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1019 Cards in this Set

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What are the side effects/toxicities for Lithium?
Tremor, sedation, edema
hear block
hypothyroidism
polyuria (ADH antagonist causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)
teratogenesis

Almost exclusively excreted by kidneys -- most is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubules following Na reabsorption
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
is a medical condition combining clubbing and periostitis of the long bones of the upper and lower extremities. Distal expansion of the long bones as well as painful, swollen joints and synovial villous proliferation are often seen. The condition may be primary or secondary to diseases like lung cancer.

most commonly due to bronchogenic adenocarcinoma
Where is the primary lymph drainage in each of the following sites?

1. upper limb, lateral breast
2. stomach
3. duodenum, jejunum
4. sigmoid colon
5. rectum (LOWER PART)
6. anal canal (ABOVE PECTINATE LINE)
7. testes
8. scrotum
9. thigh (superifcial)
10. lateral side of dorsum of foot
1. upper limb, lateral breast
AXILLARY

2. stomach
CELIAC

3. duodenum, jejunum
SUPERIOR MESENTERIC

4. sigmoid colon
COLIC --> INFERIOR MESENTERIC

5. rectum
INTERNAL ILIAC

6. anal canal
SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL

7. testes
SUPERFICIAL AND DEEP PLEXUS --> PARA-AORTIC

8. scrotum
SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL

9. thigh (superifcial)
SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL

10. lateral side of dorsum of foot
POPLITEAL
What are reasons for hypoxemia with increased A-a gradient? What are the mechanisms for each? What are examples?

A-a gradient is alveolar O2 pressure - arterial O2 pressure = 10-15
A-a > 30 means there is something wrong with the lung

1. Ventilation defect (impaired I2 delivery to alveoli for gas exchange) -- RDS

2. Perfusion defect (decreased or absent blood flow to alveoli) -- PE

3. Diffusion defect (O2 cannot diffuse through alveolar capillary interface) -- interstitial fibrosis, pulmonary edema

4. R-->L shunts -- tetralogy
Which bug is transmitted in pet feces and can mimic Crohn's disease or appendicitis?
Yersinia enterocolitica

Cold growth, outbreaks of diarrhea often in daycare centers
What are reasons for hypoxemia with a normal A-a gradient?
1. high altitude, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis

2. depression of respiratory center in medulla (e.g. barbituates, brain injury)

3. upper airway obstruction (eppiglottis due to H. influenzae, croup due to parainfluenza)

4. chest bellows dysfunction
Which question-mark shaped bacteria is found in water contaminated with animal urine? How does it present?
Leptospirosis includes flulike sympyomes, fever, headache, ab pain, jaundice, photophobita with conjunctivitis.

Wil's disease -- severe from with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunctionl fever, hemorrahe, and anemia
What is normal S2 splitting?
aortic valve closes before pulmonic; inspiration increases this difference by leading to drop in intrathoracic pressure, which increases circulation. Pulmonic valve closes later to accommodate more blood enterind lung; aortic valve closes earlier b/c of decreased return to the heart.
What are the stages of lobar pneumonia? What is the most common pathogen?
1. Redness -- active hyperemia & congestion; bleeding & solid (red hepatization)

2. blood broken down --> grey (grey hepatization)

3. resolution (healing)

pneumococcus most common, then klebsiella
How to treat toxoplasma gondii?
sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
What is wide S2 splitting? What is it associated with?
Seen in conditions that delay RV emptying (pulmonic stenosis, right bundle branch block).

