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1136 Cards in this Set

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risk factors for bladder CA
Smoking, Chronic bladder irritation (nephrolithiasis, UTI, etc), chemical exposures (cytoxan, amino biphenyl, naphthylamines), prior pelvic irradiation, Schistosoma haematobium infection (SCC only)
radical cystectomy involves…
removal of bladder, distal ureters, pelvic peritoneum, prostate, seminal vesicles, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and ant vaginal wall
+ urinary diversion
+ bilateral LND
simulation for bladder CA
supine, with EMPTY BLADDER
indications for intravesical therapy in non-mm invasive dz
indications for adj therapy (intravesical therapy): G2-3, T1, Tis, multifocal or residual dz
nodal staging for bladder CA
N1 single LN in true pelvis (obturator, hypogastric, ext iliac or presacral)
N2 mult LNs in true pelvis
N3 mets to common iliac
Contraindications to bladder preservation with concurrent CRT in pts with bladder CA
hydronephrosis
multifocality CIS
persistently + margin on TURBT
non-TCC histology
inappropriate bladder capacity and function
inability to tolerate chemo
trigone involvement
stage IV dz
pT3b-T4 (relative)
metastatic bladder CA agents
gemcitabine and cisplatin (alt MVAC, taxane, premetrexed)
what % of pts with mm invasive bladder CA achieve a CR after ChemoRT (induction)
~70% (Shipley data)
RT dose for bladder CA
whole pelvis (bladder + LNs) to 40-55 Gy --> tumor boost to 64-66 Gy
what % of newly dx bladder CA are Ta/Tis/T1
70%
% of CR in bladder CA after TURBT alone
~15%
probability of pelvic nodal involvement based on T stage in bladder CA
T0-1: 5%
T2: 18%
T3a: 26% --> T3b: 46%
T4: 42%
what agents used for intravesical therapy
BCG (bacillus Calmette-Guerin): form of immunotherapy
operative mortality rates of radical cystectomy?
5%
strategy for unresectable (cT4, fixed bladder mass, LN+) bladder CA?
chemo x 2-3 +/- RT is administered --> restage (w/ cysto and CT); if resectable, pt should proceed to cystectomy; if not, consolidation chemo +/- RT
is there data to support preopRT --> cystectomy versus definitive RT alone in bladdder CA
Y, randomized trials (below), results favor the surgery arms. Therefore consider preop RT to convert unresectable tumors

Danish National Cancer Group (Sell A et al.)

