Dental Decks

The Hepatitis A virus, Poliovirus, and Rotavirus have which portal of entry?
- Respiratory tract
- Gastrointestinal tract
- Skin
- Genital tract
- Blood

Which virus causes pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants?
- Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
- Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicelle Zoster virus

Reoviruses:
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a non-segmented double-stranded DNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented double-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded DNA genome

Which growth curve describes the lytic reproduction cycle that releases a large number of phage simultaneously?
- One step growth curve
- Two step growth curve
- Horizontal growth curve
- None of the above

Which of the following viruses does not cause upper respiratory tract infections, including symptoms of the common cold?
- Paramyxoviruses
- Papovaviruses
- Coronaviruses
- Rhinoviruses
- Orthomyxoviruses

Which two of the following herpes viruses do not cause a vesicular rash, both in primary infections and in reactivations?
- Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
- Varicella Zoster virus (VZV)
- Herpes simplex virus type 1
- Herpes simplex virus type 2
- Cytomegalovirus

All of the following viruses are paramyxoviruses except:
- Mumps virus
- Measles virus
- Influenza A, B, and C viruses
- Respiratory synctial virus (RSV)
- Parainfluenza virus

All of the following statements concerning viruses are true except:
- A viral nucleic acid (genome) is composed of either DNA or RNA (but not both) that is encased in a protein coat called a capsid
- They are either naked or enveloped, depending on whether the capsid is surrounded by a lipid bilayer known as an envelope
- They replicate only in living cells and therefore are obligate intracellular parasites
- They are sensitive to antibiotics
- They depend on host cells for energy production
- They cannot be observed with a light microscope
- They pass through filters that retain bacteria

Influenza virus A has all of the following features except:
- A helical capsid
- Negative stranded RNA
- A lipid envelope of cellular origin
- A nonsegmented RNA genome
- Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes embedded on their surfaces

All of the following statements are true except:
- DNA viruses, with one exception (poxviruses), replicate in the nucleus and use the host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to synthesize their mRNA
- The genome of all DNA viruses consists of double-stranded DNA, except for the parvoviruses, which have a single-stranded DNA genome
- Most RNA viruses undergo their entire replicative cycle in the cytoplasm (except retroviruses and influenza viruses, which replicate in the nucleus of the host cell)
- Negative polarity is defined as an RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA

Which virus can cause herpes zoster lesions along sensory nerve roots in later life?
- Smallpox virus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicella Zoster virus

Which of the following is the cause of infectious mononucleosis?
- Streptococci
- Epstein Barr virus
- Rubella viruses
- Paramyxovirus

All of the following statements concerning coxsackieviruses are true except:
- They belong to the Picornavirus family
- They are divided into two groups (A and B) on the basis of the lesions observed in mice
- Group A viruses cause herpangina and head-foot-and-mouth disease, whereas group B cause pleurodynia, myocarditis, and pericarditis
- Group B viruses have a predilection for skin and mucous membranes, whereas group A cause disease in various organs such as the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver
- Their replication is similar to that of the poliovirus

After the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes simplex virus remains inactive for periods of time and most commonly resides in the:
- Submandibular ganglion
- Trigeminal ganglion
- Sublingual ganglion
- Ciliary ganglion

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by an enveloped, single-stranded, linear, positive-polarity RNA virus known as:
- An arbovirus
- A parovirus
- A retrovirus
- An adenovirus

A highly infectious viral disease that chiefly affects children and leads to paralysis, muscular atrophy, and often deformity is called:
- Mumps
- Measles
- Poliomyelitis
- Infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following DNA enveloped viruses are the largest and most complex?
- Herpes viruses
- Hepatitis B virus
- Poxviruses

The cytopathic effect that is seen when a virus infects a specific cell culture:
- Is the same for most viruses
- Is not useful in diagnostic virology
- Is characteristic of each virus and can be used for detection of that virus
- Does not affect the specific infected cell

All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis

All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis

Herpes viruses can be described as:
- Large sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, single stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded RNA
- Small sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, double stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded DNA

The infectious viral particle is called a:
- Viroid
- Virion
- Prion
- Neon

All of the following statements concerning herpes simplex type 1 are true except:
- Many children have asymptomatic primary infections
- May be diagnosed by a Tzanck smear for rapid identification when skin lesions are involved
- May involve a primary infection (e.g., gingivostomatitis) or a recurrent infection (e.g., cold sores)
- Can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine

The leading cause of childhood gingivostomatitis in children ages 1 to 3 is:
- Herpes simplex
- Chickenpox
- Influenza
- Rubella

A bacteriophage with the ability to form a stable, nondisruptive relationshipe within a bacterium is called a:
- Virulent phage
- Plasmid
- Temperate phage
- Phage T4

A bacteriophage:
- Is a bacterium that phagocytizes other organisms
- Is a bacterium that becomes phagocytosed by other organisms
- Is a virus that infects bacteria
- Is a fragment of DNA

The usual site of latency for the Herpes simplex virus type 2 is:
- The cranial sensory ganglion
- The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglion
- The cranial or thoracic sensory ganglion
- B lymphocytes

Which group of viruses posses an RNA genome that does not function as a positive or negative sense molecule but acts as a template for the production of viral DNA?
- Coronaviruses
- Picornaviruses
- Retroviruses
- Togaviruses

All of the following are DNA enveloped viruses except:
- Herpes viruses
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Poxviruses
- Hepatitis B virus

An increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of cells is known as:
- Hypertrophy
- Atrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Aplasia
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia

An interactive association between two population of different species living together in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected is called:
- Symbiosis
- Mutualism
- Commensalism
- Latency

Missense mutations:
- Stop protein synthesis prematurely
- Result in the substitution of one amino acid for another
- Generate a termination codon
- Almost always destroy protein function

Which bacteria produce a toxin that can be detected using the ELISA assay?
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Neisseria
- Eikenella

All of the following are important features of bacterial spores except:
- They are highly resistant to heating
- They are highly resistant to many disinfectants
- They are produced only be members of genera of bacteria of medical importance, Baciullus and Clostridium, both of which are gram-positive rods
- They can survive for many years, especially in soil
- They exhibit a great amount of metabolic activity
- They contain dipicolinic acid (calcium dipicolinate), a calcium chelator that is found virtually nowhere else in the biological world

The process in which DNA released by lysis of one bacterium is taken up by a second bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that second bacterium, is called:
- Transduction
- Conjugation
- Transformation
- Sexduction

Which of the following is the region in prokaryotes where the DNA is concentrated?
- Granules
- Nucleoid
- Plasmids
- Transposons

Two different pathways are involved in the metabolism of glucose: one anaerobic and one aerobic. The aerobic process occurs in the:
- Mitochondria and is very efficient
- Cytoplasm and is only moderately efficient
- Mitochondria and is not efficient
- Cytoplasm and is very efficient

The enzymes superoxide dismutase and catalase are present in:
- Obligate aerobes only
- Facultative anaerobes only
- Obligate anaerobes only
- Both obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes

All of the following are prokaryotic cells except:
- Bacteria
- Mycoplasmas
- Fungi
- Rickettsia
- Chlamydia

All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacterial associated with adult preiodontitis except:
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Bacteroides forsythus
- Campylobacter rectus

Which toxin or enzyme produced by Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococci (S. pyogenes) activates plasminogen to form plasmin, which dissolves fibrin in clots, thrombi, and emboli?
- Streptokinase
- Streptodornase
- Hyaluronidase
- Erythrogenic toxin
- Streptolysin O
- Streptolysin S
- Pyrogenic exotoxin A

Which two bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Spirochetes
- Actinomyces israeli
- Porphyromonas gingivalis

The synthesis of single-stranded RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecules based on a DNA sequence is called:
- Translation
- Transcription
- Transduction

Opsonization of microbial cells by complement is prevented by:
- Peptidoglycans
- The capsule
- Teichoic acid
- Adhesin

All of the following are stages of phagocytosis except:
- Chemotaxis
- Adherence
- Transduction
- Pseudopodium formation
- Phagosome formation
- Phago lysosome formation

During conjugation, what is transferred from the Hfr bacterium to the F- bacterium?
- The sex factor (F factor)
- Portions of the Hfr chromosome
- The sex factor and portions of the Hfr chromosome
- Nothing is transferred

Which of the following bacteria are facultative anaerobic, gram-negative rods?
- Escherichia
- Mycobacterium
- Neisseria
- Bacteroides

All of the following statements concerning Streptococcus pyogenes are true except:
- It is also known as Group B beta hemolytic Streptococcus and is not a frequent bacterial pathogen of humans
- It is a gram positive coccus that occurs in pairs or chains. It is frequently part of the endogenous microflora that colonizes the skin and oropharynx
- It is the cause of several acute pyogenic (pus forming) infections in man, such as scarlet fever, erysipelas, and sore throat ("strep throat")
- It elaborates several exotoxins (i.e., erythrogenic toxins and streptolysisn S and O)

The symptoms of sepsis include all of the following except:
- Fever
- Weakness
- Painful urination
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Chills

A bacterial toxin that has been weakened until it is no longer toxic but is strong enough to induce the formation of antibodies and immunity to the specific disease caused by the toxin is called a(n):
- Antitoxin
- Toxoid

Which disease is prevented with a vaccine that contains attenuated live viruses?
- Hepatitis A
- Varicella (Chickenpox)
- Influenza
- Rabies

Freund's adjuvant is a mixture composed of all of the following except:
- Mineral oil
- Lanolin
- Formalin
- Inactivated and dried mycobacteria

The erythrogenic exotoxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes causes:
- Gas gangrene
- Bacterial dysentery
- Scarlet fever
- Tetanus

Human HBIG (human serum containing a high titer of antibodies against HBV) to prevent hepatitis B in those not actively immunized with the HepB vaccine is an example of:
- Naturally acquired passive immunity
- Naturally acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired passive immunity

Microorganisms which grow at an optimum pH well above neutrality (7.0) are called:
- Acidophiles
- Alkaliphiles
- Neutrophiles

The streptococcus pneumonia vaccine is an example of a:
- Capsular polysaccharide vaccine
- Inactivated protein exotoxin (toxoid) vaccine
- Killed bacterial vaccine
- Live attenuated bacterial vaccine

Lactobacillus is a part of the group of:
- Irregular, nonsporing, gram negative rods
- Regular, nonsporing, gram positive bacteria
- Anaerobic, gram negative cocci
- Endospore forming, gram positive cocci

All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with aggressive periodontitis except:
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Wolinella recta
- Prevotella intermedius
- Eikenella corrodens

A gelatinous coat that is often used as an indicator of virulence is called the:
- Cell wall
- Capsule
- Pellicle
- Plasma membrane

A thin murein layer is characteristic of:
- Gram positive bacterial cell walls
- Gram negative bacterial cell walls
- Viral cell walls
- Fungal cell walls

The acid-fast stain may be performed on any clinical specimen but is most commonly used in examining sputum for which bacteria?
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Clostridium botulinum
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which of the following bacteria form unusual acids, called mycolic acids, that are associated with their cell walls?
- Streptococci
- Lactobacilli
- Mycobacteria
- Staphylococci

Which bacteria is a gram-positive coccus that grows in grape-like, irregular clusters in culture?
- Streptococcus
- Neisseria
- Salmonella
- Staphylococcus

Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by bacteria that digests connective tissue, allowing them to spread through tissues more readily. Species from which bacteria below do no produce this enzyme?
- Streptococcus
- Clostridium
- Staphylococcus
- Neisseria

Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of:
- Gram positive bacteria
- Gram negative bacteria
- Both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Endotoxins are:
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria

Gamma-hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from alpha and beta streptococci on blood agar plates by observing:
- A clear zone of hemolysis about the colony with no intact corpuscles
- Small colonies surrounded by a greenish discoloration
- No hemolysis
- Small colonies surrounded by a zone of partial hemolysis and an outer clear zone

Identify the four phases on a standard bacterial growth curve.
......__
...../....\
__/.......