Delay in RV emptying causes delayed pulmonic sound (regarless of breath) -- an exaggeration of normal splitting
How to treat entamoeba histolytica?
metronidazole and iodoquinol
What is fixed S2 splitting? What is it associated with?
seen in ASD. ASD leads to L --R shunt and increased flow through pulmonic valves such that regardless of breath, pulmonic closure is greatly delayed.
What are complications of bronchopneumonia?
Fibrosis = scarring and adhesion
Abscess, which can rupture, leading to empyema (pus with inflamatory cells) spreading to the rest of the lung, which if enters the blood stream can lead to septic shock
What is paradoxical S2 splitting? What is it associated with?
Seen in conditions that elay LV emptying (aortic stenosis, left bundle branch block). Normal order of valve closure is reversed so that P2 sound occurs before delayed A sound; therefore on inspiration, the later P2 and earlier A2 sounds move closer to one another "paradoxically" eliminating the split.
What are some causes of abscesses? Complications?
Localized collection of pus within parenchyma, usually resulting from bronchial obstruction (cancer) or aspiration of oropharyngeal contents. Often due to s. aures or anerobes

Causes --
Septic emboli
preexisting pneumonia
obstruction to bronchi

Complications --
could destroy an artery, leading to hemoptysis
Amyloidosis in long term inflammation
empyema
What is atypical pneumonia?
Intersitial -- inflammation in septa NOT alveolus! No evidence of consolidation

See thickening in septae with inflammatory cells
What are common causes for atypical pneumonia in adults?
M. pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Adeno, Influenze, RSV
When are the right-sided heart sounds amplified?
intensity increased with inspiration
How to treat babesia? How does babesia present?
fever and hemolytic anemia; predom in NE US (maltese cross)

guinine, clindamycin
When are the left-sided heart amplified?
intensity increased with expiration
Pathogen that commonly produces lung abscesses, common secondary invader in the lung in patients with rubeola or influenza, produces tension pneumatocysts leading to tension pneumothorax in cystic fibrosis patients:
Staphylococcus aureus
What is seen in TB? How to treat?
caseated nodules w/pink center granulomas
mutlinucleated giant cells
acid fast red rods

First 2 months -- INH, rifmapin, pymzinamide
Next 4 months -- INH + rif; if resistant, ethbutamol, streptomycin
How does trichenella spiralis present?
undercooked meat, usually pork; inflammation of the muscle, periorbital edema, myocarditis.
How is mitral regurg enhanced? What is it usually caused by?
loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla

enhanced by maneuvers that increase TPR (e.g. squatting, hand grip) or LA return (e.g. expiration).

MR is often due to ischemic heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, or LV dilation. + rheumatic fever
What is a Gohn focus? How is this related to the Gohn complex?
TB bacilli will invade bloodstream, get into lymphatics (Gohn complex)
What is stronglyoides associated with? How to treat?
intestinal infection, vomitting, diarrhea, anemia, a/w HTLV-1

treat with bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
How is tricuspid regurg enhanced? What is it usually caused by/
loudest at tricuspid area and radiates to right sternal border

Enhanced by maneuvers that increase RA return (e.g. inspiration).

TR is due to RV dilation or endocarditis. + rheumatic fever
What happens in progressive TB? What is a positive PPD test?
granulomas spread throughout lung -- milliary spread (small) and cavitations

>15 mm in low risk
>10 mm in high risk (IV drug, poverty, immigrant)
> 5 mm in HIV, recent TB
Where does TB like to spread?
Brain -- Meninges
Neck -- Cervical lymph nodes, laryngeal chords
Liver
Spleen (also miliary spread)
Lower lumbar spine (Pod's disease)
Fallopian tubes
Epidydymis
Difference b/w acute stress disorder and PTSD?
acute stress -- 2 months and 1 month

PTSD -- longer than a month
How does toxocara canis present?
food contaminated with eggs; causes granulomas (if in retina --? blindness) and visceral larva migrans
How is buspirone used? Mech?
Stimulates 5=HT receptor

does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance.

