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37 Cards in this Set
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4. A psychologist does not have a prior written release of information from his patient. If the psychologist were to receive a telephone call from a third party, which of the following statements is inaccurate?
• 1. The psychologist may listen to what the caller has to say. • 2. The psychologist may not acknowledge that the patient is in therapy unless extenuating circumstances apply. • 3. The psychologist may breach confidentiality if extenuating circumstances apply. • 4. The psychologist may not engage in such a telephone conversation unless extenuating circumstances apply. |
Feedback: When a psychologist receives a phone call from a third party, and there is no prior written release, the psychologist may listen to what the caller has to say (Response 1) but generally may not share any confidential information, even the fact that the patient is in psychotherapy (Response 2). There are extenuating circumstances in which the psychologist may breach confidentiality (Response 3), such as if the caller is giving credible information to suggest that the patient is a danger to self or others.
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22. What percentage of the time that a supervisee is accruing supervised professional experience (SPE) must the supervisor be employed in the same work setting as the supervisee?
• 1. 100% (your response) • 2. 50% • 3. 25% • 4. There is no such requirement as long as the supervisor is “available” 100% of the time. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Effective January 1, 2005, primary supervisors must be employed by the same work setting in which the supervisee is accruing supervised professional experience (SPE), and must be available 100% of the time that the supervisee is working (Response 4). The requirement that primary supervisors be employed by the same work setting at least 50% of the time the supervisee is accruing SPE (Response 2) was eliminated.
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39. You have been treating a 28-year-old patient who has a history of multiple hospitalizations and a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. One evening he pages you and tells you that his wife has been poisoning him. He adds, “She won’t get away with this.” Which of the following would constitute your best course of action?
• 1. Discharge your Tarasoff duty by informing the police and warning the wife, and arrange for inpatient hospitalization. (your response) • 2. Contact the police or psychiatric emergency team (PET), and arrange for inpatient hospitalization. • 3. Assess for danger to self and others, and take further action based on your assessment (e.g., hospitalization, Tarasoff). • 4. Assess for dangerousness, and consider whether a Tarasoff duty applies. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Your best course of action in this situation would be to assess for dangerousness, and consider whether a Tarasoff duty applies (Response 4). The question does not indicate a danger to self, ruling out Response 3. There is not enough information provided to make a Tarasoff determination (Response 1) in that the patient’s statement that, “she won’t get away with this” can mean a number of different things and certainly would not meet the criteria for a direct patient communication of an imminent threat of violence; nor is it clear that hospitalization is warranted (ruling out Responses 1 and 2).
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45. A patient with many friends has a panic attack every time she attends the weekly staff meeting at her office. Her most likely diagnosis is:
• 1. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia. • 2. Avoidant Personality Disorder. • 3. Social Phobia. (correct answer) • 4. Specific Phobia. (your response) |
3. Social Phobia
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63. A sixty-five year old woman presents to treatment six months after her husband dies. She complains that she is frequently forgetting things and is generally confused. To receive the diagnosis of Dementia, this patient must evidence:
• 1. memory problems along with at least one of four cognitive impairments (aphasia, agnosia, apraxia, and disturbances in executive functioning). (correct answer) • 2. memory problems along with at least one of four cognitive impairments (aphasia, agnosia, apraxia, and disturbances in executive functioning), with no evidence of depression or bereavement. (your response) • 3. memory problems. • 4. no evidence of Delirium. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Dementia is diagnosed when there are multiple cognitive impairments due to a general medical condition, persisting effects of a substance, or multiple etiologies. The cognitive impairments must include both memory impairment and one of the following: aphasia (language disturbance), apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities), agnosia (failure to recognize or identify objects), or disturbance in executive functioning (e.g., planning, organizing, sequencing, abstracting). Memory impairments alone (Response 3) would constitute an Amnestic Disorder. Dementia should not be diagnosed when a different Axis I Disorder can better explain the clinical presentation. For example, Major Depressive Disorder and bereavement, especially in older adults, can mimic Dementia (this is often called “pseudo-dementia”). However, Dementia can certainly co-exist with depression and bereavement (Response 2). Delirium (Response 4) can be superimposed on Dementia; in such cases both diagnoses are made.