MDA RCT (Miller et al.)
% of bladder pts metastatic at dx and at what sites?
8%; bone, lungs, or liver
% of pts w/ mm invasive bladder CA achieve a CR after preop chemo
38% w/ MVAC (Grossman et al. NEJM 2003)
pts w/ noninvasive bladder CA that can be observed after max TURBT?
All of the following:
1. completely resected
2. Ta
3. grade 1
4. no residual on urine cytology
side effects of RT in bladder CA
short-term: urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, UTIs,bladder spasms, loose stools, RT dermatitis, fatigue
long-term: hematuria, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, hematochezia, erectile dysfunction, increased risk of fracture, 2nd malignancies
N+ is what stage group in bladder CA
IV ( I, II, III follow T1, 2, 3 (4a)
how does race and gender affect prognosis of bladder CA
blacks and women have poorer prognosis
is there a role for neoadj chemo prior to radical cystectomy in management of locally adv bladder CA (cT2-T3)
yes. Mult RCTs shown SURVIVAL benefit to neoadj chemo prior to radical cystectomy; metaanalysis ~ 5%
how should histologic variants of urothelial carcinomas be treated in bladder CA
agents should be selected tailored to those histologies
5 yr OS for bladder CA based on stage
overall ~50%
0: 98%
I: 88%
II: 63%
III: 46%
IV: 15%
RT fields for bladder CA
Conventional Fields:
anterior field
Superior border: L5-S1 (s2-s3)
Inferior border: bottom of obturator foramen
lateral border: 1.5 cm of pelvic brim
block femoral heads
lateral field
Sup and Inf border same
Anterior border: 1.5-2 cm anterior to bladder
Posterior border: 2.5 cm posterior to the bladder
block anal canal and tissue above symphysis
workup for bladder CA
Cystoscopy
TURBT w/ bimanual exam under anesthesia
urine cytology, evaluation of upper tract (IVP, renal u/s w/ retrograde pyelogram, CT urography, ureteroscopy, or MRI urogram) especially in setting of +cytology and negative cystoscopy
CT, MRI, bone scan (if elevated alk phos)
prognostic factors for bladder CA
1 tumor grade
2 depth of invasion
3 stage
4 histologic subtype
kind of surgical resection for leukoplakia or CIS of lip
vermilionectomy w/ adv of mucosal flap ("lip shave"); excision from vermilion to orbicularis mm
where in the oral cavity do most gingival cancers arise
80% arise from lower gingiva
standard RT field borders for post op TX of oral tongue lesions
anterior: incisors
posterior: vertebral spinous processes
superior: 1.5 cm above dorsum of tongue
inferior: thyroid notch
when is surgery an option for cancers of the lip
lesion involves < 30% and T1 lesion and lesion does not involve the oral commissure (WLE w/ 0.5 cm margin)
Oral cavity lesions predisposed to bilateral LNs
tongue, FOM that are midline
chemo added to PORT for head and neck -
+margin, +ECE, and/or PNI (based on Bernier and cooper)
when is definitive RT used for lip cancers
> 2 cm, large lesions (> 50%), upper lip, or if lesion involves oral commissure
which oral cavity lesion are notorious for skipped nodal mets
oral tongue can go to level IV
overall bilateral nodal involvement rate for oral tongue cancers
5% of oral tongue present w/ bilateral neck dz; if n1-n2 then 30%
common sites for DM for cancers of oral cavity
lung > bone > liver
common LDR/HDR doses for oral cavity implant
LDR: 60-70 Gy (40-60 cGy/hr); HDR: 60 Gy (5 Gy BID x 12 fx)
nodal break down for H&N cancers
N1: single, ipsi < 3 cm
N2a: single, ipsi 3-6
N2b: mult, ipsi 3-6
N2c: bilat, < 6 cm
N3: > 6 cm
common presenting signs of oral cavity lesions
asymptomatic red/raised lesions, ill-fitting dentures, bleeding mass, pain, dysphagia (2/2 tongue fixation), trismus (pterygoids are involved), and otalgia
what oral cavity site has the greatest propensity for LN spread
oral tongue
what beam energy and modifying dose used for oral cavity lesions treated with 2 opposed lats
6 MV w/ 30 degree wedges (heels ant)
what defines stage IVA-IVC oral cavity CA
IVA - T4a or N2; IVB - T4b or N3; IVC - M1
N0 oral cavity is what stage
I and II
overall rate of nodal mets for FOM
20-30%
for RMT/alveolar ridge tumors, when is RT preferred over surgery and vice versa
RT preferred: no bone erosion or if lesion extends to ant tonsillar pillar, soft palate, or buccal mucosa; Surgery preferred if bone erosion --> PORT
when should dental eval be done before RT
10-14 days before starting
workup for oral cavity CA
H&P w/ palpation, direct endoscopy +bx, CBC, CMP, CT/MRI H&N, and CT or PET/CT (chest)
patient presents with tongue deviated to right; which CN
CN XII (hypoglossal) - right is affected
most common location of oral tongue cancers
lateral undersurface
RT dose for Oral cavity CA
PORT: 54 - 66 Gy (+margins); definitive: 54 -> 70 Gy to gross dz (general given opposed lats but now IMRT (T3-T4)
pathologic features that require prophlactic/elective neck management
tumor thickness > 3 mm, grade III Dz, + LVSI, and recurrent lesion
where are neck levels IA-IB located
IA - submental; IB - submandibular
premalignant lesions of the oral cavity and rates of progression
erythroplakia (30% progression) and leukoplakia (10%)
when should bilateral neck irradiation be considered for oral cavity lesions
midline primaries, ant tongue tumors, and ipsilateral LNs
risk of LN involvment for T1-T2 lip, FOM, oral tongue, and buccal mucosa
lip - 5%; oral tongue - 20%; rest 10-20%
where are the level V and VI cervical LNs located
level V - posterior triangle; VI - paratracheal/prelaryngeal
adequate surgical margin for oral cavity CA
1 cm
management approach to hard palate cancer
surgery preferred ; if there is soft palate or RMT can consider definitive RT
pt with oral cavity lesion and ipsilateral ear pain - which nerve
auricotemporal nerve (branch of V3)
what divides the oral tongue from the BOT
circumvallate papillae
risk factors for oral cavity CA
tobacco (smoked or chewed), betel nut consumption, alcohol, poor oral hygiene, and vitamin A deficiency
indications for PORT in oral cavity CA
N2a+, ECE, no neck dissection in high-risk patients, and depth of invasion > 3 mm
most and least commonly invovled site of oral cavity
Most: Lip (45%); Least: hard palate (5%)
what are the sup and inf spans of the cervical level II-IV LNs
level II: skull base to hyoid; level III: hyoid to bottom of cricoid; level IV: cricoid to clavicles
why is a tongue depressor/bite block used in oral cavity
spare the sup oral cavity/hard palate and to surround lateral oral tongue lesion w/ other mucosa to minimize the buildup effect on the lateral surfaces
what must the PORT field include for gingival lesions with PNI
must include entire hemimandible (from the mental foramen to the temporomandibular joint)
posterior border(s) of oral cavity
hard/soft palate and circumvallate papillae
do most lip cancer arise arise from the upper or lower lip
90% arise from the lower lip
borders for standard lat fields for oral tongue
sup: 1-1.5 cm above dorsum of tongue or 2 cm above tumor
inf: thyroid notch
post: spinous process
ant: 2 cm ant to tumor
what % of H%N cancers are oral cavity
30%
side effects of amifostine
hypotension and nausea
what sites of oral cavity is definitive RT preferred
lip commissure, buccal mucosa, and RMT w/ tonsillar pillar involvement (because of better cosmesis with RT)
what is the delphian node
midline prelaryngeal level VI node (often involved in thyroid cancer)
follow up for oral cavity CA, OPX
largnoscopy q3 mos; imaging for signs and symptoms, TSH, speech/hearing/dental, and smoking cess
taste innervation of the tongue: ant and post
ant 2/3rd - CN VII ; post 1/3 - CN IX
mandible constraint for RT
< 70 Gy
indications for PORT in oral cavity to the primary site
+ or close (<2 mm) margin, depth of invasion >2 mm, PNI, T3-4 Dz
recommended time interval btw surgery and PORT for oral cavity cancers
6 weeks
motor and sensory innervation to tongue
motor: CN XII; sensory: CN V
what type of tumors arise from the hard palate
minor salivary gland tumors (adenoid cystic, mucoepidermoid, adenoCA)
what is the wharton duct and where
opens at the ant FOM and drains the submandibular gland
timing of neck dissection after CRT
6-8 wks (12-15 wks if eval by PET/CT)
4 subsites of oropharynx
base of tongue, posterior pharyngeal wall, tonsils, and soft palate
most common presentation of oropharynx CA
neck mass
% of occult nodal mets in OPX
30-50%
are skip mets common for OPX
no, extremely rare
BOT symptoms
sore throat, dysphagia, otalgia, neck mass, hot potato voice
tonsils CA symptoms
sore throat, trismus, otalgia, neck mass
soft palate symptoms
leukoplakia, sorethroat, trismus/perforation, phonation defect w/ advanced lesions
pharyngeal wall symptoms
pain/odynophagia, bleeding
nerve responsible for otalgia: oral tongue, BOT, and larynx/hypopharynx
oral tongue: CN V (auriculotemporal branch) -> preauricular area; BOT: CN IX (Jacobson nerve) -> tympanic cavity; CN X (arnold nerve) -> postauricular area
anterior RT border on conventional lateral field for OPC
ant to hard palat2 and 2n molar inf (or 2 cm beyond tumor)
2 most common histologies encountered in OPX
SCC and NHL
parotid constraint
mean dose to either < 26 Gy
advantages and disadvantages of split field IMRT vs whole field IMRT in H&N cancers
better laryngeal sparing with split-field IMRT techniques; drawback - may have to junction RT dose through involved nodes
PEG tube indication
if weight loss > 10% over 3 mos
dose constraint for the larynx
V50 < 30%
dose constraint for the inner ears
mean < 50 Gy
what 3 structures make up the walls of the tonsillar fossa
ant tonsillar pillar (palatoglossus mm); post tonsillar pillar (palatopharyngeal mm); inf glossotonsillar sulcus
what % of OPX has + LNs and +bilateral LNs
70% and 30%
what surrogate marker of HPV infection can be used as a inderect indication of HPV seropositivity in OPX
p16 staining (E7 inactivates Rb which upregulates p16)
main indication for a neck dissection after definitive CRT for OPX
persistent nodal dz - documented by FNA, CT (4-6 wks), or PET/CT (10-12 wks)
what % of pts receiving cisplatin based chemo will experience hearing loss as a result of ototoxicity
~30%
advantages and disadvantages of "dose painting" vs sequential
advantage: conformality; disadvantage: nonstandard doses/fx are required
what % of failures are locoregional and distant
50% locally; 50% distally
classic inf and post RT fields for OPC
inferior: thyroid notch; posterior: behind spinous process
borders of OPX
ant: oral tongue/circumvallate papillae
superior: hard palate/ soft palate junction
inferior: valleculae
posterior: pharyngeal wall
lateral: tonsil
prevalence of HPV infection in OPX
40-80%
1st echelon drainage region for most OPX
upper jugulodigastric (level II)
indications for PORT in OPX
+margin, ≥ 2 LNs, + ECE, PNI, or LVSI
pt population most likely to present with HPV-related OPX
nonsmoker and nondrinkers
4 extrinsic tongue mm and anatomic spans
genioglossus (ant mandible to tongue), styloglossus (styloid process to tongue), palatoglossus (palate to tongue; also forms ant tonsillar pillar), hyoglossus (hyoid bone to tongue)
hypothesis behind HPV+ OPX having better prognosis
nonmutated p53 (nonsmokers and nondrinker); p53 generally predicts poor response to txt
what HPV serotype most commonly associated with OPX
HPV 16
4 most important risk facgtors for OPX development
smoking, alcohol, HPV infection, betel nut consumption
do HPV + patients with OPX have better or worse prognosis
better
classic sup RT field border for OPX
above mastoid tip, floor of sphenoid sinus (ant), external auditory meatus
how does incidence trend of OPX compare to other H&N sites
increasing while other's are decreasing
risk factors for meningiomas
prior RT, NF-2, and HRT in women
most aggressive grade I meningioma subtype?
angioblastic
when should observation be considered for meningiomas?
for incidental/asymptomatic and stable lesions
typical SRS doses used for meningiomas
12-16 Gy to 50% IDL at tumor margin
anatomic regions where GTR for meningiomas is difficult
cavernous sinus, petroclival region, post saggital sinus, and optic nerve
what is the prevalence of grade II-III meningiomas
roughly 10-15 %; grade II 6%; grade III 4%; grade I 90%
average time to recurrence after surgery for meningiomas
4 years
for meningiomas with what are slower growth rates associated with?
older patients and calcifications
what is latency period of RT-induced meningiomas from the time of XRT exposure
20 years
what % of grade I meningiomas express progesterone receptors
75%
what is the grade classification of meningiomas
grade I - benign, grade II - atypical, grade III - anaplastic/malignant
what % of all primary intracranial tumors do meningiomas account for in adults
15-20% (2nd only to gliomas); most common benign primary tumor
what histologic feature can be seen in meningiomas
psammoma bodies and calcifications
RT dose response datat for meningiomas
goldsmith et al. showed improved PFS with doses > 52 Gy
OS difference in years btw atypical and anaplastic meningiomas
12 --> 3 years
name the histologies associated with who grade II-III meningiomas
grade II- atypical, clear, choroid; grade III - anaplastic, rhabdoid, papillary
what protein is defective in NF2, and to what else does NF-2 predispose
merlin; meningiomas, bilateral neuromas/epndymomas and juvenile subcapsular cataracts
optic chiasm constraint for SRS
8 Gy
most common presentation of meningioma
headache
what % of meningiomas exhibit a dural tail? In what other tumors/lesions can dural tails be seen?
60%; chloroma, lymphoma, and sarcoidosis
5 yr LC for meningiomas after SRS
98% (worse in men and if RT dose < 12 Gy)
negative prognostic factors for meningiomas
high grade, young age, chromosome alterations, poor performance status, STR
age and gender prediliction for meningiomas
late in life (70s) and females (2:1)
RT doses for meningiomas
54 Gy for benign and 60 Gy for malignant tumors
10 yr recurrence rate for meningiomas following GTR and STR
10%, 40%
when should RT be used after surgery for meningiomas
recurrent disease, STR, atypical, anaplastic, or brain invasion
what surgical grading system is used in meningiomas? What does it predict
Simpson grade (I/GTR - IV/STR); likelihood of LR
what types of meningiomas is RT the primary TX modality?
optic nerve sheath and cavernous sinus
T1-T2 glottic cancer treatment options
definitive RT alone, cordectomy, partial laryngectomy, surgery + CRT (+ margin, ECE)
describe T stage of supraglottic larynx
T1: 1 subsite (epiglottis, aryepiglottic folds, false cords, arytenoid cartilage)
T2: 1 adjacent subsite or outside supraglottis (BOT, vallecula, pyriform sinus) w/o fixation of larynx
T3: cord fixation and/or invasion of postcricoid area or pre-epiglottic space
T4a (resectable): through thyroid cartilage, trachea, soft tissue neck, deep/intrinsic mm of tongue, thyroid, esophagus
T4b: invasion of prevertebral space, mediastinum, carotid
what stage of disease do most patient with hypopharynx present with?
stage III or IV (>80%)
what structures must be encomppased by the 95% isodose line when irradiating T1 glottic cancer
TVCs, the FVCs, and superior subglottis
treatment options for patient with advanced hypopharynx CA (T1-3N+ & T4)
T1-3N+: induction chemo -> RT or surgery depending on response
T4: total laryngectomy/largoesophgectomy (w/ CRT for +margin, +ECE)
gender prediliction for each of the hypopharyx subsites
pyriform sinus & post pharynx: M > F post cricoid: F > M
what is the survival/LC numbers for RTOG 9111 which looked at laryngeal preservation in larynx ca (arms: CRT vs chemo -> RT vs RT alone)
5 yr OS was same (55%); 5 yr largnectomy free survival WORSE FOR RT ALONE (35%) vs chemo+RT (con and sequ 45%); LRC also WORSE FOR RT ALONE (50%) and SEQUENTIAL (55%) versus chemo-RT (70%) --> MAKING CHEMO-RT STANDARD
describe T stage for glottic larynx
T1: limited to TVCs w/ normal mobility (a - 1 cord; b - both cords);
T2: extends to supra- or subglottis with impaired vocal cord mobility;
T3: fixed vocal cords;
T4a-b: same
what % of HPC patients have nodal involvement at diagnosis?
75% overall have nodal involvement
what most commonly involved nodal stations in hypopharynx
level II, III, and V and the retropharyngeal nodes
T stage breakdown for subglottic larynx cancer
T1: limited to subglottis; T2: extension of vocal cords, with normal or impaired mobility; T3: limited to larynx with vocal cord fixation; T4a-b: same as others
symptoms of hypopharngeal CA
neck mass, sore throat, hoarseness, and otalgia (CN X involvement/arnold nerve)
incidence of nodal involvement according to T stage of supraglottic (t1/2, T3/4)
T1/2 - 40% ; T3/4 - 60%
stage groupings for larynx, OC, OPX, and HPX
stage I: T1N0; stage II: T2N0; stage III: T3N0 or T1-3N1; IVA: T4a or N2; IVB: T4b or N3; IVC: M1
what are the subsites of hypopharyngeal CA and which is most common?
pyriform sinus (75), post pharyngeal wall (20), and postcricoid (5)
what does total laryngectomy entail
removal of thyroid and cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, and strap mm w/ reconstruction of the pharynx as well as a permanent tracheostomy
what technique can be employed if shoulders getting in way of opposed lateral fields in head and neck CA
caudal tilt technique (both couch tilted away from the gantry by 10 degrees and gantry angulated 10 degrees above horizontal plane) or IMRT
treatment options for pts with early stage supraglottic laryngeal CA
supraglottic laryngectomy, transoral laser resection, or definitive RT
LC rates for glottic CIS after stripping vs laser vs RT (5 years)
75 -> 85 -> 95
incidence of laryngeal CA compared to other H&N
20% of all H&N (most common; 12K)
preferred position of the stoma when using 3 field technique in H&N adjuvant setting
if stoma not being boosted: low anterior neck field will cover and isocenter can be above stoma; if stoma to be boosted: iso set below stoma
what % of hypopharyngeal CA patients present with mets? How man develop mets within 2 years despite treatment?
3%; 25% despite treatment develop mets
benefit of Bonner trial with addition of cetuximab to RT vs rt alone
OS 10%(45 -> 55); LRC 13% (34 -> 47)
what are the nodal drainage pathways of various laryngeal subsites
supraglottic: II-IV; glottic: no drainage; subglottic: pretrachea and delphian (level VI)
anatomic boundaries of the hypopharynx
spans from C4-C6/hyoid bone to the inferior edge of the cricoid cartilage
what % of patients with subglottic cancer present with nodal involvment?
20-50% (40%)
dose fractionation and total dose for CIS and T1 glottic lesions
56.25 for CIS and 63 Gy for T1 lesions at 2.25 Gy/fx
median age for dx of hypopharyngeal CA
60
5 yrs LC and OS for T1-T2 supraglottic lesions
LC: 85%; OS 90%
subdivision of the glottic larynx
ant/post commissures and the true vocal cords
what does loss of the laryngeal click on palpation of the thyroid cartilage indicate
postcricoid extension/involvement
% of patients with nodal disease in supraglottic CA? Bilateral nodal disease?
55% unilateral nodal dz; 15% bilateral nodal disease
main late toxicites after organ preservation for laryngeal CA
speech impairment, dysphagia (1/4th); xerostomia
typical RT dose used for T2 glottic lesions
70 Gy at 2 Gry fx or 65.25 Gy at 2.25Gy fractions
anatomic borders of the subglottic larynx
0.5 cm below the TVCs down to the 1st tracheal ring
possible reasons why european trial showed OS compared to US trial in post operative H&N?
European trials' patients: more + margins (28 vs 18), worse tumor differentiation, more HPX (20 vs 10), and more patients who started RT 6 weeks later
what preserves the voice quality better for early glottic tumors: laser or RT
RT (75 vs 30)
subsites of the larynx
supraglottic, glottic, and subglottic
describe standard RT fields used to treat advanced larynx/hypopharnx
opposed laterals: sup - base of skull ; ant - 1 cm flash; post - bethind spinous process; inf - shoulders ;
low ant neck: sup match with lat fiels, laterally at 2/3rd of clavicular length, inf 1 cm below clavicle (include stoma)
describe hypopharynx T staging
T1: < 2cm or 1 subsite ; T2: 2-4 cm or > 1 subsite ; T3: > 4 cm or fixation of hemilarynx ; T4a: invades thyroid/cricoid cartilage, hyoid bone, thyroid gland, esophagus, or central soft tissue ; T4b: invades prevertebral fascia, carotid aa, or mediastinal structures
subdivisions of supraglottic larynx
epiglottis (suprahyoid and infrahyoid), aryepiglottic folds, arytenoids, and false vocal cords
preferred option for dysplastic lesions of glottic larynx
mucosal stripping and close followup
salvage txt of choice for glottic lesions after RT failure
total laryngectomy +/- neck dissection
patient presentation w/ laryngeal cancer
hoarseness, odynophagia/sore throat, otalgia (via the arnold nerve, CN X), aspiration/choking, and neck mass
classical risk factors for hypopharyngeal CA
smoking, alcohol, betel nut consumption, nutritional deficiency (vit C, Fe deficiency), prior H&N cancer
indications for boosting the stoma w/ PORT
1. emergency tracheostomy 2. subglottic extension 3. ant soft tissue extension
incidence/distribution of laryngeal cancer according to subsite
glottic 70%; supraglottic 30%; subglottic 1%
subsites of hypopharynx?
postcricoid area , post pharyngeal wall, pyriform sinus
what structures are removed with a supraglottic laryngectomy?
FVCs, epiglottis, and aryepiglottic folds
doses recommended for early stage supraglottic cancers
T1: 70 Gy/2 Gy fx; T2: hyperfractionated 76.8 in 1.2 Gy BID or concomitant boost tech to 72 Gy (54 Gy /1.8 Gy fx to area of subclinical dz in last 12 days additional 1.5 Gy dose to gross disease to 72 Gy)
what RT planning technique can be use when treating T1 glottic lesions w/ ant commissure involvement
for T1 generally wedges used; can remove wedges to create "therapeutic" hot spot at area of disease
what % of premalignant leasions (leukoplakia/erythroplakia) progress to invasive laryngeal lesions
20%
treatment options for TIS of glottic larynx
cord stripping/laser excision or definitive RT
acute and late toxicity of RT in laryngeal CA
acute: hoarseness, sore throat, odynophagia, skin irritation ; late: laryngeal edema, glottic stenosis, xerostomia, L'hermitte syndrome, myelitis, laryngeal necrosis
what cervical spine level are hyoid bone and TVCs located
hyoid: C3 and TVCs at C5-6
what is the most superior of the lateral retropharyngeal nodes called
node of rouviere
risk factors for larynx cancer
smoking, alcohol, and voice abuse
RT field for tis/T1 glottic cancer
5 x5 laterals - sup: thyroid notch ; inf: cricoid cartilage; post - ant edge of vertebral body; ant - 1 cm flash of skin
what 3 blood tests needed in workup of suspicious testicular mass
AFP, BHCG, and LDH (CMP)
treatment of stage I good or intermediate risk NSGCT
following orchicetomy 3 options: 1. observation 2. RPLND 3. BEP x 2 cycles (stage IB only)
what is the median age presentation of patients with NSGCTs versus seminomatous germ cell tumors?
NSGCTs are younger (27 yrs) when compared to SGCTs (36) and mixed (33)
risk of positive nodes on RPLND despite negative CT scan in patients with stage I NSCGCT
30%
how should be an NSGCT be definitively diagnosed
diagnosed via a radical inguinal orchiectomy (do not bx a testicular mass)
per NCCN what imaging study should be performed in the workup of a suspicious testicular mass
CXR should be performed; testicular US is considered optional
what is teratoma with malignant transformation?
teratoma w/ malignant transformation histologically resembles a somatic cancer, such as an adenocarcinoma or sarcoma
half life of B-HCG
24-36 hrs
what is the role of RT in the primary Tx of NSGCT?
palliation of metastatic dz; no established role for RT in the primary txt of NSGCT
risk of relapse after orchiectomy alone for stage I good or intermediate risk NSGCT if tumor markers are normal postoperatively
30% risk of relapse
which pts w/ NSGCTs should have a CT chest?
CT chest should be ordered in pt with a positive CT abd/pelvis or abnl CXR
what is the worse histology of NSGCT
choriocarcinoma
how should a pt with pure seminoma histology and an elevated AFP be classified?
considered and treated as an NSGCT pt
what is the most common solid tumor in men age 15-34
germ cell tumor is most common
what did the german testicular study group AUO trial show for patients with stage I NSGCT
randomized 382 pts w/ stage I NSGCT to RPLND vs BEP x 1 cycle; 2yr RFS was 92% w/ surgery vs 99% w/ BEP. BEP superior to RPLND
major toxicity of RPLND
retrograde ejaculation resulting in infertility; nerve-sparing techniques can preserve ejaculation in 95% of cases
per the international germ cell cancer collaborative group, what 5 factors must be met to be classified good-risk NSGCT
testicular/retroperitoneal primary tumor ; no nonpulmonary visceral mets ; AFP < 1000 ; B-HCG < 5000 ; LDH < 1.5 the upper limit of nl
how should pts with stage II NSGCT w/ a + node diagnosed only after RPLND be treated
2 cycles of BEP chemo
how should pts with NSGCT and persistently postive tumor markes after orchiectomy be treated
BEP x 3 cycles or cisplatin/etoposide (EP) x 4 cycles
2 ways teratomas are classified
mature or immature depending on whether it contains adult-type differentiated cell types (mature) or partial somatic differentiation similar to that found in a fetus (immature)
how has the incidence of GCTs changed in past 40 years
more than doubled
how does the presence of a seminoma component influence outcomes in pts w/ histologically confirmed NSGCTs
no major impact on the clinical outcome
how are germ cell tumors classified
seminomatous or nonseminomatous
per the international germ cell cancer collaborative group, the presence of any of which 5 factors leads to classification of poor-risk NSGCT?
1. mediastinal primary tumor ; 2. nonpulmonary visceral mets ; 3. AFP > 10,000 ; 4. BHCG > 50,000 5. LDH > 10
which histology of NSGCT most commonly associated with elevated AFP
yolk sac tumors
5 risk factors for GCTs
prior personal hx of GCT; postive family hx; cryptochidism; testicular dysgenesis; klinefelter syndrome
what % of testicular GCTs are NSGCTs
40%
half life of AFP
5-7 days (a FULL WEEK p)
what imaging study should be ordered postoperatively after dx of NSGCTs
CT abd/pelvis
most common GCT histology in childhood
yolk sac tumros
how is the AJCC staging for NSGCTs different from SGCTs
it is not different
what is the txt of bulky stage II and III NSGCTs
chemo; BEP x 3 cycles or EP x 4 cycles
what is the relapse rate in patients with stage I NSGCT after orchiectomy --> RPLND
5-10%
name 5 histologic types of NSGCTs
embryonal cell carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, mixed
what 2 familial syndromes other than FAP and HNPCC have been assoc w/ higher risk of developing colon cancer
Cowden and Gardner
where in small bowel does cancer most freq arise?
duodenum > jejunum > ileum
when should individuals with a family hx of colorectal cancer be screened? How frequently?
at 40 yrs old or 10 yrs prior to earliest cancer dx in the family; every 1-5 years
how freq should individuals w/ IBD be screened
every 1-2 years
N staging for small intestine cancers
N1 - 1-3 LNs ; N2 >/= 4 LNs
is smoking a risk factor for colorectal cancer
yes
what is the most common site of mets in rectal cancer
liver (then lung)
initial mutation of what tumor suppressor gene leads to greater chance for developing colorectal cancer? What familial condition is associated with this?
APC; associated with familial adenomatous polyposis
screening options for avg risk individuals for colorectal cancer
colonoscopy (q10yrs), fecal occult blood test (q1yr) and sigmoidoscopy (q5yrs), or doubt contrast barium enema (q5yrs)
most common presenting symptom in rectal cancer
hematochezia
which type of IBD predisposes to colorectal cancer
ulcerative colitis
labs collected for staging workup for colorectal cancers
CBC, Chem 7, LFTs, and CEA
median age for sporadic colon cancer
63
CEA trends for colorectal cancer after surgery and in the setting of relapse
CEA should return to reference range 4-6 weeks following surgery; slow rise suggest LR while rapid suggest metastatic disease
stage groupings for colorectal cancer
I: T1-2 N0 M0
IIA: T3 N0 M0 IIB: T4a IIC: T4b
IIIA: T1-2N1 or T1N2a IIIB: T3-4aN1 T2-3N2a T1-2N2b IIIIC: T4a N2a T3-4a N2b T4bN1-2
IVA: M1a IVB: M1b
what is the "M" staging breakdown for colorectal cancer
M1A - single organ or site ; M1b - mets > 1 organ/site or deposits in peritoneum
median age for rectal cancer
7 th decade of life
which supplements and which drug have shown promise as a chemopreventative agent in colorectal cancer
calcium, vit D, and folic acid supplementation lower risk of colorectal cancer; Aspirin/NSAIDs lower risk of developing colorectal polyps
most powerful predictor of LN involvement in rectal cancer
depth of invasion
what % of colorectal cancer cases are attributable to HNPCC
5%
what is the sup/cranial extent of the rectum and how long is it?
S3 at region of peritoneal reflection; 15 cm long
dietary risk factors of colorectal cancer
rich in fat and low in fiber and antioxidants
T stage for colorectal cancer
T1: submucosa
T2: muscularis propria
T3: invades muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues
T4: a - penetrates to surface of visceral peritoneum b - adheres to other organs or structures
how does Dukes staging compare to AJCC
Dukes A: stage I Dukes B: stage II Dukes C: any nodal involv (stage III)
2 common heritable risk factors for developing colorectal cancer
familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and HNPCC (aka Lynch syndrome)
HNPCC cases (Lynch) have been associated with mutations in what genes
hMLH1 or hMSH2 which regulate mismatch repair
mutation of what oncogene leads to greater chance for developing colorectal cancer
k-ras
what type of adenomas are more likely to progress to invasive rectal cancer
villous adenomas
f/u schedule for colorectal cancer
h&P, CEA q3-6 mos for 2 years then q 6mos for 5 years; CT C/A/P q1year for 3 years; colonoscopy at 1 year, then 3 years, then q5years
did patients in the german study have TME as part of their surgery
yes
what % of rectal patients are technically resectable at presentation
80%
how long after neoadj CRT should surgery be performed for rectal cancer? Why?
6-8 weeks (to allow for downstaging)
NSABP R03 looked at preop vs postop CRT
improved DFS with neoadjuvant CRT 65 vs 53; no diff in LR or OS; pCR was 15%
describe conventional fields for rectal cancer
3 field: PA field - superior at L5-S1; inferior at bottom of ischial tuberosity/3 cm below tumor volume; lateral - 1.5 cm from pelvic inlet; Lateral field - posterior at behind entire bony sacrum; anterior behind pubic syphisis for T3 (in front if T4); sup-inf same as PA
what does the data suggest with regards to adjuvant RT alone in rectal cancer
many RCTs (MRC3, NSABP R-01) that investigated adj RT alone showing improvement in LC only but no improvement in OS, DFS
what did the MRC CR07/NCIC C016 rectal cancer study which looked at preop versus postop therapy find
preop RT (5Gy x 5 fx) then TME surgery versus TME surgery and chemo-RT if + margin; found decrease in LF (11 to 4%) with preop RT and increase in DFS (72 -> 78); no diff in OS
which study compared surgery alone to preop RT in rectal cancer? What did it find, and what were its limitations?
swedish rectal cancer trial compared neoadj RT (25 Gy in 5 fx) to surgery alone and found significant improvement in OS (30 -> 38) and LR(26 -> 9); big critique is lack of TME and high recurrence rate for surgery alone arm (26%)
comparison of preoRT to postop RT (w/o chemo) in rectal cancer ( the Swedish Uppsala trial) showed what
OS benefit (30 -> 38)and improved LR rates (22-> 13%) with preop RT; lower SBO rates (11 -> 5)
can use of TME obviate the need for neoadj RT for rectal cancer
no; TME does not offset the benefit of neoadj RT based on Dutch TME study (peeters et al.) which compared TME alone to neoadj RT -> TME. There was no OS benefit but decreased LR rate (11 -> 6) with addition of neoadj RT
what is significance of positive circumferential margin at time of surgery for rectal cancer
predicts for inferior LC, DM, and OS rates
what was the RT dose/ fractionation in the dutch and swedish rectal cancer studies? How long after the completion of RT do patients go to surgery?
5 Gy x 5 fx = 25 Gy; 1 week
what structures should be included within the RT field for rectal cancer
tumor bed (+2-5 cm margin) and presacral/internal iliac nodes
which border is not altered for the cone down fields in the treatment of rectal cancer
poster border on the lateral fields usually stays the same (behind the bony sacrum) for the cone down portion; given the high rate of LR in this region
what is the pattern of failure for rectal cancer historically after surgery alone
locoregional
when is IORT indicated for rectal cancer and what is the dose?
close/+margin or as an additional boost (esp w/ T4tumors or recurrent tumors); typical dose is 10-15 Gy
treatment paridigm for nonmetastatic rectal cancer
T1-2N0: upfront surgery +/- adj CRT; T3-T4 or N+ neoadj CRT -> surgery and adj 5FU/leuc or FOLFOX
when should adj CRT be given after surgery for rectal CA
4-6 weeks
historical approximate LR for T3-4 or N1 rectal cancer after surgery alone
~25%; with modern (TME) techniques LR 11% (decreased further with neoadj chemo-RT to 5%
what major study investigated the role of adj RT in colon cancer? What was its findings? Limitations?
INT 0130 trial which compared adj chemotherapy to adjuvant chemoRT in colon cancer; found no difference in OS or LC w/ addition of RT; study was underpowered to show a diff btw groups
how do the toxicities of continuous infusion 5FU and bolus 5FU in rectal CA differ
continous is associated w/ greater GI toxicity; bolus with greater hematologic toxicity
major studies that established role for adj Chemo-RT in rectal cancer
GITSG and Intergroup/NCCTG
how should rectal patients be simulated for RT
CT simulation in the prone position, on a belly board, and with a full bladder (optional placement of anal/vaginal markers and/or rectal contrast)
what 3 toxicities were worse with neoadj RT in the swedish rectal cancer trial
median bowel movement frequency, fecal incontinence, and impaired social life
chemo of choice for rectal cancer and how is it given?
5FU (225 mg/m2) concurrently via continuous infusion (shown improved 4 yr OS when compared to bolus)
indications for adjuvant chemo-RT after surgical resection of rectal cancer?
high risk T1 lesions (poorly diff; margin < 3 mm; > 3 cm in size; LVSI); T2 after local excision; All T3-T4 or N+ cancer after LAR or APR
what did all pts in the german rectal cancer trial receive after surgery or CRT
4-5 cycles of bolus 5FU (at 4 weeks)
what % of pts receiving neoadj CRT will be overtreated b/c of having stage I disease instead of the presumed more advanced disease in rectal cancer (specifically german trial)
18% of pts will be overtreated with neoadj CRT (because of EUS suggesting T3-4 or N+ disease) which is derived from german trial's postop arm and found that on path 18 % actually had T1-2 disease and did not require CRT
sogms amd symptoms of RT in rectal CA; time frame
6-18 mos; diarrhea (bloody), colicky abd pain, and n/v; less common - SBO, fistulas, bowel perforation, and severe bleeding; bowel malabsorption; damage to the ileum (impair resoprtion of vitamin B12 and bile acid)
major criticism of german rectal cancer trial
only 54% of pts in adjuvant arm received full RT dose (versus 92% in neoadjuvant arm)
surgical options for rectal cancer pts
local excision (transanal excision), abdominoperineal resection (APR), or low anterior resection
german rectal study looked at neoadjuvant chemoRT versus adjuvant chemoRT, what were its findings?
benefit of neoadjuvant chemoRT w/ regards to LR (13 -> 6); fewer toxicities; and better sphincter preservation (19 -> 39)
what study looked at paraaortic radiation in rectal cancer? Conclusion?
EORTC; no benefit w/ OS, DFS, or LC
what additional nodal chain needs to be covered in the RT fields with T4 rectal cancer
external iliac nodes (because of bladder, vaginal or uterine invol)
when can RT be considered for colon cancer? What dose
fixed T4 colon cancer or w/ close/+margin 45-50.4 Gy
pathologic CR rate for preop CRT for rectal cancer
8%
what should the small bowel RT dose be limited to in rectal cancer
45 Gy
did patients in the german rectal cancer trial have TME in their surgeries
YES
what does TME important, surgically?
reduces rate of positive radial margin and improves LC
criteria for local excision (transanal excision) alone in rectal cancer
T1, < 3 cm, < 3 mm depth, involves < 1/3rd rectal circumference, N0 by EUS or MRI, low-grade, no LVSI………..reliable patient
major late complication of neoadj RT in the swedish rectal cancer trial
SBO
what was the sphincter preservation rate in the neoadj CRT arm in the german rectal cancer trial
39%
negative prognostic factors for endometrial cancer
LVSI,
age > 60,
grade,
deep myometrial invasion,
tumor size,
lower uterine segment involvement,
anemia,
poor karnofsky performance status
protective factors for endometrial cancer
combination oral contraceptives and physical activity
PORTEC 1 - arms? +LND/-LND?
observiation vs pelvic RT
no lymphadenctomy
LRR decreased from 14 -> 5; no difference in 10 yr OS
75% of LRs were in the vaginal vault;
indications for PA node sampling in endometrial cancer
- gross PA disease
- positive pelvic LN
- gross adnexal mass
- more than 1/3rd myometrial involvement