Takes a week to work
What are SNRIs for?
depression, but

1. venlafaxine is also used in generalized anxiety disorder

2. duloxentine also indicated for diabetic peripheral neuropathy
What are the cestodes? Which one causes B12 deficiency? Which one can cause anaphylaxis upon cyst bursting?
Tanea solium (cysticercosis)
Diphyllobothrium latum (from fish, B12 def)
Echinocossus (eggs in dog feces can cause cysts in liver, causes anaphylazis if echinococcal antigens are released from cysts -- surgeons inject ethanol before removal to kill daughter cysts)
Differentiate timeframe with generalized anxiety disorder, adjustment disorder?
general -- (nonspecific) for at least 6 months

adjustment -- (specific) for < 6 months; < 6 months in presence of chronic stressor
What is obstructive lung disease? What is seen in terms of lung volume and capacity?
problem getting air out of the lung because of increased resistance to air flow

FEV1/FVC decreased
TLV, RC, RV elevated because can't get the air out
What is the tox of MAOi?
hypertensive crisis with tyramine inghestion (in many foods, esp aged foods) and b-agonists

tyramine stimulates NE release; MAO inhbited will lead to no degradation
What are the trematodes? How to treat? Which organism is from crab meat?
schistosoma
clonorchis sinesis
paragonimus westermani (undercooked crab meat; causes inflammation and 2ndary bacterial infection of lung, causing hemoptysis)

treat with praziquantel
What is restrictive lung disease? What is seen in terms of lung volume and capacity?
problem getting air in, can't expand

TLC, VC decreased because of decreased lung volume
FEV1/FVC is either normal or increased
How does maprotiline work?
blocks NE reuptake

atypical antidepression -- sedation, orthostatic hypotension
What is the mech for mirtazapine?
a2-antagonist (increases releease NE and serotonin) and potent 5-HT receptor antagonist

tox: sedation, increased appetitde, weight gain, dry mouth
What are types of obstructive lung disease?
Asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
What is the mech for trazadone?
primarily inhib serotonin reuptake

used for insomnia -- increases REM sleep, as high doses are needed for antidepressant effects

tox: sedation, nausea, pripism, postrual hypotension
Difference b/w acute stress disorder and PTSD?
acute stress -- 2 months and 1 month

PTSD -- longer than a month
What is the only DNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm?
Pox
What are types of restrictive lung disease?
Chest Wall -- obesity, kyphoscholiosis, polio

Interstitial -- ARDs, pneumoconiosis, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, Goodpasture's, Wegener's, drug toxicity
Predominatly a respiratory pathogen, this strict aerobe is most commonly seen in patients with defects in cellular immunity, particularly in the setting of heart transplantation. It produces microabsesses in the lungs, oftern with granuloma formation. A characteristic feacture, aside from its unusual Gram stain morphology, is that it is partially acid fast:
Nocardia asteroides
How is buspirone used? Mech?
Stimulates 5=HT receptor

does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance.

Takes a week to work
What are the symptoms of chronic bronchitis? What is seen histologically? What are complications?
Cough, sputum for 3 months over past 2 years; hypoxia, weight gain b/c CHF, dypsnea, frequent infection

Hypertrophy of mucous glands (increased wall gland ratio-->Reid index=gland depth/thickness of wall. In COPD> 50%) in the bronchioles

squamous cell metaplasia, which can lead to infections, hypoxia (vasoconstriction --> cor pulmonale, hypertension)
SCC
What are the major causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
postradiation fibrosis
endocardial fibroelastosis (thicl fibroelastic tissue in endocardium of young children)

Loffler's syndrome (endomyocardial fibrosis with a prominent eosinophilic infiltrate)
and hematochromatosis
What is emphysema?
destruction of alveolar septa. enlargment of air spaces and decreased recoil resulting from destruction of alveolar walls, increased compliance
How does alcohol withdrawal present? How to treat the most severe symptoms?
similar to other depressants (anxiety, tremor, seizures, insomnia)

severe -- delerium tremens (treat with benzos)
What is the only dsRNA?
Reo
Describe X-linked Agammaglobulinemia. Who is infected? What are symptoms? What are clinical complications?
Boys 4-12 months
1. Recurrent bacterial infections