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73. According to the American Psychological Association’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), when a psychologist recognizes that a harmful multiple relationship does exist, the psychologist should:
• 1. terminate the multiple relationship as soon as possible. (your response) • 2. refer the patient to a different therapist as soon as possible. • 3. proceed with caution, and consult with colleagues. • 4. attempt to resolve the conflict with due regard for the patient, and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! The APA Ethics Code explicitly states that when a harmful multiple relationship is recognized to exist, a psychologist should attempt to resolve the conflict with “due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code.” The Code does not state that the multiple relationship should be terminated as soon as possible (Response 1); there may be other important actions that must be taken (e.g., clarification of roles, pre-termination counseling, etc.). Although referring a patient to another therapist (Response 2) may ultimately be appropriate, it is not necessarily the only or the best solution. A psychologist might instead withdraw from the other relationship. For example, if a psychologist’s child is placed in a class with a patient as the teacher, the psychologist might place the child in a different class rather than referring the patient out. “Proceeding with caution” (Response 3) is not the explicit recommendation of the Ethics Code; in addition, this response suggests that it might be acceptable to continue the harmful multiple relationship.
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94. Mr. Smith, a 42-year-old male, is referred to you through his EAP program at work. His supervisor reports that over the past eight months, Mr. Smith’s long-standing work problems have worsened. Mr. Smith disagrees and says things have not been as problematic as his supervisor thinks. He attributes most of his work difficulties to concentration problems. He also notes that his fourth wife left him about three months ago. Mr. Smith is least likely to receive a diagnosis in which of the following diagnostic categories?
• 1. Mood Disorder. • 2. Substance Use Disorder. • 3. Personality Disorder. (your response) • 4. Adjustment Disorder. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Given that Mr. Smith’s work problems and his relationship problems have been long-standing, an Adjustment Disorder is the least likely diagnosis for Mr. Smith. An Adjustment Disorder is diagnosed when symptoms emerge clearly related to a stressor and do not continue for more than six months after the stressor has ended. Mr. Smith’s work and concentration problems could be due to Depression (Response 1). His marital problems (i.e., four failed marriages) and long-standing work problems might also indicate Substance Abuse or Dependence (Response 2) or a Personality Disorder (Response 3).
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97. For a 25-year-old Iraq war veteran diagnosed with Schizophrenia, which of the following would be the most appropriate outcome measure?
• 1. The patient is able to attend to activities of daily living 90% of the time. (correct answer) • 2. The patient’s Schizophrenia has been reduced by 90%. • 3. The patient is medication compliant 90% of the time. (your response) • 4. The patient’s attendance rate at a Day Treatment Center is 90%. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Because psychosocial functioning is impaired in Schizophrenia, improvements in this area would be appropriate to use as outcome measures. “Able to attend to activities of daily living 90% of the time” is a specific and operationalized measure. “Schizophrenia has been reduced by 90%” is a vague, almost meaningless statement (ruling out Response 2). While medication compliance (Response 3) is always important, and participation in a psychosocial treatment program (Response 4) may be very important for some patients with Schizophrenia, Responses 3 and 4 do not address treatment outcome.
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10. You are treating a patient who is gang affiliated. He tells you that a gang member plans to kill you because you know too much. You should:
• 1. continue seeing the patient and discuss the situation further. (your response) • 2. terminate treatment and provide appropriate referrals. • 3. make a Tarasoff report. • 4. call law enforcement. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! A Tarasoff duty exists when it is your client who presents a threat to another person (ruling out Response 3). In this case, your client is reporting a threat to you from his friends. The most salient issue is to mobilize law enforcement resources (Response 4) for your own protection. While ultimately you may choose to continue working with this patient (Response 1), or terminate (Response 2), that decision is not most relevant to handling the situation at hand.
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24. According to the Tarasoff Statute (Civil Code 43.92), which of the following best summarizes the circumstances that warrant a Tarasoff duty?