25% of patients have these features
LDR and HDR prescriptions for IC brachytherapy for endometrial cancer
30 Gy LDR and 5Gy x 3 fx (15 Gy) at 0.5 cm depth
stage II endometrial CA what adjuvant therapy
pelvic RT followed by VB (chemo for Grade 3)
describe whole pelvic RT fields for endometrial cancer
superior L4-5
inferior bottom of obturator foramen
lateral 1.5-2 cm lat to pelvic brim
anterior front of symphisis
posterior split sacrum at s3
adj therapy for sugically stage stage III endometrial cancer
adj chemo +/- RT should be given
please describe stage IA endometrial cancer
limited to endometrium or less than 1/2 of myometrium
please describe stage IB endometrial cancer
limited to greater than 1/2 of myometrium
please describe stage II endometrial cancer
invades stromal cervix but no extension beyond uterus (endocervical cervix DOES NOT COUNT)
please describe stage IIIA endometrial cancer
involves serosa and/or adnexa by direct extension
please describe stage IIIB endometrial cancer
vaginal involvement or parametrial involvement
please describe stage IVA endometrial cancer
invades bladder mucosa (bullous edema is not sufficient) and/or bowel mucosa
what is resected in modified radical hysterectomy
removal of uterus and 1-2 cm of vaginal cuff;
wide excision of parametrial and paravaginal tissues (including median one half of cardinal and uterosacral ligaments)
ligation of uterine artery at ureter
what determines the grade of endometrial tumors
grade depends on the GLANDULAR component
G1: < 5 % nonsquamous solid growth pattern
G2: 6-50% nonsquamous solid growht pattern
G3: >50% nonsquamous solid growth pattern
the NSGO-EORTC trial randomized high risk endometrial cancer to RT vs RT+chemo what were the results w/ regards to progression free survival?
favored chemotherapy 75 -> 82%
surgical staging of endometrial cancer
vertical incision
peritoneal washing/cytology (controversial)
exploration of all peritoneal surfaces with biopsy any lesion
TAH/BSO
uterus bivalved in OR
omental biopsy
sampling of pelvic LNs
risk factors for endometrial cancer
exogenous unopposed estrogen, endogenous estrogen (obesity, functional ovarian tumors, late menopause, nulliparity, chronic anovulation/polycystic ovarian syndrome), tamoxifen, advancing age (75% postmenopausal), hereditary (HNPCC), family hx, hypertension?
3 layers of uterine wall
endometrium, myometrium, and serosa
at what RT dose does sterilization occur in women?
occurs at 2-3 Gy
how should inoperable endometrial cancer be treated
consider pelvic RT to 45 Gy --> intracavitary RT boost using 2 tandem intrauterine applicators to 6.3 Gy x 3 fx prescribed to 2 cm depth (serosal surface); If pelvic RT is contraindicated, consider definitive intracavitary RT alone
pirmary lymphatic drainage of the uterus
parametrial, internal and external iliac, obturator, common iliac, presacral

para-aortic nodes (fundus)
adjuvant therapy indicated for endometrial cancers limited to the endometrium
none (except for grade 3 - consider VC)
japanese GOG study looked at stage II-III endometrial CA randmized to ?
chemo (CAP) vs pelvic RT;
no difference in PFS, OS, or toxicity
in high-intermediate risk patients (stage I, age > 70 or grade 3; stage II or +cytology) there was an increase in progression free survival (66 -> 84)
2 forms of endometrial cancer ?
type I: endometrioid, 70-80%, estrogen related
type II: nonendometrioid, typically papillary serous or clear cell, high grade, not estrogen related, aggressive clinical course
describe design and results of Aalders Norwegian study looking at stage I endometrial cancer s/p TAH/BSO
all patients got VB then randomized to observation vs pelvic RT;
pelvic RT decreased LC (7 -> 2) but more DM (5 vs 10); no diff in OS
in subset of pts with invasion of 1/2 or more and G3 (improved OS by 10% and improved LR 5->20%)
when is D&C recommended in endometrial cancer
if endometrial Bx is nondiagnostic
what is the nordic-EORTC in highrisk endometrial cancer (hogberg et.)?
surgical stage I-II, positive cytology or positive pelvic LNs; randomized to pelvic EBRT (+/- VB) + / - chemotherapy (variety of regimes allowed)
5 yr PFS favored the RT + chemo arm (75 -> 82)
what % of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding have endometrial CA
5-20%
what is the sensitivity and specificity of endometrial bx
95% sensitivity; 85% specificity
what is the RT tolerance of the proximal and distal vagina
proximal: 120 Gy
distal: 100 Gy (98 Gy)
what % of endometrial cancers are adenocarcinoma
80%
what are the most aggressive histologies of endometrial cancer
papillary serous, clear cell, and pure squamous
describe design and results of GOG 99 study in endometrial cancer
randomized patients to observation vs pelvic RT (patients had a pelvic and PA node sampling) with improvement of LR 12 -> 3%
what is removed in a TAH
uterus and small rim of vaginal cuff
when do inguinal nodes need to be included in the RT fields for endometrial cancer
in cases of distal vaginal involvement
resected in radical hysterectomy?
- resection of uterus and upper vagina
- dissection of paravaginal and parametrial tissues to pelvic sidewall
- ligation of uterine aa at its origin at int iliac
- dissection of pelvic LNs
risk of LN involvement by depth of invasion and grade per GOG 33 (creaseman) in endometrial cancer
endometrium involv (all grades): < 5%
inner or middle 1/3rd (all grades): 5-10%
outer 3rd: G1 - 10%, G2 - 20%, G3 - 30%
what % of endometrial cancer patients w/ positive pelvic LNs will also harbor disease in PA Lns? What is chance of skip mets to PA node alone?
33 % of patients with positive pelvic nodes have PA nodes

~1% have skip mets to PA nodes
ABS recommendations for vaginal brachytherapy: treatment site and depth
endeometriod carcinoma: proximal 3-5 cm of vagina
CCC, UPSC, and stage IIIB: entire vaginal canal

prescribe to 0.5 cm beyond the vaginal mucosa
at what RT dose does ovarian failure occur?
occurs at 5-10 Gy
when should VB begin relative to EBRT
within 1 week
GOG 122 looked at what in endometrial cancer stage III/IV
WART versus chemothrapy (AC); chemo improved overall survival (42 -> 55); PFS (38 -> 50); increased toxicity
risk of PA node involvment based on stage for cervical CA
I: 7
II: 15%
III: 30%
IVA: 40%
what is the most common point of origin for cervical cancer
transformation zone (dynamic area between the original and present squamoculumnar junction)
for stage IB2 cervical cancer patients, what is the advantage of preop CRT compared with preopRT alone (which study)
GOG 123: stage IB2 cervical cancer pts were randomized to preop RT vs chemo-RT -> adj simple hysterectomy

benefit of chemo for pCR 41 -> 52 and OS 74 -> 83
what % HGSIL progress to invasive cancers (ASCUS and LGSIL)
~22% of HGSIL progress to invasive cancer; ASCUS (< 1%) and LGSIL (~5%)
3 common presenting symptoms of cervical cancer
abnl vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, and abnl vaginal d/c
HPV is detectable in what % of cervical cancer
> 99%
what subset from GOG 109 did not benefit from adding chemo to adj RT Post-operative clinical stage IA2, IB, and IIA, s/p radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy, with high risk features (positive pelvic lymph nodes, positive margins, or microscopic involvement of the parametrium). Randomized to RT vs RT+CT
pts with tumors < 2 cm and only 1+ node positive did not benefit from CRT compared to RT alone
name histologic subtypes of adenocarcinoma of the cervix (4)
mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell, and serous
how should HGSIL be managed (following Pap result)?
all patients with HGSIL should undergo colposcopsy with biopsy
what are the benefits of surgery over RT for the treatment of early stage cervical cancer?
shorter txt time
preservation of ovarian function
possibly better sexual functioning after treatement
no 2nd malignancy risk
adverse features after surgery are indications for adj RT alone without chemotherapy in cervical cancer
+LVSI, > 4 cm size, > 1/3rd stromal invasion ; GOG 92 stage IB cervical cancer patients who underwent surgery and had negative nodes but > 1 adverse features; RT decreased recurrence 21 -> 14% (46%) and OS trend 71 -> 80% (NS)
how should LGSIL be managed on pap smear
repeat PAP 6 months later (w/ colposcopy if repeat is abnormal); it can resolve ~40% of the time
what stage of cervical cancer can be treated with brachytherapy alone
stage IA (brachy LDR ~70 Gy or HDR 7 Gy x 5-6 fx) w/ LC of 97%
how is the bladder, rectum and vagina defined on plain film in brachytherapy for cervical cancer
bladder: 5 mm behind pos surface of foley balloon (filled with 7 cc of contrast)
rectum: 5 mm behind the post vaginal wall btw the ovoids at the inf point of the last intrauterine tandem source
vaginal point: lat edge of the ovoids on AP film and mid ovoid on lat film
definitive surgery versus definitive RT for management of early stage (IB-IIA) was looked at in what study and what was found?
Landoni et al. Looked at IB and IIA randomized to class III hysterectomy (radical hysterectomy) versus RT;
OS (83) and DFS (74) were equal; 64% of surgery pts received adj RT;
grade 2-3 morbidity was higher in surgery arm 28 vs 12%
what subset of cervical patients can be treated with simple hysterectomy alone?
stage IA1; (IA2 or higher should get radical hysterectomy w/ pelvic LND)
mean age of cervical cancer
47
what % of cervical cancer are SCC vs adenocarcinomas
70 % SCC vs 25% adenocarcinoma
where is point B in cervical cancer brachytherapy? What does it represent? How is the does related to the dose to point A?
5 cm lateral from the midline at same level of point A (2 cm above the external cervical os);

represents the obturator nodes; usually represented by 1/3rd of point A
what is a radical trachelectomy? Benefits and in what stage?
all cervical cancer removed with margin but the internal os is left behind and stitched close (w/ small meatus for menses);

procedure allows future pregnancy, deliverved via c-section;

reserved for stage IA1 as well as select IA2 and IB1 disease
risk of pelvic LN by stage in cerivcal cancer
I: 15%
II: 30%
III: 50%
IVA: 60%
FIGO staging for cervical cancer
IA: microscopic disease < 5mm DOI and < 7 mm horizontal spread (1 - < 3 mm depth; 2 - 3-5 mm depth)
IB: visible tumor (1 < 4 cm; 2 > 4 cm)
IIA: upper vagina/beyond uterus
IIB: parametria invasion

IIIA: lower 3rd of vagina
IIIB: pelvic side wall involvement

IVA: invades mucosa of bladder or rectum (must be biopsy proven); (does not count bullous edema)
what factors predict nodal involvement in cervical cancer
depth of invasion, FIGO stage, and LVSI
what HPV subtypes cause most cases of benign warts
subtypes 6 and 11
what subset of patients should you add PA fields in cervical cancer? What 2 studies looked at EFRT?
1. patients with PA disease 2. pts w/ positive pelvic nodes who are not receiving chemotherapy

RTOG 7920 (Rotman et al.) pelvic RT verus EFRT alone; addition of PA field improved 10 yr OS (44 -> 55) w/o improvement in LC or DM; increased toxicity 4 -> 8

RTOG 90-01 (Eifel et al.) pelvic chemo-RT versus EFRT (included advanced cervix and + pelvic LN patients)
chemo RT improved OS (41-> 67), DFS (46-61), LRF and DM
what does ASCUS stand for and how should it be managed?
atypical squamous cells of unknown significance; repeat pap in 6 months then colposcopy if abnormal again
for patients with bulkly (> 4 cm) early stage cervical cancer, is there an advantage to adding adj hysterectomy to definitive RT?
no OS and trend to improved LR benefit;

questions answered in GOG 71(Keys et al) trial; patients with > 4 cm tumors randomized to RT alone vs RT + adj hysterectomy
no diff in OS or severe toxicity; trend to improved LR (RT 26 vs surgery 14)

option is to give upfront CRT and assess for response at 2 months; if residual disease present then can salvage
what are the typical dose rates in cervical cancer for LDR and HDR
LDR: 0.4 - 0.8 Gy/hr
HDR: 12 Gy /hr
local extension sites of cervical cancer
corpus, parametria, and vagina
what imaging studies are allowed in FIGO staging of cervical cancer?
CXR, IVP, and cystoscopy, proctoscopy, and hysteroscopy
name 3 procedure-related complications seen in cervial cancer intracavitary brachytherapy
uterine perforation (< 3%), vaginal laceration (< 1 %), DVT (<1%)
where is point A and what should it correspond to anatomically?
point A is 2 cm above the external cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the central canal/tandem; corresponds to the paracervical triangle where the uterine vessels cross the ureter
estimate risk of pelvic LN involvment based on depth of cervical cancer invasions: < 3 mm, 3-5, 6-10, and 10-20 mm
< 3mm: 1%
3-5 mm: 5%
5-10 mm: 15%
10-20 mm: 25%
major indications for adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer (chemo-RT)
+/- close margin, LN mets, microscopic parametrial invasion
what % of cervical cancers are HPV 16 and 18 positive
> 70%
what % reduction in mortality has been achieved with PAP screening for cervical cancer
~70% reduction
acute side effects associated with RT for cervical cancer
pruritis, desquamation, hemorrhoids, colitis, cystitis, vaginitis/ulceration, candidiasis, and nausea
when should treatment of inguinal nodes be considered in cervical cancer
when there is lower 1/3rd vaginal involvement
what should the dose to point A be in cervical cancer by stage?
stage IA: 65-75 Gy
stage IB-IIB: 75-85 Gy
stage III-IVA: 85-90 Gy
in cervical cancer brachytherapy - what are the dose limits to the bladder, rectum and vaginal points
rectal 75 Gy; bladder 80 Gy; max vaginal point 120 Gy
what is the difference btw class II and class III radical hysterectomy?
extent of dissection; class II dissected to just medial of ureters with removal of parametrial tissues:

class III is dissection to pelvic sidewall + LND with removal of upper 1/2 of vagina (only vaginal cuff in class II)
what dose can cause ovarian failure? Sterility?
ovarian failure 5-10 Gy; sterility 2-3 Gy
name 3 routes of lymphatic drainage from cervix (lateral, posterior, post-lat)
lateral: external iliac nodes
posterior: common iliac and lat sacral nodes
post-lat: internal iliac nodes
risk factors for cervical cancer
early onset of sexual activity
multiple partners
exposure to high risk partners
hx of STD
smoking
parity (high)
prolonged use of oral contraceptives
longterm side effects of cervical cancer RT
vaginal stenosis, ureteral stricture, fistula, SBO, and femoral head fractures
most important prognostic factor in cervical cancer
tumor stage
how should patients with preinvasive cervical cancer (HGSIL or CIN III) be managed
colposcopy -> conization, LEEP, laser, cryotherapy, or simple hysterectomy
5 year OS for cervical cancer ased on stage
I: 80
II: 65
III: 40
IV: 15
what dose RT would you give a group III, N0 rhabdomyosarcoma of the uterus, vagina, cervix following CR to induction chemotherapy?
NONE, no RT indicated in these special sites
what is the seminal trial that 1st supported chemotherapy in rhabdomyosarcoma
Heyn et al. Found vincristine and actinomycin D improved OS after surgery (compared to observation)
3 issues in treating extremity site in rhabdomyosarcoma
1. evaluate regional nodes
2. include scar and drains
3. spare strip of skin or portion of joint/epiphysis
non-parameningeal H&N sites
scalp, cheek, parotid, oral cavity, oropharynx, and larynx
how does age factor into the prognosis of metastatic embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma?
> 10 yo is worse than < 10 yo
what sites require LND b/c of high propensity for LN mets in rhabdomyosarcoma?
prostate, paratesticular, bladder, nasopharynx, extremities
what factors make parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma high risk?
subarachnoid space involvement w/ skull base erosion, CN palsy, intracranial extension
does WBRT prophylaxis have a role in CNS relapse in rhabdomyosarcom?
no; answered in IRSIII
paratesticular rhabdomyosarcoma arises from what
distal spermatic duct
what dose of RT would you give for a patient with stage III, group I embryonal rhadomyosarcoma? What about alveolar type?
NO RT for all embryonal group I patients; 36 Gy for alveolar group I (unfav histology)
what has a better prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma tumors: hyperdiploid or diploid?
hyperdiploid better (embryonal) than diploid (alveolar)
age peaks in rhabdomyosarcoma and their associate histologies?
2-6 years (embryonal) and 15-19 (alveolar)
3 year OS for rhabdomyosarcoma for unfavorable sites
70%
what are the most common sites for rhabdomyosarcoma
H&N (PM > orbit > non-PM) > GU > Ext/trunk
what 2 "sites" of H&N rhabdomyosarcoma would you not recommend surgery
orbit and parameningeal sites
what translocations are associated with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma? Which genes are involved in the fusion?
t(2:13) (70%), t(1:13) (20%)