2. Pyogenic bacteria S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and strep

3. Chronic infections

4. Septic and non-infectious arthritis

5. Meningitis

6. Enteroviral infection

7. PCP infection

8. XLA and cancer
What are the two types of emphysema?
1. centrilobular/acinar -- due to smoking. enlarged airspaces, especially in apex.
respiratory brochioles are destroyed with distal alveoli spared

2. panacinar/lobular -- entire lung destroyed due to a1-antitrypsin deficiency
respiratory bronchioles and distal alveoli

3. Paraseptal -- associated with bullae, which can rupture, leading to spontaneous pneumothorax; often in young, healthy males
What do opioids activate? What are signs of intoxication?
activate locus ceruleus (NE) pathway and NAC

CNS depression, nausea & vomiting, constipation, pupillary contriction, seizures
What are the naked viruses?
Calci
Picorna
Reo

Pap
Adeno
Parvo
Describe XLA pathophysiology? What is lacking? What is seen? Where is the genetic defect?
1. Major abnormality is lack of B lymphocyctes in peripheral blood and other organs (<2% CD19+)

2. Absence of immunoglobulin production

3. Rudimentary lymph tissue with abnormal histology

4. Absent plasma cells

5. Bone marrow shows arrest of B cell maturation

90 - 95% of patients with XLA have a BTK mutation
What are the two types of asthma? How to test asthma? What are the clinical findings?
1. extrinsic -- type I hypersensitivity (pollen, dust, food, etc), usually starts in childhood

2. Intrinsic (unknown mech) -- viral, stress, exercise in cold, aspirin triggers

test with methacholine challenge.

Findings: cough, wheezing, dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxemia, decreased I/E ratio, pulsus paradoxus, mucus plugging
What are complications of bronchiectasis?
Abscess formation
Cor pulmonale
Amyloidosis
Aspergillosis
What are causes for pulmonary edema?
1. Increased H (LHF)
2. Decreased oncotic pressure (liver disease -- not enough albumin)
3. Capillary destruction (bleomycin, heroin, shock, radiation, infections to lung)
What is the number 1 fatal cause of diarrhea in children?
Rota
Klebsiella pneumoniae:
upper lobe cavitation
thick mucous & fat gram negative rods
association with an alcoholic
What is overexpressed in adenocarcinoma?
Ras
What is seen in adenocarcinoma?
Peripheral
Pleura
Puckering
Forms glandular spaces, tends to produce mucous
What are the two types of adenocarinoma?
1. Bonchial
2. Bonchoalveolar (more rare)
What is the difference b/w bronchial adenocarcinoma and broncioalveolar adenocarcinoma?
1. Bronchial -- develops in site of prior pulmonary inflammation or injury (most common lung cancer in nonsmokers and females)

2. Bonchioalveolar -- not linked to smoking; grows along airways; can present like pneumonia; can result in hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
What is the histology of squamous cell carcinoma?
Keratin pearls
Intercellular bridges (desmosomes)
What are the characteristics of small cell carcinoma?
undifferentiated--> very aggresive, often associated with paraneoplastic syndromes:

ACTH (Cushing's)
ADH (SIADH)
Eaton-Lambert (autoantibodies against Ca channels, leading to large muscle weakness in the morning)
Acanthrosis Nigricans
Patients who are being treated for tuberculosis may develop sideroblastic anemia
complication of isoniazid
produces pyridoxine defeciency
B6 is necessary in heme synthesis in the mitochondria of RBCs
leads to a sideroblastic anemia
What is transduction?
Phage-mediated transfer of host-DNA.
How does yellow fever present?
transmitted by Aedes mosquito

high fever, black vomit, hemorragic disease, and jaundice
What are the characterisitcs of large cell carcinoma?
Peripheral
Highly anaplastic undifferentiated tumor
Less responsive to chemotherapy
Poor prognosis
What is the histology of large cell carcinoma?
Plepmorphic giant cells with leukocute fragments in cytoplasm
What are the common causes of conjunctivitis?
H. influenza
Adeno
S. pnuemoniae
What are the characterisitcs of a carcinoid tumor?
secretes erotonin, can cause carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea, wheezing, salixation). Fubeous deposits in right heart valves may lead to tricuspid insufficiency, pulmonary steonsis, RHF
Explain conjugation.
In G-, DNA is transferred via conjugative plasmid (F pilus) to recipient cell by physical contact.