All of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus are true except:
- It is a gram negative coccus that typically grows in a linear fashion and is a very uncommon bacterial pathogen
- It is the most common cause of suppurative infections involving the skin, joints, and bones and is the leading cause of infective endocarditis
- It is coagulase positive whereas other Staphylococci are coagulase negative
- It posseses a surface protein (protein A), that binds the Fc receptor of IgG, thereby blocking complement activation by the classical pathway

Members of which species below are predominant in saliva?
- Actinomyces
- Veillonella
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus

How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde?
- 10 minutes
- 1 hour
- 10 hours
- 24 hours

Neurofibromatosis is a(n):
- Sex linked dominant disorder
- Autosomal recessive disorder
- Sex linked recessive disorder
- Autosomal dominant disorder

Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and many viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
- Alcohol
- Chlorine
- Formaldehyde
- Phenol

Quaternary ammonium compounds, which are widely used for skin antisepsis, are classified as:
- Nonionic detergents
- Anionic detergents
- Cationic detergents

The proper time and temperature for autoclaving is:
- 350ºF (177ºC) for 1 hour
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 15-20 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes

The term "antiseptic" best relates to a(n):
- Autoclave
- Dry heat sterilizer
- Chemical used on contaminated counter tops
- Handwash agent

Which type of pathogens provide the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?
- Bacteria
- Spore forming
- Viruses
- Fungi

The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
- 320ºF (160ºC) for 2 hours
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 20-30 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes

The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
- Disinfection
- Cleaning
- Sterilization
- Wiping

All of the following statements concerning ethylene oxide sterilization are true except:
- It is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat labile materials such as surgical instruments and plastics
- It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids
- It is a fast process (20-50 minutes) depending on the material to be sterilized
- It is very toxic to humans and is also flammable

The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is:
- Hepatitis C virus
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Tuberculosis

All of the following are advantages of using alcohols (70% isopropyl and 70% ethyl alcohol) as surface disinfectants except:
- They are bactericidal
- They are sporicidal
- They are tuberculocidal
- They are economical

Which of the following is used as a handwash agent?
- Chlorhexidine gluconate
- Triclosan
- Isopropyl alcohol
- Both chlorhexidine gluconate and triclosan
- All of the above

Antimicrobial chemical agents which destroy microorganisms when applied onto inanimate surfaces such as counter tops or lights, are called:
- Antiseptics
- Sterilants
- Disinfectants
- None of the above

The marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection is:
- Bacillus stearothermophilus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Hepatitis B virus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

An antibacterial solution which directly kills bacteria is said to be:
- Bactericidal
- Bacteriostatic
- Substantive

Cleaning surfaces prior to disinfection in clinical settings is required to:
- Destroy all pathogens
- Inhibit pathogen growth
- Reduce the concentration of pathogens
- Weaken the virulence of pathogens

The antigens most responsible for an immediate Type I reaction to natural rubber latex are:
- Proteins
- Accelerators
- Corn starch powders
- Anti oxidants

The most common form of an adverse epithelial reaction noted for health-care-professionals is:
- Irritation dermatitis
- Type I immediate latex allergy
- Type IV, delayed latex allergy
- Superficial fungal infections on the fingers

The most efficient way to kill microbes is:
- Cold sterilization
- Proper handwashing with sterilizing antiseptics
- Heat sterilization
- Immersion of contaminated items in chemical sterilants

The complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including spores, best describes:
- Disinfection
- Sterilization
- Pasteurization
- Sanitization

One of your patients develops a Type I, immediate allergic reaction to latex. When treating them and wearing gloves from now on, you can:
- Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
- Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
- Get an exemption and not wear gloves
- Refuse to treat them

A particular kind of antimicrobial treatment, such as that for our drinking water which lowers the total microbial load to safe public health levels is called:
- Antisepsis
- Sanitization
- Disinfection
- Sterilization

Which of the following statements are true?
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is the most infectious target of Standard (universal) Blood Precautions
- Hapatitis B Virus (HBV) is the most infectious target of Standard (univeral) Blood Precautions
- There are no Standard Precautions for health care

Which of the following have been involved in the transmission of Hepatitis C?
- Accidental needlesticks
- Blood transfusions
- Drug addicts sharing contaminated syringes
- All of the above

Which phase describing an aspect of infection control is not appropriate?
- Exposure is not synonymous with infection
- Do not disinfect when you can sterilize
- Sterilization of all clinical instruments and inanimate environmental surfaces is mandatory
- Known AIDS patients can be treated using Standard Bloodborne Precautions

An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as a(n):
- Nosocomial infection
- Secondary infection
- Opportunistic infection
- Medical infection

Latex allergy risk factors include all of the following except:
- Persons with multiple surgeries
- Atopy
- Rubber industry workers
- Persons with an allergy to pollen
- Persons with an allergy to bananas

It is recommended that face masks be changed:
- Between patients
- Daily
- Twice per day

Rapid heat transfer sterilization provides:
- A very fast cycle time
- No dulling of cutting edges
- Dry instruments after cycle
- All of the above

What is recommended for all instruments that are used in the mouth?
- Disinfection
- High level disinfection
- Sterilization involving the use of heat
- Both disinfection and sterilization involving the use of heat

In healthcare what is the primary disease prevention measure?
- Wipe wipe
- Spray wipe spray
- Handwashing
- Vaccines

Personal protective equipment clinic jackets should be:
- Short sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, turtle neck
- Whatever your preference

Because ____________ are the hardiest microbes, their destruction is required before the definition sterilization has been met.
- Hepatitis B viruses
- Bacterial endospores
- Mycobacteria
- Vegetative bacteria

Sterilization is the elimination of all microbial organisms including spore formers. Disinfection is the destruction of disease causing microorganisms not including spore formers.
- The first statement is true and the second statement is false
- The first statement is false and the second statement is true
- Both statements are true
- Both statements are false

Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective antimicrobial agent for reducing plaque and gingivitis long-term?
- Stannous fluoride
- Phenolic compounds
- Chlorhexidine
- Quaternary ammonium compounds

All of the following bacteria may be etiologically related to dental caries except:
- Streptococcus mutans
- Actinomyces viscosus
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Streptococcus salivarius
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces naeslundi
- Actinomyces isreali
- Lactobacillus casei

The principal oral site for the growth of spirochetes, fusobacteria, and other gram-negative anaerobes is:
- Saliva
- Calculus
- The gingival margin
- The gingival sulcus

Which species has been implicated in the dental caries process?
- Staphylococcus
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus

Young plaque is dominated by:
- Gram positive cocci
- Gram positive rods
- Gram negative rods
- Filaments

All of the following statements concerning bacterial plaque are true except:
- It is the key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and periodontal disease
- It is an accumulation of a mixed bacterial community in a dextran matrix
- It forms on a cleaned tooth within minutes
- It is composed of solids (80%; 95% of which are bacteria) and water (20%)
- There are two categories: supragingival and subgingival plaque
- Different bacteria may be found in plaque (cocci, rods, and filaments) and their proportions change with time, diet, and location

All of the following statements are true concerning supragingival and subgingival plaque except:
- Subgingival plaque can be attached or loosely adherent (epithelium associated)
- Supragingival plaque is attached or tooth associated
- Subgingival plaque is dominated by gram negative rods
- Supragingival plaque is dominated by gram positive cocci
- Supragingival plaque has more anaerobes than subgingival plaque

All of the following statements concerning calculus are true except:
- It is calcified or mineralized bacterial plaque
- It forms on natural teeth, dentures, and other dental prostheses
- The surface is very rough and is covered by a layer of bacterial plaque
- Inorganic material makes up about 10-15% of the composition while organic material and water make up about 70-90% of the composition
- Its main role in periodontal disease is to serve as a collection site for more bacteria

Which one of the following organisms is commonly implicated with the etiology of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces israelii
- Prevotella intermedia
- Streptococcus uberis

Which statement is true concerning interferons?
- They are antiviral antibodies
- They are antibacterial substances
- They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by inducing resistance
- They are not considered to be a nonspecific resistance factor

Cytokines are:
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in blood clotting
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in immunity
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in genetic recombination
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in glomerular filtration

All of the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway except:
- Prostaglandins
- Prostacyclin
- Leukotrienes
- Thromboxanes

Histamine release within the body causes all of the following except:
- Increased capillary permeability
- Increased gastric secretion
- Bronchiolar constriction
- A rise in blood pressure

All of the following statements concerning serotonin are true except:
- It is widely considered to be a neurotransmitter
- It is present in the brain
- It is believed to play a role in temperature regulation, in sensory perception, and in the onset of sleep
- It is synthesized from the amino acid arginine

All of the following statements concerning fibrinolysin are true except:
- It is also called plasmin
- It is a proteolytic enzyme derived from plasminogen
- It is essential in blood clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
- It is a component of the body's nonspecific disease mechanism
- It is the most important fibrinolytic protease

Which of the following is an enzyme formed in the kidney and released into the bloodstream where it has an important role in activating angiotensin?
- Plasmin
- Lysozyme
- Renin
- Fibrinogen

Which of the following are respiratory enzymes capable of undergoing alternate reduction and oxidation?
- Pyrimidine nucleotides
- Cytochromes
- Reductants
- Purine nucleotides

The immunity to infectious agents that is provided by serum lysozyme is:
- Acquired and T cell mediated
- Acquired and B cell mediated
- Innate and IgG mediated
- Innate and nonspecific

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes necessary for intracellular digestion?
- Lysosome
- Golgi apparatus
- Microbody
- Phagosome

Autolysis:
- Refers to degradative reactions in cells caused by intracellular enzymes indigenous to the cell
- Refers to the cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell
- Is the sum of intracellular degradative reactions occuring after the death of individual cells within a living organism
- Is the death of single cells within clusters of other cells

The enzyme catalase is contained in which organelle within a cell?
- Nucleus
- Microbodies
- Golgi apparatus
- Mitochondrion

Which of the following is classified as an antifungal agent?
- Bacitracin
- Amphotericin B
- Polymyxin B
- Neomycin

The standard prophylactic regime for nonallergic patients is:
- Adults: 2.0 grams Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Adults: 2.0 grams Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure

Which antibiotic is not only effective against most staphylococci, aerobic and anaerobic streptococci, but is most effective in treating infections due to bacteroides species?
- Penicillin VK
- Erythromycin
- Tetracycline
- Cephalexin (Keflex)
- Clindamycin

The only drug that a patient can take is clindamycin, so the patient must be instructed to notify the dental office is (s)he:
- Develops a hearing problem
- Has 5 or more watery stools per day
- Has trouble sleeping
- Develops headaches

Which of the following conditions may predispose a patient to candidiasis?
- Hormonal disorder
- Coronary condition
- Immune deficiency disorder
- Chronic respiratory condition

Which of the following antibiotics is considered a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
- Penicillin VK
- Cefaclor (Ceclor)
- Penicillin G

The penicillins act to:
- Weaken the bacterial cell wall to the point that the cell dies when it ruptures
- Inhibit protein synthesis and suppress bacterial growth
- Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis destroying the bacterial cell
- Disrupt specific biochemical reactions destroying the cell

Which penicillin is prescribed primarily in the treatment of severe penicillinase-producing staphylococcal infections?
- Methicillin
- Ampicillin
- Penicillin VK
- Carbenicillin

Which two antibiotics are usually prescribed in the treatment of rickettsial diseases?
- Tetracycline
- Polymixin B
- Erythromycin
- Chloramphenicol

All of the following statements concerning fungi are true except:
- They are prokaryotic and lack a cell wall
- There are two types: yeasts and molds
- They can be dimorphic; that is, they have two morphologic forms
- They have a distinct nuclear membrane as part of the cellular structure
- They have both asexual and sexual reproduction capabilities
- Most fungi are obligate aerobes; some are facultative anaerobes; but none are obligate anaerobes

Which genera of fungi is not responsible for causing dermatophytosis (tinea or ringworm)?
- Trichophyton
- Microsporum
- Histoplasma
- Epidermophyton

A fungal infection that may develop in people who have poorly controlled diabetes is called:
- Aspergillosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mucormycosis
- Cryptococcosis

All of the following statements concerning fungal spores are true except:
- Morphologic characteristics (e.g., the shape, color, and arrangement) of conidia are a useful aid for the identification of fungi
- A conidium is an asexually formed fungal spore
- Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores
- Fungal spores cause allergies in some people

All of the following statements concerning coccidioidomycosis are true except:
- It is caused by the inhalation of dust aerosols containing the Coccidioides immitis arthrospores, which are highly infectious
- It is endemic in hot, dry regions of the S.W. United States and Central and South America
- It is referred to as "valley fever" or "San Joaquin fever"
- It can be treated with penicillin
- The primary infection or lesion is in the lung
- It is by and large an inapparent and self limiting infection in endemic areas

Aflatoxins are produced by:
- Candida species
- Coccidioides species
- Aspergillus species
- Histoplasma species

A single-celled parasite that causes amebiasis in humans is:
- Giardia lamblia
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Balantidium coli

All of the following statements concerning malaria are true except:
- It is an infection of white blood cells
- Drugs taken for prevention are not 100% effective
- Symptoms can begin a month after the infecting mosquito bite
- Early symptoms are nonspecific and often are mistaken for those of influenza
- Rapid diagnosis and early treatment are important, particularly for falciparum malaria, which is fatal in up to 20% of infected people

Infections caused by certain nematodes results in:
- Marked neutrophilia
- Marked eosinophilia
- Marked basophilia
- All of the above

Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii by:
- Swimming in contaminated water
- Sustaining a dog bite
- Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
- Airborne conidia

The thymus gland and parathyroid glands are malformed and dysfunctional or missing altogether in:
- Sjogren's syndrome
- DiGeorge syndrome
- Shy Drager syndrome
- Peutz Jeghers syndrome

Mallory-Weiss syndrome is bleeding from an arterial blood vessel in the upper gastrointestinal tract, caused by a mucosal gastric tear at or near the point where the esophagus and stomach join. It is most common in:
- Women who are pregnant
- Men over age 40, especially alcoholics
- Preschool aged children
- Postmenopausal women

A tall, infertile male with small testes most likely has which of the following conditions?
- Adrenogenital syndrome
- Klinefelter's syndrome
- Testicular feminization
- Turner's syndrome

Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are reliable indicators of:
- Bell's palsy
- Botulism
- Rickets
- Tetany

A male infant is borm at term. No congenital anomalies are noted at birth. A year later he now has failure to thrive and has been getting one bacterial pneumonia after another with both Hemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae cultured from his sputum. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have?
- DiGeorge syndrome
- Selective IgA deficiency
- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection
- Acute leukemia
- X linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)

The triad of findings found in Sjogren's syndrome include all of the following except:
- Associated connective tissue disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
- Xerostomia (dry mouth)
- Nephrosclerosis
- Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (dry eyes)

Match the nutrients with the symptoms that are caused by a deficiency of that nutrient.
Iron, Calcium, Folic acid, Vitamin B1, Vitamin B2, Vitamin B12, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Vitamin K, Protein

Sore tongue and cracks at the edge of mouth (cheilosis)
Pins-and-needles sensation, especially in feet
Anemia
Weakness and bleeding gums
Bone thinning
Anemia, pins-and-needles sensation
Tissue swelling (edema), usually legs
Tendency to bruis and bleed

Which immunodeficiency disorder is sometimes called "bubble boy disease?"
- Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
- Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)
- Ataxia Telangiectasia
- Hyper IgE syndrome

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome:
- Is a hereditary condition that affects only females
- Is a hereditary condition that affects only males
- Is a hereditary condition that affects both males and females equally

Tropical sprue is a(n):
- Immunodeficiency syndrome
- Malabsorption syndrome
- Autoimmune syndrome
- Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome

Which syndrome is also called Trisomy 18?
- Down syndrome
- Edward's syndrome
- Patau's syndrome

Which cells help to assist other T-cells and B-cells to express their immune functions?
- Cytotoxic (killer) T cells
- Plasma cells
- T helper cells
- T suppressor cells

Which cells do not have the ability to retain a latent capacity for mitotic division?
- Blood
- Bone marrow
- Liver
- Neurons in the brain or spinal cord

What is the function of B-lymphocytes?
- To form red blood cells
- To search out, identify, and bind with specific antigens
- To phagocytize bacteria
- To produce lymph

Tissues taken from an individual of the same species whi is not genetically related to the recipient is called a(n):
- Xenograft
- Autograft
- Allograft
- Isograft

Delayed closure of two granulating surfaces is referred to as:
- Healing by first intention
- Healing by second intention
- Healing by third intention

Which of the following organs undergoes regeneration?
- Heart
- Brain
- Lungs
- Liver

All of the following statements concerning teratology or teratogens are true except:
- Teratology is the study of developmental anomalies
- Teratogens are chemical, physical, and biologic agents that cause developmental anomalies
- Susceptibility to teratogens is variable
- Susceptibility to teratogens is specific for each developmental stage
- The mechanism of teratogenesis is specific for each teratogen
- Teratogenesis is not dose dependent
- Teratogens produce death, growth retardation, malformation, or functional impairment

Which system is composed of monocytes and macrophages?
- Lymphatic system
- Complement system
- Reticuloendothelial system
- Reticular activating system

Which type of bronchogenic carcinoma (lung cancer) listed below is the most aggressive?
- Epidermoid (squamous cell) carcinoma
- Adenocarcinoma
- Small cell (oat cell) carcinoma
- Large cell (anaplastic carcinoma)

Burkitt's lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell lymphoma closely associated with the:
- Influenza virus
- Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
- Herpes virus
- Varicella zoster virus

Malignant lymphomas:
- Are two to three times more common in females
- Are two to three more common in males
- Occur only in children
- None of the above

All of the following statements concerning basal cell carcinoma are true except:
- It is a fast growing, relatively benign skin tumor
- It usually occurs in persons over the age of 40
- It's more prevelant in blonde, fair skinned males
- It is the most common malignant tumor of the skin

Neoplastic cells characterisically resemble prickle cells and form keratin perals on the surface of lesions in:
- Adenocarcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Malignant melanoma

In the GI tract which area is most likely to develop malignant neoplasms?
- Stomach
- Colon and rectum
- Esophagus
- Anus

Which of the following can cause mutations?
- Ultraviolet light
- Chemicals
- Radiation
- Viruses
- All of the above

A 30-year-old woman had a firm nodule palpable on the dome of the uterus four years ago recorded on routine physical examination. The nodule has slowly increased in size and it now appears to be about twice the size it was when first discovered. She remains asymptomatic. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
- Adenocarcinoma
- Leiomyosarcoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
- Leiomyoma

A 75-year-old healthy man is found to have a palpable firm noduble in the prostate gland on digital rectal examination. His serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) is 20 ng/mL. The microscopic appearance seen on biopsy of the prostate will probably be most cinsistent with which of the following conditions?
- Chronic prostatitis
- Adenocarcinoma
- Leiomyoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma

Usually, the main symptom of lung cancer is:
- A persistent cough
- Diarrhea
- A low grade fever
- A skin rash

A 35-year-old woman notes a lump in her left breast while taking a shower. Her physician notes a 4 cm firm, irregular, non-movable mass located in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast on physical examination. A fine needle aspiration of this mass is performed. Cells obtained from the mass are examined cytologically and are consistent with infiltrating ductal carcinoma. The mass is removed with a lumpectomy along with an axillary lymph node dissection. Which of the following findings will best predict a better prognosis for this patient?
- The tumor cells are strongly estrogen receptor positive
- No metastases are found in the sampled lymph nodes
- She has one relative who had a similar type of breast cancer
- The tumor has a high grade

A 31-year-old man has experienced low grade fevers, night sweats, and generalized malaise for the past 2 months. On physical examination he has non-tender cervical and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. A cervical lymph node biopsy is performed. On microscopic examination at high magnification there are occasional Reed-Sternberg cells along with large and small lymphocytes and bands of fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Burkitt's lymphoma
- Hodgkin's disease
- Mycosis fungoides
- Multiple myeloma

A 58-year-old man who has an 85 pack-year history of cigarette smoking has had a persistent cough for the past 10 years. He has begun to lose weight during the past year. No abnormal findings are noted on physical examination. He has a chest radiograph that reveals a right hilar mass. A sputum cytology shows atypical, hyperchromatic squamous cells. What is the most common initial pathway of spread of this lesion?
- Bloodstream
- Pleural cavity
- Contiguous spread to chest wall
- Lymphatics
- Bronchi

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of:
- Macrophages
- Plasma cells
- Erythrocytes
- Monocytes

A study is performed to analyze characteristics of malignant neoplasms in biopsy specimens. The biopsies were performed on patients who had palpable mass lesions on digital rectal examination. Of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to indicate that the neoplasm is malignant?
- Pleomorphism
- Atypia
- Metastasis
- Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
- Necrosis

Which of the following is a relatively common low-grade malignancy that originates in the pilosebaceous glands and pathologically resembles squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
- Dermatofibromas
- Seborrheic keratosis
- Acrochordon
- Keratoacanthoma
- Actinic keratosis

