defined locally advanced breast cancer?
|
stage III disease (T3N1, N2-3, or T4
Inflamm breast cancer some include T3N0 (stage IIB) |
|
what did the NSABP B18 trial that looked at operable breast cancer randomized to neoadjuvant chemo vs postop chemo find? Conversion rate from mastectomy to BCS?
|
no diff in OS or DFS
27% conversion rate |
|
did all 3 modern PMRT trials (Danish b and c, and BC trial) include IM nodal irradiation
|
yes
|
|
what is meant by dose dense chemo
|
administered q2 weeks versus q3weeks
|
|
what is the prevalence of inflammatory breast cancer
|
3%
|
|
what is spared with modified radical mastectomy?
|
pectoralis muscle
|
|
what was the design of the british columbia trial (post mastecotmy)
|
premenopausal women w/ positive axillarly LNs s/p total mastecotmy+ALND randomized to CMF chemo +/- RT (5field)
|
|
present ASCO guidelines for PMRT
|
≥ 4 LNs and suggested for T3 tumors with axillary LN disease
|
|
what is the 10 yr LRR for patients with 1-3 LN positive in retrospective review of patients post mastectomy trials
|
10% (4-13%)
|
|
clinical symptoms of inflammatory breast cancer
|
rapid onset (< 3 mos)
generalize induration (often w/o associated mass) diffuse skin erythema affecting more than 2/3rd of the breast warmth/tenderness cancer cells in dermal lymphatics (not necessary for diagnosis) |
|
what is spared with total or simple mastectomy
|
axillary LNs not dissected; only breast tissue with overlying skin removed
|
|
what is a halstead radical mastectomy?
|
resection of all breast parenchyma, a large portion of breast skin, and major and minor pectoral mm en bloc with axillary LNs
|
|
in patients with 1-3 positive nodes, what other clinicopathologic factors should be considered when recommending PMRT?
|
+ LVSI
high grade younger age ECE ≥ 2 mm ≤ 10 LN examined ≥ 20% LN + larger tumor size (T2 or > 4 cm) close margins (10 yr LRR > 15%) |
|
in NSABP 18 and 27 (neoadj chemo), did pCR at time of surgery correlate with good OS and DFS outcomes?
|
yes
|
|
what is optimal breast reconstruction after mastectomy in relation to adjuvant RT?
|
skin sparing mastectomy with placement of tissue expanders done prior to RT; tissue expander deflated during RT and re-expanded afterward;
breast reconstruction should be done 6-12 mos after RT |
|
has dose-dense chemo been demonstrated to be superior in a prospective randomized trial?
|
YES. Intergroup trial C9741
AC x 4 -> taxol x 4 given q3wks vs q2wks. DFS improved from 75 -> 82 OS was 0.69 in favor q2wk schedule severe neutropenia less frequent with dose-dense schedule |
|
RR of cardiovascular death after RT for breast cancer
|
relative ratio of 1.25 based on EBCTCG
|
|
what does taxol benefit add to AC chemo in patients with breast cancer?
|
improves response rates, DFS, and OS
|
|
locally advanced breast cancer accounts for what % of breast cancer
|
5% (4.6% baed on SEER)
|
|
what procedures should be done prior to starting neoadjuvant chemo for locally advanced breast cancer?
|
core biopsy and wire localization for the biopsy bed (in case patient has CR to chemo)
|
|
in T2-3 breast cancer with clinically negative axilla - what is the rate of pathologic axillary involvemen?
|
30%
|
|
when was the RT given in Danish 82b trial (postmastectomy)
|
after cycle 1 of CMF and 3-5 weeks postoperatively
|
|
what did the study of premenopausal women danish 82 b that randomized postmastectomy women to CMF chemo +/- RT find?
|
OS benefit (45->54) and LRR benefit 32 -> 9
survival benefit seen in all patients |
|
what were the relevant outcomes of the british columbia trial that looked at postmastectomy RT?
|
adj RT improved LRR before DM 39 -> 13
DFS 31 -> 48 OS 37 -> 47 |
|
in a breast cancer patient with a clinically positive axilla what is the chance that the axilla is negative upon resection?
|
there is a 25% chance for a negative axilla upon resection
|
|
what is the difference btw T4a and T4b thyroid cancer lesions
|
T4a: local extension but technically resectable
T4b: unresectable disease |
|
what is happening to the incidence of diagnosed papillary thyroid cancer
|
increasing
|
|
4 anatomic subdivisions/lobes of the thyroid
|
right lobe, left lobe, isthmus, pyramidal lobe
|
|
what subtype of thyroid cancer has better prognosis: papillary or follicular
|
papillary (10 yr OS 93 vs 85)
|
|
3 surgical options in thryoid cancer
|
lobectomy+isthmusectomy
near-total thyroidectomy total thyroidectomy |
|
what 3 regions should be irradiated with EBRT in a patient > 45 w/ pT4 thyroid cancer
|
thyroid bed, bilateral necks, and upper mediastinal nodes
|
|
name the 2 major and 3 minor prognosticator factors for thyroid cancer
|
major: age, tumor size
minor: histology, local tumor extension, LN status |
|
what is the strongest risk factor for papillary thryoid cancer?
|
RT exposure to the H&N as a child ; no increased risk if exposure after age 20
|
|
what are the 3 subtypes of follicular-epithelial derived thyroid cancer in decreasing order of frequency
|
papillary > follicular > hurthle cell
|
|
for thryoid cancer, what sizes distinguish T1, T2, and T3 tumors
|
T1 < 2 cm (a - < 1, b 1-2)
T2: 2-4 limited to thyroid T4: > 4 cm |
|
what is the diff btw N1a and N1b in thryoid cancer
|
N1a: mets to pre/paratracheal nodes, prelaryngeal nodes (level VI)
N1b: mets to cervical neck (levels I-V), upper mediastinal nodes |
|
what kind of add'l imaging can be considered if the I-131 scan is negative but the stimulated thyroglobulin level is elevated
|
PET/CT
|
|
what is the most common endocrine malignancy
|
thryoid cancer
|
|
in a pt with low TSH and a nodule that shows uptake by I-123 or Tc-99 scan, what is the likely dx?
|
adenomas
|
|
what are the indications for adj I-131 in addition to TSH suppression for thryoid cancer
|
suspected or proven residual normal thyroid tissue or residual tumor
|
|
what are 2 ways to do TSH stimulation
|
thryoid hormone withdrawal or by using recombinant TSH
|
|
what is the txt paradigm for medullary thryoid cancer
|
definitive surgery and EBRT for palliation
|
|
name genetic syndrome(s) associated with medullary thryoid cancer
|
MEN 2a and MEN 2b
|
|
name the nerve that lies in the tracheoesophageal (TE) groove, posterior to the right/left thyroid lobes
|
recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
|
which group does anaplastic thryoid cancer pts does PORT improve survival
|
t4b/extrathryoid extension but not thyroid confined or metastatic dz
|
|
in the thyroid follicle what are the normal functions of the epithelial follicular cells and the parafollicular cells
|
epithelial follicular cells: remove iodide from the blood to form T3 and T4
parafollicular cells: produce calcitonin |
|
which papllary thyroid cancer is lobectomy+isthmusectomy adequate
|
patients with none of the following risk factors: age > 45, tumor > 4 cm, aggressive histology variant, prior hx of RT, DM, N+, local extension, and + margins
|
|
what peaks younger papillary or follicular thryoid cancer
|
papillary (30-50), follicular (40-60)
|
|
name a genetic disorder associated with follicular thryoid cancer
|
cowden syndrome
|
|
to make pathologic dx of hurthle cell thyroid cancer how much % of hurthle cells must be demonstrated
|
75%
|
|
what is the treatment paradigm for thryoid cancer? Localized vs metastatic?
|
surgery (even in M1 dz) -> observation vs adj treatment
|
|
what are the stage groupings for anaplastic thryoid cancer
|
all anaplastic thryoid cancer is considered stage IV - A-resectable, B- unresectable and C- metastatic
|
|
what are the 4 indications for adjuvant EBRT in addition to TSH suppression and I-131 in thyroid cancer?
|
1. pT4 papillary and > 45
2. gross residual disease in neck after I-131 3. bulky mets after I-131 4. lesions with inadequate iodide uptake |
|
what sites demonstrate physiologic uptake of iodide?
|
thryoid, salivary glands and the GI tract
|
|
what is the treatment paradigm for anaplastic thryoid cancer
|
maximal safe resection --> adjuvant chemoRT
|
|
chemo agents studied in anaplastic thryoid cancer ?
|
cisplatin/doxorubicin
|
|
name 4 genetic disorders associated with papillary thryoid cancer
|
familial polyposis
gardner syndrome turcot syndrome familial papillary carcinoma |
|
does the tall cell variant have a more favorable or unfavorable prognosis when compared to classic papillary thryoid cancer
|
unfavorable
|
|
what is the stage of 37 year old patient with thyroid cancer and a solitary bone met
|
II (If the patient were 65 yo, would be stage Ivc - separate staging for follicular/papillary < 45 - only I and II (M1))
|
|
what is the max recommended lifetime dose for I-131
|
800-1000 mCi
|
|
what is the stage of a 45 yo male with unresectable primary thyroid cancer w/ no mets?
|
IVB (if <45 then stage I)
|
|
gender predilection for papillary or follicular thyroid cancer
|
yes - females > males (3:1)
|
|
what are the aggressive subtypes of thyroid cancer that u must consider adjuvant treatment
|
tall, columnar, insular, oxyphilic, poorly diff
|
|
what % of patients with thyroid cancer will have residual uptake on an iodide scan after thyroidectomy
|
80%
|
|
what are the primary, secondary, and tertiary lymphatic drainage regions of the thyroid?