PAX3 or PAX7 w/ FKHR
what is the most common origin of rhabdomyosarcoma?
mesenchymal stem cells
what is the order of 5 yr OS for these subtypes of rhabdomyosarcoma: alveolar, undifferentiated, botryoid, embryonal, spindle cell
botryoid > spindle cell > embryonal > alveolar > undifferentiated (95 - 85 - 65 - 55 - 40)
where do most failure mostly occur after treatment for rhabdomyosarcoma? What is the #1 prognositc factor for LF?
local failure; LN positivity biggest predictor
most important cytogenetic tumor marker for rhabdomyosarcoma
myoD
rhabdomyosarcoma: % present with mets; what sites prone to have hematogenous mets?
15%; prostate, trunk and extremities
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - favorable site - group III?
low risk (embryonal + fav site + any group)
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group I-II
low risk
what risk group is: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group III?
intermediate risk
what risk group is: alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma - unfavorable site - group I-III
intermediate risk (unfav histology, any site, group 1-III
what radiation would do you give to N+ rhabdomyosarcoma?
if R0-1 - 41.4 Gy; if gross disease 50.4 Gy; RT never omitted for node + disease
4 major types of rhabdomyosarcoma?
embryonal (classic, spindle cell, and botryoid), alveolar, pleomorphic, and undifferentiated
what specific workup studies are needed for parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma
MRI brain, CSF cytology (neuroaxial MRI if +)
genetic syndromes and environmental risk factors associated with rhabdomyosarcoma
genetic: beckwith-wiedermann syndrome, li fraumeni, and NF-1

environmental: parental marijuana/cocaine use and prior RT
what histologic type is most common in head and neck rhabdomyosarcoma? GU? Extremities/trunk?
H&N: embryonal
GU: botryoid
ext/trunk: alveolar
what is the most common site of metastatic disease in rhabdomyosarcoma?
bone > BM > lung
which rhabdomyosarcoma site has the highest risk for LN mets
prostate (40%)
what is treatment paradigm for rhabdomyosarcoma?
generally: max safe resection (or bx alone) -> chemo +/- RT (timing depends of risk groupings)
what is the major side effect of VAC besides myelosuppression? VAC - vincristine, adriamycin, cyclophosphamide
veno-occlusive disease of the liver
what chemo regimens are commonly used for rhabdomyosarcoma
VAC - vincristine, actinomycin, cytoxan
IE - ifosfamide, etoposide
what are the favorable organ sites?
orbit, non-PM H&N, non-prostate/bladder GU, biliary (BHOG)
TNM criteria for rhabdomyosarcoma
T1 (confined to anatomic site of origin): a ≤ 5 cm; b > 5 cm
T2 (ext or fixed to adjacent tissue): a ≤ 5 cm; b > 5 cm
N1: regional node involvement
most rhabdomyosarcoma present with what group of disease?
most (50%) present with group III disease
what is the dose limit to the lungs, if less than one half of the combined lung volume is in the PTV?
15 Gy (in 1.5 Gy / fx)
summarize the clinical grouping for rhabdomyosarcoma
I: R0 resectin, localized disease
II: R1 resection and/or resected +LN
III: R2 (both primary and +LN) or biopsy only
IV: distant mets
describe staging of rhabdomyosarcoma
stage I: favorable site (any T, any N)
stage II: unfavorable site ( < 5 cm, N0)
stage III: unfavorable site (> 5 cm, and/or N1)
stage IV: M1
what are the parameningeal H&N sites
MMNNOOPP
middle ear
mastoid
nasal cavity
nasopharynx
infratemporal fossa
pterygopalatine fossa
paranasal sinus
parapharyngeal space
most common rhabdomyosarcoma histology in infants? Young children? Adolescents? Adults?
infants: botryoid; young children: embryonal; adolescents: alveolar; adults: pleomorphic
what stage grouping does distal bile duct cancers have in common
pancreatic cancer, including N staging (N0-N1); managed with similar approaches
management of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is managed like what other cancer?
like hepatocellular carcinoma (surgical resection vs local ablation therapy)
what % of cholangiocarcinoma present with LN mets
35-50%
what is preferred surgical management of stage T3-4 gallbladder adenocarcinoma?
radical CCY and regional nodal dissection (porta hepatis, gastrohepatic ligament, and retroduodenal nodes)
what T stage of gallbladder cancer: invades perimuscular connective tissue but not inot liver or beyond serosa
T2
what T stage of gallbladder cancer: tumor invades stomach
T3 (perforates serosa and/or liver and/or 1 adjacent organ/structure
what T stage of galld bladder cancer: tumor invades portal vein or heaptic artery
T4
what is the T staging for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (what is it similar to - don't repeat T stages)
same as primary liver tumor
what % of cholangiocarcinomas present with DM
30%
what surgery should be performed for incidental finding of gallbladder adenocarcinoma on CCY?
radical re-resection of gallbladder bed (2 cm margin), regional nodal dissection, and resection of port site
what are the 3 subsites of cholangiocarcinoma
intrahepatic, extrahepatic and hilar (klatskin tumor)
what % of gallbladder present with DM? What sites (2)?
50%; liver and peritoneal involvement
what 2 medical conditions are most associated with increasing incidence of cholangiocarcinoma?
primary sclerosing cholangitis
ulcerative colitis
what 2 serum markers should be sent for suspected cholangiocarcinoma?
CEA and CA 19-9
what is the imaging study of choice for extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?
MRCP
2 most common presenting symptoms for patients with gallbladder cancer or cholangiocarcinoma?
jaundice and abdominal pain
what t stage for distal bile duct cholangiocarcinoma is tumor that invades liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and/or unilateral branches of portal vein or hepatic vein
T3 (T1 - confined to bile duct; T2 invades beyond bile duct; T4-celiac axis or SMA)
what % of gallbladder present with LN mets? What 4 nodal regions are most commonly involved?
45%; cystic (pericholedocal -> retropancreaticoduodenal), hilar, pericholedochal, and celiac
what subtype of adenocarcinoma is the most common form of cholangiocarcinoma
mucin-producing adenoCA
what subtype of adenocarcinoma has an improved prognosis in gallbladder and cholangiocarcinoma?
papillary adenocarcinoma
is liver transplantation more appropriate for intrahepatic or extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?
extrahepatic (intrahepatic due poorly -> contraindicated)
what common condition is linked with increased risk for gallbladder cancer
cholelithiasis (via chronic inflammation)
what staging procedure is recommended at the beginning of surgery for gallbladder cancer or cholangiocarcinoma?
staging laparoscopy (to r/o peritoneal dissemination)
how is bulkly mediastinal lymphoma disease commonly defined on PA film? How is bulkly disease outside of the mediastinum defined?
mass greater than 1/3rd of the intrathoracic diameter at T5-6 on upright PA film

mass > 5 cm or mass > 10 cm
cytogenetic abnormalities for indolent types of NHL: follicular lymphoma, CLL, and MALT lymphoma?
follicular lymphoma t(14;18) -> Bcl-2

CLL -> t(14,19), trisomy 12, chromosome 13 deletion

MALT lymphoma -> t(11:18)
what is the most common presenting signs or symptoms of NHL?
painless adenopathy; 30% of B symptoms;

waxing and waning adenopathy suggests indolent form of NHL

tumor bulk may cause intestinal obstruction, urinary tract obstruction, or nerve compression
late effects in NHL - use of RT?
coronary artery disease, hypothyroidism, and 2nd malignancies
what lab studies are important in NHL?
cbc, cmp, ldh, beta 2 microglobulin, serum protein electrophoresis, HIV, hep B (may reactivate w/ rituximab tx), hep C

BM biopsy; LP in CNS symptoms, testicular, paranasal sinus, or immunodeficiency
how does the clinical presentation of NHL differ from that of HD
typically involves more nodes at presentation, more likely to be extranodal, more likely to spread in noncontigous fashion, and has prognosis more affected by subtype
how is follicular lymphoma graded
FL is mix of centrocytes (small cells) and centroblasts (large, non cleaved cells); grade correlates to density of centroblasts
what is small lymphocytic lymphoma?
SLL - same as CLL but w/ predominant manifestion in spleen, liver, or nodes (vs peripheral blood or BM)
what is richter syndrome? Rate of occurrence
transformation of SLL/CLL to Diffuse large b cell lymphoma; occurs in 5% of cases
what are B symptoms and definitions?
fever (38 C or 100.4), > 10% weight loss in 6 mos, or drenching night sweats
what % of NHL is indolent and most common subtypes?
35% are indolent; follicular lymphoma > SLL > MALT lymphoma
what grade is mycosis fungoides? Mantle cell? Peripheral T cell? Burkitts?
low grade: follicular (g1-2), CLL, MALT, mycosis fungoides

intermediate grade: follicular (g3), mantle cell, DLBCL, NK Tcell, peripheral T cell, anaplastic large cell

high-grade: burkitt, lymphoblastic
has adj chemo demonstrated a benefit in randomized trials of early stage, low grade follicular lymphoma
NO (5 randomized studies)
what is most common initial multiagent chemo used in management of intermediate/high grade NHL
CHOP-R
cyclophosphamide
hydroxydaunomycin (adriamycin)
oncovin (vincristine)
prednisone
what factors are included in IPI?
APLES: age (> 60), Performance (ECOG > 2), LDH, extranodal group, stages (III-IV)
what are the factors included in FLIPI?
HASEL

Hgb < 12
Age > 60
stage
Extranodal sites (>5)
LDH
what is the role of RT for stage III-IV, low grade FL
palliation of symptoms
current indications for RT in early-stage, intermediate/high-grade NHL
consolidation after 3-4 cycles of RCHOP in fav dz

partial response to chemo

patients with bulky disease
What did the SWOG study compare in intermediate grade NHL
CHOP x 8 cycles versus CHOP x 3 cycles + IFRT
initial report showed benefit OS (10%) eventually disappeared (curves crossed)
standard of care for localized, low-grade follicular lymphoma
locregional RT to 30-36 Gy (can observe or ? Combined modality)
treatment paradigm for advanced stage, intermediate/high grade NHL?
R CHOP x 6-8 cycles; IFRT considered for initially bulky sites
what is the present treatment paradigm for relapsed intermediate/high grade NHL?
high-dose chemo + stem cell transplant
what decade of life is RCC diagnosed
7th decade
environmental risk factors for renal cell carcinoma
cigarette smoking, phenacetin exposure, heavy metal exposure
most common sites of RCC recurrence after nephrectomy?
lung > bone > regional LNs
RCC T-stage: grossly extends into renal vein or its segmental branches, or extends into perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but not beyond Gerota fascia or into adrenal gland? Invades wall of vena cava?
T3a
T3b: extends into vena cava below diaphragm
T3c: extends into vena cava above diaphragm or invades wall of vena cava
RCC T-stage: invades beyond Gerota fascia, including contiguous extension into ipsilateral adrenal gland
T4
Describe T1 and T2 for renal cancer
T1: ≤ 7 cm (a - ≤ 4 cm; b - 4-7 cm)
T2: > 7 cm (a - 7-10; b - > 10 cm)
has incidence of RCC been increasing or decreasing? Sex predilection
incidence has been increasing; Men > women
time frame of recurrence following surgery for RCC
3-5 years after nephrectomy
most common pathologic subtype of RCC
clear cell
% of RCC pts present with bilateral kidney involvement?
3%
RCC represents what % of all urinary tract tumors
6%
what are the 4 pathologic subtypes of RCC
clear cell, chromophilic, chromophobic, collecting duct
what ethnic population is the incidence of RCC significantly higher
people endemic to the Balkan nations have a 50-100 fold increased incidenc of RCC
order the following 5 tissues from outermost to innermost: renal cortex, gerota fascia, adrenal gland, perirenal fat, and renal capsule
gerota fascia -> perirenal fat -> adrenal gland (perirenal fat sup to the kidney) -> renal capsule -> renal cortex
hand foot syndrome is associated with what RCC agent? Mucositis?
sorafenib associated with hand-food syndrome;

sunitive: mucositis
N1 is what stage in RCC? T4?
III (N1); IV (T4)
classic presenting trial of RCC? Other clinical Sx
hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass

(fever, night sweats, and weight loss)
predictors of RCC recurrence after nephrectomy
grade, TNM stage, DNA ploidy, genetic RCC syndromes
name some benign tumors that can exist in the kidney
angiomyolipomas, fibromas, lipomas, lymphangiomas, oncocytomas, hemangiomas
what are some paraneoplastic syndromes associated with RCC?
hypercalcemia, hepatic impairment, hypertension
sporadic RCC is characterized by what genetic mutation
VHL tumor suppression on 3p25
prognostic factors for RCC
TNM stage, performance status, furhman grade
familial RCC makes up what % of RCC cases? What familial syndromes associated with RCC?
3%; von hippel lindau, birt-hogg-dube syndrome, tuberous sclerosis, hereditary papillary RCC, HRCC
most common intracranial tumor
brain mets (20-40%)
what CNS tumors have flexner-wintersteiner rosettes?
pineoblastoma and RB (any PNET)
what structure produces CSF
choroid plexus
what CN exits on the dorsal side of the brain (midbrain)
CN IV exits on the dorsal side of the brain
what % of adult astrocytomas are low grade vs high grade
25% low grade vs 75% high grade
what CNS tumor linked to: NF1
optic glioma and JPA
what CNS tumor linked to: NF2
bilateral acoustic neuroma, spinal ependymoma
what CNS tumor linked to: tuberous sclerosis
subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, retinal hamartoma
what CNS tumor linked to: Von hippel-lindau
hemangioblastoma
what CNS tumor linked to: cowden sndrome
meningioma
what CNS tumor linked to: gorlin syndrome
medulloblastoma
what CNS tumor linked to: turcot
medulloblastoma, glioblastoma
what CNS tumor linked to: RB
pineoblastoma
what CNS tumor linked to: ataxia telangiectasia
CNS lymphoma
what CNS tumor linked to: pituitary adenoma
MEN 1
what common defect does tumor involving the cavernous sinus produce?
CN VI palsy (no abduction of the lateral rectus)
what tumors present with a dural tail sign
meningioma, (also chloroma, lymphoma, and sarcoidosis
where does the spinal cord end? The thecal sac?
in children at L3-4 and adults L1-2; the thecal sac ends at S2-3 in both
which foramen does CN VII travers the skull base
stylomastoid foramen
what receptors are commonly overexpressed in gliomas?
EGFR and PDGFR
brain region associated with receptive aphasia
Wernicke's area - left temporal lobe at the post end of the lateral sulcus
what structures pass through the foramen spinosum
middle meningeal artery and vein;
what nerve passes through the foramen ovale
V3
neural stem cells express which marker? Importance?
CD 133 - thought to be precursors for astrocytomas
strongest risk factor for developing CNS tumor
ionizing RT
2 most common type of primary CNS tumor
Glioma (40%) > meningioma (20%)
what components traverse the superior orbital fissure?
CNs III, IV, VI, and V1
how many spinal nerves are there in the spinal cord
31 spinal nerves (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal)
what CNS tumors have psammoma bodies?
meningioma and pituitary tumors (uncommon)
what brain region is associated with expressive aphasia
broca motor area (dominant/left frontal lobe)
what are some late complications of RT to the CNS ?
radionecrosis, leukoencephalopathy, retinopathy, cataracts, endocrine deficits, memorly loss, learning deficits, and hearing loss
what is the genetic mutation in NF-1, which sites does it predispose gliomas?
genetic mutation is chromosome 17; neurofibromin; predisposes to optic/intracranial gliomas
structures in the cavernous sinus?
CNs III, IV, V1, and V2 and internal carotid aa
what cns tumor exhibits verocay bodies
schwannomas
what cns tumor exhibits schiller-duval bodies
yok sac tumors
what structure do CNs VII - VIII pass through?
internal auditory meatus
what CNS tumors tend to have CSF spread?
medulloblastomas (and other blastomas - except astroblastoma/glioblastoma multiforme), CNS lymphoma, choroid plexus carcinomas, germ cell tumors, and mets
acute RT complications in patient receiving RT for CNS tumors
alopecia, dermatitis, fatigue, transient worsening of neurologic symptoms, n/v, otitis externa, seizures, and edema
what passes through the jugular foramen
CNs IX-XI
what is most common malignant CNS tumor in children? Adults?
children: juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
adults: glioblastoma
what nerve passes through the foramen rotundum
V2
4 factors used for grading in the WHO brain tumor grading system
AMEN

nuclear Atypia
cellularity and Mitosis
Endothelial proliferation
Necrosis
most common functional pituitary tumor? 2nd most common? 3rd most common?
prolactinoma (30%) > GH (25%) > ACTH (15%)
what is the definition of micro-, macro-, and picoadenoma?
microadenoma (< 1 cm)

macroadenoma (> 1 cm)
picoadenoma (<0.3 cm)
what is the most common cause of pituitary dysfunction in adults? Children?
adults: pituitary adenoma

children: craniopharyngioma
what are the indications for radiotherapy in the treatment of pituitary tumors?
medically inoperable
persistence of hormone defect after surgery
macroadenoma with STR or decompression
recurrent tumor after surgery
what signs/symptoms do patients with pituitary tumors present?
bitemporal hemianopsia, HA, and oculomotor deficits
how long does it take for hormone normalization to occur after RT for pituitary tumors?
months to years for hormone normalization after RT for pituitary tumros
typical RT doses for fractionated IMRT for pituitary tumors if no gross disease? For gross disease?
45-50.4 Gy; 54 Gy
what is the most common surgical complications after resection of pituitary tumors?
diabetes insipidus (6%) -> hyponatremia and CSF leak
what autosomal dominant syndrome has been associated with pituitary adenomas?
MEN 1 (3 P's - pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas); 11q13 mutant

MEN2
what lab findings are suggestive of GH adenoma?
Growth Hormone > 10 (not suppressed by glucose)

elevated IGF-1
histopathologic description of the cells of nonfunctional pituitary tumors?
the cells of nonfunctional tumors are chromophobic
what hormones are secreted by the ant pituitary vs the post pituitary?
anterior: GH, prolactin, FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH

poster: oxytocin, ADH
what % of pituitary tumors are functional vs. nonfunctional?
75% of tumors are functional
25% of tumors are nonfunctional
poor prognostic factors after surgical resection of GH-secreting tumors?
high preop GH and somatomedin C levels, tumors > 1 cm, and extrasellar extension
what is the tolerance of the optic nerves/chiasm with the use of conventional RT?
with conventional RT, 50-54 Gy
what is Nelson syndrome?
ACTH -secreting adenoma in patients with a hx of adrenalectomy (patient can develop hyperpigmentation of skin due to alpha-melancytestimulating hormone)
what are some poor prognostic factors after transsphenoidal resection of prolactinoma
size > 2 cm
high preop prolactin level
increasing age
longer duration of amenorrhea
how do GH-secreting tumors present? ACTH secreting tumors?
GH: acromegaly, gigantism