Which of the following is a neoplasm derived from all three germ cell layers?
- Carcinoma
- Sarcoma
- Teratoma
- APUDoma

All of the following are benign tumors of mesenchymal origin except:
- Leiomyoma
- Rhabdomyoma
- Osteosarcoma
- Lipoma
- Fibroma
- Chondroma

Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant neoplasms in which there is no differentiation to suggest a particular cell type?
- Dysplasia
- Anaplasia
- Metaplasia
- Desmoplasia

The cardinal sign of pheochromocytoma is:
- Persistent diarrhea
- Internal bleeding
- Persistent or paroxysmal (episodic) hypertension
- Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is the most dangerous type of skin cancer?
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Malignant melanoma

All of the following are benign neoplasms except:
- Adenoma
- Fibroma
- Carcinoma
- Hemangioma
- Lipoma

A 14-year-old boy complains of pain persisting in his right leg for 3 weeks. On physical examination his temperature is 101ºF. A radiograph of the leg reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region of the right femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A bone biopsy is performed and the lesion on microscopic examination shows numerous small round blue cells. Which of the following neoplasms is he most likely to have?
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Neuroblastoma
- Chondroblastoma
- Osteoblastoma

Nonosseous bone tumors arise from hematopoietic, vascular, or neural tissues and include all of the following except:
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Fibrosarcoma
- Malignant giant cell tumor
- Chordoma

Osseous bone tumors arise from the bony structure itself and include all of the following except:
- Osteogenic sarcoma
- Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Chondrosarcoma
- Malignant giant cell tumor

Primary amyloidosis is associated with abnormalities of:
- Macrophages
- Erythrocytes
- Hemoglobin
- Plasma cells

Urticaria is commonly known as:
- Edema
- Hives
- Bleeding
- Itching

A 20-year-old woman gives a history of a sore throat with fever followed by 6 weeks of malaise. On physical examination she has mildly tender generalized lymphadenopathy. Hematologically, there is atypical lymphocytosis and a positive heterophile antibody test. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Lymphocytic lymphoma
- Hodgkin's disease
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Human immunodeficiency virus infection
- Brucellosis

A 50-year-old man has noted increasing dyspnea for the past 5 years. On examination rales are auscultated in both lungs. He is afebrile. A chest radiograph shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette and bilateral pulmonary edema. Past history reveals that, as a child he suffered recurrent bouts of pharyngitis with group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infections. Which of the following cardiac valves are most likely to be abnormal in this man?
- Aortic and tricuspid
- Mitral and pulomonic
- Aortic and pulmonic
- Tricuspid and pulmonic
- Mitral and aortic

Addison's disease is a hormone deficiency caused by damage to the:
- Pancreatic islets of Langerhans
- Thyroid gland
- Outer layer of the adrenal gland (adrenal cortex)
- Parathyroid glands

The cause of multiple sclerosis is:
- Bacterial
- Viral
- Unknown
- Fungal

All of the following are true concerning Type 1 diabetes except:
- It is usually diagnosed in childhood
- It is far more common than Type 2 and makes up 90% or more of all cases of diabetes
- The body makes little or no insulin
- Likely long term complications of poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes include: hyaline arteriosclerosis, proliferative retinopathy, nodular glomerulosclerosis, and peripheral symmetric neuropathy
- Daily injections of insulin are required to sustain life

An otherwise healthy 48-year-old woman with no prior medical history has had increasing back pain and left hip pain for the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination she has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the left acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be taking place in this patient?
- Gout
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
- Osteomyelitis
- Lyme disease

The cause of rheumatoid arthritis is:
- Viral
- Fungal
- Bacterial
- Unknown

An 8-year-old child has complained of pain on the left side of his head for 5 weeks. There are no abnormal findings on physical examination. A skull radiograph reveals a solitary destructive bony lesion on the left mastoid region. A biopsy is performed and microscopic examination shows that this lesion is composed histologically of histiocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, and lymphocytes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Osteoid osteoma
- Letterer Siwe syndrome
- Eosinophilic granuloma
- Osteitis fibrosa cystica

In which type of hypersensitivity reaction do the antibodies produced by the immune response bind to antigens on the patient's own cell surfaces?
- Type I hypersensitivity reactions
- Type II hypersensitivity reactions
- Type III hypersensitivity reactions
- Type IV hypersensitivity reacctions

Immune complex diseases are those in which the tissue deposition of circulating immune complexes initiates tissue injury and inflammation in multiple sites. Which of the following is the prototype immune complex disease?
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- Serum sickness
- Sjogren's syndrome
- Glomerulonephritis
- Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

Which of the following autoimmune diseases displays the characteristic "butterfly rash" over the face?
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Sjogren's disease
- Scleroderma
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

All of the following abnormalities in parathyroid function are matched with the appropriate association except:
- Primary hyperparathyroidism --> adenoma
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism --> liver disease
- Tertiary hyperparathyroidism --> hyperparathyroidism that persists after definitive therapy for secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Hypoparathyroidism --> most commonly caused by accidental surgery excision during thyroidectomy
- Pseudoparathyroidism --> defective end organ responsiveness to PTH

Match each disease, condition, or syndrome with the appropriate description.
Behcet's syndrome, Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter's syndrome, Temporal arteries, Polyarteritis nodosa, Polymyalgia rheumatica

An inflammation of the joints and tendon attachments at the joints, often accompanied by inflammation of the eye's conjunctiva and the mucous membranes (mouth, urinary tract, etc.) and by a distinctive rash
A chronic inflammatory disease of large arteries
A condition causing severe pain and stiffness in the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and hips
A disease in which segments of medium-sized arteries become inflamed and damaged, reducing the blood supply to the organs they supply
A chronic, relapsing inflammatory disease that can produce recurring, painful mouth sores, skin blisters, genital sores, and swollen joints
A connective tissue disease characterized by an inflammation of the spine and large joints, resulting in stiffness and pain

Decreased melanin pigmentation is seen in:
- Addison's disease
- Jaundice
- Albinism and vitiligo
- Hemosiderosis

Cholelithiasis, stones or calculi (gallstones) in the gallbladder, results from changes in:
- Lymph components
- Plasma components
- Bile components
- White blood cell components

Acute gouty arthritis is the attack of a metabolic disease marked by:
- Stearic acid deposits in the joints
- Hydrochloric acid deposits in the joints
- Uric acid deposits in the joints
- Sodium carbonate deposits in the joints

A subdural hematoma is a typical complication of:
- Bacterial infection
- Viral infection
- Traumatic injury
- Myocardial infarction

Extreme hypothyroidism in adults is called:
- Rickets
- Addison's disease
- Myxedema
- Graves' disease

Match the appropriate fat-soluble vitamin deficiency with the clinical manifestation.
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin E, Vitamin K

Osteomalacia
Neurologic dysfunction
Tendency to hemorrhage
Night blindness

The presence of blood in the urine is called:
- Glucosuria
- Ketonuria
- Hematuria
- Proteinuria

Calcification occuring in degenerated or necrotic tissue, as in hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules is called:
- Metastatic calcification
- Dystrophic calcification
- Pathologic calcification
- Eggshell calcification

Which disease produces diffuse enlargement of the thyroid with increased thyroid hormone production from the onset?
- Diabetes
- Graves' disease
- Parkinson's disease
- Paget's disease

The most common cause of preventable blindness in underdeveloped areas of the world is:
- Pinkeye
- Trachoma
- Conjunctivitis
- Inclusion conjunctivitis

Vitamin B3 deficiency is known as:
- Pellagra
- Scurvy
- Beriberi
- Rickets

Which two enzymes are elevated in the blood of a patient suffering from acute pancreatitis?
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Acid phosphatase
- Lipase
- Amylase

Which lipid storage disease results from lack of sphingomyelinase and can lead to severe neurologic impairment in children?
- Gaucher's disease
- Neimann Pick disease
- Fabry's disease
- Tay Sachs disease

Acromegaly is a chronic metabolic disorder of adults caused by an excessive amount of:
- Thyroid hormone
- Growth hormone
- Parathyroid hormone
- Epinephrine

A 51-year-old woman has had increasing cold intolerance, weight gain of 10kg, and sluggishness over the past three years. A physical examination reveals dry, coarse skin and alopecia of the scalp. Her thyroid is not palpably enlarged. Her serum TSH is 11.9 mU/L with thyroxine of 2.3 micrograms/dL. A year ago, anti-thyroglobulin and anti-microsomal autoantibodies were detected at high titer. Which of the following thyroid diseases is she most likely to have?
- Papillary carcinoma
- Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- Nodular goiter
- Graves' disease

Impetigo is a common skin infection. It is common in:
- Children
- Young adults
- Middle aged adults
- Elderly

Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
- Butterfly rash
- Iris or target lesion
- Hill Sachs lesions
- Janeway lesion

A condition marked by extreme thirst and excessive urine output caused by a deficiency of a hormone (vasopressin) that normally would limit the amount of urine made is called:
- Nephrogenic insipidus
- Diabetes insipidus
- Neither of the above

Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
- Butterfly rash
- Iris or target lesion
- Hill Sachs lesions
- Janeway lesion

Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the:
- Duodenum
- Jejunum
- Ileum

Although asthma can strike at any age, half of all cases first occur in:
- Middle age adults
- Teenagers
- Elderly persons
- Children under age 10

A 37-year-old man has a traumatic injury to his thigh and incurs extensive blood loss. On physical examination in the emergency department his blood pressure is 75/35 mm Hg. Which of the following cellular changes is most likely to represent irreversible cellular injury as a result of this injury?
- Epithelial dysplasia
- Cytoplasmic fatty metamorphosis
- Nuclear pyknosis
- Atrophy
- Anaerobic glycolysis

An accumulation of pus, usually caused by a bacterial infection, is called a(n):
- Granuloma
- Tumor
- Abscess
- Cyst

The first type of white blood cells on the scene during the acute or early stage of inflammation are the:
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes

Death of a portion of tissue or an organ in the body is called:
- Hypertrophy
- Necrosis
- Ascites
- Atrophy

Which one of the following is the tissue response to injury where there is an accumulation of mononuclear inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages) and the production of fibrous connective tissue?
- Acute inflammation
- Chronic inflammation
- Edema
- Gangrene

Gas gangrene occurs as a result of infection by:
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium perfringens
- Clostridium botulinum
- Actinomyces israelii

Epitheliod cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of:
- Initial inflammation
- Granulomatous inflammation
- Acute inflammation
- Subacute inflammation

The hallmark of the acute cellular phase of acute inflammation is the appearance of:
- Macrophages in the tissues
- Granulocytes, particularly neutrophils, in the tissues
- Lymphocytes in the tissues
- Epitheloid cells in the tissues

A clear straw colored liquid produced by the body in response to tissue damage is called:
- Plasma
- Serum
- Exudate
- Transudate