|
primary: central compartment (level VI), TE groove, delphian nodes
secondary: cervical/supraclavicular tertiary: sup mediastinal/retropharyngeal nodes |
|
what thyroid cancer subtype is more likely to present with N+ disease: papillary or follicular
|
papillary thyroid cancer (30%) > follicular (10%)
|
|
estimate the MS and 1 yr OS for patients with anaplastic thyroid cancer? Medullary thyroid cancer
|
6 mos and 20%;
medullary much better prognosis: 10 yr OS 90%; +N 70% |
|
what % of palpable thyroid nodules are malignant
|
5%
|
|
3 main types of thyroid cancer histologies in decreasing frequency
|
follicular epithelial derived (papillary>follicular> hurthle) (94%) > medullary > anaplastic
|
|
what is the mCi dose range to ablate a residual follicular epithelial derived thyroid cancer with iodide 131? Used to ablate normal thyroid tissue?
|
100-200 mCi (30-100 mCi for normal thyroid tissue)
|
|
3 most important acute and longterm sideeffects of > 100 mCi of I-131
|
gi irritation, sialadenitis, and cystitis
pulmonary fibrosis, oligospermia, and leukemia |
|
what are the approved indications for recombinant TSH stimulation
|
follow-up iodide scans
I-131 txt of low-risk patients |
|
what is the difference in approach between near-total and total thyroidectomy?
|
less aggressive around the recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
|
EBRT doses for thyroid cancer (follicular/papillary)? Gross? Micro? Nodal?
|
gross: 70; mico: 60; nodal: 50
|
|
medullary thyroid cancer arises from what precurser cell
|
parafollicular C cells
|
|
what must be done prior to an I-123 or I-131 scan
|
TSH stimulation
|
|
what are the 4 possible indications for adjuvant therapy after GTR of papillary/follicular thyroid cancer
|
> 1 cm tumor
N+ or DM aggressive histologic subtypes pT4+ papillary and age > 45 |
|
in addition to improved LC, what is another reason to advocate for a total thyroidectomy even in low-risk patients
|
easier to follow up (whole body iodide scans and serum thyroglobulin)
|
|
what % of mesothelioma cases are related to asbestos exposure
|
80%
|
|
what % of mesothelioma patients are surgically resectable at diagnosis
|
< 5%
|
|
what are the 3 most common histopathologic subtypes of mesothelioma in decreasing order of frequency?
|
epithelioid (40%) > mixed or biphasic (35%) > sarcomatous or mesenchymal
|
|
what is the lifetime risk of mesothelioma in someone with occupational asbestos exposure
|
10%
|
|
2 most common initial presenting Sx of mesothelioma? Common presentation (incidental findings)?
|
dyspnea & nonpleuritic. Recurrent pleural effusion and/or pleural thickening
|
|
describe conventional RT field borders for adjuvant RT treatment of mesothelioma after extrapleural pneumonectomy?
|
Superior: T1
Inferior: L2 Lateral: skin medial: ipsi edge of vertebral body need to block critical structures and supplement with electrons |
|
what is the median OS for mesothelioma in mos
|
8 mos
|
|
common genetic changes seen in mesothelioma
|
p16, p14, and (NF-2)
|
|
is adj RT advocated for mesothelioma s/p decortication/pleurectomy
|
yes (based on retrospective)
|
|
what pathologic features with regards to mesothelioma versus adenocarcinoma in terms of markers (acid-schiff, CEA, calretinin, vimentin, WT1, cytokeratin)
|
positive: calretinin, vimentin, WT1, cytokeratin
negative: acid-schiff, CEA, Leu-M1 |
|
what is the adjuvant RT dose for mesothelioma following extrapleural pneumonectomy?
|
negative margin: 50 Gy
close/+ margin: 54-60 Gy gross disease: > 60 Gy |
|
at what age does the incidence of mesothelioma peak?
|
NO PEAK, increases with increasing age
|
|
what is the most common cause of mesothelioma? What is more carcinogenic - amphiboles or chrysotile)
|
asbestos - ambiboles (rodlike) > chrysotile (serpentine)
|
|
what is the palliative surgical procedure to consider for management of poor risk mesothelioma?
|
pleurodesis with talc
|
|
is death from mesothelioma usually due to local progression or DM
|
local progression -> resp failure or infection
|
|
when a patient is not a candidate for extrapleural pneumonectomy - pleurectomy or decortication has been advocated by some investigators, what does the procedure entail?
|
not a candidate (more adv disease, mixed histology, or medically highrisk)stripping of the pleura from the apex of the lung to the diaphragm, removing pericardium and parietal pleura
|
|
what is removed with an extrapleural pneumonectomy for mesothelioma
|
parietal pleura, lung, mediastinal nodes, pericardium, and ipsilateral diaphragm; with a graft to prevent herniation of abd contents through the defect; mediastinal nodal dissection should also be done
|
|
what histologic subtype of mesothelioma has the worse prognosis?
|
sarcomatous type
|
|
name the 4 EORTC prognostic factors for mesothelioma
|
WBC > 8.3, Performance status, sarcomatous histology, male gender
|
|
other than the pleura, where else can mesothelioma arise?
|
peritoneum, pericardium, and tunica vaginalis testis
|
|
what classic chemo agents are used for unresectable mesothelioma
|
cisplatin and premetrexed (also gemcitabine)
|
|
what is the latency between asbestos and mesothelioma
|
20-40 years
|
|
what is role of prophlyactic RT after invasive procedures for mesothelioma?
|
historically RT 7Gy x 3 given to areas of invasive procedure to prevent needle tract seeding but proven to not reduce rate
|
|
is there a gender prelidiction for mesothelioma?
|
yes. Men more affected
|
|
describe N staging of mesothlioma? What stage is contralateral MN? Contra lat IM nodes? Contra lat Hilar LNs? SCLV? Ipsi MN? Sub carinal?
|
N3: contralat MN/IM/Hilar or SCLV
N2: ipsi MN, subcarinal, IM N1: ipsi hilar |
|
does smoking cause mesothelioma?
|
NO; smoking alone does not but exacerbates asbestos related mesothelioma
|
|
T stage of mesothlioma: invol of diaphragm? Invasion of mediastinal fat? Pericardial effusion? Invasion of spine?
|
T1: ipsi parietal pleura and no or focal visceral pleura
T2: visceral or diaphragm mm or lung parenchyma T3: mediastinal fat or soft tissue of CW or pericardium T4: rib or diffuse CW or mediastinal organs or contral pleura or spinne or pericardial effu w/ + cytology or brachial plexus |
|
name 5 factors associated with increased risk of DM with soft tissue sarcoma
|
high grade
size > 5 cm deep location recurrent dz leiomyosarcoma |
|
what are the 3 most common sites of soft tissue sarcoma
|
extremity (60%) > trunk (30%) > H&N (10%)
|
|
what is Stewart-Treves syndrome
|
angiosarcoma that arises from chronic lymphedmea (most often as complication of mastecomy +/- radiotherapy)
|
|
what imaging should a patient with soft tissue sarcoma have?
|
MRI +/- CT of area
Chest imaging (CT) |
|
what dose should neoadjuv RT be for extremity soft tissue sarcoma
|
50 Gy/2 Gy fx
|
|
what % of lower extremity STS is at or above the knee
|
75%
|
|
for soft tissue sarcoma do you perform a incisional or excisional biopsy
|
incisional
|
|
what % of extremity soft tissue sarcoma involves the lower extremity
|
75%
|
|
what are the stage groupings for soft tissue sarcoma? > 5 cm grade 2? N1?
|
IA: T1 G1
IB: T2 G1 IIA: T1, G2-3 IIB: T2, G2 III: T2, G3 or N1 IV: M1 |
|
what group of soft tissue sarcoma most benefits from adjuvant chemo
|
high-grade extremity soft tissue sarcoma
|
|
what dose of RT should be used for unresectable soft tissue sarcoma
|
> 70-80 Gy
|
|
what is the LC of soft tissue sarcoma after excisional biospy alone
|
20%
|
|
what are the 5 most common types of soft tissue sarcoma?
|
high grade undiff pleomorphic sarcoma (malignat fibrous histiocytoma) 20-30%
liposarcoma (10-20%) leiomyosarcoma (5-10%) synovial sarcoma (5-10%) malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (5-10%) |
|
What is the T-stage of soft tissue sarcoma
|
T1 <= 5 cm (a - superficial ; b - deep)
T2 > 5 cm (a - superficial ; b - deep) N1 regional mets |
|
what did the NCI Canada Trial: extremity STS randomized to preop RT (50 Gy (16-20 Gy boost for surgical margins)) vs PORT (50 Gy + 16-20 Gy)
primary endpoint was major wound complications - |
preop RT (35) > PORT (17)
No diff in LC (92), RFS (59), or OS (73 v 67) In long term, PORT was associated with worse fibrosis and joint stiffness |
|
what types of soft tissue sarcomas are associated with Gardner syndrome? NF-1?
|
Gardner - desmoid
RB - bone and STS NF1 - benign neurofibromas and malignant periopheral nerve sheath tumors Li Fraumeni - bone and STS |
|
what dose is recommended for adjuvant RT for soft tissue sarcoma
|
50 Gy + 10-16 Gy for negative marging
16-20 Gy for positive margin 20-26 Gy for grossly positive |
|
what is the median age at Dx of soft tissue sarcoma? 30?40?50?60?