• 1. A psychotherapist has reasonable cause to believe that a patient poses an imminent threat of violence against an identifiable victim. • 2. A patient directly communicates to the psychotherapist an imminent threat of violence. • 3. The psychotherapist in his or her professional capacity learns that the patient has made a threat of imminent violence against an identifiable victim. (your response) • 4. A patient communicates to the psychotherapist an imminent threat of violence against an identifiable victim. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! According to the Tarasoff Statue (Civil Code 43.92), a Tarasoff situation exists when three conditions are met: (a) a patient communicates a serious threat, (b) directly to the therapist, (c) against an identifiable victim. The victim must be reasonably identifiable and not just “any victim” to qualify for a Tarasoff situation (Response 2). Similarly, the therapist must learn of the threat directly from the patient (or close family member according to the Ewing decision), not simply from any source (Response 3). Although therapists have legal and ethical duties to protect the public any time a patient poses a threat of violence (Response 1), Tarasoff duties are invoked only when the three conditions described above have been met.
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28. The Business and Professions Code defines “telemedicine” as health care delivery, diagnosis, consultation, treatment, and education using interactive audio, video, or data communications. Telephone conversations and emails are excluded. Prior to delivery of telemedicine services:
• 1. the provider must at a minimum secure written informed consent. • 2. the provider must at a minimum secure verbal informed consent. • 3. the provider must secure either written or verbal informed consent. (your response) • 4. the provider must secure both written and verbal informed consent. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! The Business and Professions Code (Section 2290.5) requires both verbal and written consent from either the patient or the patient’s legal representative prior to the delivery of health care via telemedicine.
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29. Which of the following is the least likely to be used in the treatment of a patient with Post Traumatic Stress Disorder?
• 1. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy. • 2. Exposure. (your response) • 3. Psychopharmacology. • 4. Psychological debriefing. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Critical incident debriefing and the related intervention of psychological debriefing (Response 4) were originally hailed as treatments that could prevent PTSD from developing. The underlying theory was that immediate debriefing of people who had suffered a trauma would resolve their problems without the development of chronic symptoms. Further research has shown that these treatments are not effective in preventing PTSD, and, for a subset of people, actually worsens trauma-related symptoms. Once a patient has been diagnosed with either Acute Stress Disorder or PTSD psychological debriefing is never used for treatment.
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34. When records are kept electronically, what are the requirements for the original hard copies?
• 1. Original hard copies may be destroyed. (correct answer) • 2. Original hard copies should be kept for at least three years. • 3. Original hard copies should be kept for at least seven years. • 4. Original hard copies may not be destroyed for at least seven years, and should thereafter be kept in accordance with the organization’s policies and procedures. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! California law specifies several requirements if a therapist wishes to keep electronic treatment records. The therapist must institute procedures so that confidentiality is safeguarded. The therapist must also ensure that the records are tamper-proof. An off-site backup storage system is needed so that records aren’t lost if, for example, a computer has an irreparable crash or a fire destroys the computer. California law stipulates that original hard copies of patient records may be destroyed once the record has been electronically stored.
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40. You are a psychologist in private practice with a 24-hour minimum cancellation policy. A patient calls two hours prior to the session and states he is unable to attend because of car trouble. You may:
• 1. bill his insurance using the CPT code for a no-show. • 2. bill his insurance using the CPT code for a no-show, and charge the patient his customary co-payment. • 3. not bill his insurance, and you may charge the patient only his customary co-pay. (your response) • 4. not bill his insurance, and you may charge the patient up to his full fee. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! While there is a CPT code for a no-show, a psychologist may not bill insurance when a patient violates the psychologist’s cancellation policy (ruling out Responses 1 and 2). The psychologist may charge the patient the full fee (Response 4) under the terms of the office policy, as stated at the outset of treatment.
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44. According to APA’s 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines, in the absence of superseding requirements, psychologists may:
• 1. retain a full set of records for three years, and a partial set of records for an additional 12 years. • 2. retain a full set of records on all patients for seven years after the last date of service delivery. • 3. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for either seven years after the last date of service or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later. (correct answer) • 4. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for seven years after the minor reaches the age of majority. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! APA’s 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines note that in the absence of superseding guidelines (e.g., state law) psychologists may retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors psychologist may retain a full set of records for either seven years or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later.