All of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension are true except:
- It is a medical emergency condition where there is a severe rise in the blood pressure
- The cause is unknown, but there is often a prior history of hypertension, especially hypertension resulting from kidney disorders (secondary hypertension)
- It is more common in younger adults, especially African American men. It also occurs in women with toxemia of pregnancy, and people with renal or collagen vascular disorders
- There is a sudden, rapid decrease in blood pressure, usually for no observable cause
- The disorder can cause severe, permanent, life threatening consequence from pressure damage to multiple organs of the body, including the brain, eyes, blood vessels, heart, and kidneys

An inherited kidney disorder which enlarges the kidneys and interferes with their function because of multiple cysts on the kidneys is called:
- Glomerulonephritis
- Polycystic kidney
- Medullary cystic disease
- Medullary sponge kidney

Hydronephrosis results from:
- A viral infection
- Chronic urinary tract obstruction
- A direct complication of diabetes mellitus
- A bacterial infection

The most commonly occuring form of nephrolithiasis is:
- Struvite stones
- Calcium stones
- Uric acid stones
- Cystine stones

Glomerulonephritis (GN) is a bilateral inflammation of the glomeuli, often following a:
- Staphylococcal infection
- Chlamydial infection
- Streptococcal infection
- Fungal infection

A 25-year-old man has noted puffiness around his eyes and swelling of his feet for the past 3 weeks. On physical examination his blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. Urine microscopic examination reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Ascending pyelonephritis
- Nephritic syndrome
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Renal infarction
- Papillary necrosis

All of the following are true except:
- Acute leukemias have a slow onset and progression
- Acute leukemias are characterized by the appearance of immature, abnormal cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood and frequently in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and other parenchymatous organs
- The clinical picture of acute leukemias are marked by the effects of anemia, which is usually severe (fatigue, malaise), an absence of functioning granulocytes (proneness to infection and inflammation), and thrombocytopenia (hemorrhagic diathesis)
- The spleen and liver usually are moderately enlarged, while enlarged lymph nodes are seen mainly in acute lymphocytic leukemia. Fever and a very high ESR are found
- Leukocyte counts vary greatly in the acute leukemias

Leukemias are evenly split between the acute and chronic forms, but among children one form accounts for about two-thirds of cases. This one form is:
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia
- Acute myeloid leukemia
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- Acute monoblastic

Leukemia is a group of bone marrow disease involving an uncontrolled increase in:
- Red blood cells (Erythrocytes)
- Platelets
- Plasma cells
- White blood cells (Leukocytes)

Which statement is true concerning chronic leukemias?
- They have a rapid onset and progression
- They have a shorter, more devastating clinical course than the acute leukemias
- They are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of the acute leukemias
- They constitute 75% of all leukemias

A specific chromosome marker characterizes:
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
- Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

For the past 6 months, a 65-year-old man has noted increasing fatigue and shortness of breath with minimal exercise. He has noted some abdominal discomfort over the past month. He has been healthy all his life. On physical examination he has non-tender cervical lymphadenopathy. A CBC shows absolute lymphocytosis (> 10,000/uL) and increased lymphocytes (> 30%) in the bone marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Chronic myelogenous leukemia
- Acute myelogenous leukemia
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Cigarette smoking is the most common cause of:
- Bronchial asthma
- Emphysema
- Pneumonia
- Hepatitis

A 70-year-old man has an 85 pack a year history of smoking. For the past 7 years, he has had a cough productive of copious amounts of muccoid sputum for months at a time. He has had episodes of pneumonia with Streptococcus pneumoniae and E. coli cultured. His last episode of pneumonia is compicated by septicemia and brain abscess and he dies. At autopsy, his bronchi microscopically demonstrate mucus gland hypertrophy. Which of the following conditions is most likely to explain his clinical course?
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Bronchiectasis
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchial asthma
- Centrilobular emphysema

Which of the following is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
- Von Hippel Lindau disease
- Cystic fibrosis
- Marfan's syndrome
- Familial hypercholesterolemia

Which of the following is most commonly caused by left-sided heart failure due to arteriosclerosis, hypertension, cardiomyopathy, or valvular heart disease?
- Bronchiectasis
- Chronic bronchitis
- Atelectasis
- Pulmonary edema

Bacterial pneumonia occuring in a healthy individual usually is due to:
- Group A streptococcus
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae

All of the following are pneumoconioses except:
- Asbestosis
- Silicosis
- Berylliosis
- Tuberculosis
- Anthracosis

During a cardiac arrest, a 65-year-old man, a non-smoker, receives cardiopulmonary resuscitative measures and is brought to the hospital, where he is intubated. During the intubation procedure he suffers aspiration of gastric contents. Over the next 12 days he develops a non-productive cough along with a fever to 101ºF. A chest radiograph reveals a 5 cm diameter mass with an air-fluid level in the right lung. A sputum gram stain reveals mixed flora. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Lung abscess
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchiectasis
- Bronchopulmonary sequestration

Which of the following is defined clinically as a person who has a persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years?
- Congestive heart failure
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Centrilobular emphysema

Ascites is excess fluid in the space between the membranes lining the abdomen and abdominal organs (the peritoneal cavity). This is typically caused by:
- Paget's disease
- Liver disease
- Diabetes
- Prostate cancer

Which of the following leads to the appearance of esophageal varices in the lower esophagus that can erode and bleed profusely?
- Mallory Weiss syndrome
- Iron deficiency
- Portal hypertension
- Barrett's esophagus

All of the following are RNA viruses except:
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
- Hepatitis E

Jaundice is a yellow discoloring of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes, caused by an excessive amount of:
- Glucose in the blood
- Creatinine in the blood
- Bilirubin in the blood
- Folic acid in the blood

All of the following statements concerning cirrhosis are true except:
- Cirrhosis is a chronic disease characterized by diffuse destruction and fibrotic regeneration of hepatic cells
- It is twice as common in women as in men
- It is especially prevelant among malnourished persons over the age of 50 with chronic alcoholism
- Mortality is high; many patients die within 5 years of onset

Common hepatitis virus infections include Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C. Which is the least serious and most mild of these diseases?
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C

Intrinsic factor is a protein the body uses to absorb:
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin B2
- Vitamin B5
- Vitamin B12

A 49-year-old man has had increasing abdominal discomfort with abdominal enlargement for the past three years. On physical examination, the spleen can be felt below the left costal margin. An abdominal CT scan reveals massive (estimated 4000 gm size) splenomegaly. Which of the following underlying conditions is he most likely to have?
- Myelofibrosis
- Sickle cell anemia
- Portal hypertension
- Infectious mononucleosis

What three organs are usually damaged from prolonged hypertension?
- Intestine
- Kidneys
- Heart
- Stomach
- Brain

Phlebitis is inflammation of the veins. It is most common in the:
- Arms
- Fingers
- Legs
- Toes

A clinical study is performed with subjects who are adults found to have anemia. Their clinical histories and laboratory findings are reviewed. It is observed that ingestion of a drug preceded development of the anemia in some of the subjects, but not in others. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be found in persons without a history of drug ingestion?
- Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- Macrocytic anemia
- Aplastic anemia
- Microcytic anemia

The most common cause of secondary hypertension is:
- Pheochromocytoma
- Kidney disease
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperparathyroidism

In many cases, severe hemolytic disease results when the:
- Fetus has Rh negative blood and the mother has Rh negative blood
- Fetus has Rh positive blood and the mother has Rh positive blood
- Fetus has Rh positive blood and the mother has Rh negative blood

Dicumarol is an oral anticoagulant that interferes with the metabolism of:
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E

Which two arteries are most often affected by arteriosclerosis?
- Aorta
- Femoral artery
- Coronary arteries
- Cerebral

When purpura spots are very small, they are called:
- Pimples
- Petechiae
- Ecchymoses
- Varicose veins

Sickle cell anemia is caused by an abnormal type of:
- Leukocyte
- Bilirubin
- Hemoglobin
- Melanin

All of the following statements are true except:
- Carbon monoxide is a very dangerous, colorless, odorless gas, generally associated with fumes from a car or from a home heating system
- Carbon monoxide attaches to the hemoglobin of the blood's red cells and blocks their capacity to carry oxygen
- Severe carbon monoxide poisoning can cause a coma or irreversible brain damage because of oxygen deprivation
- The initial symptoms of CO poisoning are similar to the flu (but without the fever). They include: headache, fatigue, shortness of breath, nausea, dizziness
- The affinity between CO and hemoglobin is 200 times weaker than the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen

Hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) results from a deficiency of:
- Factor IX
- Factor XI
- Factor VIII
- Factor V

An 84-year-old woman has had no major medical problems, but she has never been physically active for most of her life. One day she falls out of bed and immediately notes a sharp pain in her right hip. She is subsequently unable to ambulate without severe pain. Radiographs show not only a fracture of the right femoral head, but also a compressed fracture of T10. Which of the following conditions is she most likely to have?
- Vitamin D deficiency
- Osteomyelitis
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Osteoporosis

Which of the following is a group of disease in children and adolescents in which localized tissue death (necrosis) occurs, usually followed by full regeneration of healthy bone tissue?
- Osteochondrodysplasias
- Mucopolysaccharidoses
- Osteochondroses
- Osteopetroses

An uncommon inherited metabolic disorder which leads to "brittle bones" that predispose to fractures is called:
- Fibrous dysplasia
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Albers Schonberg disease
- Achondroplasia

Which of the following is a disease that involves softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of vitamin D or problems with the metabolism of this vitamin?
- Osteomalacia
- Multiple myeloma
- Osteonecrosis
- Ewing's sarcoma

An 80-year-old male has noted increasing back and leg pain for 4 years. He has greater difficulty hearing on the right. On physical examination he has decreased range of motion at the hips. Radiographs reveal bony sclerosis of the sacroiliac, lower vertebral, and upper tibial regions with cortical thickening, but without mass effect or significant bony destruction. If that weren't enough trouble, he says his hats don't even fit him anymore. Laboratory studies show a serum alkaline phosphatase of 264 U/L. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
- Metastatic adenocarcinoma
- Paget's disease of bone
- Decreased bone mass
- Vitamin D deficiency

Generalized swelling, or massive edema is also known as:
- Anasarca
- Aphasia
- Phlebitis
- Anomia

When a bone is broken into more than two pieces or crushed it is called:
- A complete fracture
- A greenstick fracture
- A single fracture
- A comminuted fracture
- A bending fracture
- An open fracture

Shock is a clinical syndrome that leads to reduced perfusion of tissues, organs, and organ failure. The most common cause of hypovolemic shock is:
- GI fluid loss, renal loss, fluid shifts
- Burns
- Blood loss
- Ascites, pertonitis
- Hemothorax

The clotting of blood within an artery or a vein is called:
- Thrombolysis
- Thrombosis
- A thrombus
- An embolus

Metabolic acidosis occurs in which stage of shock?
- Non progressive (early) stage
- Progressive stage
- Irreversible stage

Which of the following is the most important contributor to arterial thrombosis?
- Pregnancy
- Oral contraceptives
- Atherosclerosis
- Smoking

Heart failure resulting from progressive diseases that weaken the heart directly or cause an increased demand on the heart is known as:
- Congenital heart failure
- Congestive heart failure
- Left sided heart failure
- Right sided heart failure