|
50
|
|
name 5 factors associated with increased risk of LR in patients with soft tissue sarcoma
|
Age > 50
recurrent disease positive surgical margins fibrosarcoma (including desmoid) malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor |
|
where does soft tissue sarcoma originate
|
primitive mesenchyme of the mesoderm
|
|
name the chromosomal translocations for synovial sarcoma? Clear cell sarcoma? Ewing's/PNET? Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma?
|
synovial t(X, 18)
clear cell sarcoma t(12,22) ewing sarcoma/PNET t(11, 22) alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma t(2,13), t(1,13) |
|
surgery alone is adequate for what kind of patient with soft tissue sarcoma of the extremity
|
T1, low grade s/p surgical resection w/ > 1 cm margins
|
|
what 5 types of soft tissue sarcoma have an increased risk of LN mets
|
SCARE: synovial, clear cell, angiosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, epitheliodi
all around 15-25% |
|
what % of soft tissue sarcoma have +LNs at dx
|
5%
|
|
name environmental risk factors for soft tissue sarcoma
|
RT
thorotrast chlorophenols vinyl chloride arsenic herbicides |
|
with the exception of myxoid liposarcoma, what is the most common site of DM from STS?
|
lung; myxoid liposarcoma spreads to nonpulm sites
|
|
what genetic/chromatin changes are poor prognosticator for neuroblastoma
|
N-myc amplification, LOH 1p +11q, diploid DNA, telomerase
|
|
most common bony site for metastatic disease in neuroblastoma
|
bones of the skull and orbit
|
|
whats better in children with metastatic neuroblastoma - <1 year or > 1 year of age
|
< 1 yo of age best
|
|
in high-risk neuroblastoma should elective nodal RT be given
|
no, in high risk only positive disease covered
|
|
outline work up for suspected neuroblastoma? Looking for specific labs and imaging (and pathology)
|
urine catechol, U/A;
imaging - bone scan, abd u/s, CT c/a/p, MRI, I-131 (MIBG) scan bone marrow biopsy pathology - DNA content, n-myc amplification, and cytogenetics |
|
A 2 yo presents with an abdominal mass and lung mets what is the most likely diagnosis
|
wilms! (neuroblastoma rarely metastatsizes to the lungs)
|
|
what % of neuroblastoma patients present with metastases
|
75%
|
|
who presents with more symptoms : neuroblastoma or wilms
|
neuroblastoma
|
|
what are some classic presenting symptoms of neuroblastoma
|
constitutional symptoms
periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes") "blueberry muffin" sign (nontender blue skin mets) scalp nodules bone pain diarrhea (increased VIP) Horner syndrome opsomyoclonus truncal ataxia Kerner-Morrison syndrome (diarrhea, low K) |
|
is there a therapeutic role of I-131 MIBG in neuroblastoma?
|
can be used for refractory NB
|
|
what % of patients with neuroblastoma present with n-myc amplification? 10? 20 ? 40? 70?
|
40%
|
|
what demonstrates calcifications on x-ray: wilm's or neuroblastoma
|
neuroblastoma
|
|
name genetic syndromes associated with neuroblastoma
|
NF 1, hirschsprung disease, fetal hydantoin syndrome
|
|
name 5 factors used to classify neuroblastoma into risk groups (low, int, high)
|
SANDS
Stage Age N-myc DNA ploidy Shimada classification |
|
in which COG risk group do neuroblastoma patients most commonly present in? Low, int or high?
|
high risk (5%) then low risk
|
|
what chemo drugns are commonly used in neuroblastoma
|
cytoxan
doxorubicin etoposide carboplatin ifosfamide |
|
what are the most common sites for presentation of neuroblastoma
|
adrenal medulla > paraspinal > post mediastinum
|
|
what are the 3 types of neuroblastic tumors
|
neuroblastoma
ganglioneuroblastoma ganglioneuroma |
|
what INSS for neuroblastoma for is unilateral localized tumor s/p STR w/ invovled nonadherent ipsi LNs? A 14 month old patient with metastatic dz only to BM?
|
2B; IV (not S because older than 1 year)
I: GTR =/- microscopic dz, ipsi LN- but removed LNs can be positive IIA: STR IIB: GTR/STR with involved nonadherent ipsi LNs III: unresectable IV: distant dz IVS: (stage 2B or less and distant dz only at liver, skin, and/or <10% of BM) in infants < 1 year |
|
in want age group (infants vs children) is thoracic presentation of neuroblastoma more common?
|
infants
|
|
what 2 "clinical" factors are most predictive of cure for neuroblastoma
|
age and stage and dx
|
|
what is the cell of origin for neuroblastoma?
|
neural crest cells of the sympathetic ganglion
|
|
what is the most common malignancy in infants
|
neuroblastoma
|
|
what is the most common sites of mets for neuroblastoma
|
bone > LNs> bm, liver, skin, orbits (lung mets rare)
|
|
historically what test was used to screen infants for
|
urinary catecholamines (VMA/HVA)
|
|
in high risk neuroblastoma, what tissues are targeted with RT? Prechemo, post chemo, postop, preop? Dose
|
post chemo, preop tumor bed to a dose of 21.6 Gy if GTR and 36 Gy if gross disease
|
|
median age at dx of neuroblastoma
|
17 mos
|
|
what % of neuroblastoma patient have detectable urinary catecholamines
|
90%
|
|
what are the classic histologic findings seen in neuroblastoma
|
homer-wright pseudorosettes, hemorrhage and calcification
|
|
what is the differential diagnosis of mediastinal mass by location - ant, middle, and posterior?
|
anterior: terible T's - thyrmoma, thymoma, terrible lymphoma; germ ell tumors
middle: cysts > lymphoma, teratomas > sarcomas (osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, angiosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, granuloma) posterior: neurogenic tumors (PNET, schwannoma, neurofibroma, neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma), pheochromocytoma |
|
current preferred treatment for unresectable thymic malignancy
|
chemo (cisplatin, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide) --> RT vs surgery (--> PORT)
|
|
what are the RT doses used for postop management of thymomas? R0? R1? R2?
|
R0: 45-54 Gy
R1: 55-60 Gy R2:: 60-70 Gy |
|
most important prognostic factors for thymic carcinomas
|
completeness of resection
presence of LN mets |
|
in a thymoma patient with myasthenia gravis, what should be done preoperatively?
|
control signs and symptoms medically prior
|
|
how do thymic carcinomas differ from thymomas in terms of prevalence, aggression, and prognosis? LNs?
|
less prevalent, more aggressive, and worse prognosis. 1 vs 30% LNs
|
|
pathogenesis, presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of myasthenia gravida?
|
pathogenesis: autoantibody to Ach receptor at the postsynaptic endplate
presentation: easy fatigability, ptosis, and diplopia (worse w/ movement, opposite of Lambert-Eaton) diagnosis: tensilon test (edrophonium) treatment: anticholinesterase or thymectomy |
|
what proportion of tumors of the mediastinum are malignant
|
1/3rd of mediastinal tumors
|
|
what is the median age for thymomas? Gender predilection?
|
50 years; no gender predilection
|
|
what paraneoplastic/associated conditions come with diagnosis of thymoma?
|
myasthenia gravis
red cell aplasia hypogammaglobulinemia |
|
what are the 5 year survival rates for thymomas based on Masaoka staging? I/II, III, and IV? Invasive vs noninvasive thymomas
|
I/II - 90%
III: 60% IV: 30% invasive: 50% noninvasive: 70% |
|
what % of patints with thymoma present with myasthenia gravis
|
40% (conversely 10% of patients with MG have thymoma)
|
|
when is adjuvant radiotherapy a reasonable indication for the management of thymomas
|
stage III-IVA, +/close margins, or thymic carcinoma
|
|
what is the Masaoka system used to stage thymomas
|
stage I: encapsulated, no microscopic capsular invasion
II: macroscopic invasion into surrounding fat or mediastinal pleura or microscopic capsule III: ext to surounding organs or great vessels IVA: pleural or pericardial dissemination IVB: +LNs or DM |
|
what is the usual approach for the surgical management of thymomas
|
median sternotomy
|
|
when should postop chemoRT be used for thymic malignancies (as per NCCN)
|
thymoma with gross residual dz
or thymic carcinoma with R1-R2 |
|
where is the thymus located and what is its function
|
it is in the anterior mediastinum and it is involved in the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens from "self" antigens
|
|
what is the embryonic derivation of the thymus
|
3rd pharyngeal pouch
|
|
where do thymomas metastatize to
|
lung; (carcinoma to lung > bone, liver)
|
|
what are the most important prognostic factors for thymomas
|
masaoka stage and completeness of resection
|
|
how prevalent is thymoma relative to other mediastinal tumors?