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52. You administer an MMPI-2 to Arden, a 32-year-old construction worker who was recently fired from his job for scaring his co-workers. Which scales are most likely to be elevated if Arden’s diagnosis is Bipolar II?
• 1. Scale F, Scale 6, Scale 8. • 2. Scale K, Scale 2, Scale 9. (your response) • 3. Scale K, Scale 6, Scale 8. • 4. Scale F, Scale 2, Scale 9. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! With a diagnosis of Bipolar II, in conjunction with reports that Arden’s behavior has been frightening to his co-workers, one would expect MMPI-2 elevations on Scale F, Scale 2, and Scale 9. An elevation on Validity Scale F (the Infrequency Scale) suggests pathology, as this scale taps items that are not typically endorsed in the general population. An elevation on Clinical Scale 9, Hypomania indicates high levels of energy, poor impulse control, grandiosity, irritability, and risk-taking associated with mania or hypomania. An elevation on Clinical Scale 2, Depression suggests depression, dissatisfaction, and pessimism. In contrast, a psychotic disorder would most likely be indicated by elevations on Clinical Scale 8, Schizophrenia, and possibly Clinical Scale 6, Paranoia. An elevation on Validity Scale K (Responses 2 and 3) suggest an attempt to present in the best possible light, and would not likely be seen in a case of an active mood disorder or psychosis.
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53. You are treating a 14-year-old girl brought to treatment by her foster mother. The girl suffers from nightmares secondary to molestation by her step-father. She says, “I hate my step-father and wish I could kill him.” You should:
• 1. help her understand her diagnosis of PTSD, and help her process her anger over what happened to her. (your response) • 2. assess further for dangerousness. (correct answer) • 3. consider hospitalization. • 4. discuss the girl’s distress with her foster mother. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Potential crises must always be immediately addressed as they arise in the course of treatment. The patient has expressed a wish to kill her step-father who molested her, so the psychologist’s first responsibility is to assess further for dangerousness (Response 2). Based on the girl’s statement, it would be premature to consider hospitalization (Response 3) before assessing whether or not the patient has any intent or plan. Assuming she is not homicidal, it would be appropriate to help her understand her PTSD diagnosis and process her anger (Response 1). The girl’s distress, in and of itself, is not reason enough to break confidentiality and talk to her foster mother (ruling out Response 4).
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60. Your 16-year-old patient tells you that she has just begun a consensual sexual relationship with her 21-year-old neighbor. You should:
• 1. make a report to DCS. • 2. maintain her confidentiality. (correct answer) • 3. inform her parents. • 4. discuss with her that while the relationship is consensual, it still constitutes statutory rape. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! According to the child abuse laws of California, when an individual who is 16 years of age has consensual sex with a partner of the same or any greater age, the sexual relationship is not considered child abuse (ruling out Response 1). When the patient is 14 or 15, a psychologist is obligated to make a report when the partner is 21 or older. While it is true that in this situation the patient’s relationship constitutes statutory rape, there is no obligation to discuss this with her (ruling out Response 4). The psychologist is legally obligated to maintain confidentiality in this situation (Response 2), and unless some type of extenuating circumstance applies, which has not been described here, the psychologist should not inform her parents (ruling out Response 3).
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63. In the course of family therapy, when a psychologist becomes aware of possible dependent adult abuse, but there is still insufficient basis for a reasonable suspicion, the psychologist should:
• 1. meet with the alleged victim. (correct answer) • 2. meet with the alleged perpetrator. • 3. meet with the entire family together. • 4. make a report to Adult Protective Services. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! If there is still insufficient basis for a “reasonable” suspicion, a report to Adult Protective Services is not yet warranted (ruling out Response 4). The most logical course of action would be to speak to the alleged victim privately to determine if there is a reason to make a report (Response 1). Talking to the alleged perpetrator or to the entire family together (Response 2 and 3) could put a potential victim in further danger.