In G+ cell, plasmids are transferred not through a pilus but through contact b/w two cells, induced by quorom-sensing.

R factor is a plasmid that contains drug resistance gene.
What are common causes for the common cold?
Rhino
Corona
Adeno
Influenza C
Cox
What is the life cycle of trypanosome?
1. parasite in host; long, slender form
2. in bloodstream; short, stumpy form
3. taken up by tsete fly; forms procyclic form which multiplies in gut
4. grows into eptmastigote form in fly's saliva
5. epimastigote --> metacyclic form
6. new bite will infect animal

Parasite also has a VSg on its surface, leading to evolution of parasite so that it can propogate again in genetically modified vectors.
What is silicosis pneumoconioses? Where does it affect? What does it look like?
Associated with foundries, sandblasting, and mines. Macrophages respond to silica and release fibrogenic factors, leading to fibrosis. May disrupt phagplysosomes and impair macrophages, increasing susceptibility to TB.

Affects upper lobes, ground-glass appearance, nodular opacities, "eggshell" calcification of hilar lymph nodes insidious onset
What do paramyxoviruses contain? How is it targeted in pharmacotherapy?
All contain surface F (fusion) protein, which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells.

Palivizumab is used in RSV to neutralize F protein
On a trip to the Far East, a man develops a high fever with bradycardia, absolute neutropenia,& splenomegaly. A blood culture is positive for a gram negative organism:
Salmonella typhi
What is asbestosis pneumoconioses? What is seen? Where does it affect?
Associated with shipbuilding, roofing, and plumbing. Results in "ivory white" calcified pleural plaques. Assocated with an increased incidence of bronchogenis carcinoma and mesothelioma.

Affects lower lobes. Golden beaded appearance in sputum

Increased risk (as with smoking) for primary lung cancer, THEN mesothelioma
Which bacteria show antigenic variation?
Neisseria (pili)
Strep (M protein)
Mycoplasma
Lyme
What are complications of lung cancer?
SPHERE

Superior VC syndrome -- distended head and neck veins, plethora, facial, and upper arm edema
Pancoast's
Horner's
Endocrine (paraneoplastic)
Recurrent laryngeal symptoms
Effusions (pleural or pericardial)
Where can you find nicotinic ACh receptors in the body?
Autonomic ganglia
NMJ
Which protozoa show antigenic variation?
T. brucei (afircan sleeping sickness)
Plasmodium falciparum
What is transudate?
Decreased protein content. Due to CHF, nephrotic syndrome, hepatic cirrhosis
Major side effect of a1 blocker
First dose orthostatic hypertension
Order these from high virulence to low virulence:

Salmonella
Shigella
Listeria
Shigella
Salmonella
Listeria
What is exudate?
Increased protein content, cloudy
Due to malignancy, pneumonia, collagen vascular disease, trauma (occurs in sates of increased vascular permeability). Must be drained in light of risk of infection
Major side effect of nitroprusside
CN toxicity
Which viruses show antigenic variation?
Influenza
HIV (env)
Flavi (E protein)
What are the drugs for malignant hypertension?
nitroprusside
fenoldopam
diazoxide
What HIV associated infections occur when CD4 < 50
CMV retinitis and esophagitis
disseminated M avium-intracellulare
cryptococcal meningioencephalitis
What is the mechanism for nitroprusside?
increased cGMP, direct release NO
What are the non-specific b-agonist asthma drugs?
Isoproterenol -- relaxes bronchial SM (b1); adverse affect is tachycardia (b2)
Treatment for testicular cancer
Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
What is the mechanism for fenoldopam?
dopamine D1 receptor antagonist, relax renal SM
What are the b2 agonist asthma drugs?
Albuterol (relaxes bonchial SM) -- use during acute exacerbation