|
50% of anterior mediastinum and 20% of all mediastinal tumors
|
|
what is the most common site of solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma
|
H&N region - upper aerodigestive tract (80%)
|
|
what 2 factors are used to stage patients in the international staging system for multiple myeloma
|
beta 2 microglobulin & albumin
stage I: beta 2 micro < 3.5 and albumin >3.5 stage III: beta 2 microglobulin > 5.5 I: 62 mos (5 years) II: 44 mos (3-4 years) III: 29 mos (2 years) |
|
what is mgus and how often will it transform to multiple myeloma
|
mgus - monoclonal gammapathy of unspefied significance; prolif of Ig in absecne of clinical, radiographic and lab evidence of MM; rate of trasnformation is 1% a year
|
|
should you treat LNs in management of solitary extraosseos plasmacytoma
|
yes (primary drainage)
|
|
why is the dose of RT for the management of solitary plasmacytoma
|
SP is localized neoplasm and a curative paradigm is employed
|
|
what is the role of bisphosphonates in the management of multiple myeloma
|
1st line antimyeloma therapy b/c they decrease skeltal events and decrease bone pain
|
|
durie salmon staging for multiple myeloma gives the A and B subsclassification based on what
|
serum Cr: A - Cr < 2 mg/dl; B - Cr > 2 mg/dl
|
|
is there a gender and race prelidiction for multiple myeloma
|
Blacks > white; no gender prelidection
|
|
what are the 3 diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma
|
1. clonal plasma cells of >= 10% (on either BM bx or bx from other tissue)
2. monoclonal protein in serum or urine 3. evidence of end organ damage |
|
what is the relationship btw secretory patterns in solitary bone plasmacytoma versus solitary extraosseous plastmactymoa
|
SBP - secretory
SEP - nonsecretory |
|
what lab and radiographic studies are necessary to evaluate a patient with multiple myeloma
|
CBC
LDH Calcium albumin, beta SPEP, UPEP BM biopsy (unilateral) skeletal survey |
|
what is the preferred conditioning regimen for myeloablative therapy for bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma
|
high dose melphalan (proven vs TBI in randomized trial)
|
|
what is POEMs syndrome
|
polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, M protein, and skin changes -- variant of MM
|
|
what % of patients with solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma will progress to MM at 10 years?
|
25%
|
|
what % of plasma cell tumors are multiple myeloma? Solitary plasmacytoma?
|
MM constitutes 90%; Solitary plasmacytoma 10%
|
|
can solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma have LNs? What about solitary bone plasmacytoma?
|
SEP - 35% LN positivity
SBP - rare |
|
multiple myeloma is lytic or blastic?
|
lytic (negative on bone scan)
|
|
what % of solitary bone plasmacytoma will progress to multiple myeloma
|
70%
|
|
what is beta 2 microglobulin (prognosticator of MM)
|
it is a major histocompatibility complex class 1 molecules
|
|
if a patient with ovarian cancer has liver capsule mets what stage is she?
|
T3/stage III
liver parenchymal mets - M1/IV |
|
what is the most common severe toxicity experienced by ovarian cancer patients treated with WART?
|
diarrhea (g3-4)
|
|
risk of developing ovarian cancer increased or decreased with following risk factors: (younger maternal age at 1st birth) , (use of oral contraception), (breast feedin)
|
all decrease risk
|
|
describe borders (sup, inf, and lateral) for whole abdominal RT
|
superior: top of diaphragm
inferior: obturator foramen lateral: peritoneal reflection |
|
survival of ovarian cancer by stage? I? II? III? IV?
|
I: 80
II: 60 III: 30 IV: 10 |
|
is there a role of prophylactic oophorectomy in BRCA 1/2 positive women
|
yes; shown to reduce ovarian and fallopian tube malignancies
risk of primary peritoneal cancer persists |
|
what % of patients with ovarian cancer present with stage III/IV
|
70%
|
|
risk factors of ovarian cancer
|
nulliparity, advanced age at 1st birth, hormone replacement therapy, high-fat/lactose diet, family hx, BRCA 1/2 and HNPCC, older age
|
|
what ovarian cancer stage is limited to 1 ovary with capsule intact? Limited to 1 or both ovaries with ruptured capsule (tumor on ovarian surface, malignant cells in ascites, or peritoneal washings)
|
IA: limited to 1 ovary with capsule intact
IB: both ovaries with capsule intact IC: rupture capsule, tumor on surface, malignant cells in ascites, or peritoneal washings |
|
what ovarian cancer stage is extensiton to or implants on other pelvic tissues? Extension to uterus and or tubes
|
IIA: extension and/or implants on uterus and/or tubes
IIB: extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues IIC: pelvic extension and or implants with malignant ascites or washings |
|
what ovarian cancer stage is macroscopic peritoneal mets beyond pelvis non greater than 2 cm
|
IIIB (IIIA - is microscopic)
IIIC: peritoneal mets > 2 cm in size or regional LNs |
|
what is the median time to clinically or radiographically detectable disease after an isolated CA 125 in ovarian cancer?
|
3-6 mos
|
|
what impact does adjuvant chemo have in ovarian cancer?
|
6% OS benefit and 11% RFS (ICON1 and ACTION trials)
|
|
what is the general treatment paradigm for ovarian cancer?
|
diagnostic and therapeutic laparotomy for surgical staging and cytoreduction; goal to cytoreduce to < 1 cm of gross residual disease
|
|
are most relapses of ovarian cancer local or distant
|
80% are LOCAL
|
|
which hodgkin's disease has the best prognosis
|
lymphocyte-rich
|
|
which hodgkin's disease is associated with older or HIV+ patients
|
lymphocyte-depleted
|
|
patients with which subtype of hodgkin's disease are at greatest risk of developing a subsequent non-hodgkin lymphoma
|
patients with nodular lymhocyte predominant HL
|
|
whats more common classical vs nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin's lymphoma
|
classical more common
|
|
what are the subtypes of classical hodgkin's disease and which is most common
|
nodular sclerosing > mixed cellularity > lymphocyte depleted > lymphocyte rich
|
|
patients who present with mediastinal LAD are most likely to have which subtype of hodgkin's disease
|
nodular sclerosing
|
|
at what age does hodgkin's disease most commonly occur?
|
bimodal peak - age 25 and 65
|
|
which hodgkin's disease subtype has the worse prognosis
|
lymphocyte depleted
|
|
what are the CD 15, 30 45 and 20 positive for nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin's lymphoma
|
CD 15 and 30 : NEGATIVE
CD 45 and 20: POSITIVE |
|
2 most commonly involved LN regions at the initial diagnosis for Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
cervical chain (70%) and mediastinum (50%)
|
|
what are the CD 15, 30 45 and 20 positive for nodular lymphocyte classical hodgkin's lymphoma
|
CD 15 and 30 : POSITIVE
CD 45 and 20: NEGATIVE |
|
how is subtotal lymphoid irradiation different from total lymphoid irradiation
|
TLI - mantle field, inverted Y field and spleen field
STLI excludes iliac and inguinal regions |
|
Name the agents included in the Stanford V regimen for hodgkin's disease
|
MOPE-ABV
Mechlorethamine Oncovin (vincristine) Prednisone Etoposide Adriamycin Bleomycin Vinblastine |
|
what agents are included in ABVD
|
Adriamycin
Bleomycin Vinblastine Dacarbazine |
|
what is the difference between IFRT vs RFRT vs INRT (in hodgkin's disease)
|
IFRT: involved lymphoid region
RFRT: involved regions + immediately adjacent LN regions INRT: covers prechemo tumor volume |
|
what are common treatment strategies for stage I-II unfavorable classic HD?
|
1. Chemo + planned IFRT
2. ABVD x 6 cycles +/- to initial bulky disease and/or residual PET+ sites at restaging |
|
What agents are included in BEACOPP
|
Bleomycin
Etoposide Adriamycin Cyclophosphagmide Oncovin (vincristine) Procarbazine Prednisone used in Europe for advanced-stage HD |
|
what type of secondary malignancies occur sooner after hodgkin's disease: leukemias or solid malignancies?
|
leukemias < 5 yrs after txt, solid malignancies occur > 7 yrs after txt
|
|
what are common treatment strategies for stage I-IIA favorable classic HD?
|
1. chemo + planned IFRT
2. ABVD x 4 cycles +/- IFRT to residual PET+ sites at restaging |
|
Lentigo maligna melanoma, rate of LN and 5 yr OS
|
LN 10%; OS 85%
|
|
what does ABCDE stand for with regards to melanoma
|
Asymmetry, Borders, Color, Diameter (> 6 mm), Enlargement
|
|
what % of melanomas derive from melanocytic nevi
|
15%
|
|
poor pathologic prognostic factors for melanoma
|
increasing thickness
# of nodes involved ulceration Clark level (if < 1 mm) satellitosis |
|
what are 3 favorable clinical factors at presentation for patients with melanoma
|
female
young age extremity location |
|
what % of melanoma patients have LN involvement at diagnosis
|
15%
|
|
which melanoma site has the highest LR rates after surgery (trunk, proximal extremity, distal extremity, H&N)?
|
H&N highest; proximal lowest
|
|
which melanoma subtype has the best prognosis?
|
lentigo maligna
|
|
2.5 mm depth of invasion is what T stage of malignant melanoma; with ulceration
|
T3b;
T1 <= a mm; T2 1-2 mm T3 2-4 mm; T4 > 4 mm a - no ulceration; b - ulceration |
|
what subtype of melanoma commonly presents in dark-skinned populations, and what body locations does it commonly affect?
|
acral lentiginous; commonly affects palms/soles and subungual areas
|
|
risk factors for developing melanoma
|
uv
fair complexion, light hair/eyes numerous benign nevi or large atypical prior melanoma family hx polyvinyl chloride exposure |
|
what is the most powerful prognostic factor for recurrence and survival for patients with melanoma
|
sentinel LN status
|
|
what subtype of melanoma is associated with more infiltration, higher rate of perineural invasion, higher LF rates and lower nodal/DM mets
|
desmoplastic melanoma
|
|
what is the most common subtype of melanoma? 2nd most common?
|
superficial spreading (70%); nodular (25%)
|
|
what type of biopsy is the preferred method of tissue diagnosis for a suspected melanoma?
|
full thickness or excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margin is preferred for tissue diagnosis
|
|
why should wider margins on excisional biopsy be avoided in melanoma?