Cardiac tamponade has three classic features known as Beck's triad. Which of the following is not one of these features?
- Elevated central venous pressure with neck vein distension
- Muffled heart sounds
- Pulsus paradoxus
- Cyanosis

Creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme found predominanly in all of the following except:
- Heart
- Liver
- Brain
- Skeletal muscle

The classic symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD) is:
- Coughing
- Venous congestion
- Angina
- Peripheral edema

Many bacteria can cause infectious endocarditis, but one is responsible for approximately half of all bacterial endocarditis cases. That one bacteria is:
- Staphylococcus
- Pseudomonas
- Streptococcus viridans
- Serratia

A type of cellulitis that involves inflammation of the tissues of the floor of the mouth which often occurs following infection of the roots of the teeth (such as tooth abscess) or after mouth trauma is called:
- Angioedema
- Vincent's angina
- Ludwig's angina
- Ranula

Leukocytosis often accompanies a:
- Viral infection
- Bacterial infection
- Fungal infection
- Parasitic infection

All of the following statements concerning botulism are true except:
- It is an uncommon, life-threatening poisoning caused by the toxins produced by the gram positive, anaerobic bacillis Clostridium botulinum
- These exotoxins (neurotoxins) are the most potent poisons known and can severely damage nerves and muscles
- It is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells
- It occurs with botulism food poisoning, wound botulism, and infant botulism
- The foods most commonly contaminated are home canned vegetables, cured pork and ham, smoked or raw fish, and honey or corn syrup
- The mortality from botulism is about 25%; death is usually caused by respiratory failure during the 1st week of illness

The primary pulmonary tubercle lesion is referred to as the:
- Tuberculoid
- Atypical tubercle
- Ghon tubercle
- Group II lesion

Gonorrhea:
- Is commonly seen as a testicular infection in men
- Is controllable by immunization
- Is commonly asymptomatic in women
- Is commonly not symptomatic in men

All of the following statements concerning Reye's syndrome are true except:
- Reye's syndrome involves brain damage (encephalopathy) and liver damage of an unknown cause
- It is associated with the use of NSAIDs in children to treat chickenpox or influenza
- Reye's syndrome is most often seen in children from 4 to 12 years old, with a peak incidence at age 6
- The illness has a rapid onset and symptoms may vary greatly. Changes in mental status occur including delirium, combative behavior, and coma
- Typically, Reye's syndrome follows an upper respiratory infection or chickenpox by about a week. It frequently begins with vomiting, which is persistent over many hours
- The vomiting is rapidly followed by irritable and combative behavior. As the condition progresses, the child may become semi-conscious or stuporous. Ultimately, seizures and coma develop, which can quickly lead to death

All of the following statements concerning appendicitis are true except:
- Appendicitis is a sudden inflammation of the appendix, a small, finger-shaped tube that branches off the large intestine
- Appendicitis is one of the most common causes of emergency abdominal surgery in children
- Appendicitis is more common in females than in males, and incidence peaks in the late 30s and early forties
- Appendicitis generally follows obstruction of the appendix by feces (fecalith), a foreign body, or rarely, a tumor
- Typically, the first symptom is crampy or "colicky" pain around the navel. There is usually a marked recution in or total absence of appetite, often associated with nausea, and occasionally, vomiting and low grade fever

Encephalitis is most often caused by a:
- Bacterial infection
- Viral infection
- Fungal infection
- Head injury

A macular or papular skin rash is characteristic of which stage of syphilis?
- Primary
- Secondary
- Tertiary

An infection is pandemic if:
- It has a worldwide distribution
- It is constantly present at a low level in a specific population
- It occurs much more frequently than usual
- It is highly communicable

Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration?
- IgG
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE

B-cells are responsible for:
- Humoral immunity
- Cellular imunity
- Both humoral and cellular immunity

An injection of a drug into a patient who is allegric to this drug may lead to death due to:
- Low levels of histamine
- Hyperglobulinemia
- Severe anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock)
- Localized anaphylaxis

The most potent of the anaphylatoxins is:
- C3a
- C4a
- C5a

The three principal kinds of atopic allergies include all of the following except:
- Atopic dematitis (eczema)
- Rhinitis (hay fever and year around symptoms)
- Jaundice
- Allergic asthma

Defects in the complement system could result in:
- Failure to produce complement fixing antibody
- Increased resistance to viral infections
- Impaired elimination of microbial antigen and circulating immune complexes
- Marked increase in bleeding time

Which of the following is the most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions?
- Immunofluorescence (fluorescent antibody)
- Agglutination
- Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
- Precipitation (Precipitin)
- Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

A small molecule, not antignic by itself, that can react with antibodie is called a(n):
- Epitope
- Hapten
- Plasmid
- Immunogen

Passive immunization:
- Provides protection without hypersensitivity
- Provides long lasting protection
- Provides immediate protection
- Employs sensitized T cells

A group of compounds derived from unsaturated fatty acids which are extremely potent mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions and inflammation are called:
- Neurotransmitters
- Leukotrienes
- Teratogens
- Bradykinins

All of the following statements concerning complement are true except:
- It is a collective term for a group of plasma proteins that is the primary mediator of antigen antibody reactions
- These proteins participate in lysis of foreign cells, inflammation, and phagocytosis
- It consists of about twenty plasma proteins
- The proteins are synthesized mainly by the kidney
- It is present in normal human serum
- It is heat labile

Natural immunity (innate immunity) is resistance:
- Acquired through contact with an antigen
- Not acquired through contact with an antigen

The predominant antibody in external secretions is:
- IgD
- IgE
- IgA
- IgG
- IgM

Fourteen hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, a 35-year-old woman notices a slightly raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by clothing. This rash gradually increases in intensity for 3 days and then fades after two weeks. Which of the following forms of hypersensitivity is most likely demonstrated in this patient?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
- Type IV

Which blood group has neither antigen A or B?
- A
- B
- O
- AB

A T-cell product that stimulates growth of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells is:
- Interleukin 1
- Interleukin 2
- Interleukin 3

All of the following statements concerning the rubella virus are true except:
- It is a member of the togavirus family and is an enveloped virus composed of an icosahedral nucleocapsid and a negative stranded, double stranded RNA genome
- It causes rubella (German measles) and congenital rubella syndrome
- It is transmitted via respiratory droplets
- Prevention involves immunization with the live, attenuated vaccine

Which of the following bacteria are notable for their fluorescent pigments and their resistance to disinfectants and antibiotics?
- Staphylococci
- Pseudomonas
- Bacteroides
- Treponema

According to the Spaulding Classification System for contaminated items and surfaces, critical items should be decontaminated after cleaning by:
- Intermediate or low level disinfection
- High level disinfection (by heat or chemicals)
- Sterilization and holding in sterilized state
- All of the above

Which major type of protein present in human blood plasma plays a crucial role in maintaining the blood's colloid osmotic pressure and represents an important amino acid reserve for the body?
- alpha1 globulin
- Albumin
- alpha2 globulin
- beta globulin

The principal route of calcium excretion is:
- Tears
- Urine
- Feces
- Sweat

Hemoglobin:
- Carries carbon dioxide to tissue from the lungs and oxygen away from tissues to the lungs
- Carries carbon monoxide to tissue from the lungs and carbon dioxide away from tissue to the lungs
- Carries oxygen to tissue from the lings and carbon dioxide away from tissue to the lungs
- Carries carbon monoxide to tissue from the lungs and oxygen away from tissue to the lungs

O blood type is referred to as:
- Universal recipient
- Universal donor
- Neither of the above

The general term for reactions that prevent or minimize loss of blood from the vessels if they are injured or ruptured is:
- Homeostasis
- Hemostasis
- Erythropoiesis
- Syneresis

Which mineral is important in the formation of hemoglobin?
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Iron
- Magnesium

The fluid phase of coagulated blood is known as:
- Blood hematocrit
- Blood cells
- Blood serum
- Blood plasma

All of the following will promote the release of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin --> the hemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to the right except:
- Increased carbon dioxide concentration (Pco2)
- Increased tissue temperature
- Increase in the pH
- Increased diphosphoglycerate (DPG)

Which of the following is considered to be the normal hemoglobin?
- Hemoglobin A
- Hemoglobin C
- Hemoglobin H
- Hemoglobin S
- Hemoglobin M

The globin (protein) portion of a hemoglobin molecule consists of:
- One alpha chain and one beta chain
- Two alpha chains and two beta chains
- Three alpha chains and three beta chains
- Four alpha chains and four beta chains

The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin:
- Is directly proportional to the partial pressure of O2
- Increases if the temperature increases
- Decreases if the Pco2 increases
- Increases if DPG concentration increases
- Is constant between Po2's of 40 and 100 mmHg

Glucose, fructose and galactose are classified as which type of sugar?
- Monosaccharides
- Disaccharides
- Oligosaccharides
- Polysaccharides

The ground substance of the extracellular matrix is made up of:
- Type II collagen
- Type III collagen
- Proteoglycan molecules
- Fibrillin
- Oxytalan

Glycogen, starch, and glycosaminoglycans are classified as:
- Monosaccharides
- Disaccharides
- Oligosaccharides
- Polysaccharides

Which of the following statements concerning glycosaminoglycans is true:
- They contain branches of N acetylneuraminic acid
- They seldom contain sulfate groups
- They are most often positively charged
- They contain repeating disaccharides
- They contain short oligosaccharide chains

Dextrans are:
- Soluble polysaccharides of fructose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of galactose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of glucose produced by bacteria and yeasts
- Soluble polysaccharides of ribose produced by bacteria and yeasts

The most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body is:
- Keratan sulfate
- Hyaluronic acid
- Dermatan sulfate
- Chondroitin sulfate
- Heparin sulfate
- Heparin

Which structures are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system?
- Venules
- Arteries
- Arterioles
- Veins

The function of systemic arteries is to:
- Act as control valves through which blood is released into the capillaries
- Exchange fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances
- Transport blood under high pressure to the tissues
- Act as conduits for the transport of blood from the tissues back to the heart

Most of the entire blood volume of the body is in the:
- Pulmonary circulation
- Systemic arterial circulation
- Heart
- Systemic venous circulation

Which of the following is not part of the pulmonary cicuit?
- The left atrium
- The pulmonary trunk
- The aortic semilunar valve
- The pulmonary veins
- The pulmonary semilunar valves

Which two of the following will increase tissue edema?
- Increased capillary fluid pressure
- Increased interstitial fluid pressure
- Increased colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma
- Increased colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs accross the:
- Veins
- Large arteries
- Capillaries
- Arterioles

Which of the following receptors are most important for the short term regulation of mean arterial blood pressure?
- Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies
- Stretch receptors in the carotid sinus
- Chemoreceptors in the aortic bodies
- Stretch receptors in the pulmonary circulation

Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is divided into horns, which consist mainly of neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the posterior (dorsal) horn relay:
- Voluntary motor impulses
- Reflex motor impulses
- Sensory impulses
- All of the above

All of the following are main structures of the hindbrain except the:
- Cerebellum
- Pons
- Cerebral hemispheres
- Medulla oblongata