Salmeterol (long acting agent for prophylaxis)
Treat Wilm's tumor
Dactinomycin
Vincristine
S3 heart sound
L --> r shunts
mitral regurg, prolapse, post MI, CHF, etc
What are statins? What are side effects?
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

hepatotoxicity
What drugs can cause torsades de pointes?
Any drugs that prolong the QT interval:

macrolides
sotalol
quinidine
risperidone
halliperidol
protease inhib
chloroquine
methadone
What is theophylline? What is its mechanism? When is it used? How is it used?
It is a methylxanthine that likely causes bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, thereby decreasing cAMP hydrolysis.

Usage limited b/c of narrow therapeutic index (cardiotoxicity, neurotoxicity); metabolized by P-450. Blocks actions of adenosine.
What are niacins? What are the side effects?
Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduces hepatic secretion into circulation

red, flushed face, which decrease by aspirin or long-term use
hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia
What are muscarinic asthma antagonists?
Ipratopium -- competitive block of muscarinic receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction. Also used for COPD
What are macrophage markers?
CD 14
What are bile acid resins? What are example?
Prevent intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

cholestyramine
colestipol
colesevlam

GI discomfort
decreased ADEK
cholesterol gallstones
What is cromolyn? When is it used?
Prevents release of mediators from mast cells. Effective only for the prophylaxis of asthma. Not effective during an acute asthma attack. Toxicity is rare.
What are NK cell markers?
CD 16, CD56, CD 2
What drugs can lead to direct Coombs-pos hemolytic anemia?
methyldopa
What is ezetimibe?
prevents cholesterol reabsorption at small intestine brush border
Which drugs can cause hemolysis in G6PD deficient patient?
INH
Sulfonamides

Primaquine
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nitrofurantoin

Dapsone
Naphtheline
Fava Beans
Toxin mechanism of EHCH E. Coli
interferes w/60s, inhibiting protein synth
What are the antileukotriene asthma drugs?
Zileuton -- 5 LOX pathway inhibitor. Blocks conversion of arachiodonic acid to leukotrienes

Zifirlukast, montelukast -- block leukotriene receptors. Especially good for aspirin induced asthma.
What are --fibrates? What are the side effects?
Gemfibrozil
--fibrate

upregulate LDL --> increased TG clearance

myositis, hepatotoxicity, cholesterol gallstones
Which antibiotics treat gram negative only?
Monobactam (aerobic)
Aminoglycosides (aerobic)
Polymyxin
Which drugs can lead to aplastic anemia?
chloramphenicol
benzene
NSAIDs
PTU
methimazole
alkylating agents
Toxin mechanism of B. Anthracis
Edema factor is adenylate cyclase that causes increased levels in intracellular cAMP in phagocytes and formation of ion-permeable pres in membrane. Decreased phagocytosis, causes edema, kills cells
What structure perforate the diaphragm? Where? What innervates?
T8 -- IV
T10 -- esophagus, vagus (2 trunks)
T12 -- aorta, thoracic duct, azygous vein

diaphragm innervated by C3, 4, 5
Which drugs can lead to megaloblastic anemia?
Phenytoin
MTX
Sulfa
Invasive helminth that is often disseminated in AIDS patients & common sause of autoinfection & superinfection:
Strongyloides stercoralis
Which antibiotics treat gram positive only?
Vancomycin
Clindamycin
Linezolid
Which drugs can lead to focal to massive haptic necrosis?
Halothane
Valproic Acid
Acetaminophen
Amanita phalloides
How are blood levels different in one in high altitude and one who has acclimated?
Both have decreased O2, CO2

high alt -- increased pH, resp alk; decreased Hb saturation

acclimation -- decreased pH, renal compensation; increased Hb concentration (epo)
Which HIV medications cause lactic acidosis? + peripheral neurpathy?
All the NRTIs cause lactic acidosis