|
avoid to permit accurate subsequent lymphatic mapping
|
|
which subtype of melanoma has the worse prognosis
|
superficial spreading
|
|
what gender tends to have melanoma lesions predominantly on trunk? Predominantly on extremities?
|
trunk: males
extremities: females |
|
what % of melanoma patients present with DM at dx
|
5%
|
|
what is the name for lentigo maligna involving only the epidermis (Clark level I)
|
hutchinson freckle
|
|
describe the M classification for melanoma (clue - divided into a, b, c)
|
M1a: skin, SQ, distant LNs
M1b: lung only M1c: viscera or other sites with increased LDH |
|
what are 3 commonly used immunohistochemical stains for melanoma
|
S100
HNB-45 Melan-A |
|
what % of melanomas are derived from noncutaneous sites
|
< 10%
|
|
with regards to UV exposure what is the most important risk factor associated with development of melanoma
|
intermittent intense exposure to UVA and UVB, such as hx of blistering burns in childhood
|
|
3 LNs in melanoma is what N stage
|
N1: 1+
N2: 2-3 N3: >= 4, or matted |
|
what % of medulloblastoma present with CSF spread at dx
|
30-40%
|
|
what are the risk groups in medulloblastoma
|
standard risk: > 3 yo, GTR/NTR < 1.5, and M0
high risk: < 3 yo or STR > 1.5 residual , or M+ |
|
what tests for medulloblastoma should be obtained on days 10-14 post op?
|
MRI spine and CSF cytology (delay to day 10 to avoid a false + result from surgical debris)
|
|
what is the median age of medulloblastoma at diagnosi
|
bimodal age distribution - 7 and 25
|
|
characteristic histologic features and markers for medulloblastoma
|
small round blue cells and homer-wright rosettes; + stain for neuron specific enolase, synaptophysin, and nestin
|
|
what is the most aggressive histologic variant of medulloblastoma that also has a particularly high rate of CSF dissemination
|
large cell/anaplastic
|
|
what is the "setting sun" sign (seen in medulloblastoma)
|
downward deviation of gaze from increased cranial pressure (CN III, IV, and VI)
|
|
what is the cell of origin of medulloblastoma
|
neuroectodermal cells from the sup medullary velum (germinal matrix of cerbellum) or cerebellar vermis
|
|
common presenting symptoms for medulloblastoma
|
ha, n/v, altered mentation due to hydrocephalus, truncal ataxia, head bob, and diplopia (CN VI)
|
|
is there any risk of CSF dissemination with shunt placement for medulloblastoma
|
NO
|
|
what are common cytogenetic abnormalities in medulloblastoma
|
deletion of 17p; delition of 16 q
|
|
small round blue cell tumors
|
Lympoma
Ewing ALL Rhabdomyosarcoma Neuroblastoma Neuroepithelioma Medulloblastoma Retinoblastoma LEARN NMR |
|
what are is the most common pediatric CNS tumor? 2nd most common?
|
low grade glioma; 2nd is most common pediatric CNS tumor
|
|
what age group (older or younger) is CSF spread more common in medulloblastoma
|
younger patients
|
|
what are some important ancillary/lab tests to be done prior to starting adjuvant therapy for medulloblastoma
|
baseline audiometry, IQ testing, TSH and growth measures
|
|
where does medulloblastoma most commonly arise
|
midline cerbellar vermis (75)
|
|
differential for posterior fossa mass
|
medulloblastoma, ependymoma, astrocytoma, brainstem glioma, JPA, hemangioblastoma, mets
|
|
what T stage is medulloblastoma that is 5 cm with partial fill of 4th ventricle and invasion cerebral cortex
|
T2;
T1: <= 3 cm, confines T2: > 3 cm, partial fill of 4th ventricle, invades 1 adj structure T3a: invades 2 structures, complete fill of 4th ventricle T3b: extends into brain stem, arises from floor of 4th ventricle, complete fill of 4th ventricle T4: extends beyond aqueduct of slyvius or foramen magnum to involve 3rd ventricle/midbrain/upper cervical cord |
|
what are the 3 histologic variants of medulloblastoma
|
classic, nodular/desmoplastic, and large cell/anaplastic
|
|
what is the M stage of medulloblastoma that has nodular seeding intracranial
|
M2;
M0: no mets M1: + CSF M2: nodular seeding intracranially M3: nodule in subarachnoid space in cord M4: extraneural spread |
|
what variant of medulloblastoma is associated with older age and better prognosis
|
desmoplastic
|
|
what % of medulloblastoma is familial and what are some associated genetic syndromes
|
5%; gorlin (PTCH mutation) and turcot (APC mutation)
|
|
is there a gender predilection to medulloblastoma
|
yes, males
|
|
does extra axial spread occur in medulloblastoma?
|
rarely , can happen to bone
|
|
medulloblastoma is what class of tumors
|
embryonal tumors (along with PNET and atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor)
|
|
what can be dones before treatment for medulloblastoma to reduce ICP
|
ventricular shunt/drain, steroids, acetazolamide (diamox)
|
|
plaque brachytherapy complications
|
early: pain, bleeding, diplopia, infection, edema
late: retinopathy (42% at 5 yrs, increasing to 80-90%), cataracts, keratitis, optic neuropathy |
|
if resection is used for small ocular melanomas what areas ? Where is it generally contraindicated?
|
resection: lesions of the iris or ciliary body
not used for uveal lesions |
|
what is the definition of COMS small, medium, and large lesions - based on what dimensions?
|
apical height, and basal diameter
medium: AH 2.6-10 mm, BD 6-16 mm |
|
what region in the retina is particularly important for color vision
|
macula is important for color vision
|
|
when is enucleation a preferred approach for the management of uveal melanoma
|
pt choice
salvage therapy tumor involving > 40% of intraocular volume tumor in a nonfunctional eye symptomatic pt (pain) eye with marked neovascularization extrascleral extension |
|
what % of pts with ocular melanoma present with DM at dx? What is the most common location?
|
1-2%; liver is the most common site
|
|
what are the 3 basica layers of the globe?
|
outer fibrous layer (sclera), middle vascular layer (choroid), and inner nerve layer (retina)
|
|
what is the cell of origin of ocular melanoma
|
uveal melanocytes of the uveal stroma (neural crest origin)
|
|
what should be done for a uveal melanoma that is COMS stage small, inactive lesions, and good baseline visual function
|
observation (33% of patients progress based on COMS)
|
|
is there a race predilection for ocular melanoma
|
98% are white
|
|
what is the management for COMS stage medium ocular melanomas and small progressive tumors after observation
|
plaque brachytherapy
|
|
where is the optic disc relative to the macula
|
2 mm medial to the macula
|
|
what is the #1 ocular malignancy? #1 primary ocular malignancy?
|
ocular mets; ocular melanoma
|
|
what ocular lesion demonstrates double circulation pattern and fluorescein leakage (hot spots) on fluorescein angiography
|
ocular melanoma
|
|
what is the long-term DM rate of ocular melanoma
|
50% at 15 years
|
|
what are the different ways that melanoma can spread within the globe (3)
|
intraocularly (vitreous, aqueous, or along ciliary vessels)
extraocularly (optic nerve, transsclerally, vascular tracking) extrascleral extension |
|
what % of patients have cataracts 5 years after plaque brachytherapy
|
80+%
|
|
how is dose prescribed with plaque brachytherapy?
|
to the tumor apex (generally 85Gy); with a 2 mm margin around the tumor
|
|
is biopsy done for ocular melanoma?
|
no (risk of tumor seeding); dx made by exam and imaging
|
|
what are the components of the uveal tract
|
choroid, cilary body, and iris
|
|
choroidal/ciliary body melanomas t-staging have a-e designations that look at what?
|
ciliary body involvement/ extraocular extension
a: none b: +cb c: +exo d: +cb +exo e: ++exo |
|
what is the most common site in the eye where ocular melanoma arise
|
uvea, (mostly choroidal) > adnexa > conjunctiva
|
|
what is the most common isotope used in plaque brachytherapy
|
I-125;
|
|
what is the standard management for large uveal melanomas
|
enucleation (alternatively charged particles if available)
|
|
what is the name for the anterior termination of the retina
|
ora serrata
|
|
what histologic subtype of ocular melanoma has the best and worst pprognosis - spindle cell, epitheliod, and mixed
|
best - spindle cell; worse - epithelioid
|
|
for medium sized uveal melanomas is there a difference in outcome between enucleation vs plaque brachytherapy
|
NO differnce in OS or CSS; COMS study
|
|
what % of pts present with large uveal melanomas
|
30% present
|
|
in COMS medium ocular melanoma trial what was the secondary enucleation rate after plaque brachtytherapy? 10, 25, 50, 80%? From what cause?
|
13%; treatment failure or ocular pain from brachytherapy complications
|
|
what are notched plaques (brachytherapy for ocular melanomas)
|
peripapillary tumors
|
|
per the COMS trial, does preoperative EBRT improve outcomes over enucleation alone for COMS large tumors
|
No
|
|
when are flexner-wintersteiner rosettes seen
|
retinoblastoma
|
|
what is the 2nd mailignancy rates in familial cases of RB treated with RT (without RT?)
|
with RT: 50% at 50 yrs
w/o 25% at 50 years |
|
management for retinoblastoma that is filling vitreous, anterior chamber?