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64. You are an independent contractor hired by a corporation to provide pre-employment screenings. The corporation fails to pay you according to your agreement with them. On what basis may you ethically withhold these assessments?
• 1. You are permitted to withhold the reports because they are assessments and not treatment records. • 2. You are permitted to withhold the reports because you have secured the services of a collections agency. • 3. You are permitted to withhold records because the employees will not be harmed. (your response) • 4. You are permitted to withhold records because the employer will not be harmed. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Psychologists may not withhold records that are necessary for emergency treatment because a client owes them money. Thus, in a situation in which the client might potentially be harmed, the psychologist may not withhold records. In this situation, the employer will not be harmed (Response 4) if you withhold the pre-employment screenings pending payment. The fact that the employees will not be harmed (Response 3) is irrelevant because the employer is your “client” in this case. The Ethics Code does not differentiate between assessment records and treatment records in terms of guidelines for withholding records (ruling out Response 1). Whether or not you have secured the services of a collection agency (Response 2) does not address the main issue with regard to withholding records, which is the potential for harm. NOTE: California law and HIPAA do not allow psychologists to withhold treatment records for non-payment under any circumstances (emergency or non-emergency treatment).
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71. At the outset of family therapy the psychologist should:
• 1. clarify who is the patient, clarify roles, and discuss limits of confidentiality. (correct answer) • 2. clarify who is the patient, clarify roles, discuss treatment goals, and discuss limits of confidentiality. (your response) • 3. discuss treatment goals and limits of confidentiality. • 4. discuss fees and billing arrangements, treatment goals, and limits of confidentiality. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, at the outset of family therapy the psychologist should clarify who is the patient, clarify roles, and discuss limits of confidentiality (Response 1). It would be premature to discuss treatment goals at the outset of therapy, before the psychologist has had a chance to assess the family (ruling out Responses 2, 3 and 4). The Ethics Code also stipulates that fees and billing must be agreed upon as early as is feasible in a professional or scientific relationship; there is no requirement that fees and billing arrangements be decided at the outset of treatment (ruling out Response 4).
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40. Failure to make a mandated child abuse report is:
• 1. a felony, and may result in a fine and/or jail. (your response) • 2. a felony, and may result in jail. • 3. a misdemeanor, and may result in a fine. • 4. a misdemeanor, and may result in a fine and/or jail. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! A person who fails to report an instance of child abuse, which he or she knows to exist or should reasonably know to exist, is guilty of a misdemeanor, punishable by a jail term not to exceed six months, or a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both. A person willfully fails to report abuse or neglect or who impedes or inhibits a report of abuse or neglect, where that abuse or neglect results in death or great bodily injury, shall be punished by not more than one year in a county jail, by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.
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57. Which of the following statements best summarizes Evidence Code 1024?
• 1. The therapist-patient communication is no longer privileged if the therapist believes that the patient’s mental or emotional condition causes him or her to be a danger to self, others or property. • 2. The therapist-patient communication may no longer be privileged if the therapist believes that the patient’s mental or emotional condition causes him or her to be a danger to self, others or property. (correct answer) • 3. The therapist-patient communication is no longer privileged if the therapist believes that the patient’s mental or emotional condition causes him or her to be a danger to self or others, and it may no longer be privileged if the patient is a danger to property. (your response) • 4. The therapist-patient communication may no longer be privileged only under “most compelling circumstances.” |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Evidence Code 1024 states that in a legal proceeding, no privilege exists when the therapist believes that the patient’s mental or emotional condition causes him or her to be a danger to himself or herself or to the person or property of others and the disclosure is necessary to prevent that danger. Thus Evidence Code 1024 does not state that any time a patient is a danger to self, others or property that there is no privilege (Response 1), but rather when disclosure is necessary to prevent the danger, there is no privilege. Evidence Code 1024 does not distinguish between danger to self, others or property (Response 3). Evidence Code 1024 is much more specific than merely stating “most compelling circumstances” (Response 4).