ACTH: cushing disease
LC rates of pituitary adenomas after transsphenoidal resection? Better for macroadenomas or microadenomas? LC rate after RT
95%; better for microadenomas

RT: > 90%
what bony structure houses the pituitary
sella turcica
what is considered a normal level of prolactin after RT for pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma)
< 25 ng/mL normal level of prolactin after RT
what do patients with prolactinomas present
galactorrhea, amenorrhea, decreased libido, and infertility (PL > 25)
what pharmacologic agents are used for ACTH-secreting pituitary tumors?
ketoconazole (best)
cyproheptadine (inhibits ACTH secretion)
mitotane (decreased cortisol synthesis)
RU-486 (block glucocorticoid receptor)
metyrapone
when is fractionated stereotactic radiotherapy preferred over SRS for pituitary adenomas?
pituitary lesion is > 3 cm and/or lesion is < 2 mm from the chiasm
what lab abnormalities are noted in cushing disease
high cortisol not suppressed by low-dose dexamethasone and normal or increased ACTH
what is the hormone normalization rate after surgery for hyperfunctioning pituitary tumor?
initially 80%; but decreases to 40%
what histologic features are prominent in prolactinomas?
calcifications and amyloid deposits
what are the physics differences btw gamma knife and linac-based SRS for pituitary tumors?
with GK: less homogenous dose, more precise setup, and less normal tissue treated
what types of surgical resection are used for pituitary tumors and what are the indications
transsphenoidal microsurgery: microadenomas, decompression, debulking of large tumors, reducing hyperfunctioning tumors

frontal craniotomy: large tumors with cavernous sinus invasion or frontal/temporal lobe
what pharmacologic agents are used for GH-secreting pituitary adenomas?
somatostatin, octreotide, pegvisomant (GH receptor antagonist)
what are the indications/benefits of SRS in pituitary adenomas
microadenomas; benefit in better control of hormone secretions
what are the embryonic derivatives of the ant pituitary vs the post pituitary
anterior: rathke pouch

posterior: extension of the 3rd ventricle
what has a better local control after RT for these hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas? ACTH, prolactin, GH
GH (best) > ACTH > prolactinoma
what pituitary tumors have a high recurrence rate after resection? (risk factors)
TSH-secreting tumors (risk factors: thyroid ablation, hashimoto thyroiditis, prior RT/surgery)
most common side effect after RT for pituitary tumors?
hypopituitarism
hypopituitarism after RT which hormone goes first? 2nd? What is TD 5/5?
40-45 Gy; GH levels first, then LH/FSH then TSH/ACTH
what should be done with medical/pharmacologic treatment before initiating RT for pituitary adenomas?
needs to be D/C b/c of lower RT sensitivity with concurrent medical treatment
best way to assess the response to RT in GH-secreting pituitary tumors
monitoring IGF-1 levels
what pituitary tumors are more common in males and the elderly? Females?
males/elderly: nonfunctioning or GH

females: prolactin and ACTH
whats more common micro or macro adenomas of the pituitary
macroadenomas
what immunohistochemical stains are positive in pituitary adenomas
synaptophysin, chromogranin, and hormone specific stains
what is the differential of a pituitary mass
tumor, craniopharyngioma, meningioma, glioma, suprasellar germ cell, mets, and benign lesions (cyst, aneurysm, empty sella syndrome)
what is cushing syndrome
elevated cortisol due to a variety of causes (adrenal prod'n, exogenous use); patients have low ACTH, unlike in Cushing disease)
what hormone is the 1st to respond/decrease after RT
Growth hormone
what requires larger doses functioning or non functioning pituitary adenomas when giving RT
functioning (50-54 Gy FST, and 20 Gy SRS) vs non functioning (45-50 Gy FST, and 15 Gy SRS)
what hormones are secreted by basophilic cells in the pituitary? Acidophilic?
basophilic (FLAT): fsh, lh, acth, tsh
acidophilic: prolactin, gh
rate of lymphedema after whole breast RT +/- axillary LND? SLNDbx? Addition of SCLV and PAB?
RT+axillary LND: 15-40%
RT and SLN Bx: 10%
SCLV increases to 15-20%
PAB increases to 40%
what are the most important factors that predict LRR in locally advanced breast cancer
number of LNs (axilla) and breast tumor size
5 grave signs of Haagensen for locally advanced breast cancer
limited edema of skin or "peau d'orange"
ulceration of skin
fixation of tumor to chest wall
axillary LNs > 2.5 cm
fixation of axillary LN
what is the distinct prognosis of IMB compared to other patient with locally advanced breast cancer with regards to risk of death
twice the risk for inflamm breast cancer
what is the txt paradigm for inflammatory breast cancer? 5 yr OS?
neoadjuvant chemo -> MRM -> PMRT +/- add'l chemo/hormones/herceptin
OS (5 yrs): 40%
what were some criticisims of the british columbia trial?
LRF was high
CMF chemo was used
RT fields were en face photons for IM nodal coverage (though no excessive cardiac deaths)
criticisms of danish trial 82b (premenopausal) looking at PMRT
inadequate surgical txt of axilla -> median of 7 nodes removed
excess of LF occurring in the axilla (44% in CMF arm)
outdated use of CMF chemo
what was the surgery in the danish 82b and 82c trials?
total mastectomy + axillary LN sampling (median of 7 nodes removed); significantly less than most US centers (that aim for > 10)
what levels are dissectd in axillary LND for breast cancer?
levels I-II; only if suspcious nodes present does level III carried out
what was the design of the postmenopausal danish trial 82 c that looked at postmastectomy RT
tamoxifen x 1yr +/- PMRT
LR 35 -> 8
OS 34 -> 45
what stages defined locally advanced breast cancer?
stage III disease (T3N1, N2-3, or T4
Inflamm breast cancer
some include T3N0 (stage IIB)
what did the NSABP B18 trial that looked at operable breast cancer randomized to neoadjuvant chemo vs postop chemo find? Conversion rate from mastectomy to BCS?
no diff in OS or DFS

27% conversion rate
did all 3 modern PMRT trials (Danish b and c, and BC trial) include IM nodal irradiation
yes
what is meant by dose dense chemo
administered q2 weeks versus q3weeks
what is the prevalence of inflammatory breast cancer
3%
what is spared with modified radical mastectomy?
pectoralis muscle
what was the design of the british columbia trial (post mastecotmy)
premenopausal women w/ positive axillarly LNs s/p total mastecotmy+ALND randomized to CMF chemo +/- RT (5field)
present ASCO guidelines for PMRT
≥ 4 LNs and suggested for T3 tumors with axillary LN disease
what is the 10 yr LRR for patients with 1-3 LN positive in retrospective review of patients post mastectomy trials
10% (4-13%)
clinical symptoms of inflammatory breast cancer
rapid onset (< 3 mos)
generalize induration (often w/o associated mass)
diffuse skin erythema affecting more than 2/3rd of the breast
warmth/tenderness

cancer cells in dermal lymphatics (not necessary for diagnosis)
what is spared with total or simple mastectomy
axillary LNs not dissected; only breast tissue with overlying skin removed
what is a halstead radical mastectomy?
resection of all breast parenchyma, a large portion of breast skin, and major and minor pectoral mm en bloc with axillary LNs
in patients with 1-3 positive nodes, what other clinicopathologic factors should be considered when recommending PMRT?
+ LVSI
high grade
younger age
ECE ≥ 2 mm
≤ 10 LN examined
≥ 20% LN +
larger tumor size (T2 or > 4 cm)
close margins

(10 yr LRR > 15%)
in NSABP 18 and 27 (neoadj chemo), did pCR at time of surgery correlate with good OS and DFS outcomes?
yes
what is optimal breast reconstruction after mastectomy in relation to adjuvant RT?
skin sparing mastectomy with placement of tissue expanders done prior to RT; tissue expander deflated during RT and re-expanded afterward;

breast reconstruction should be done 6-12 mos after RT
has dose-dense chemo been demonstrated to be superior in a prospective randomized trial?
YES. Intergroup trial C9741
AC x 4 -> taxol x 4 given q3wks vs q2wks.
DFS improved from 75 -> 82
OS was 0.69 in favor q2wk schedule
severe neutropenia less frequent with dose-dense schedule
RR of cardiovascular death after RT for breast cancer
relative ratio of 1.25 based on EBCTCG
what does taxol benefit add to AC chemo in patients with breast cancer?
improves response rates, DFS, and OS
locally advanced breast cancer accounts for what % of breast cancer
5% (4.6% baed on SEER)
what procedures should be done prior to starting neoadjuvant chemo for locally advanced breast cancer?
core biopsy and wire localization for the biopsy bed (in case patient has CR to chemo)
in T2-3 breast cancer with clinically negative axilla - what is the rate of pathologic axillary involvemen?
30%
when was the RT given in Danish 82b trial (postmastectomy)
after cycle 1 of CMF and 3-5 weeks postoperatively
what did the study of premenopausal women danish 82 b that randomized postmastectomy women to CMF chemo +/- RT find?
OS benefit (45->54) and LRR benefit 32 -> 9
survival benefit seen in all patients
what were the relevant outcomes of the british columbia trial that looked at postmastectomy RT?
adj RT improved LRR before DM 39 -> 13
DFS 31 -> 48
OS 37 -> 47
in a breast cancer patient with a clinically positive axilla what is the chance that the axilla is negative upon resection?
there is a 25% chance for a negative axilla upon resection
what is the difference btw T4a and T4b thyroid cancer lesions
T4a: local extension but technically resectable
T4b: unresectable disease
what is happening to the incidence of diagnosed papillary thyroid cancer
increasing
4 anatomic subdivisions/lobes of the thyroid
right lobe, left lobe, isthmus, pyramidal lobe
what subtype of thyroid cancer has better prognosis: papillary or follicular
papillary (10 yr OS 93 vs 85)
3 surgical options in thryoid cancer
lobectomy+isthmusectomy
near-total thyroidectomy
total thyroidectomy
what 3 regions should be irradiated with EBRT in a patient > 45 w/ pT4 thyroid cancer
thyroid bed, bilateral necks, and upper mediastinal nodes
name the 2 major and 3 minor prognosticator factors for thyroid cancer
major: age, tumor size
minor: histology, local tumor extension, LN status
what is the strongest risk factor for papillary thryoid cancer?
RT exposure to the H&N as a child ; no increased risk if exposure after age 20
what are the 3 subtypes of follicular-epithelial derived thyroid cancer in decreasing order of frequency
papillary > follicular > hurthle cell
for thryoid cancer, what sizes distinguish T1, T2, and T3 tumors
T1 < 2 cm (a - < 1, b 1-2)
T2: 2-4 limited to thyroid
T4: > 4 cm
what is the diff btw N1a and N1b in thryoid cancer
N1a: mets to pre/paratracheal nodes, prelaryngeal nodes (level VI)
N1b: mets to cervical neck (levels I-V), upper mediastinal nodes
what kind of add'l imaging can be considered if the I-131 scan is negative but the stimulated thyroglobulin level is elevated
PET/CT
what is the most common endocrine malignancy
thryoid cancer
in a pt with low TSH and a nodule that shows uptake by I-123 or Tc-99 scan, what is the likely dx?
adenomas
what are the indications for adj I-131 in addition to TSH suppression for thryoid cancer
suspected or proven residual normal thyroid tissue or residual tumor
what are 2 ways to do TSH stimulation
thryoid hormone withdrawal or by using recombinant TSH
what is the txt paradigm for medullary thryoid cancer
definitive surgery and EBRT for palliation
name genetic syndrome(s) associated with medullary thryoid cancer
MEN 2a and MEN 2b
name the nerve that lies in the tracheoesophageal (TE) groove, posterior to the right/left thyroid lobes
recurrent laryngeal nerve
which group does anaplastic thryoid cancer pts does PORT improve survival
t4b/extrathryoid extension but not thyroid confined or metastatic dz
in the thyroid follicle what are the normal functions of the epithelial follicular cells and the parafollicular cells
epithelial follicular cells: remove iodide from the blood to form T3 and T4
parafollicular cells: produce calcitonin
which papllary thyroid cancer is lobectomy+isthmusectomy adequate
patients with none of the following risk factors: age > 45, tumor > 4 cm, aggressive histology variant, prior hx of RT, DM, N+, local extension, and + margins
what peaks younger papillary or follicular thryoid cancer
papillary (30-50), follicular (40-60)
name a genetic disorder associated with follicular thryoid cancer
cowden syndrome
to make pathologic dx of hurthle cell thyroid cancer how much % of hurthle cells must be demonstrated
75%
what is the treatment paradigm for thryoid cancer? Localized vs metastatic?
surgery (even in M1 dz) -> observation vs adj treatment
what are the stage groupings for anaplastic thryoid cancer
all anaplastic thryoid cancer is considered stage IV - A-resectable, B- unresectable and C- metastatic
what are the 4 indications for adjuvant EBRT in addition to TSH suppression and I-131 in thyroid cancer?
1. pT4 papillary and > 45
2. gross residual disease in neck after I-131
3. bulky mets after I-131
4. lesions with inadequate iodide uptake
what sites demonstrate physiologic uptake of iodide?
thryoid, salivary glands and the GI tract
what is the treatment paradigm for anaplastic thryoid cancer
maximal safe resection --> adjuvant chemoRT
chemo agents studied in anaplastic thryoid cancer ?
cisplatin/doxorubicin
name 4 genetic disorders associated with papillary thryoid cancer
familial polyposis
gardner syndrome
turcot syndrome
familial papillary carcinoma
does the tall cell variant have a more favorable or unfavorable prognosis when compared to classic papillary thryoid cancer
unfavorable
what is the stage of 37 year old patient with thyroid cancer and a solitary bone met
II (If the patient were 65 yo, would be stage Ivc - separate staging for follicular/papillary < 45 - only I and II (M1))
what is the max recommended lifetime dose for I-131
800-1000 mCi
what is the stage of a 45 yo male with unresectable primary thyroid cancer w/ no mets?
IVB (if <45 then stage I)
gender predilection for papillary or follicular thyroid cancer
yes - females > males (3:1)
what are the aggressive subtypes of thyroid cancer that u must consider adjuvant treatment
tall, columnar, insular, oxyphilic, poorly diff
what % of patients with thyroid cancer will have residual uptake on an iodide scan after thyroidectomy
80%
what are the primary, secondary, and tertiary lymphatic drainage regions of the thyroid?
primary: central compartment (level VI), TE groove, delphian nodes

secondary: cervical/supraclavicular

tertiary: sup mediastinal/retropharyngeal nodes
what thyroid cancer subtype is more likely to present with N+ disease: papillary or follicular
papillary thyroid cancer (30%) > follicular (10%)
estimate the MS and 1 yr OS for patients with anaplastic thyroid cancer? Medullary thyroid cancer
6 mos and 20%;

medullary much better prognosis: 10 yr OS 90%; +N 70%
what % of palpable thyroid nodules are malignant
5%
3 main types of thyroid cancer histologies in decreasing frequency
follicular epithelial derived (papillary>follicular> hurthle) (94%) > medullary > anaplastic
what is the mCi dose range to ablate a residual follicular epithelial derived thyroid cancer with iodide 131? Used to ablate normal thyroid tissue?
100-200 mCi (30-100 mCi for normal thyroid tissue)
3 most important acute and longterm sideeffects of > 100 mCi of I-131
gi irritation, sialadenitis, and cystitis

pulmonary fibrosis, oligospermia, and leukemia
what are the approved indications for recombinant TSH stimulation
follow-up iodide scans

I-131 txt of low-risk patients
what is the difference in approach between near-total and total thyroidectomy?
less aggressive around the recurrent laryngeal nerve
EBRT doses for thyroid cancer (follicular/papillary)? Gross? Micro? Nodal?
gross: 70; mico: 60; nodal: 50
medullary thyroid cancer arises from what precurser cell
parafollicular C cells
what must be done prior to an I-123 or I-131 scan
TSH stimulation
what are the 4 possible indications for adjuvant therapy after GTR of papillary/follicular thyroid cancer
> 1 cm tumor
N+ or DM
aggressive histologic subtypes
pT4+ papillary and age > 45
in addition to improved LC, what is another reason to advocate for a total thyroidectomy even in low-risk patients
easier to follow up (whole body iodide scans and serum thyroglobulin)
what % of mesothelioma cases are related to asbestos exposure
80%
what % of mesothelioma patients are surgically resectable at diagnosis
< 5%
what are the 3 most common histopathologic subtypes of mesothelioma in decreasing order of frequency?
epithelioid (40%) > mixed or biphasic (35%) > sarcomatous or mesenchymal
what is the lifetime risk of mesothelioma in someone with occupational asbestos exposure
10%
2 most common initial presenting Sx of mesothelioma? Common presentation (incidental findings)?
dyspnea & nonpleuritic. Recurrent pleural effusion and/or pleural thickening
describe conventional RT field borders for adjuvant RT treatment of mesothelioma after extrapleural pneumonectomy?
Superior: T1
Inferior: L2
Lateral: skin
medial: ipsi edge of vertebral body
need to block critical structures and supplement with electrons
what is the median OS for mesothelioma in mos
8 mos
common genetic changes seen in mesothelioma
p16, p14, and (NF-2)
is adj RT advocated for mesothelioma s/p decortication/pleurectomy
yes (based on retrospective)
what pathologic features with regards to mesothelioma versus adenocarcinoma in terms of markers (acid-schiff, CEA, calretinin, vimentin, WT1, cytokeratin)
positive: calretinin, vimentin, WT1, cytokeratin