|
enucleation with removal of 1.5 cm of optic nerve
|
|
how do the 1st hit vs the 2nd hit in knudsons' model differ in terms of mechanism
|
1st hit is a germline deletion; 2nd hit is mitotic recombination error
|
|
how do patients with retinoblastoma present in the US (vs developing countries)
|
leukocoria (abnl white reflection from the retina) > strabismus > painful glaucoma
developing countries more advanced - proptosis, orbital mass, and mets |
|
who presents older sporadic or familial retinoblastoma; what is the age predilection for retinoblastoma
|
sporadic (2 yo); familial (1 yo); majority (95%) < 5%
|
|
what % of retinoblastomas are bilateral/multifocal versus unilateral
|
25% (bilateral) versus 75% (unilateral)
|
|
what is more prone to CSF/optic nerve spread - retinoblastoma or melanoma
|
retinoblastoma
|
|
what is the most common eye tumor in infants
|
metastatic leukemia; retinoblastoma is the #1 primary tumor
|
|
what are the most common sites of hematogeneous spread in retinoblastoma? What % of patients present with DMs?
|
bone, liver spleen; 15% present with DMs
|
|
what gene/chromosome is mutated in retinoblastoma
|
RB1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13
|
|
what cell cycle checkpoint does retinoblastoma affect
|
G1/S
|
|
what % of retinoblastomas are calcified
|
90%
|
|
what do u cover for EBRT for retinoblastoma
|
entire globe + optic nerve (8mm)
|
|
is risk of 2nd malignancy increased in sporadic forms of retinoblastoma treated with RT
|
yes - 5% at 50 years
|
|
what are the late effect benefits of proton RT in treatment of retinoblastoma
|
better orbital bone sparing; better lens sparing
|
|
what is trilateral retinoblastoma? What % does it represent of hereditary RB?
|
bilateral retinoblastoma and midline PNET (pineal or suprasellar); represents 5% of hereditary RB
|
|
is biopsy done for retinoblastoma?
|
generally not (can lead to seeding)
|
|
how is bilateral retinoblastoma treated
|
individualize the treatment of each eye (preservation if possible)
|
|
what is the most commonly used staging system for retinoblastoma? What does it predict?
|
reese-ellsworth grouping system; predicts visual preservation after EBRT (not survival)
|
|
what is the cell of origin for retinoblastoma?
|
neuroepithelial cells (from nucleated photoreceptor layer of the inner retina)
|
|
are retinoblastoma more commonly heritable or germline mutations
|
germline (60%) > heritable (40%)
|
|
what is the treatment paradigm for unilateral intraocular retinoblastoma
|
preserve eye with chemotherapy x 6 cycles (VCE - vincristine/carboplatin/etoposide) -> focal therapy
|
|
to what other malignancy are retinoblastoma particularly prone
|
osteosarcoma
|
|
did PFS and OS outcomes improve in the intergroup 0099 (Al-Sarraf) trial for nasopharynx
|
YES; PFS 24 -> 69% (45%); OS 46 -> 76 (30%) with the addition of chemo to RT for NPX cancer; (criticized for poor RT alone results)
|
|
is the histologic feature of keratin in nasopharyngeal cancer a positive or negative prognosticator
|
negative (w/ regards to LC and OS)
|
|
from what anatomic location does most nasopharyngeal cancer most arise
|
fossa of rossenmuller (fossa post to torus tubarius)
|
|
what does the N stage of a nasopharyngeal cancer that invovles a supraclavicular LN
|
N3b (N3a is > 6 cm; in contrast to other H&N sites that just have N3 - > 6 cm)
|
|
common DM site from nasopharyngeal cancer
|
bone > lungs, liver, and brain
|
|
who needs chemo (concurrent) in nasopharyngeal cancer (stage)
|
T2 and above, N+ (al-sarraf and Lee)
|
|
what T stage is a nasopharyngeal cancer that has parapharyngeal extension? Paranasal sinus involvement?
|
T1: confined to NPX or extension to OPX, nasal cavity w/o paraphayngeal extension
T2: parapharyngeal extension T3: bony structures/paranasal sinuses T4: intracranial extension/CNs/infratemporal fossa, HPX, orbit, masticator |
|
which type of nasopharyngeal cancer is most strongly associated with EBV exposure - WHO type I, 2a, 2b?
|
2b (undiff or lymphoepithelial)
|
|
what % of nasopharyngeal cancer present with bilateral LAD
|
50%
|
|
what is the nasopharyngeal cancer N stage for bilateral nodal disease, all < 6 cm
|
N2
|
|
what 2 cranial nerve syndromed/tumor extension in nasopharyngeal cancer?
|
petrosphenoidal syndrome: CN III-IV and VI involvement (oculomotor signs/Sx)
retroparotidian syndrome: CN IX-XII involvement |
|
what % of nasopharyngeal cancer present with palpable LAD
|
75%
|
|
is surgery ever used in nasopharyngeal cancer
|
hell no.
|
|
is there a benefit with the use of induction chemo in nasopharyngeal cancer
|
NO; multiple RCTs in asia showed no benefit
|
|
please describe the chemo and interval/duration in the al-sarraf trial (int 0099) in nasopharyngeal cancer
|
cisplatin IV 100 mg/m2 q3 weeks concurrently with RT then 3 additional cycles of cisplatin + 5FU
|
|
bilateral nodal disease with primary nasopharyngeal cancer involving nasal cavity is what stage
|
III (T1N2)
N2 - bilateral nodal dz < 6 cm T1 - w/o parapharyngeal involvement N3: IVB |
|
is there a benefit with the use of adjuvant chemo in nasopharyngeal cancer
|
NO; multiple RCTs in asia showed no benefit and 1 italian study
|
|
what N stage for nasopharyngeal cancer of a multiple ispilateral LNs all < 6 cm
|
N1 - any # of nodes confined to the ipsi neck < 6 cm
N2 - bilateral |
|
dose constraints of the parotid based on RTOG 0225 study
|
mean dose < 26 Gy
|
|
what predicts DM in patients with nasopharyngeal cancer (3)
|
lower neck nodes involv, retropharyngeal LN involv, WHO type IIB
|
|
what are the typical IMRT dose painting sizes in nasopharyngeal cancer
|
2.12 x 33 = 69.96 Gy to GTV
1.8 Gy x 33 = 59.4 Gy to intermediate risk ares 1.64 Gy x 33 = 54 Gy to low-risk areas |
|
what is the T stage of a nasopharyngeal cancer with soft palate involvement alone without parapharyngeal spread
|
T1: designates lesions without parapharyngeal extension (can inv Opx/nasalcavity
|
|
what is the nasopharyngeal cancer T stage for tumor involving CN
|
T4; and other intracranial structures, infratemporal fossa, HPX, masticator space
|
|
median age of nasopharyngeal cancer
|
50
|
|
patients with upper level V neck node are most likely to have what kind of H&N primary
|
nasopharyngeal cancer
|
|
what is the most common presenting symptom of nasopharyngeal cancer
|
neck mass > epistaxis, otalgia, nasal congestion, trismus
|
|
what is the local pattern of spread of nasopharyngeal cancer: superiorly, inferiorly, posteriorly, laterally, and anteriorly?
|
superiorly: invades cavernous sinus w/ predom CN VI involv
inferiorly/posteriorly: oropharyngeal structures laterally: parapharyngeal space anteriorly: nasal cavity |
|
what makes the anatomic boundaries of the nasopharynx
|
superior: sphenoid bone
inferior: soft palate posterior: clivus/C1-2 anterior: post edge of choanae |
|
which WHO type of nasopharyngeal cancer is associated with smoking and has a poor local control but a lower propensity for DM
|
WHO type I (keratinizing SCC)
|
|
which WHO type is endemic and prone to distant recurrence
|
WHO IIb (undiff or lymphoepithelial) (better LC but more distant spread)
|
|
what correlates better with DM spread in nasopharyngeal cancer: N stage or T stage
|
N stage
|
|
what CNs go through the jugular foramen
|
CNs IX-XI
|
|
what CNS go through the cavernous sinus
|
CNs III-IV, V1-2, VI
|
|
what autoimmune condition can nasopharyngeal cancer be associated with
|
dermatomyositis
|
|
what are the 3 WHO histologic subtypes of nasopharyngeal cancer, and what is the prevalence of each type
|
WHO I: keratizing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) - 20%
WHO IIA: nonkeratizing SCC (nondifferentiated) (35%) WHO IIb: undiffentiated or lymphoepithelial (45%) |
|
what environmental risk factors associated with nasopharyngeal cancer
|
consumption of salted fish and preserved meats, EBV infection, and smoking for keratinzing squamous cell type (no alcohol association)
|
|
adenopathy near the mastoid tip is indicative of …
|
retropharyngeal nodal involvement (node of Rouviere)
|
|
what is the T-stage of nasopharyngeal cancer that involves the sphenoid sinus
|
T3: denotes bony structures and/or paranasal sinus
|
|
how does nasopharyngeal cancer reach and invade the cavernous sinus
|
can track through the foramen lacerum
|
|
what is typical presentation of extremity desmoid tumor
|
deep-seated painless mass with hx of slow growth
|
|
what dose (min) is needed to control desmoid tumors w/ RT alone
|
> 50 Gy; rec 50-56 Gy
|
|
what is local recurrence rate for desmoid tumors treated with RT alone - 20, 40, 60, 80%
|
22% (7% if negative margin; 26% if positive)
|
|
desmoid tumors appear similar to what histologically
|
well-diff (grade 1) fibrosarcoma
|
|
what genetic abnormality is associated with desmoid tumors
|
2% associated with APC --> familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
|
|
what decade of life do desmoid tumors present
|
3rd or 4th
|
|
desmoid tumors are associated with what syndrome
|
gardner syndrome
|
|
do desmoid tumors have metastatic potential
|
NO
|
|
what is the primary modality for desmoid tumors
|
surgical resection
|
|
is there a race or gender predilection for desmoid tumors
|
women; no race or ethnic predilection
|
|
what 2 environmental conditions are associated with desmoid tumors
|
trauma, or high estrogen
|
|
what desmoid tumor sites is RT not recommended
|
retroperitoneal/intrabdominal
|
|
what is another commonly used name for desmoid tumor
|
aggressvie fibromatosis
|
|
what is gardner syndrome
|
SOD - sebaceous cysts, osteomas, desmoid tumors
|
|
what dose of RT is associated with premature closure of the epiphysis
|
> 20 Gy
|
|
name 3 anatomic sites in which desmoid tumors develops
|
trunk/extremity
abdominal wall intraabdominal compartment |
|
what is the typical presentation of intraabdominal desmoid tumor
|
bowel ischemia or obstruction
|
|
name 4 nonsurgical, non-RT approaches to desmoid tumors
|
1. hormone ablation (tamoxifen)
2. NSAIDs (sulindac) 3. low-dose cytotoxic chemo (methotrexate or doxorubicin based) 4. targeted therapy (imatinib) |
|
can ependymomas recur late
|
yes, up to 10+ years later
|
|
what does overexpression of erbB-2/erbB-4 expression in ependymoma associated with for outcome
|
poor outcome
|
|
what type of ependymomas commonly arise in the conus/filum region of the spinal cord
|
myxopapillary ependymoma
|
|
when is RT used in spinal ependymomas?