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58. Under which of the following conditions may a minor consent to medical care and collection of evidence related to rape?
• 1. A victim of an alleged rape may always consent to medical care and collection of evidence. (your response) • 2. A victim of an alleged rape may always consent to medical care but parental consent is required for collection of evidence. • 3. A victim of an alleged rape who is 12 years of age or older may consent to medical care and collection of evidence. (correct answer) • 4. A victim of an alleged rape who is 14 years of age or older may consent to medical care and collection of evidence. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! There is a minimum age requirement (ruling out Response 1) in order for a minor, who has been the alleged victim of rape, to consent to treatment. The minor must be at least 12 years old (ruling out Response 4). The minor may consent to both treatment and collection of evidence (ruling out Response 2).
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69. An intern is asked to treat a patient who complains of compulsive cross-dressing. Neither the intern nor the supervisor has experience with this disorder. The supervisor advises the intern to perform a literature review prior to beginning treatment. The supervisor’s behavior is:
• 1. ethical, in that the supervisor is assuming responsibility for ensuring that the intern acquires the necessary competence. • 2. possibly unethical, in that the intern is being given duties outside of his scope of competence; yet, the supervisor is assuming responsibility for ensuring that the intern acquires the necessary competence. • 3. unethical, in that the intern is being given duties outside of his scope of competence and the supervisor is not providing him with the necessary training and supervision. (correct answer) • 4. ethical, as long as the patient was fully informed of the intern’s status and lack of experience with the patient’s disorder. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! The APA Ethics Code dictates that interns only be given duties within their scope of competence, and that supervisors have the responsibility for providing appropriate training and supervision. In this question, the supervisor is failing on both counts. Fully informing the patient of the intern’s status and lack of experience (Response 4) does not mitigate these ethical obligations. The intern is clearly practicing outside of his scope of competence. In addition, the supervisor is not competent in the area. Recommending that the intern undertake a literature review is not adequate to ensure competence (Responses 1 and 2).
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75. You are working with a divorcing couple to help them create a parenting plan. You become concerned that there is a strong potential for child abuse. Your best course of action would be to:
• 1. make a report to CPS. • 2. continue to evaluate. (your response) • 3. maintain confidentiality and take no further action. • 4. intervene to promote the welfare and security of the children. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! In a case of “potential” for child abuse, your consideration is for the future possibility of abuse. For this reason, you are not justified in making a report to CPS (Response 1), since there is not a reasonable suspicion that abuse has occurred. However, because you are treating this couple and working on parenting issues, you have an opportunity to intervene before the abuse takes place and take steps to promote the welfare of the children (Response 4). While it is important to continue to evaluate the situation (Response 2), and to maintain confidentiality at this point in time (Response 3), ideally the therapist should take action to attempt to prevent the abuse from occurring.
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78. When a minor receives residential shelter services without parental consent, the psychotherapist must:
• 1. document whether or not an attempt was made to contact the parents and why. (your response) • 2. contact a child protective agency (e.g., the Department of Children and Family Services). • 3. attempt to contact the parent or guardian unless involvement would be inappropriate. • 4. attempt to contact the parent or guardian. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! When a minor receives outpatient mental health treatment or residential shelter services without parental consent, there are different requirements for contacting the parent or guardian. If the minor is receiving residential shelter services, the provider must attempt to contact the parent or guardian. If the minor is receiving outpatient mental health services, the provider may choose not to involve the parent or guardian if involvement is deemed inappropriate (Response 3). The provider must then carefully document why the contact was deemed inappropriate (Response 1). Treating a minor without parental consent does not necessitate a call to a child protective agency, unless there is a reasonable suspicion of child abuse.
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80. When the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and state law are contradictory, a practitioner should generally:
• 1. comply with HIPAA. (correct answer) • 2. comply with state law. • 3. make known one’s commitment to HIPAA, and take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict. (your response) • 4. make known one’s commitment to HIPAA, and then comply with state law. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! HIPAA is federal law. When HIPAA and state law are contradictory, making it impossible to follow both, psychologists should generally comply with HIPAA. In addition, when HIPAA provides stricter privacy safeguards than state law, psychologists should comply with HIPAA. However, when state law provides stricter safeguards than HIPAA, psychologists should comply with state law (Response 2). In other words, psychologists must comply with whichever regulations are the strictest, and if the laws contradict, then psychologists must generally comply with HIPAA. When ethics and state law contradict, psychologists should make known their commit to the ethics code and take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict.