Which structure regulates body temperature, appetite, water balance, pituitary secretions, emotions, and autonomic functions?
- Basal ganglia
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Hippocampus

Select the function not performed by the temporal lobe of the brain.
- Controls hearing
- Interprets and integrates sensations, including pain, temperature, and touch
- Controls language comprehension
- Controls storage and recall of memories

When gastric chief cells are stimulated, they secrete:
- HCl and intrinsic factor
- Mucus and pepsinogen
- Gastrin
- Pepsinogen

Gastric emptying can be slowed by:
- Gastric inhibitory peptide
- Secretin
- Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
- Activation of the enteric nervous system
- All of the above

The most important stimuli for pancreatic secretion comes from three hormones secreted by the enteric endocrine system. Which of the following is not one of these hormones?
- Cholecystokinin
- Secretin
- Calcitonin
- Gastrin

Which of the following factors affect the intensity of segmentation within the small intestine?
- Mechanical
- Neural
- Hormonal
- All of the above

"Chief" cells in gastric glands synthesize and secrete:
- Pepsinogen
- Mucous
- Hydrochloric acid
- Intrinsic factor

Action potentials in the skeletal muscle cell membrane initiate depolarization of the T tubules, which opens calcium ion release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The calcium ions that are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to which of the following?
- ATP
- Acetylcholine
- Troponin
- Tropomyosin

The absorption of which of the following occurs by simple diffusion across the small intestinal mucosa?
- Fructose
- Glucose
- Free fatty acids
- Dipeptides

During exercise, which of the following is thought to be an immediate source for high energy phosphate groups with which to replenish ATP?
- NADH
- FADH2
- Creatine phosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate

Which of the following is the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction?
- Creatine phosphate
- Glycogen
- Cellular respiration in the mitochondria of the muscle fibers
- ATP

All of the following statements concerning muscle fibers are true except:
- Fast twitch fibers are about twice as large in diameter
- Slow twitch fibers have a greater resistance to fatigue
- The enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation are considerably more active in slow twitch fibers
- Fast twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin
- Fast twitch fibers can deliver extreme amounts of power for a few seconds to a minute

An a motor neuron and the muscle fibers innervated by it are called a:
- Motor circuit
- Motor unit
- Motor system
- Motor pool

Which of the following is the monosynaptic response to stretching of a muscle
- The golgi tendon reflex
- The stretch reflex
- The flexor withdrawal reflex
- None of the above

All of the following statements concerning muscle spindles are true except:
- They are found within the belly of muscles
- They consist of small, encapsulated intrafusal fibers and run in parallel with the main muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers)
- The finer the movement required, the lesser the number of muscle spindles in a muscle
- They detect both static and dynamic changes in muscle length

Which of the following are the two main types of intrafusal fibers that are encapsulated in sheaths to form muscle spindles?
- Nuclear bag fibers
- Nuclear pipe fibers
- Nuclear chain fibers
- Nuclear rope fibers

All reflex arcs have:
- Three basic elements
- Four basic elements
- Five basic elements
- Six basic elements

When light changes from bright to dim, the iris of the eye:
- Dilates
- Changes the color
- Constricts
- Remains the same
- Thickens

The retina:
- Bends and focuses light rays
- Protects the internal parts of the eye
- Is the photosensitive curtain of nerve cells located at the back of the eye
- Is the round opening in the center of the eye through which light passes

Nearsightedness or myopia, occurs when light entering the eye:
- Focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it
- Focuses behind the retina, instead of directly on it
- Focuses directly on the retina
- None of the above

Which of the following membranes does a sound wave strike first?
- Tectorial membrane
- Membrane of the oval window
- Membrane of the round window
- Tympanic membrane

Sugars that contain aldehyde groups that are oxidized to carboxylic acids are classified as:
- Nonreducing sugars
- Reducing sugars
- Polar sugars
- Nonpolar sugars

All of the following are disaccharides except:
- Maltose
- Lactose
- D glucose
- Sucrose

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans is also known as the cement substance of tissues?
- Chondroitin sulfate
- Dermatan sulfate
- Hyaluronic acid
- Keratan sulfate
- Heparin sulfate

Erythropoietin:
- Raises the blood sugar level
- Controls blood pressure
- Prmotes plasma protein production
- Stimulates red blood cell production

Each heart valve has three cusps except the:
- Pulmonary valve
- Tricuspid valve
- Mitral valve
- Aortic valve

Which cardiac muscle has a longer refractory period?
- Ventricular muscle
- Atrial muscle

The volume of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle is the:
- Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
- Cardiac output (CO)
- Stroke volume (SV)
- Heart rate (HR)

In the electrocardiogram (ECG) the "T" wave is created by:
- Ventricular repolarization
- Atrial repolarization
- Ventricular depolarization
- Atrial depolarization

An average heartbeat, or cardiac cycle, lasts approximately:
- 8.0 seconds
- 80 seconds
- 0.80 seconds
- 0.008 seconds

The stretch receptors of the atria that elict the Bainbridge reflex transmit their afferent signals through the:
- Trigeminal nerves to the medulla of the brain
- Vagus nerves to the medualla of the brain
- Facial nerves to the medulla of the brain
- Glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla of the brain

The structural and functional portions of the cardiac conduction system are listed below. Which portion is called the "pacemaker" of the heart?
- Sinoatrial node
- Atrioventricular node
- Internodal pathways
- Atrioventricular bundle
- Purkinje fibers

The first heart sound corresponds to the closure of the:
- Semilunar valves
- Pulmonary valve
- Aortic valve
- Atrioventricular valve

Place the following phases of gastric secretion in their proper order.
- Intestinal phase
- Gastric phase
- Cephalic phase

The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogram (ECG)?
- QRS complex
- Q...T interval
- S...T segment
- T wave

Which of the following is the most important determinant of cardiac output?
- Venous return
- Activation of cardiac sympathetic fibers
- Mean arterial blood pressure
- Heart rate

Blood flow is directly proportional to the pressure difference between the two ends of the vessel but is inversely proportional to the fractional resistance to the blood flow through a vessel. This relationship can be expressed as:
- Flow = pressure difference x resistance
- Flow = pressure difference/resistance
- Flow = resistance/pressure difference

Venous return is the blood returning to the heart via the inferior and superior vena cavae. Which of the following assists venous return?
- The contraction of skeletal muscles
- The pressure changes in the thorax and abdomen during breathing
- The presence of venous valves
- Decreased venous compliance
- All of the above

The three factors that affect the magnitude of the resistance the blood encounters as it flows through vessels are listed below. Which factor has the most powerful relationship?
- Blood viscosity
- Vessel length
- Vessel radius

Which of the following contribute sympathetic fibers to the heart and increase cardiac function?
- Right vagus nerve
- First four thoracic spinal nerves (accessory nerves)
- Left vagus nerve
- Trigeminal nerve

Which of the following parameters is decreased during exercise?
- Heart rate (HR)
- Cardiac output (CO)
- Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
- Stroke volume (SV)

The bundle of His arises in the:
- SA node
- AV node
- Right ventricle
- Left ventricle

Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose?
- It is saturable
- Required metabolic energy
- Occurs down an electrochemical gradient
- Require a Na gradient

The thick ascending limb of Henle's loop is called the "diluting segment" because:
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed with a proportional amount of water
- Water is secreted into the tubular lumen
- Water is reabsorbed from the tubular lumen
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed without water
- Sodium chloride (NaCl) is reabsorbed and water is secreted

Which of the following substances is freely filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the kidney tubules?
- Sodium chloride
- Inulin
- Para aminohippurate (PAH)
- Glucose

All of the following will cause a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) except:
- Constriction of the afferent arteriole
- Constriction of the efferent arteriole
- Increased plasma protein concentration of glomerular capillary bed
- Ureteral blockage

The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by the:
- Secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of hydrogen ions (H+)
- Secretion of hydrogen ions (H+) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)
- Secretion of both hydrogen (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules
- Reabsorption of both hydrogen (H+_ and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

Most of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the:
- Descending loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Proximal convoluted tubules
- Ascending loop of Henle

Whuch mechanism is essential to the production of an osmotically concentrated urine?
- Proprioceptive mechanism
- Association mechanism
- Countercurrent mechanism
- Investing mechanism

Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds. Which compound listed below is quantitatively the most important source of ammonia?
- Glutamine
- Amino acids
- Amines
- Purines and pyrimidines

The kidneys normally excrete:
- 1 to 2 L of urine per day
- 10 to 20 L of urine per day
- 50 to 75 L of urine per day
- 100 to 150 L of urine per day

The processes which take place in the nephrons, ultimately leadng to urine formation include:
- Filtration
- Reabsorption
- Tubular excretion
- All of the above

The cell (plasma) membrane is a fluid mosaic of:
- Lipids and carbohydrates
- Proteins and carbohydrates
- Lipids and proteins
- Carbohydrates

What is the basic structure of cell membranes?

Proteins that make up the cell membrane serve as:
- Transporters
- Enzymes
- Receptors
- Mediators
- All of the above

Molecules that can easily penetrate a biologic membrane are usually:
- Large and nonpolar
- Small and polar
- Large and polar
- Small and nonpolar

Which of the following conditions decreases the likelihood of edema formation?
- Inflammation
- Standing
- Venous constriction
- Arteriolar constriction

The method of measuring heat loss or energy loss is called:
- Enthalpy
- Hydropathy index
- Calorimetry
- Entropy

An isotonic solution is:
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will cause osmosis out of the cell
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will cause osmosis into the cell
- A solution that when placed on the outside of a cell will not cause osmosis

Which of the following affect bone mass, structural integrity, and bone loss?
- Age
- Race
- Gender
- All of the above

Which of the following is a gene that when mutated or expressed at abnormally-high levels contributes to converting a normal cell into a cancer cell?
- Antigene
- Oncogene
- Epigene
- Monogene

The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound wave?
- Amplitude of the sound wave
- Frequency of the sound wave
- Superimposed wave
- Secondary waves
- Length of the sound wave

All of the following bonds are considered to be weak bonds except:
- Hydrogen bonds
- Ionic bonds
- Covalent bonds
- van der Waals interactions

The junction between the terminal of a motor neuron and a muscle fiber is called the:
- Gap junction
- Costochondral junction
- Neuromuscular junction
- Mucocutaneous junction

The neurotransmitter released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons is:
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- Serotonin

The junction between two neurons is called:
- A neurospace
- An axon
- A neural junction
- A synapse

Of the 20 amino acids commonly found in proteins, how many are not essential in the adult diet because they can be synthesized in the body?
- 5
- 9
- 11
- 18

Which one of the following statements about protein structure is correct?
- Proteins consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
- The formation of a disulfide bond in a protein requires that the two participating cysteine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the protein
- The stability of quaternary structure in proteins is mainly due to covalent bonds among the subunits
- The information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain

In eukaryotes, DNA does not exist free, it is complexed with an approximately equal mass of basic proteins called histones. These histones contain a large portion of:
- Cysteine and lysine
- Arginine and lysine
- Lysine and glutamine
- Glutamine and arginine

A peptide bond:
- Has a partial double bond character
- Is cleaved by agents that denature proteins, such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea
- Is stable to heating in strong acids
- Is ionized at physiologic pH
- Occurs most commonly in the cis configuration

All plasma proteins (except gamma globulins) are synthesized in the:
- Kidneys
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Stomach

All amino acids found in proteins are of the:
- D configuration
- L configuration
- F configuration
- C configuration

An oxygen-storing pigment found in muscle is called:
- Hemoglobin
- Myoglobin
- Albumin
- Globulin

What is the general structure shown below? Hint: They are found in proteins.