negative: acid-schiff, CEA, Leu-M1
what is the adjuvant RT dose for mesothelioma following extrapleural pneumonectomy?
negative margin: 50 Gy
close/+ margin: 54-60 Gy
gross disease: > 60 Gy
at what age does the incidence of mesothelioma peak?
NO PEAK, increases with increasing age
what is the most common cause of mesothelioma? What is more carcinogenic - amphiboles or chrysotile)
asbestos - ambiboles (rodlike) > chrysotile (serpentine)
what is the palliative surgical procedure to consider for management of poor risk mesothelioma?
pleurodesis with talc
is death from mesothelioma usually due to local progression or DM
local progression -> resp failure or infection
when a patient is not a candidate for extrapleural pneumonectomy - pleurectomy or decortication has been advocated by some investigators, what does the procedure entail?
not a candidate (more adv disease, mixed histology, or medically highrisk)stripping of the pleura from the apex of the lung to the diaphragm, removing pericardium and parietal pleura
what is removed with an extrapleural pneumonectomy for mesothelioma
parietal pleura, lung, mediastinal nodes, pericardium, and ipsilateral diaphragm; with a graft to prevent herniation of abd contents through the defect; mediastinal nodal dissection should also be done
what histologic subtype of mesothelioma has the worse prognosis?
sarcomatous type
name the 4 EORTC prognostic factors for mesothelioma
WBC > 8.3, Performance status, sarcomatous histology, male gender
other than the pleura, where else can mesothelioma arise?
peritoneum, pericardium, and tunica vaginalis testis
what classic chemo agents are used for unresectable mesothelioma
cisplatin and premetrexed (also gemcitabine)
what is the latency between asbestos and mesothelioma
20-40 years
what is role of prophlyactic RT after invasive procedures for mesothelioma?
historically RT 7Gy x 3 given to areas of invasive procedure to prevent needle tract seeding but proven to not reduce rate
is there a gender prelidiction for mesothelioma?
yes. Men more affected
describe N staging of mesothlioma? What stage is contralateral MN? Contra lat IM nodes? Contra lat Hilar LNs? SCLV? Ipsi MN? Sub carinal?
N3: contralat MN/IM/Hilar or SCLV
N2: ipsi MN, subcarinal, IM
N1: ipsi hilar
does smoking cause mesothelioma?
NO; smoking alone does not but exacerbates asbestos related mesothelioma
T stage of mesothlioma: invol of diaphragm? Invasion of mediastinal fat? Pericardial effusion? Invasion of spine?
T1: ipsi parietal pleura and no or focal visceral pleura
T2: visceral or diaphragm mm or lung parenchyma
T3: mediastinal fat or soft tissue of CW or pericardium
T4: rib or diffuse CW or mediastinal organs or contral pleura or spinne or pericardial effu w/ + cytology or brachial plexus
name 5 factors associated with increased risk of DM with soft tissue sarcoma
high grade
size > 5 cm
deep location
recurrent dz
leiomyosarcoma
what are the 3 most common sites of soft tissue sarcoma
extremity (60%) > trunk (30%) > H&N (10%)
what is Stewart-Treves syndrome
angiosarcoma that arises from chronic lymphedmea (most often as complication of mastecomy +/- radiotherapy)
what imaging should a patient with soft tissue sarcoma have?
MRI +/- CT of area
Chest imaging (CT)
what dose should neoadjuv RT be for extremity soft tissue sarcoma
50 Gy/2 Gy fx
what % of lower extremity STS is at or above the knee
75%
for soft tissue sarcoma do you perform a incisional or excisional biopsy
incisional
what % of extremity soft tissue sarcoma involves the lower extremity
75%
what are the stage groupings for soft tissue sarcoma? > 5 cm grade 2? N1?
IA: T1 G1
IB: T2 G1
IIA: T1, G2-3
IIB: T2, G2
III: T2, G3 or N1
IV: M1
what group of soft tissue sarcoma most benefits from adjuvant chemo
high-grade extremity soft tissue sarcoma
what dose of RT should be used for unresectable soft tissue sarcoma
> 70-80 Gy
what is the LC of soft tissue sarcoma after excisional biospy alone
20%
what are the 5 most common types of soft tissue sarcoma?
high grade undiff pleomorphic sarcoma (malignat fibrous histiocytoma) 20-30%
liposarcoma (10-20%)
leiomyosarcoma (5-10%)
synovial sarcoma (5-10%)
malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (5-10%)
What is the T-stage of soft tissue sarcoma
T1 <= 5 cm (a - superficial ; b - deep)
T2 > 5 cm (a - superficial ; b - deep)

N1 regional mets
what did the NCI Canada Trial: extremity STS randomized to preop RT (50 Gy (16-20 Gy boost for surgical margins)) vs PORT (50 Gy + 16-20 Gy)
primary endpoint was major wound complications -
preop RT (35) > PORT (17)
No diff in LC (92), RFS (59), or OS (73 v 67)
In long term, PORT was associated with worse fibrosis and joint stiffness
what types of soft tissue sarcomas are associated with Gardner syndrome? NF-1?
Gardner - desmoid
RB - bone and STS
NF1 - benign neurofibromas and malignant periopheral nerve sheath tumors
Li Fraumeni - bone and STS
what dose is recommended for adjuvant RT for soft tissue sarcoma
50 Gy + 10-16 Gy for negative marging
16-20 Gy for positive margin
20-26 Gy for grossly positive
what is the median age at Dx of soft tissue sarcoma? 30?40?50?60?
50
name 5 factors associated with increased risk of LR in patients with soft tissue sarcoma
Age > 50
recurrent disease
positive surgical margins
fibrosarcoma (including desmoid)
malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
where does soft tissue sarcoma originate
primitive mesenchyme of the mesoderm
name the chromosomal translocations for synovial sarcoma? Clear cell sarcoma? Ewing's/PNET? Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma?
synovial t(X, 18)
clear cell sarcoma t(12,22)
ewing sarcoma/PNET t(11, 22)
alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma t(2,13), t(1,13)
surgery alone is adequate for what kind of patient with soft tissue sarcoma of the extremity
T1, low grade s/p surgical resection w/ > 1 cm margins
what 5 types of soft tissue sarcoma have an increased risk of LN mets
SCARE: synovial, clear cell, angiosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, epitheliodi
all around 15-25%
what % of soft tissue sarcoma have +LNs at dx
5%
name environmental risk factors for soft tissue sarcoma
RT
thorotrast
chlorophenols
vinyl chloride
arsenic
herbicides
with the exception of myxoid liposarcoma, what is the most common site of DM from STS?
lung; myxoid liposarcoma spreads to nonpulm sites
what genetic/chromatin changes are poor prognosticator for neuroblastoma
N-myc amplification, LOH 1p +11q, diploid DNA, telomerase
most common bony site for metastatic disease in neuroblastoma
bones of the skull and orbit
whats better in children with metastatic neuroblastoma - <1 year or > 1 year of age
< 1 yo of age best
in high-risk neuroblastoma should elective nodal RT be given
no, in high risk only positive disease covered
outline work up for suspected neuroblastoma? Looking for specific labs and imaging (and pathology)
urine catechol, U/A;
imaging - bone scan, abd u/s, CT c/a/p, MRI, I-131 (MIBG) scan
bone marrow biopsy
pathology - DNA content, n-myc amplification, and cytogenetics
A 2 yo presents with an abdominal mass and lung mets what is the most likely diagnosis
wilms! (neuroblastoma rarely metastatsizes to the lungs)
what % of neuroblastoma patients present with metastases
75%
who presents with more symptoms : neuroblastoma or wilms
neuroblastoma
what are some classic presenting symptoms of neuroblastoma
constitutional symptoms
periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes")
"blueberry muffin" sign (nontender blue skin mets)
scalp nodules
bone pain
diarrhea (increased VIP)
Horner syndrome
opsomyoclonus truncal ataxia
Kerner-Morrison syndrome (diarrhea, low K)
is there a therapeutic role of I-131 MIBG in neuroblastoma?
can be used for refractory NB
what % of patients with neuroblastoma present with n-myc amplification? 10? 20 ? 40? 70?
40%
what demonstrates calcifications on x-ray: wilm's or neuroblastoma
neuroblastoma
name genetic syndromes associated with neuroblastoma
NF 1, hirschsprung disease, fetal hydantoin syndrome
name 5 factors used to classify neuroblastoma into risk groups (low, int, high)
SANDS
Stage
Age
N-myc
DNA ploidy
Shimada classification
in which COG risk group do neuroblastoma patients most commonly present in? Low, int or high?
high risk (5%) then low risk
what chemo drugns are commonly used in neuroblastoma
cytoxan
doxorubicin
etoposide
carboplatin
ifosfamide
what are the most common sites for presentation of neuroblastoma
adrenal medulla > paraspinal > post mediastinum
what are the 3 types of neuroblastic tumors
neuroblastoma
ganglioneuroblastoma
ganglioneuroma
what INSS for neuroblastoma for is unilateral localized tumor s/p STR w/ invovled nonadherent ipsi LNs? A 14 month old patient with metastatic dz only to BM?
2B; IV (not S because older than 1 year)
I: GTR =/- microscopic dz, ipsi LN- but removed LNs can be positive
IIA: STR
IIB: GTR/STR with involved nonadherent ipsi LNs
III: unresectable
IV: distant dz
IVS: (stage 2B or less and distant dz only at liver, skin, and/or <10% of BM) in infants < 1 year
in want age group (infants vs children) is thoracic presentation of neuroblastoma more common?
infants
what 2 "clinical" factors are most predictive of cure for neuroblastoma
age and stage and dx
what is the cell of origin for neuroblastoma?
neural crest cells of the sympathetic ganglion
what is the most common malignancy in infants
neuroblastoma
what is the most common sites of mets for neuroblastoma
bone > LNs> bm, liver, skin, orbits (lung mets rare)
historically what test was used to screen infants for
urinary catecholamines (VMA/HVA)
in high risk neuroblastoma, what tissues are targeted with RT? Prechemo, post chemo, postop, preop? Dose
post chemo, preop tumor bed to a dose of 21.6 Gy if GTR and 36 Gy if gross disease
median age at dx of neuroblastoma
17 mos
what % of neuroblastoma patient have detectable urinary catecholamines
90%
what are the classic histologic findings seen in neuroblastoma
homer-wright pseudorosettes, hemorrhage and calcification
what is the differential diagnosis of mediastinal mass by location - ant, middle, and posterior?
anterior: terible T's - thyrmoma, thymoma, terrible lymphoma; germ ell tumors
middle: cysts > lymphoma, teratomas > sarcomas (osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, angiosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, granuloma)
posterior: neurogenic tumors (PNET, schwannoma, neurofibroma, neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma), pheochromocytoma
current preferred treatment for unresectable thymic malignancy
chemo (cisplatin, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide) --> RT vs surgery (--> PORT)
what are the RT doses used for postop management of thymomas? R0? R1? R2?
R0: 45-54 Gy
R1: 55-60 Gy
R2:: 60-70 Gy
most important prognostic factors for thymic carcinomas
completeness of resection
presence of LN mets
in a thymoma patient with myasthenia gravis, what should be done preoperatively?
control signs and symptoms medically prior
how do thymic carcinomas differ from thymomas in terms of prevalence, aggression, and prognosis? LNs?
less prevalent, more aggressive, and worse prognosis. 1 vs 30% LNs
pathogenesis, presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of myasthenia gravida?
pathogenesis: autoantibody to Ach receptor at the postsynaptic endplate
presentation: easy fatigability, ptosis, and diplopia (worse w/ movement, opposite of Lambert-Eaton)
diagnosis: tensilon test (edrophonium)
treatment: anticholinesterase or thymectomy
what proportion of tumors of the mediastinum are malignant
1/3rd of mediastinal tumors
what is the median age for thymomas? Gender predilection?
50 years; no gender predilection
what paraneoplastic/associated conditions come with diagnosis of thymoma?
myasthenia gravis
red cell aplasia
hypogammaglobulinemia
what are the 5 year survival rates for thymomas based on Masaoka staging? I/II, III, and IV? Invasive vs noninvasive thymomas
I/II - 90%
III: 60%
IV: 30%

invasive: 50% noninvasive: 70%
what % of patints with thymoma present with myasthenia gravis
40% (conversely 10% of patients with MG have thymoma)
when is adjuvant radiotherapy a reasonable indication for the management of thymomas
stage III-IVA, +/close margins, or thymic carcinoma
what is the Masaoka system used to stage thymomas
stage I: encapsulated, no microscopic capsular invasion
II: macroscopic invasion into surrounding fat or mediastinal pleura or microscopic capsule
III: ext to surounding organs or great vessels
IVA: pleural or pericardial dissemination
IVB: +LNs or DM
what is the usual approach for the surgical management of thymomas
median sternotomy
when should postop chemoRT be used for thymic malignancies (as per NCCN)
thymoma with gross residual dz
or thymic carcinoma with R1-R2
where is the thymus located and what is its function
it is in the anterior mediastinum and it is involved in the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens from "self" antigens
what is the embryonic derivation of the thymus
3rd pharyngeal pouch
where do thymomas metastatize to
lung; (carcinoma to lung > bone, liver)
what are the most important prognostic factors for thymomas
masaoka stage and completeness of resection
how prevalent is thymoma relative to other mediastinal tumors?
50% of anterior mediastinum and 20% of all mediastinal tumors
what is the most common site of solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma
H&N region - upper aerodigestive tract (80%)
what 2 factors are used to stage patients in the international staging system for multiple myeloma
beta 2 microglobulin & albumin
stage I: beta 2 micro < 3.5 and albumin >3.5

stage III: beta 2 microglobulin > 5.5

I: 62 mos (5 years)
II: 44 mos (3-4 years)
III: 29 mos (2 years)
what is mgus and how often will it transform to multiple myeloma
mgus - monoclonal gammapathy of unspefied significance; prolif of Ig in absecne of clinical, radiographic and lab evidence of MM; rate of trasnformation is 1% a year
should you treat LNs in management of solitary extraosseos plasmacytoma
yes (primary drainage)
why is the dose of RT for the management of solitary plasmacytoma
SP is localized neoplasm and a curative paradigm is employed
what is the role of bisphosphonates in the management of multiple myeloma
1st line antimyeloma therapy b/c they decrease skeltal events and decrease bone pain
durie salmon staging for multiple myeloma gives the A and B subsclassification based on what
serum Cr: A - Cr < 2 mg/dl; B - Cr > 2 mg/dl
is there a gender and race prelidiction for multiple myeloma
Blacks > white; no gender prelidection
what are the 3 diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma
1. clonal plasma cells of >= 10% (on either BM bx or bx from other tissue)
2. monoclonal protein in serum or urine
3. evidence of end organ damage
what is the relationship btw secretory patterns in solitary bone plasmacytoma versus solitary extraosseous plastmactymoa
SBP - secretory
SEP - nonsecretory
what lab and radiographic studies are necessary to evaluate a patient with multiple myeloma
CBC
LDH
Calcium
albumin, beta
SPEP, UPEP
BM biopsy (unilateral)
skeletal survey
what is the preferred conditioning regimen for myeloablative therapy for bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma
high dose melphalan (proven vs TBI in randomized trial)
what is POEMs syndrome
polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, M protein, and skin changes -- variant of MM
what % of patients with solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma will progress to MM at 10 years?
25%
what % of plasma cell tumors are multiple myeloma? Solitary plasmacytoma?
MM constitutes 90%; Solitary plasmacytoma 10%
can solitary extraosseous plasmacytoma have LNs? What about solitary bone plasmacytoma?
SEP - 35% LN positivity
SBP - rare
multiple myeloma is lytic or blastic?
lytic (negative on bone scan)
what % of solitary bone plasmacytoma will progress to multiple myeloma
70%
what is beta 2 microglobulin (prognosticator of MM)
it is a major histocompatibility complex class 1 molecules
if a patient with ovarian cancer has liver capsule mets what stage is she?
T3/stage III

liver parenchymal mets - M1/IV
what is the most common severe toxicity experienced by ovarian cancer patients treated with WART?
diarrhea (g3-4)
risk of developing ovarian cancer increased or decreased with following risk factors: (younger maternal age at 1st birth) , (use of oral contraception), (breast feedin)
all decrease risk
describe borders (sup, inf, and lateral) for whole abdominal RT
superior: top of diaphragm
inferior: obturator foramen
lateral: peritoneal reflection
survival of ovarian cancer by stage? I? II? III? IV?
I: 80
II: 60
III: 30
IV: 10
is there a role of prophylactic oophorectomy in BRCA 1/2 positive women
yes; shown to reduce ovarian and fallopian tube malignancies

risk of primary peritoneal cancer persists
what % of patients with ovarian cancer present with stage III/IV
70%
risk factors of ovarian cancer
nulliparity, advanced age at 1st birth, hormone replacement therapy, high-fat/lactose diet, family hx, BRCA 1/2 and HNPCC, older age
what ovarian cancer stage is limited to 1 ovary with capsule intact? Limited to 1 or both ovaries with ruptured capsule (tumor on ovarian surface, malignant cells in ascites, or peritoneal washings)
IA: limited to 1 ovary with capsule intact
IB: both ovaries with capsule intact
IC: rupture capsule, tumor on surface, malignant cells in ascites, or peritoneal washings
what ovarian cancer stage is extensiton to or implants on other pelvic tissues? Extension to uterus and or tubes
IIA: extension and/or implants on uterus and/or tubes
IIB: extension to and/or implants on other pelvic tissues
IIC: pelvic extension and or implants with malignant ascites or washings
what ovarian cancer stage is macroscopic peritoneal mets beyond pelvis non greater than 2 cm
IIIB (IIIA - is microscopic)
IIIC: peritoneal mets > 2 cm in size or regional LNs
what is the median time to clinically or radiographically detectable disease after an isolated CA 125 in ovarian cancer?
3-6 mos
what impact does adjuvant chemo have in ovarian cancer?
6% OS benefit and 11% RFS (ICON1 and ACTION trials)
what is the general treatment paradigm for ovarian cancer?
diagnostic and therapeutic laparotomy for surgical staging and cytoreduction; goal to cytoreduce to < 1 cm of gross residual disease
are most relapses of ovarian cancer local or distant
80% are LOCAL
which hodgkin's disease has the best prognosis
lymphocyte-rich
which hodgkin's disease is associated with older or HIV+ patients
lymphocyte-depleted
patients with which subtype of hodgkin's disease are at greatest risk of developing a subsequent non-hodgkin lymphoma
patients with nodular lymhocyte predominant HL
whats more common classical vs nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin's lymphoma
classical more common
what are the subtypes of classical hodgkin's disease and which is most common
nodular sclerosing > mixed cellularity > lymphocyte depleted > lymphocyte rich
patients who present with mediastinal LAD are most likely to have which subtype of hodgkin's disease
nodular sclerosing
at what age does hodgkin's disease most commonly occur?
bimodal peak - age 25 and 65
which hodgkin's disease subtype has the worse prognosis
lymphocyte depleted
what are the CD 15, 30 45 and 20 positive for nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin's lymphoma
CD 15 and 30 : NEGATIVE
CD 45 and 20: POSITIVE
2 most commonly involved LN regions at the initial diagnosis for Hodgkin's Lymphoma
cervical chain (70%) and mediastinum (50%)
what are the CD 15, 30 45 and 20 positive for nodular lymphocyte classical hodgkin's lymphoma
CD 15 and 30 : POSITIVE
CD 45 and 20: NEGATIVE
how is subtotal lymphoid irradiation different from total lymphoid irradiation
TLI - mantle field, inverted Y field and spleen field