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83. In which of the following settings may a registered psychologist work?
• 1. Exempt settings. (your response) • 2. Most schools and government settings. • 3. Non-profit agencies that receives a minimum of 25% of their funding from government sources. (correct answer) • 4. Post-doctoral internships and fellowships. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Registered psychologists may only work in non-profit agencies that receive at least 25% of their funding from government sources. One may accrue SPE in exempt settings without being either a psychological assistant or a registered psychologist (Response 1). Government facilities and many educational institutions (Response 2) are considered exempt settings. It is not necessary to be at a formal post-doctoral internship or fellowship (Response 4) to be a registered psychologist. In fact, many such positions would not meet the criteria necessary to qualify as a setting for a registered psychologist.
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91. You have treated an adolescent who began treatment at age 13 and terminated treatment at age 15. You should keep a full set of records at least until the patient reaches the age of:
• 1. 18 years. • 2. 19 years. • 3. 22 years. (your response) • 4. 25 years. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Effective January 1, 2007, the Business and Professions Code (2919) requires that for minors treatment records must be maintained for at least seven years from the date the patient reaches 18 years of age, in other words, until the person is 25 years old.
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99. At what age is parental consent no longer required for a minor seeking drug or alcohol-related treatment from a provider with a county or state contract?
• 1. 12 years. (correct answer) • 2. 12 years and “mature enough to participate intelligently.” (your response) • 3. 14 years. • 4. 14 years and “mature enough to participate intelligently.” |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Parental consent is not required when a minor 12 years of age or older is seeking drug or alcohol-related treatment from a provider with a county or state contract. The requirement that a minor be “mature enough to participate intelligently” (Responses 2 and 4) applies to general outpatient mental health treatment. HINT: Almost all the laws having to do with minors receiving treatment without parental consent either stipulate no minimum age, or stipulate a minimum age of 12 years. The exception is for self-sufficient minors, who must be 15 years of age or older to legally consent to medical or dental care.
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7. A 45-year-old African American female patient informs you that she has just found out that her husband has been having a long-standing affair, and has fathered a child by his lover. She is visibly angry and says, "I'm going to take care of the problem once and for all." Based on the patient's past history you believe she may be a danger to her husband and his lover. You:
• 1. might make a Tarasoff warning and you might hospitalize the patient. (correct answer) • 2. must make a Tarasoff warning and you should hospitalize the patient. • 3. might make a Tarasoff warning and you should hospitalize the patient. • 4. must make a Tarasoff warning and you might hospitalize the patient. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! It is possible for a psychologist to believe that a patient may pose a danger of violence and not be required to make a Tarasoff warning. For a Tarasoff warning, the patient must directly communicate to the therapist "a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim." This patient may veil her intentions or even deny dangerousness outright, and the therapist may nevertheless believe that she may in fact be a danger. Therefore, it is possible that a Tarasoff warning would be required (i.e., assuming a specific threat is made) and it is possible that a Tarasoff warning would not be required (i.e., she appears dangerous but does not make a specific threat). Therefore, Responses 2 and 4 should be eliminated. Similarly, hospitalization is just one way to manage dangerousness. It may or may not be necessary in this case, especially if the threat is in no way imminent or outpatient measures are sufficient. Reponses 2 and 3 should therefore be eliminated.
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17. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient newly diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder?
• 1. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focused on improving mood, decreasing withdrawal, and increasing social interaction. • 2. Interpersonal therapy. • 3. Referral for a medication evaluation. (your response) • 4. Assessment and stabilization of acute crises. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Response 1), interpersonal therapy (Response 2), and medication (Response 3) are all appropriate and empirically validated interventions for Major Depressive Disorder. However, the first step in treatment would be to assess for and address any crises, particularly suicidality.