NH2--CHR--COOH

Which molecule forms part of the electron transport chain?
- Aminotransferase
- Cytochrome
- Isomerase
- Vitamin B complex

A protein which forms long felxible fibers is called:
- Hemoglobin
- Elastin
- Reticulin
- Collagen

Glutamate can be synthesized by the addition of ammonia to a-ketoglutarate. All of the following amino acids can be derived from glutamate except:
- Asparagine
- Glutamine
- Proline
- Arginine

The sequence of amino acids which makes up a protein molecule is called the:
- Primary structure
- Secondary structure
- Tertiary structure
- Quaternary structure

Which two amino acids have sulfur containing side chains (R-groups)?
- Lysine
- Cysteine
- Arginine
- Glutamate
- Methionine

Which of the following serves as a principal source of carbon for nonessential amino acids?
- Fats
- Water
- Carbohydrates
- Urea

Production of which of the following proteins would be most directly affected in scurvy?
- Hemoglobin
- Insulin
- Myoglobin
- Collagen

Which one of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid?
- Alanine
- Proline
- Tyrosine
- Glutamate

Which of the following is an enzyme which produces a DNA molecule from the corresponding mRNA?
- RNA ligase
- DNA polymerase
- Reverse transcriptase
- DNA ligase

Genetic recombination experiments depend heavily upon the action of which two enzymes?
- Restriction endonuclease
- Alkaline phosphatase
- DNA ligases
- Creatine kinase

Which of the following are commonly called "protein factories" of the cell?
- Mitochondria
- Golgi apparatus
- Ribosomes
- Lysosomes

The hydrolysis of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) will yield all of the following except:
- Ribose
- Phosphoric acid
- Deoxyribose
- Nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine)

Okazaki fragments are pieces of DNA formed:
- During the isolation of DNA
- During transcription
- During replication
- During apoptosis

The primary purine bases in both RNA and DNA are:
- Thymine (T) and Guanine (G)
- Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)
- Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)
- Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C)

A nucleotide represents a combination of:
- Base and sugar
- Base, sugar and phosphate
- Two DNA strands
- DNA/RNA complex

The most important aspect of the DNA double helix is:
- The randomness of base pairing
- The specificity of base pairing
- The phosphodiester bond
- That it forms a double spiral coil

The degenerate nature of the genetic code implies what?
- That many animo acids are designated by more than one codon (triplet)
- The only one amino acid is designated by one codon (triplet)
- Neither of the above

What is the complementary sequence (3'-->5') to the DNA segment CAT?
- ATG
- TAA
- AGG
- GTA

All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true except:
- It is constant throughout the molecule
- It consists of deoxyriboses linked by "phosphodiester bridges" or "phosphodiester bonds"
- It is hydrophobic
- It is highly polar

Which material comprises most of the RNA in the cell?
- DNA
- Messenger RNA
- Transfer RNA
- Ribosomal RNA

Which fatty acids are essential?
- Lauric and myristic acids
- Palmitic and stearic acids
- Linoleic and linolenic acids
- Butyric and caproic acids

A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is:
- Lecithin
- Sphingomyelin
- Cerebroside
- Cardiolipin

The digestion and absorption of dietary lipid can be completed only in the presence of adequate amounts of:
- Phospholipids
- Proteins
- Bile salts
- Steroids

Which one of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins is correct?
- Chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues
- HDL particles are produced from LDL particles in the circulation by the action of lipoprotein lipase
- HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in extrahepatic tissues
- LDL particles have the least percentage concentration of cholesterol

Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most dense to least dense?
- HDL / VLDL / chylomicrons / LDL
- LDL / chylomicrons / HDL / VLDL
- HDL / LDL / VLDL / chylomicrons
- VLDL / chylomicrons / LDL / HDL

Which of the following is not a source of Acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis?
- Creatinine
- Pyruvate
- Glucose
- Citrate

Ketone body synthesis from acetyl-CoA occurs in:
- Hepatic mitochondria
- Skeletal muscle mitochondria
- Kidney mitochondria
- Cardiac muscle mitochondria

The excessive buildup of ketones produces a condition called:
- Keloidosis
- Ketole syndrome
- Ketosis
- Keyolytic disease

Fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs:
- In the cytosol
- In the mitochondria
- In the nucleus
- None of the above

What structure consists of three molecules of fatty acid combined with one molecule of glycerol?
- Phospholipid
- Triglyceride
- Prostaglandin
- Steroid

All of the following statements concerning fatty acid synthesis are true except:
- Fatty acid synthesis involves two carbon additions primarily from acetyl CoA
- The important step in fatty acid synthesis is the first one in which acetyl CoA, ATP, and bicarbonate from malonyl CoA
- Fatty acid synthesis is not a simple reversal of B oxidation used for the catabolism of fatty acids
- Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)

Which of the following can be found in the liver, where it plays a role in methionine and lipoprotein formation?
- Heparin
- Choline
- Thrombin
- Serotonin

The oxidation of one NADH by the electron transport chain (or respiratory chain) leads to the formation of:
- 1 ATP
- 2 ATP
- 3 ATP
- 4 ATP

Which electron-carrier complex of the respiratory chain uses NADH as the electron donor?
- Complex I
- Complex II
- Complex III
- Complex IV

All of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle (Krebs' cycle) are true except:
- It is also called the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
- The cycle starts with the 4 carbon compound oxaloacetate, adds 2 carbons from acetyl CoA, loses 2 carbons as CO2, and regenerates the 4 carbon compound oxaloacetate
- The pyruvate that enters this cycle is generated by the glycolysis of glucose or protein catabolism
- This cycle is controlled by regulation of several enzyme activities. The most important of these regulated enzymes are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
- The enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol
- Aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid are interconvertible

Which of the following is the process whereby glucose is recycled when there is insufficient oxygen for normal glucose metabolism via the Krebs' cycle?
- Hydrologic cycle
- Cori cycle
- Carbon cycle
- Glucose cycle

Which of the following is the pace-setting enzyme of glycolysis?
- Hexokinase
- Phosphoglucose isomerase
- Phosphofructokinase
- Aldolase
- Triose phosphate isomerase
- Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase
- Phosphoglycerate kinase
- Phosphoglyceromutase
- Enolase
- Pyruvate kinase

The branch point molecule of glycolysis is:
- Glucose 6 phosphate
- Pyruvate
- Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate

Which pathways is depicted?
Glucose -- 2ATP --> Fructose 1,6 diphosphate -- 4ADP, 2 NAD+ --> 2 pyruvate

- Entner Doudoroff pathway
- Embden Meyerhof pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Urea pathway

ATP is produced via all of the following except:
- Substrate level phosphorylation
- Electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation
- Photophosphorylation
- Pentose phosphate pathway

All of the following statements concerning the pentose phosphate pathway are true except:
- It produces carbon dioxide (CO2)
- It can produce NADPH
- It requires ATP for phosphorylation
- It can produce five carbon sugars (used for DNA and RNA)
- It is controlled by inhibition of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH
- It occurs in the cytosol of the cell

The external heat transfer mechanisms are:
- Radiation
- Conduction
- Convection
- Evaporation of perspiration
- All of the above

Which of the following ions has a higher concentration in the intercellular fluid (ICF) than in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?
- Chloride (Cl-)
- Potassium (K+)
- Sodium (Na+)
- Bicarbonate (HCO3-)

Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure different from the other two solutions?
- 1 M glucose
- 1 M sodium chloride
- 1 M potassium nitrate

Which of the following statements concerning the two principal laws of thermodynamics are true?
- They apply only to closed systems, that is, entities within which there can be no loss of energy or mass
- The first law says that the total quantity of energy in the universe remains constant (this is the principle of the conservation of energy)
- The second law states that the quality of this energy is degraded irreversibly (this is the principle of the degradation of energy)
- The second law, known as Carnot's principle, is controlled by the concept of entropy
- All of the above statements are true

Isotopes of an element:
- Have different chemical properties but the same weights
- Have the same chemical properties but different weights
- Have different chemical properties and weights
- Have the same chemical properties and weights

The isoelectric point (pI) is the pH at which:
- The number of positive charges outnumbers the number of negative charges
- The number of positive charges equals the number of negative charges
- The number of negative charges outnumbers the number of positive charges
- None of the above

Proteins are effective buffers because they contain:
- A large number of hydrogen bonds in a helices
- A large number of amino acids
- Amino acid residues with different pKas
- Peptide bonds that readily hydrolyze, consuming hydrogen and hydroxyl ions

Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has a 10^-4 M concentration of OH- ions?
- 5
- 8
- 7
- 10

All of the following statements are true except:
- Blood is normally slightly acidic, with a pH range of 6.45 to 6.55
- The blood's acid base balance is controlled precisely because even a minor deviation from the normal range can severely affect many organs
- The body uses three mechanisms to control the blood's acid base balance
- An abnormality in one or more of these pH control mechanisms can cause one of two major disturbances in acid base balance: acidosis or alkalosis

A famous relationship (in biochemistry circles) for predicting pH for acid buffers is the:
- Arrhenius equation
- Henderson Hasselbalch equation
- Bohr equation
- Einthoven equation

Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
- Vomiting
- Chronic renal failure
- Salicylate poisoning
- Diarrhea

Ovulation occurs as a result of:
- The progesterone induced LH surge
- The estrogen induced FSH surge
- The progesterone induced FSH surge
- The estrogen induced LH surge

Ovulation occurs:
- 7 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 14 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 18 days before menses, regardless of cycle length
- 21 days before menses, regardless of cycle length

All of the following statements are true except:
- During early childhood, a boy does not secrete gonadotropins, and thus has little circulating testosterone
- Secretion of gonadotropins from the adrenal gland, which usually occurs between the ages 16 and 20, marks the onset of puberty
- These pituitary gonadotropins stimulate testes functioning as well as testosterone secretion
- During puberty, the penis and testes enlarge and the male reaches full adult secual and reproductive capability
- Puberty also marks the development of male secondary sexual characteristics

All of the following are actions of estrogen except:
- Causes the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty
- Causes the development of the breasts
- Maintains pregnancy
- Promotes secretory changes in the uterine endometrium during the latter half of the monthly female sexual cycle, thus preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum

When the lungs are in the resting position, the alveolar pressure is equivalent to:
- Blood pressure
- Critical pressure
- Atmospheric pressure
- Transmural pressure

Alveolar ventilation is expressed as:
- Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume + Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate + (Tidal volume + Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate x (Tidal volume - Dead air space volume)
- Respiratory rate - (Tidal volume - Dead air space volume)