|
when resection is incomplete or anaplastic histology
|
|
perivascular pseudorosettes
|
ependymomas
|
|
single most important favorable prognostic factor in ependymoma
|
completeness of surgical resection
|
|
cell of origin for ependymomas
|
ependymal cells lining the ventricles
|
|
how is ependymoblastoma treated
|
like medulloblastoma/PNET: CSI 36Gy + vincristine; boost cavity/gross dz 45-50.4 (spine) and 54-59.4Gy if cranial --> adjuvant RT
|
|
should you do a LP for a posterior fossa mass (medullo, ependymoma)
|
NO (not until resection of primary)
|
|
for spinal ependymomas how much cord should be treated?
|
2 vertebral bodies above and below
|
|
what is the 5 yr OS difference btw GTR vs STR for ependymomas? Low vs high grade?
|
75 vs 35% (for both)
|
|
when should CSI be done for ependymomas?
|
+CSF
+MRI neuroaxis ependymoblastoma |
|
what neurologica deficits (sensory vs motor) are spinal cord ependymoma pts likely to present
|
sensory deficits (vs cord astrocytomas which present with pain/motor deficits)
|
|
if you have a young patient (< 1 yo) with ependymoma s/p surgery what adjuvant therapy should be given?
|
chemo until older than 3 (?) then can give RT
|
|
what genetic syndrome is associated with spinal cord ependymoma
|
NF-2
|
|
do young children oryoung adults with ependymoma have a worse prognosis
|
children, age < 4 yrs is a poor prognostic factor
|
|
grade the following types of ependymoma from 1-4: classic, anaplastic, ependymoblastoma, myxopapillary and subependymoma
|
Grade 1: myxopapillary and subependymoma
Grade 2: classic Grade 3: anaplastic Grade 4: ependymoblastoma |
|
which ependymomas have a poorer prognosis: supratentorial or infratentorial?
|
supratentorial (increased high grade and more STR)
|
|
where do grade 4 ependymomas generally arise - infra or supra tentorially
|
supratentorium
|
|
what ependymoma locations are most amenable to GTR?
|
spinal > supratentorial > infratentorial
|
|
what is the median age of dx for ependymomas
|
bimodal age distribution: 5 and 35
|
|
what are typical chemo agents for ependymomas
|
cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, and etoposide
|
|
Ependymomas location: children? Adults? (supra- vs infra- tentorial)
|
children: infratentorial (60%)
adults: supratentorial (2/3rd) |
|
what % of ependymoma pts present with CSF seeding (15, 30, 45, 60)? What features predispose to seeding?
|
15%; infratentorial location, high-grade tumors, and Local failure
|
|
does high grade gliomas enhance on T1? T2? FLAIR?
|
YES on all 3
|
|
what is the median survival for a patient with RPA class I-II, III-IV, and V-VI
|
Class I-II: 4 years
Class III-IV: 12 mos (1 year) Class V-VI: 9 mos (4 minus 3 years = 1 year (12 mos) minus 3 mos = 9 mos) |
|
is there evidence for dose escalation beyond 60 Gy in high grade gliomas
|
NO; RTOG 7401 showed no benefit
|
|
FDA approved use of gliadel?
|
recurrent disease with re-resection (improved advantage of 6 -> 8 mos)
|
|
contrast genetic changes associated with primary vs secondary GBM
|
primary: EGFR (inc), MDM2 amplification, LOH10, p16
secondary: p53 -> LGG -> LOH 19q/p16 -> AA -> LOH 10, DCC -> 2nd GBM |
|
what constitutes RPA class III - high-grade glioma
|
age < 50, AA w/ poor MS, or GBM with good KPS
|
|
additional medications (other than TMZ) needed in treatment of high grade gliomas
|
steroids
proton pump inhibitors PCP prophylaxis |
|
what was the overall survival (5 yr) benefit in the STUPP trial for GBM
|
10% vs 2% (no TMZ)
|
|
what are the most important factors used for the RTOG recursive partitioning analysis (RPA) stratification for GBM?
|
age 50 years
histology (AA or GBM) KPS MS changes Sx of < 3 mos |
|
what is the dose of temozolamide, and how is it administered/scheduled?
|
oral pill; 75 mg/m2 for 7 days a week during RT --> 1 mos break then 6 cyes of 150-200 mg/m2 x 5 days
|
|
what symptoms do high-grade gliomas most commonly present
|
headache (esp in AM) > seizures > focal neurological, mental status
|
|
what is the MS of LGG vs HGG
|
low grade: oligo 10 years, oligoastro 7, anaplastic oligo 5
high grade: AA 3 years; GBM 1 year |
|
is there evidence supporting RT hyperfractionation for GBM
|
NO (RTOG 8302, 9006 failed to show benefit)
|
|
what defines RPA class VI patients
|
any histology with KPS < 70 and altered MS
|
|
what is radioisotope used in gliastine in GBM? What dose? Prescribed to?
|
I-125; 60 Gy; prescribed to 0.5-1 cm at dose rate of 50 cGy/hr
|
|
what is MGMT
|
a DNA repair enzyme that removes alkyl groups from the 06 position of guanine (when methylated -> inactive; leads to longer survival)
|
|
is there a benefit to radiosurgery boost for high-grade gliomas
|
NO
|
|
what WHO classification is GBM
|
IV
|
|
what WHO classification is oligodendroglioma
|
III; includes anaplastic astrocytoma and oligoastrocytoma
|
|
what is the cushing triad and what does it represent in brain tumors?
|
HTN, bradycardia, respiratory irregularity
represents increased ICP |
|
what are the 4 pathologic characteristics that define GBM
|
pseudopalisading necrosis
vascular proliferation increased mitotic rate pleomorphic nuclei |
|
under what RPA classes can GBM fall
|
classes III-VI
III: < 50, KPS 90-100 IV: < 50, KPS < 90 or > 50, good KPS V: >50, KPS < 70 but no change in MS VI: KPS < 70 and MS change |
|
common genetic changes seen in malignant brain tumors
|
EGFR and PTEN
|
|
what % of primary CNS tumors are malignant
|
40%
|
|
hypofractionation regimens for elderly GBM w/ poor KPS
|
40 Gy in 15 fx or 30 Gy in 10 fx for patients > 60 , KPS < 50
|
|
what % of GBMs are multicentric
|
5%
|
|
what was main toxicity seen from temozolamide in STUPP trial
|
thrombocytompenia (7% g3-4
|
|
SCC of skin T stage of orbit or temporal bone
|
T3 (T1 <= 2 cm; T2 > 2 cm; T3 inv maxilla, orbit, temporal bone; T4 skeletal invasion, PNI of skull base)
|
|
what is a marjolin ulcer
|
scc arising in burn scar
|
|
what are main determinants of LN spread for SCC
|
poor differentiation
size/depth (> 3 cm/ > 4 mm) PNI/LVI location (lips, scars/burns/ear) recurrent lesions |
|
if cartilage is in the RT field, what should the dose/fx be kept below
|
< 3 Gy per fx - to reduce chondritis
|
|
what is the Rx point if orthvoltage RT is employed for skin cancer
|
not > 1 cm deep; Dmax (90% of the IDL has to encompass the tumor)
|
|
what area of the body is at highest risk for SCC and BCC
|
H&N region
|
|
high risk SCC or BCC features based on AJCC
|
> 2 mm DOI, Clark level >= IV, PNI, poor differentiation, an ear or hair-bearing lip site
|
|
what is a "pearly papule" lesion pathognomonic for
|
BCC
|
|
when is cryotherapy and curettage appropriate for skin cancer
|
small superficial BCC
superficial well-diff SCC |
|
what ist he best predictor of LC after definitive RT for SCC
|
T stage (T1 - 95%; T3 - 50%)
|
|
risk factors for skin cancers
|
sun exposure, chronic irritation, genetic disorders, and immunosuppression
|
|
what other site is skin cancer N-stage similar to?