STLI excludes iliac and inguinal regions
Name the agents included in the Stanford V regimen for hodgkin's disease
MOPE-ABV
Mechlorethamine
Oncovin (vincristine)
Prednisone
Etoposide
Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vinblastine
what agents are included in ABVD
Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vinblastine
Dacarbazine
what is the difference between IFRT vs RFRT vs INRT (in hodgkin's disease)
IFRT: involved lymphoid region
RFRT: involved regions + immediately adjacent LN regions
INRT: covers prechemo tumor volume
what are common treatment strategies for stage I-II unfavorable classic HD?
1. Chemo + planned IFRT
2. ABVD x 6 cycles +/- to initial bulky disease and/or residual PET+ sites at restaging
What agents are included in BEACOPP
Bleomycin
Etoposide
Adriamycin
Cyclophosphagmide
Oncovin (vincristine)
Procarbazine
Prednisone

used in Europe for advanced-stage HD
what type of secondary malignancies occur sooner after hodgkin's disease: leukemias or solid malignancies?
leukemias < 5 yrs after txt, solid malignancies occur > 7 yrs after txt
what are common treatment strategies for stage I-IIA favorable classic HD?
1. chemo + planned IFRT
2. ABVD x 4 cycles +/- IFRT to residual PET+ sites at restaging
Lentigo maligna melanoma, rate of LN and 5 yr OS
LN 10%; OS 85%
what does ABCDE stand for with regards to melanoma
Asymmetry, Borders, Color, Diameter (> 6 mm), Enlargement
what % of melanomas derive from melanocytic nevi
15%
poor pathologic prognostic factors for melanoma
increasing thickness
# of nodes involved
ulceration
Clark level (if < 1 mm)
satellitosis
what are 3 favorable clinical factors at presentation for patients with melanoma
female
young age
extremity location
what % of melanoma patients have LN involvement at diagnosis
15%
which melanoma site has the highest LR rates after surgery (trunk, proximal extremity, distal extremity, H&N)?
H&N highest; proximal lowest
which melanoma subtype has the best prognosis?
lentigo maligna
2.5 mm depth of invasion is what T stage of malignant melanoma; with ulceration
T3b;
T1 <= a mm; T2 1-2 mm
T3 2-4 mm; T4 > 4 mm
a - no ulceration; b - ulceration
what subtype of melanoma commonly presents in dark-skinned populations, and what body locations does it commonly affect?
acral lentiginous; commonly affects palms/soles and subungual areas
risk factors for developing melanoma
uv
fair complexion, light hair/eyes
numerous benign nevi or large atypical
prior melanoma
family hx
polyvinyl chloride exposure
what is the most powerful prognostic factor for recurrence and survival for patients with melanoma
sentinel LN status
what subtype of melanoma is associated with more infiltration, higher rate of perineural invasion, higher LF rates and lower nodal/DM mets
desmoplastic melanoma
what is the most common subtype of melanoma? 2nd most common?
superficial spreading (70%); nodular (25%)
what type of biopsy is the preferred method of tissue diagnosis for a suspected melanoma?
full thickness or excisional biopsy with 1-3 mm margin is preferred for tissue diagnosis
why should wider margins on excisional biopsy be avoided in melanoma?
avoid to permit accurate subsequent lymphatic mapping
which subtype of melanoma has the worse prognosis
superficial spreading
what gender tends to have melanoma lesions predominantly on trunk? Predominantly on extremities?
trunk: males
extremities: females
what % of melanoma patients present with DM at dx
5%
what is the name for lentigo maligna involving only the epidermis (Clark level I)
hutchinson freckle
describe the M classification for melanoma (clue - divided into a, b, c)
M1a: skin, SQ, distant LNs
M1b: lung only
M1c: viscera or other sites with increased LDH
what are 3 commonly used immunohistochemical stains for melanoma
S100
HNB-45
Melan-A
what % of melanomas are derived from noncutaneous sites
< 10%
with regards to UV exposure what is the most important risk factor associated with development of melanoma
intermittent intense exposure to UVA and UVB, such as hx of blistering burns in childhood
3 LNs in melanoma is what N stage
N1: 1+
N2: 2-3
N3: >= 4, or matted
what % of medulloblastoma present with CSF spread at dx
30-40%
what are the risk groups in medulloblastoma
standard risk: > 3 yo, GTR/NTR < 1.5, and M0
high risk: < 3 yo or STR > 1.5 residual , or M+
what tests for medulloblastoma should be obtained on days 10-14 post op?
MRI spine and CSF cytology (delay to day 10 to avoid a false + result from surgical debris)
what is the median age of medulloblastoma at diagnosi
bimodal age distribution - 7 and 25
characteristic histologic features and markers for medulloblastoma
small round blue cells and homer-wright rosettes; + stain for neuron specific enolase, synaptophysin, and nestin
what is the most aggressive histologic variant of medulloblastoma that also has a particularly high rate of CSF dissemination
large cell/anaplastic
what is the "setting sun" sign (seen in medulloblastoma)
downward deviation of gaze from increased cranial pressure (CN III, IV, and VI)
what is the cell of origin of medulloblastoma
neuroectodermal cells from the sup medullary velum (germinal matrix of cerbellum) or cerebellar vermis
common presenting symptoms for medulloblastoma
ha, n/v, altered mentation due to hydrocephalus, truncal ataxia, head bob, and diplopia (CN VI)
is there any risk of CSF dissemination with shunt placement for medulloblastoma
NO
what are common cytogenetic abnormalities in medulloblastoma
deletion of 17p; delition of 16 q
small round blue cell tumors
Lympoma
Ewing
ALL
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Neuroblastoma
Neuroepithelioma
Medulloblastoma
Retinoblastoma

LEARN NMR
what are is the most common pediatric CNS tumor? 2nd most common?
low grade glioma; 2nd is most common pediatric CNS tumor
what age group (older or younger) is CSF spread more common in medulloblastoma
younger patients
what are some important ancillary/lab tests to be done prior to starting adjuvant therapy for medulloblastoma
baseline audiometry, IQ testing, TSH and growth measures
where does medulloblastoma most commonly arise
midline cerbellar vermis (75)
differential for posterior fossa mass
medulloblastoma, ependymoma, astrocytoma, brainstem glioma, JPA, hemangioblastoma, mets
what T stage is medulloblastoma that is 5 cm with partial fill of 4th ventricle and invasion cerebral cortex
T2;
T1: <= 3 cm, confines
T2: > 3 cm, partial fill of 4th ventricle, invades 1 adj structure
T3a: invades 2 structures, complete fill of 4th ventricle
T3b: extends into brain stem, arises from floor of 4th ventricle, complete fill of 4th ventricle
T4: extends beyond aqueduct of slyvius or foramen magnum to involve 3rd ventricle/midbrain/upper cervical cord
what are the 3 histologic variants of medulloblastoma
classic, nodular/desmoplastic, and large cell/anaplastic
what is the M stage of medulloblastoma that has nodular seeding intracranial
M2;
M0: no mets
M1: + CSF
M2: nodular seeding intracranially
M3: nodule in subarachnoid space in cord
M4: extraneural spread
what variant of medulloblastoma is associated with older age and better prognosis
desmoplastic
what % of medulloblastoma is familial and what are some associated genetic syndromes
5%; gorlin (PTCH mutation) and turcot (APC mutation)
is there a gender predilection to medulloblastoma
yes, males
does extra axial spread occur in medulloblastoma?
rarely , can happen to bone
medulloblastoma is what class of tumors
embryonal tumors (along with PNET and atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor)
what can be dones before treatment for medulloblastoma to reduce ICP
ventricular shunt/drain, steroids, acetazolamide (diamox)
plaque brachytherapy complications
early: pain, bleeding, diplopia, infection, edema
late: retinopathy (42% at 5 yrs, increasing to 80-90%), cataracts, keratitis, optic neuropathy
if resection is used for small ocular melanomas what areas ? Where is it generally contraindicated?
resection: lesions of the iris or ciliary body
not used for uveal lesions
what is the definition of COMS small, medium, and large lesions - based on what dimensions?
apical height, and basal diameter
medium: AH 2.6-10 mm, BD 6-16 mm
what region in the retina is particularly important for color vision
macula is important for color vision
when is enucleation a preferred approach for the management of uveal melanoma
pt choice
salvage therapy
tumor involving > 40% of intraocular volume
tumor in a nonfunctional eye
symptomatic pt (pain)
eye with marked neovascularization
extrascleral extension
what % of pts with ocular melanoma present with DM at dx? What is the most common location?
1-2%; liver is the most common site
what are the 3 basica layers of the globe?
outer fibrous layer (sclera), middle vascular layer (choroid), and inner nerve layer (retina)
what is the cell of origin of ocular melanoma
uveal melanocytes of the uveal stroma (neural crest origin)
what should be done for a uveal melanoma that is COMS stage small, inactive lesions, and good baseline visual function
observation (33% of patients progress based on COMS)
is there a race predilection for ocular melanoma
98% are white
what is the management for COMS stage medium ocular melanomas and small progressive tumors after observation
plaque brachytherapy
where is the optic disc relative to the macula
2 mm medial to the macula
what is the #1 ocular malignancy? #1 primary ocular malignancy?
ocular mets; ocular melanoma
what ocular lesion demonstrates double circulation pattern and fluorescein leakage (hot spots) on fluorescein angiography
ocular melanoma
what is the long-term DM rate of ocular melanoma
50% at 15 years
what are the different ways that melanoma can spread within the globe (3)
intraocularly (vitreous, aqueous, or along ciliary vessels)
extraocularly (optic nerve, transsclerally, vascular tracking)
extrascleral extension
what % of patients have cataracts 5 years after plaque brachytherapy
80+%
how is dose prescribed with plaque brachytherapy?
to the tumor apex (generally 85Gy); with a 2 mm margin around the tumor
is biopsy done for ocular melanoma?
no (risk of tumor seeding); dx made by exam and imaging
what are the components of the uveal tract
choroid, cilary body, and iris
choroidal/ciliary body melanomas t-staging have a-e designations that look at what?
ciliary body involvement/ extraocular extension

a: none
b: +cb
c: +exo
d: +cb +exo
e: ++exo
what is the most common site in the eye where ocular melanoma arise
uvea, (mostly choroidal) > adnexa > conjunctiva
what is the most common isotope used in plaque brachytherapy
I-125;
what is the standard management for large uveal melanomas
enucleation (alternatively charged particles if available)
what is the name for the anterior termination of the retina
ora serrata
what histologic subtype of ocular melanoma has the best and worst pprognosis - spindle cell, epitheliod, and mixed
best - spindle cell; worse - epithelioid
for medium sized uveal melanomas is there a difference in outcome between enucleation vs plaque brachytherapy
NO differnce in OS or CSS; COMS study
what % of pts present with large uveal melanomas
30% present
in COMS medium ocular melanoma trial what was the secondary enucleation rate after plaque brachtytherapy? 10, 25, 50, 80%? From what cause?
13%; treatment failure or ocular pain from brachytherapy complications
what are notched plaques (brachytherapy for ocular melanomas)
peripapillary tumors
per the COMS trial, does preoperative EBRT improve outcomes over enucleation alone for COMS large tumors
No
when are flexner-wintersteiner rosettes seen
retinoblastoma
what is the 2nd mailignancy rates in familial cases of RB treated with RT (without RT?)
with RT: 50% at 50 yrs
w/o 25% at 50 years
management for retinoblastoma that is filling vitreous, anterior chamber?
enucleation with removal of 1.5 cm of optic nerve
how do the 1st hit vs the 2nd hit in knudsons' model differ in terms of mechanism
1st hit is a germline deletion; 2nd hit is mitotic recombination error
how do patients with retinoblastoma present in the US (vs developing countries)
leukocoria (abnl white reflection from the retina) > strabismus > painful glaucoma
developing countries more advanced - proptosis, orbital mass, and mets
who presents older sporadic or familial retinoblastoma; what is the age predilection for retinoblastoma
sporadic (2 yo); familial (1 yo); majority (95%) < 5%
what % of retinoblastomas are bilateral/multifocal versus unilateral
25% (bilateral) versus 75% (unilateral)
what is more prone to CSF/optic nerve spread - retinoblastoma or melanoma
retinoblastoma
what is the most common eye tumor in infants
metastatic leukemia; retinoblastoma is the #1 primary tumor
what are the most common sites of hematogeneous spread in retinoblastoma? What % of patients present with DMs?
bone, liver spleen; 15% present with DMs
what gene/chromosome is mutated in retinoblastoma
RB1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13
what cell cycle checkpoint does retinoblastoma affect
G1/S
what % of retinoblastomas are calcified
90%
what do u cover for EBRT for retinoblastoma
entire globe + optic nerve (8mm)
is risk of 2nd malignancy increased in sporadic forms of retinoblastoma treated with RT
yes - 5% at 50 years
what are the late effect benefits of proton RT in treatment of retinoblastoma
better orbital bone sparing; better lens sparing
what is trilateral retinoblastoma? What % does it represent of hereditary RB?
bilateral retinoblastoma and midline PNET (pineal or suprasellar); represents 5% of hereditary RB
is biopsy done for retinoblastoma?
generally not (can lead to seeding)
how is bilateral retinoblastoma treated
individualize the treatment of each eye (preservation if possible)
what is the most commonly used staging system for retinoblastoma? What does it predict?
reese-ellsworth grouping system; predicts visual preservation after EBRT (not survival)
what is the cell of origin for retinoblastoma?
neuroepithelial cells (from nucleated photoreceptor layer of the inner retina)
are retinoblastoma more commonly heritable or germline mutations
germline (60%) > heritable (40%)
what is the treatment paradigm for unilateral intraocular retinoblastoma
preserve eye with chemotherapy x 6 cycles (VCE - vincristine/carboplatin/etoposide) -> focal therapy
to what other malignancy are retinoblastoma particularly prone
osteosarcoma
did PFS and OS outcomes improve in the intergroup 0099 (Al-Sarraf) trial for nasopharynx
YES; PFS 24 -> 69% (45%); OS 46 -> 76 (30%) with the addition of chemo to RT for NPX cancer; (criticized for poor RT alone results)
is the histologic feature of keratin in nasopharyngeal cancer a positive or negative prognosticator
negative (w/ regards to LC and OS)
from what anatomic location does most nasopharyngeal cancer most arise
fossa of rossenmuller (fossa post to torus tubarius)
what does the N stage of a nasopharyngeal cancer that invovles a supraclavicular LN
N3b (N3a is > 6 cm; in contrast to other H&N sites that just have N3 - > 6 cm)
common DM site from nasopharyngeal cancer
bone > lungs, liver, and brain
who needs chemo (concurrent) in nasopharyngeal cancer (stage)
T2 and above, N+ (al-sarraf and Lee)
what T stage is a nasopharyngeal cancer that has parapharyngeal extension? Paranasal sinus involvement?
T1: confined to NPX or extension to OPX, nasal cavity w/o paraphayngeal extension
T2: parapharyngeal extension
T3: bony structures/paranasal sinuses
T4: intracranial extension/CNs/infratemporal fossa, HPX, orbit, masticator
which type of nasopharyngeal cancer is most strongly associated with EBV exposure - WHO type I, 2a, 2b?
2b (undiff or lymphoepithelial)
what % of nasopharyngeal cancer present with bilateral LAD
50%
what is the nasopharyngeal cancer N stage for bilateral nodal disease, all < 6 cm
N2
what 2 cranial nerve syndromed/tumor extension in nasopharyngeal cancer?
petrosphenoidal syndrome: CN III-IV and VI involvement (oculomotor signs/Sx)
retroparotidian syndrome: CN IX-XII involvement
what % of nasopharyngeal cancer present with palpable LAD
75%
is surgery ever used in nasopharyngeal cancer
hell no.
is there a benefit with the use of induction chemo in nasopharyngeal cancer
NO; multiple RCTs in asia showed no benefit
please describe the chemo and interval/duration in the al-sarraf trial (int 0099) in nasopharyngeal cancer
cisplatin IV 100 mg/m2 q3 weeks concurrently with RT then 3 additional cycles of cisplatin + 5FU
bilateral nodal disease with primary nasopharyngeal cancer involving nasal cavity is what stage
III (T1N2)
N2 - bilateral nodal dz < 6 cm
T1 - w/o parapharyngeal involvement