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27. A 23-year-old woman, Nancy, is referred to you by the local hospital. She tells you that she was hospitalized due to hearing voices that were telling her to hurt herself. She goes on to add that for the past few months, she has been unable to work and has lost touch with her friends. She lives with her family but reports feeling uncomfortable around her family because they tell her that she acts strange and should get her act together. What collateral information would be most helpful?
• 1. Interviews with Nancy's family and hospital records. (correct answer) • 2. Past employment records and past mental health records. • 3. Clinical interview, mental status examination, and hospital records. • 4. Psychological testing and hospital records. (your response) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! This question is specifically asking about what collateral information would be helpful. Collateral information provides input about the patient from either the perspective of significant people in the patient's life, or from other sources (e.g., records review). Collateral information that would be most beneficial in the clinical assessment of Nancy would include any mental health records, medical records, interviews with her family whom she lives with, and access to hospital records (Response 1). The vignette has indicated that Nancy is currently unemployed, and typically employment records are not included as part of a clinical assessment of an adult (ruling out Response 2). While a thorough clinical interview and mental status examination (Response 3) are very important in a clinical assessment, they are not considered collateral information. Similarly, psychological testing (Response 4) is also not collateral information.
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46. Candidates for licensure who began their graduate training on or after January 1, 2004, must complete at a minimum:
• 1. a one-hour course in spousal/partner abuse and a three-hour course in aging and long-term care. • 2. a one-hour course in aging and long-term care and a three-hour course in spousal/partner abuse. • 3. a 10-hour course in spousal/partner abuse and a 15-hour course in aging and long-term care. (your response) • 4. a 10-hour course in aging and long-term care and a 15-hour course in spousal/partner abuse. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! The BOP requires that candidates who began their graduate training on or after January 1, 2004 complete at a minimum 10 hours of coursework in aging and long-term care, and 15 hours of coursework in spousal or partner abuse, prior to licensure. The BOP also requires that licensed psychologists renewing after January 1, 2004 complete a one-time course in spousal or partner abuse, of a minimum of one hour, and that licensed psychologists renewing after January 1, 2005 complete a one-time course in aging and long-term care, of a minimum of three hours (Response 1).
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60. Which of the following statements is most accurate in regard to the American Psychological Association’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) and the laws of the State of California?
• 1. The Ethics Code has the full force of law in the State of California. • 2. A psychologist may be sanctioned by the Board of Psychology for failure to uphold the Ethics Code. (correct answer) • 3. The Ethics Code only applies to members of the American Psychological Association, or other associations that have endorsed the code (e.g., California Psychological Association, Los Angeles County Psychological Association, etc.). (your response) • 4. Violations of the Ethics Code may be cause for civil prosecution but not criminal prosecution or disciplinary action by the Board of Psychology. |
Feedback: INCORRECT! The Psychology Board of the State of California may use APA’s Ethics Code to sanction a licensed psychologist, even if he or she is not a member of the APA or other organization that has endorsed the code (Responses 3 and 4). The Ethics Code, however, does not have the full force of law (Response 1), meaning that infractions of the code are not automatically considered infractions of law.
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4. A psychologist does not have a prior written release of information from his patient. If the psychologist were to receive a telephone call from a third party, which of the following statements is inaccurate?
• 1. The psychologist may listen to what the caller has to say. • 2. The psychologist may not acknowledge that the patient is in therapy unless extenuating circumstances apply. • 3. The psychologist may breach confidentiality if extenuating circumstances apply. (your response) • 4. The psychologist may not engage in such a telephone conversation unless extenuating circumstances apply. (correct answer) |
Feedback: INCORRECT! When a psychologist receives a phone call from a third party, and there is no prior written release, the psychologist may listen to what the caller has to say (Response 1) but generally may not share any confidential information, even the fact that the patient is in psychotherapy (Response 2). There are extenuating circumstances in which the psychologist may breach confidentiality (Response 3), such as if the caller is giving credible information to suggest that the patient is a danger to self or others.
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