|
H&N:
N1: single, ipsi <=3 cm N2a: single ipsi 3-6 cm N2b: multiple , ipsi < 6 cm N2c: bilat < 6cm N3a: > 6 cm |
|
after surgical resection for skin cancers when should u consider adjuvant nodal RT
|
multiple (> 3), large (> 3cm), ECE, a preauricular site, and PNI
|
|
where is the "H" zone anatomically and why is it important
|
midface where the embryologic fusion lines lie (high risk for deep invasion and high risk for LR)
|
|
what are the relative contraindications to RT in the treatment of skin cancers
|
areas prone to trauma (hand dorsum or belt line)
poor blood supply(below knees/elbows) age < 50 post-RT recurrence Gorlin syndrome CD 4 count < 200 high occupational sun exposure exposed area of bone/cartilage |
|
what is the most common genetic mutation in both SCC and BCC
|
p53
|
|
where does SCC of the skin metastasize to
|
lung > liver > bones
|
|
when is Mohs surgery contraindicated for skin cancer
|
central face lesions > 5 mm and ear/scalp lesions > 2 cm
|
|
when is topical 5FU used for SCC
|
when lesion is confined to the epidermis
|
|
sun exposure at what stage of life correlates with BCC vs SCC
|
BCC - early in life
SCC - decade preceding Dx |
|
how should SCC of the mastoid be treated
|
mastoidectomy or temporal bone resection -> PORT
|
|
what LN regions are most commonly involved in SCC of skin
|
upper cervical and deep parotid regions
|
|
when treating with electrons, how deep should the 90% isodose line extend in relation to the lesion
|
5-10 mm deeper than the lesion
|
|
what is more common on the external ear - BCC or SCC? Internal/canal?
|
external: BCC
internal: SCC |
|
what is the sex predilection for skin cancer
|
males > females (4:1)
|
|
when treating skin lesions with electrons, what rule is employed to choose the correct beam energy
|
3 times the lesion depth (for 2 cm ~ 9 MeV beam needed)
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when should surgery be recommended for pinna skin cancer lesions?
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when cartilage is invovled or with tumor extension to the canal
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what is bowen disease
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SCC in situ
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what genetic/inherited disorders are associated with skin cancer
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phenylketonuria, golrin syndrome, xeroderma pigmentosa, and albinism
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what is dental wax used for
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to absorb the back scatter from incident photon beam
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what type of UV ray (A or B) is most responsible for skin cancer
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B
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what are 4 indications for adjuvant RT to the primary site with skin cancer
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positive margin
PNI of nerve > 3 cm lesion or T4 parotid SCC |
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what is erythroplasia de Querat
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Bowen (SCC in situ) of the penis
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which pts with vulvar cancer do not require inguinal lymphadenectomy
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in setting of no clinically suspicious nodes, with depth of invasion < 1 mm and no LVSI or high grade
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what is biopsy approach for small (< 1 cm) vulvar lesions
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excisional biopsy with a 1 cm margin, including skin, dermis, and connective tissue
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risk of inguinal LN involvement based on vulvar cancer FIGO stage
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I: 15%
II: 40% III: 60% IV: 90% |
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neoadjuvant CRT in unresectable vulvar cancer; what is its results? (converted to resectable diseas)
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GOG 101: 73 pts w/ unresectable vulvar given cis/5FU + 47.6 Gy and 97% converted to resectable disease
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indications for bilateral groin and pelvic irradiation in vulvar cancer (which trial answered)
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pts w/ >= 2 micro mets in inguinal nodes
single node > 5 mm single node w/ ECE (discovered in the Homesley trial) |
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what was the randomization and benefit outcomes in the Homesley study for vulvar cancer
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pts s/p radical vulvectomy+bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy randomized to inguinal/pelvic RT versus pelvic node dissection (if node +)
reduction in recurrence rate (24 -> 5) and improvement in OS (54 -> 68) All benefits of RT were for > 1+ node |
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how should the primary of a patient with FIGO stage I or II vulvar cancer be treated
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WLE (2 cm margin)
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txt strategy for unresectable vulvar cancer
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chemoRT - 66-70 Gy w/ cisplatin/5FU
+ margin: 63-66 Gy adjuvant: 50.4 Gy |
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risk of inguinal LN involvement based on DOI of vulvar cancer: < 1 mm, 1-3, 3-5, > 5 mm?
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< 1 mm: 5%
1-3 mm: 8% 3-5: 27% > 5 mm: 35% |
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what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that extends to the the lower 3rd of the urethra
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I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE) IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs) |
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what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that is 3 cm with < 1 mm stromal invasion confined to the vulva
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I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE) IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs) |
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what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that is 4 cm that invades the upper vaginal mucosa w/ 2 LNs < 5 mm
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I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE) IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs) |
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what are the relative indications for adjuvant RT to the primary site following WLE for vulvar cancer
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posiive margins or close (< 8 mm fixed specimen or < 1 cm by frozen section)
LVSI DOI > 5 mm |
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what is the 5 yr OS for stage III (FIGO) vulvar cancer?
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70%; I - 90%, II - 80, III - 70, IV - 20
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how are inguinal nodes treated in vulvar cancer stage IA? IB? II?
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IA: lymphadenectomy not necessarcy ( < 2 cm and < 1 mm stromal inv) can consider if high grade or LVSI
IB: unilateral vs bilateral depending on laterality II: bilateral lymphadenectomy |
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what % of vulvar cancers are locally advanced
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30%
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What was the GOG 88 trial that looked at N0 vulvar patients s/p radical vulvectomy? Criticisms of GOG 88 - vulvar trial that looked at inguinal LND vs inguinal irradiation
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GOG88 (Stehman) - randomized to bilateral inguinal femoral and pelvic LND (+ nodes rcv RT) vs bilat groin only EBRT (50 Gy); LR, PFS, and OS favored the lymphadenectomy arm
CT no used for staging and 50 Gy may not be adequate for pts w/ gross nodes CT not required for RT planning; pts were treated with electron fields (prescribed to a depth of 3 cm) |
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most common histology of vulvar cancer? 2nd most common?
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SCC or melanoma
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what are the 2 strongest predictors of LN involvement in vulvar cancer
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tumor grade and depth of invasion
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what is the function of HPV-associated oncoproteins
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thought that HPV-associated oncoproteins bind and inactivate tumor suppressor proteins such as Rb, p53, and p21
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which subsites does vulvar cancer most commonly arise
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70% of vulvar cancers arise fro mthe labia majora/minora
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Describe the "pair of pants" technique to treat vulvar cancer
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3 AP fields and 1 PA field. AP - pelvic field and left and right inguinal fields; PA - the pelvic field. Beams are weighted so that both the isocenter within the pelvis and the groins receive 100% of the dose
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what are the 7 subsites of the vulva
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labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal vestibule, perineal body, and posterior forchette
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Risk factors for vulvar cancer (11)
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increasing age, HPV, VIN, bowen dz, paget dz, erythroplasia, chronic vaginitis, leukoplakia, smoking, employment in laundry facilities, immune deficiency
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what are the late toxicities associated with irradiation to the vulva and inguinal nodes
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vaginal atrophy, itching and discharge, SBO, and femoral neck fracture
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is the staging system for vulvar cancer surgical or clinical
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surgical
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what are the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd echelon LN regions in vulvar cancer? Which subsite is associated with skip nodal mets?
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1st: superficial inguinofemoral
2nd: deep inguinofemoral and femoral 3rd: external iliac LNs clitoris can skip |
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what are the most common presenting symptoms of pts with vulvar cancer
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pruritis, vulvar discomfort or pain, dysuria, oozing or bleeding, and difficulty with defacation
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what does is desired for EBRT +brachytherapy for vaginal cancer
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70-80 Gy
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increased risk for clear cell adenocarcinoma is linked with what exposure
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DES - diethylstilbestrol
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contrast the nodal drainage of the upper 2/3rds of the vagina nad the lower 1/3rd of the vagina
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upper 2/3rd - obturator, internal, external, and common iliac nodes
lower 1/3rd - inguinofemoral noeds |
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when working up a presumed vaginal cancer primary, what other 3 sites should be evaluated for cosynchronous in situ or invasive disease
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cervical, vulvar and/or anal
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in general, what is the preferred treatment modality for vaginal cancer
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definitive RT (surgery possible for early stage I lesions)
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what is the 5 yr pelvic disease control for vaginal cancer by stage: I, II, III/IVA
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I: 85%
II: 85% III/IVA: 70% (DSS: 85%, 80%, 60%) |
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what is the FIGO stage for a vulvar cancer that is 4 cm and extends to the pelvic side wall? DMs?
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0: CIS
I: vaginal wall II: paravaginal tissue but not pelvic sidewall III: pelvic sidewall IVA: mucosa of bladder/rectum and/or directly outside the pelvis IVB: DMs |
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what % of cancers involving the vagina are not primary vaginal cancers
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75%
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what type of vaginal sarcoma is most common in adults? In children?
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adults: leiomyosarcoma
children (<6 yo): embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma |
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what is the most common histology for vaginal cancer? Other types of rare vaginal cancer histologies?
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squamous cell carcinoma; others - melanoma, sarcoma, lymphoma, adenoCA, and clear cell adenoCA
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a vaginal cancer is never considered a vaginal primary if it involves either of what structures
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vulva or cerix
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what are 3 appropriate treatments for vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia (VAIN) (besides RT)
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surgical excision, laser vaporization, and topical 5 FU
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VAIN is multifocal in what percentage of patients
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60%
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where in the vagina is vaginal cancer most often located
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posterior wall; superior 1/3rd of the vagina (must rotate speculum to ensure exam)
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what 3 lifestyle risk factors are associated with increased incidence of vaginal cancer
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# of lifetime sexual partners, early onset of intercourse, and current smoking
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