N3: IVB
is there a benefit with the use of adjuvant chemo in nasopharyngeal cancer
NO; multiple RCTs in asia showed no benefit and 1 italian study
what N stage for nasopharyngeal cancer of a multiple ispilateral LNs all < 6 cm
N1 - any # of nodes confined to the ipsi neck < 6 cm
N2 - bilateral
dose constraints of the parotid based on RTOG 0225 study
mean dose < 26 Gy
what predicts DM in patients with nasopharyngeal cancer (3)
lower neck nodes involv, retropharyngeal LN involv, WHO type IIB
what are the typical IMRT dose painting sizes in nasopharyngeal cancer
2.12 x 33 = 69.96 Gy to GTV
1.8 Gy x 33 = 59.4 Gy to intermediate risk ares
1.64 Gy x 33 = 54 Gy to low-risk areas
what is the T stage of a nasopharyngeal cancer with soft palate involvement alone without parapharyngeal spread
T1: designates lesions without parapharyngeal extension (can inv Opx/nasalcavity
what is the nasopharyngeal cancer T stage for tumor involving CN
T4; and other intracranial structures, infratemporal fossa, HPX, masticator space
median age of nasopharyngeal cancer
50
patients with upper level V neck node are most likely to have what kind of H&N primary
nasopharyngeal cancer
what is the most common presenting symptom of nasopharyngeal cancer
neck mass > epistaxis, otalgia, nasal congestion, trismus
what is the local pattern of spread of nasopharyngeal cancer: superiorly, inferiorly, posteriorly, laterally, and anteriorly?
superiorly: invades cavernous sinus w/ predom CN VI involv
inferiorly/posteriorly: oropharyngeal structures
laterally: parapharyngeal space
anteriorly: nasal cavity
what makes the anatomic boundaries of the nasopharynx
superior: sphenoid bone
inferior: soft palate
posterior: clivus/C1-2
anterior: post edge of choanae
which WHO type of nasopharyngeal cancer is associated with smoking and has a poor local control but a lower propensity for DM
WHO type I (keratinizing SCC)
which WHO type is endemic and prone to distant recurrence
WHO IIb (undiff or lymphoepithelial) (better LC but more distant spread)
what correlates better with DM spread in nasopharyngeal cancer: N stage or T stage
N stage
what CNs go through the jugular foramen
CNs IX-XI
what CNS go through the cavernous sinus
CNs III-IV, V1-2, VI
what autoimmune condition can nasopharyngeal cancer be associated with
dermatomyositis
what are the 3 WHO histologic subtypes of nasopharyngeal cancer, and what is the prevalence of each type
WHO I: keratizing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) - 20%
WHO IIA: nonkeratizing SCC (nondifferentiated) (35%)
WHO IIb: undiffentiated or lymphoepithelial (45%)
what environmental risk factors associated with nasopharyngeal cancer
consumption of salted fish and preserved meats, EBV infection, and smoking for keratinzing squamous cell type (no alcohol association)
adenopathy near the mastoid tip is indicative of …
retropharyngeal nodal involvement (node of Rouviere)
what is the T-stage of nasopharyngeal cancer that involves the sphenoid sinus
T3: denotes bony structures and/or paranasal sinus
how does nasopharyngeal cancer reach and invade the cavernous sinus
can track through the foramen lacerum
what is typical presentation of extremity desmoid tumor
deep-seated painless mass with hx of slow growth
what dose (min) is needed to control desmoid tumors w/ RT alone
> 50 Gy; rec 50-56 Gy
what is local recurrence rate for desmoid tumors treated with RT alone - 20, 40, 60, 80%
22% (7% if negative margin; 26% if positive)
desmoid tumors appear similar to what histologically
well-diff (grade 1) fibrosarcoma
what genetic abnormality is associated with desmoid tumors
2% associated with APC --> familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
what decade of life do desmoid tumors present
3rd or 4th
desmoid tumors are associated with what syndrome
gardner syndrome
do desmoid tumors have metastatic potential
NO
what is the primary modality for desmoid tumors
surgical resection
is there a race or gender predilection for desmoid tumors
women; no race or ethnic predilection
what 2 environmental conditions are associated with desmoid tumors
trauma, or high estrogen
what desmoid tumor sites is RT not recommended
retroperitoneal/intrabdominal
what is another commonly used name for desmoid tumor
aggressvie fibromatosis
what is gardner syndrome
SOD - sebaceous cysts, osteomas, desmoid tumors
what dose of RT is associated with premature closure of the epiphysis
> 20 Gy
name 3 anatomic sites in which desmoid tumors develops
trunk/extremity
abdominal wall
intraabdominal compartment
what is the typical presentation of intraabdominal desmoid tumor
bowel ischemia or obstruction
name 4 nonsurgical, non-RT approaches to desmoid tumors
1. hormone ablation (tamoxifen)
2. NSAIDs (sulindac)
3. low-dose cytotoxic chemo (methotrexate or doxorubicin based)
4. targeted therapy (imatinib)
can ependymomas recur late
yes, up to 10+ years later
what does overexpression of erbB-2/erbB-4 expression in ependymoma associated with for outcome
poor outcome
what type of ependymomas commonly arise in the conus/filum region of the spinal cord
myxopapillary ependymoma
when is RT used in spinal ependymomas?
when resection is incomplete or anaplastic histology
perivascular pseudorosettes
ependymomas
single most important favorable prognostic factor in ependymoma
completeness of surgical resection
cell of origin for ependymomas
ependymal cells lining the ventricles
how is ependymoblastoma treated
like medulloblastoma/PNET: CSI 36Gy + vincristine; boost cavity/gross dz 45-50.4 (spine) and 54-59.4Gy if cranial --> adjuvant RT
should you do a LP for a posterior fossa mass (medullo, ependymoma)
NO (not until resection of primary)
for spinal ependymomas how much cord should be treated?
2 vertebral bodies above and below
what is the 5 yr OS difference btw GTR vs STR for ependymomas? Low vs high grade?
75 vs 35% (for both)
when should CSI be done for ependymomas?
+CSF
+MRI neuroaxis
ependymoblastoma
what neurologica deficits (sensory vs motor) are spinal cord ependymoma pts likely to present
sensory deficits (vs cord astrocytomas which present with pain/motor deficits)
if you have a young patient (< 1 yo) with ependymoma s/p surgery what adjuvant therapy should be given?
chemo until older than 3 (?) then can give RT
what genetic syndrome is associated with spinal cord ependymoma
NF-2
do young children oryoung adults with ependymoma have a worse prognosis
children, age < 4 yrs is a poor prognostic factor
grade the following types of ependymoma from 1-4: classic, anaplastic, ependymoblastoma, myxopapillary and subependymoma
Grade 1: myxopapillary and subependymoma
Grade 2: classic
Grade 3: anaplastic
Grade 4: ependymoblastoma
which ependymomas have a poorer prognosis: supratentorial or infratentorial?
supratentorial (increased high grade and more STR)
where do grade 4 ependymomas generally arise - infra or supra tentorially
supratentorium
what ependymoma locations are most amenable to GTR?
spinal > supratentorial > infratentorial
what is the median age of dx for ependymomas
bimodal age distribution: 5 and 35
what are typical chemo agents for ependymomas
cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, and etoposide
Ependymomas location: children? Adults? (supra- vs infra- tentorial)
children: infratentorial (60%)
adults: supratentorial (2/3rd)
what % of ependymoma pts present with CSF seeding (15, 30, 45, 60)? What features predispose to seeding?
15%; infratentorial location, high-grade tumors, and Local failure
does high grade gliomas enhance on T1? T2? FLAIR?
YES on all 3
what is the median survival for a patient with RPA class I-II, III-IV, and V-VI
Class I-II: 4 years
Class III-IV: 12 mos (1 year)
Class V-VI: 9 mos

(4 minus 3 years = 1 year (12 mos) minus 3 mos = 9 mos)
is there evidence for dose escalation beyond 60 Gy in high grade gliomas
NO; RTOG 7401 showed no benefit
FDA approved use of gliadel?
recurrent disease with re-resection (improved advantage of 6 -> 8 mos)
contrast genetic changes associated with primary vs secondary GBM
primary: EGFR (inc), MDM2 amplification, LOH10, p16

secondary: p53 -> LGG -> LOH 19q/p16 -> AA -> LOH 10, DCC -> 2nd GBM
what constitutes RPA class III - high-grade glioma
age < 50, AA w/ poor MS, or GBM with good KPS
additional medications (other than TMZ) needed in treatment of high grade gliomas
steroids
proton pump inhibitors
PCP prophylaxis
what was the overall survival (5 yr) benefit in the STUPP trial for GBM
10% vs 2% (no TMZ)
what are the most important factors used for the RTOG recursive partitioning analysis (RPA) stratification for GBM?
age 50 years
histology (AA or GBM)
KPS
MS changes
Sx of < 3 mos
what is the dose of temozolamide, and how is it administered/scheduled?
oral pill; 75 mg/m2 for 7 days a week during RT --> 1 mos break then 6 cyes of 150-200 mg/m2 x 5 days
what symptoms do high-grade gliomas most commonly present
headache (esp in AM) > seizures > focal neurological, mental status
what is the MS of LGG vs HGG
low grade: oligo 10 years, oligoastro 7, anaplastic oligo 5

high grade: AA 3 years; GBM 1 year
is there evidence supporting RT hyperfractionation for GBM
NO (RTOG 8302, 9006 failed to show benefit)
what defines RPA class VI patients
any histology with KPS < 70 and altered MS
what is radioisotope used in gliastine in GBM? What dose? Prescribed to?
I-125; 60 Gy; prescribed to 0.5-1 cm at dose rate of 50 cGy/hr
what is MGMT
a DNA repair enzyme that removes alkyl groups from the 06 position of guanine (when methylated -> inactive; leads to longer survival)
is there a benefit to radiosurgery boost for high-grade gliomas
NO
what WHO classification is GBM
IV
what WHO classification is oligodendroglioma
III; includes anaplastic astrocytoma and oligoastrocytoma
what is the cushing triad and what does it represent in brain tumors?
HTN, bradycardia, respiratory irregularity

represents increased ICP
what are the 4 pathologic characteristics that define GBM
pseudopalisading necrosis
vascular proliferation
increased mitotic rate
pleomorphic nuclei
under what RPA classes can GBM fall
classes III-VI
III: < 50, KPS 90-100
IV: < 50, KPS < 90 or > 50, good KPS
V: >50, KPS < 70 but no change in MS
VI: KPS < 70 and MS change
common genetic changes seen in malignant brain tumors
EGFR and PTEN
what % of primary CNS tumors are malignant
40%
hypofractionation regimens for elderly GBM w/ poor KPS
40 Gy in 15 fx or 30 Gy in 10 fx for patients > 60 , KPS < 50
what % of GBMs are multicentric
5%
what was main toxicity seen from temozolamide in STUPP trial
thrombocytompenia (7% g3-4
SCC of skin T stage of orbit or temporal bone
T3 (T1 <= 2 cm; T2 > 2 cm; T3 inv maxilla, orbit, temporal bone; T4 skeletal invasion, PNI of skull base)
what is a marjolin ulcer
scc arising in burn scar
what are main determinants of LN spread for SCC
poor differentiation
size/depth (> 3 cm/ > 4 mm)
PNI/LVI
location (lips, scars/burns/ear)
recurrent lesions
if cartilage is in the RT field, what should the dose/fx be kept below
< 3 Gy per fx - to reduce chondritis
what is the Rx point if orthvoltage RT is employed for skin cancer
not > 1 cm deep; Dmax (90% of the IDL has to encompass the tumor)
what area of the body is at highest risk for SCC and BCC
H&N region
high risk SCC or BCC features based on AJCC
> 2 mm DOI, Clark level >= IV, PNI, poor differentiation, an ear or hair-bearing lip site
what is a "pearly papule" lesion pathognomonic for
BCC
when is cryotherapy and curettage appropriate for skin cancer
small superficial BCC
superficial well-diff SCC
what ist he best predictor of LC after definitive RT for SCC
T stage (T1 - 95%; T3 - 50%)
risk factors for skin cancers
sun exposure, chronic irritation, genetic disorders, and immunosuppression
what other site is skin cancer N-stage similar to?
H&N:
N1: single, ipsi <=3 cm
N2a: single ipsi 3-6 cm
N2b: multiple , ipsi < 6 cm
N2c: bilat < 6cm
N3a: > 6 cm
after surgical resection for skin cancers when should u consider adjuvant nodal RT
multiple (> 3), large (> 3cm), ECE, a preauricular site, and PNI
where is the "H" zone anatomically and why is it important
midface where the embryologic fusion lines lie (high risk for deep invasion and high risk for LR)
what are the relative contraindications to RT in the treatment of skin cancers
areas prone to trauma (hand dorsum or belt line)
poor blood supply(below knees/elbows)
age < 50
post-RT recurrence
Gorlin syndrome
CD 4 count < 200
high occupational sun exposure
exposed area of bone/cartilage
what is the most common genetic mutation in both SCC and BCC
p53
where does SCC of the skin metastasize to
lung > liver > bones
when is Mohs surgery contraindicated for skin cancer
central face lesions > 5 mm and ear/scalp lesions > 2 cm
when is topical 5FU used for SCC
when lesion is confined to the epidermis
sun exposure at what stage of life correlates with BCC vs SCC
BCC - early in life
SCC - decade preceding Dx
how should SCC of the mastoid be treated
mastoidectomy or temporal bone resection -> PORT
what LN regions are most commonly involved in SCC of skin
upper cervical and deep parotid regions
when treating with electrons, how deep should the 90% isodose line extend in relation to the lesion
5-10 mm deeper than the lesion
what is more common on the external ear - BCC or SCC? Internal/canal?
external: BCC

internal: SCC
what is the sex predilection for skin cancer
males > females (4:1)
when treating skin lesions with electrons, what rule is employed to choose the correct beam energy
3 times the lesion depth (for 2 cm ~ 9 MeV beam needed)
when should surgery be recommended for pinna skin cancer lesions?
when cartilage is invovled or with tumor extension to the canal
what is bowen disease
SCC in situ
what genetic/inherited disorders are associated with skin cancer
phenylketonuria, golrin syndrome, xeroderma pigmentosa, and albinism
what is dental wax used for
to absorb the back scatter from incident photon beam
what type of UV ray (A or B) is most responsible for skin cancer
B
what are 4 indications for adjuvant RT to the primary site with skin cancer
positive margin
PNI of nerve
> 3 cm lesion or T4
parotid SCC
what is erythroplasia de Querat
Bowen (SCC in situ) of the penis
which pts with vulvar cancer do not require inguinal lymphadenectomy
in setting of no clinically suspicious nodes, with depth of invasion < 1 mm and no LVSI or high grade
what is biopsy approach for small (< 1 cm) vulvar lesions
excisional biopsy with a 1 cm margin, including skin, dermis, and connective tissue
risk of inguinal LN involvement based on vulvar cancer FIGO stage
I: 15%
II: 40%
III: 60%
IV: 90%
neoadjuvant CRT in unresectable vulvar cancer; what is its results? (converted to resectable diseas)
GOG 101: 73 pts w/ unresectable vulvar given cis/5FU + 47.6 Gy and 97% converted to resectable disease
indications for bilateral groin and pelvic irradiation in vulvar cancer (which trial answered)
pts w/ >= 2 micro mets in inguinal nodes
single node > 5 mm
single node w/ ECE
(discovered in the Homesley trial)
what was the randomization and benefit outcomes in the Homesley study for vulvar cancer
pts s/p radical vulvectomy+bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy randomized to inguinal/pelvic RT versus pelvic node dissection (if node +)
reduction in recurrence rate (24 -> 5) and improvement in OS (54 -> 68)
All benefits of RT were for > 1+ node
how should the primary of a patient with FIGO stage I or II vulvar cancer be treated
WLE (2 cm margin)
txt strategy for unresectable vulvar cancer
chemoRT - 66-70 Gy w/ cisplatin/5FU

+ margin: 63-66 Gy
adjuvant: 50.4 Gy
risk of inguinal LN involvement based on DOI of vulvar cancer: < 1 mm, 1-3, 3-5, > 5 mm?
< 1 mm: 5%
1-3 mm: 8%
3-5: 27%
> 5 mm: 35%
what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that extends to the the lower 3rd of the urethra
I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus)
III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE)
IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone
IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs
IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs)
what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that is 3 cm with < 1 mm stromal invasion confined to the vulva
I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus)
III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE)
IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone
IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs
IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs)
what FIGO stage is a vulvar cancer that is 4 cm that invades the upper vaginal mucosa w/ 2 LNs < 5 mm
I: A: lesion <= 2 cm w/ stromal inv < 1mm; B: lesion > 2 cm or stromal inv > 1 mm
II: lesion of any size with ext to adj structures (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus)
III: lesion of any size with ext to (lower 3rd of urethra, lower 3rd of vagina or anus) and positive inguinofemoral LNs (A: 1 >5 mm or 1-2 < 5 mm; B: >=2 LNs (5 mm) or >=3 (<5mm); C: ECE)
IVA1: invades upper urethra and/or vaginal mucosa, bladder mucosa, rectal mucosa, or pelvic bone
IVA2: fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral LNs
IVB: DMs (includes pelvic LNs)
what are the relative indications for adjuvant RT to the primary site following WLE for vulvar cancer
posiive margins or close (< 8 mm fixed specimen or < 1 cm by frozen section)
LVSI
DOI > 5 mm
what is the 5 yr OS for stage III (FIGO) vulvar cancer?
70%; I - 90%, II - 80, III - 70, IV - 20
how are inguinal nodes treated in vulvar cancer stage IA? IB? II?
IA: lymphadenectomy not necessarcy ( < 2 cm and < 1 mm stromal inv) can consider if high grade or LVSI
IB: unilateral vs bilateral depending on laterality
II: bilateral lymphadenectomy
what % of vulvar cancers are locally advanced
30%
What was the GOG 88 trial that looked at N0 vulvar patients s/p radical vulvectomy? Criticisms of GOG 88 - vulvar trial that looked at inguinal LND vs inguinal irradiation
GOG88 (Stehman) - randomized to bilateral inguinal femoral and pelvic LND (+ nodes rcv RT) vs bilat groin only EBRT (50 Gy); LR, PFS, and OS favored the lymphadenectomy arm

CT no used for staging and 50 Gy may not be adequate for pts w/ gross nodes
CT not required for RT planning; pts were treated with electron fields (prescribed to a depth of 3 cm)
most common histology of vulvar cancer? 2nd most common?
SCC or melanoma
what are the 2 strongest predictors of LN involvement in vulvar cancer
tumor grade and depth of invasion
what is the function of HPV-associated oncoproteins
thought that HPV-associated oncoproteins bind and inactivate tumor suppressor proteins such as Rb, p53, and p21
which subsites does vulvar cancer most commonly arise
70% of vulvar cancers arise fro mthe labia majora/minora
Describe the "pair of pants" technique to treat vulvar cancer
3 AP fields and 1 PA field. AP - pelvic field and left and right inguinal fields; PA - the pelvic field. Beams are weighted so that both the isocenter within the pelvis and the groins receive 100% of the dose
what are the 7 subsites of the vulva
labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal vestibule, perineal body, and posterior forchette
Risk factors for vulvar cancer (11)
increasing age, HPV, VIN, bowen dz, paget dz, erythroplasia, chronic vaginitis, leukoplakia, smoking, employment in laundry facilities, immune deficiency
what are the late toxicities associated with irradiation to the vulva and inguinal nodes
vaginal atrophy, itching and discharge, SBO, and femoral neck fracture
is the staging system for vulvar cancer surgical or clinical
surgical
what are the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd echelon LN regions in vulvar cancer? Which subsite is associated with skip nodal mets?
1st: superficial inguinofemoral
2nd: deep inguinofemoral and femoral
3rd: external iliac LNs

clitoris can skip
what are the most common presenting symptoms of pts with vulvar cancer
pruritis, vulvar discomfort or pain, dysuria, oozing or bleeding, and difficulty with defacation
what does is desired for EBRT +brachytherapy for vaginal cancer
70-80 Gy
increased risk for clear cell adenocarcinoma is linked with what exposure
DES - diethylstilbestrol
contrast the nodal drainage of the upper 2/3rds of the vagina nad the lower 1/3rd of the vagina
upper 2/3rd - obturator, internal, external, and common iliac nodes

lower 1/3rd - inguinofemoral noeds
when working up a presumed vaginal cancer primary, what other 3 sites should be evaluated for cosynchronous in situ or invasive disease
cervical, vulvar and/or anal
in general, what is the preferred treatment modality for vaginal cancer
definitive RT (surgery possible for early stage I lesions)
what is the 5 yr pelvic disease control for vaginal cancer by stage: I, II, III/IVA
I: 85%
II: 85%
III/IVA: 70%
(DSS: 85%, 80%, 60%)
what is the FIGO stage for a vulvar cancer that is 4 cm and extends to the pelvic side wall? DMs?
0: CIS
I: vaginal wall
II: paravaginal tissue but not pelvic sidewall
III: pelvic sidewall
IVA: mucosa of bladder/rectum and/or directly outside the pelvis
IVB: DMs
what % of cancers involving the vagina are not primary vaginal cancers
75%
what type of vaginal sarcoma is most common in adults? In children?
adults: leiomyosarcoma

children (<6 yo): embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
what is the most common histology for vaginal cancer? Other types of rare vaginal cancer histologies?
squamous cell carcinoma; others - melanoma, sarcoma, lymphoma, adenoCA, and clear cell adenoCA
a vaginal cancer is never considered a vaginal primary if it involves either of what structures
vulva or cerix
what are 3 appropriate treatments for vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia (VAIN) (besides RT)
surgical excision, laser vaporization, and topical 5 FU
VAIN is multifocal in what percentage of patients
60%
where in the vagina is vaginal cancer most often located
posterior wall; superior 1/3rd of the vagina (must rotate speculum to ensure exam)
what 3 lifestyle risk factors are associated with increased incidence of vaginal cancer
# of lifetime sexual partners, early onset of intercourse, and current smoking