+ PN -- didianosine, stavudine, zalatabine
Toxin mechanism of B. Pertussis
Increased cAMP in phagocytes, hemolysis. ADP ribosylates G
What are risk factors for a fat embolus? What are the risk factors for a pulmonary embolus?
(a) Fat embolus – associated with
i. long bone fractures
ii. liposuction
(b) Pulmonary embolus – chest pain, tachypnea, dyspnea
i. DVT:
ii. stasis
iii. hypercoagubility
iv. endothelial damage
v. can use d-dimers to test
Toxicity of gangciclovir?
nephrotox (foscarnet as well)
What are the toxicities of vancomycin?
Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Thrombophlebitis
Red Man Syndrome
Toxicities of NRTIs
Lactic acidosis
Megaloblastic Anemia (zidovudine)
Pancreatitis (ddt, zalcitabine, stvd)
Peripheral Neur (ddt, zalcitabine, stvdn)

Hepatic Steatosis (fatty liver) -- zidovudine, stavodine

hypersensitivity -- abacovir
What is an eosinophilic granuloma?
Histiocytosis X
proliferation of Langerhans cells, CD1a + birbeck granules (tennis-racket shaped)
Sulfonamides antagonize what compoud? What is their mech?
PABA

PABA is needed to synth folate de novo. Sulfonamides inhibit dihydropteroic acid synthase (only in bacteria) to prevent synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid.
Ribavirin -- mech, use, tox
Inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides by competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrog

use -- adult RSV, chronic help B

tox -- hemolytic anemia, severe tetratogen
Toxin mechanism of C. Tetani
Tetanus toxin is a neurotoxin. Zn2+ dependent protease that blocks release of inhibitory transmitters glycine & GABA = spastic paralysis
What happens in vit B12 deficiency? What accumulates?
in addition to megaloblastic anemia, causes demyelination of spinal cord posterior columns and lateral corticospinal tracts) subacute combined degeneration of spinal tract =dementia, peripheral neuropathy

serum methylmalonic acid
Adenovirus
hemorrhagic cystitis
conjunctivitis
pneumonia
febrile pharyngitis
diarrhea
glioblastoma multiforme
- histology
- location
- staining indicator
most common primary adult brain tumor
- can cross corpus collusum (butterfly glioma)
- stain for GFAP
- pseudopalisading pelomorphic tumor cells (border central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage)
Why are sulfonamides contraindicated in neonates?
displace bilirubin from albumin, causing kernicterus
meningioma
- location
- origin
- histology
- 2nd most common primary brain tumir
- convexities of hemispheres, parasagittal resion
- arises from arachnoid cells external to brain
- spindle cells arranged in whorled patterd + psammoma bodies (laminated calcifications)
What are the NNRTIs? Tox?
Nevirapine
Efavirenz
Delaviridine

rash, false pos cannibus
Schwannoma
- location
- staining indicator
- associations
- histology
- 3rd most common primary brain tumir
- often locatlized to CN VIII = acoustic schwannoma
- cerebellopontine angle
- S-100 positive
- bilateral schwannoma associatedwith NF2
- alternating areas of Antoni A, Antoni B cells
Toxin mechanism of C. Botulinum
Botulism toxin is Zn2+ dependent protease inhibiting release of Ach = flaccid paralysis
Oligiodendroglioma
- incidence, growth
- location
- histology
- rare, slow growing
- frontal lobes
- chicken-wire capillary pattern, "fried egg" appearance
MAO inhibitors other than isocarboxacid and segiline?
phelezine
trancypromine
Pilocytic (low-grade) astrocytoma
- location
- staining
- prognosis
- histology
- posterior fossa
- GFAP
- benign, good prognosis, well circumscribed
- Rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic + corkscrew fibers)
How does TMP work? What are the toxicities? How can they be alleviated?
inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase.

megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia. alliviate with supplemental folinic acid (leucovorin rescue)
Medullablastoma
- prognosis
- origin
- location
- histology
- very poor, highly malignant
- form of primitive neuroectodermal tumor
- can compress 4th ventricle, causing hydrocephalus
- rosettes
What does K do?
Depresses ectopic pacemakers in hypokalemia
Ependymoma
- location
- complications
- prognosis
- histology
- 4th ventricle (children), cauda equina (adults)
- hydrocephalus
- poor prognosis
- characteritic perivascular pseudorosettes
What are RAG1 and RAG2?
Specific enzymes called RAG1 and RAG2 (recombination activating genes) control VDJ recombination. These enzymes are encoded for by transposable elements of the DNA that probably originated from viruses.
RAG1 and RAG2 recognize specific sequences called recombination signal sequences (RSSs), arranged so that the enzymes "know" whether the gene being recombined comes before or after the signal sequence.
Hemangioblastoma
- location
- association
- complications
- histology
- cerebellar
- associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome when found with retinal angiomas
- can produce EPO --> secondary polycythemia
- foamy cells and high vascularity
How is TMP-SMX used?
recurrent UTI
Shigella
Salmonella
PCP
Craniopharyngioma
- prognosis
- origin
benign childhood tumor, confused with pituitary adenoma (can also cause bitempral heminopia)

most common childhood supratentorial tumor

derived from remnants of Rathke's pouch
calcifcation is common (tooth-enamel like)
Treatment for urge-type incontenence other than oxybutinin?
tolterodine
darifenacin, solifenacin
trospium
Go through V and J recombination?
The V and J gene segments recombine first. During recombination:
1. RAG binds to the RSS after the selected V segment, and before the selected J segment
2. Cleavage of the DNA
3. Optional insertion of random nucleotides in the DNA break, by an enzyme called TdT
4. Repair of the DNA by regular dsDNA break repair enzymes, to place the randomly selected V next to the randomly selected J
What does Mg do?
Effective in torsades de points and digtoxin toxicity
What is the mech for streptogramins? Tox?
synthed by streptomyces virginae

A -- binds peptidyl transfer of 50S
B -- prevents protein chain extention

use for MRSA, VRE, strep and staph skin

SE: hepatotoxicity, pseudomembranous colitis
Most common causes of dementia?
Alzheimer's
Multiple Infarcts
Talk about primary immune response and somatic hypermutation and switch recombination.
In the primary immune response, mostly mediated by IgM, AG/AB affinity is not very high. Then, the antibody undergoes a process called somatic hypermutation, which improves the AB/AG affinity. After undergoing somatic hypermutation, the antibodies undergo a process called switch recombination, in which the heavy chain, that defines the AB as G, M, E, etc. is exchanged.
Immunization with a single antigen will result in a monoclonal response. However, the monoclonal response will give rise to many different antibodies, due to mutations in the hypervariable region.
The process of VDJ recombination of T cells happens in the thymus and bone marrow.
The process of improving AB/AG affinity after cells encounter the AG happens in the spleen and lymph nodes, particularly, in the germinal centers.

B cells can also undergo a process called switch recombination, in which one class of antibody is exchanged for a different class (e.g. A for M, E, G, etc). This process is also mediated by AID. When AID introduces mutations in the "switch region," the result is a DNA break and deletion of the intermediary sequence.
Inhaled treatment of choice for acute exacerbations
albuterol
Most common cause of diverticulum in pharynx?
Zenker's diverticulum
Describe B cell differentiation and proliferation in the germinal centers. What happens there? What else is there?
B cells that have encountered antigens enter the dark zone of the germinal center. Cells proliferate in the dark zone, creating a clonal group of B cells. Then, specific mechanisms cause lots and lots of mutations to occur in the rearranged gene, resulting in the production of many different proteins--this process is called somatic hypermutation, and happens in the V segment of the gene.
Some of the proteins produced as a result of these mutations will be non-functional, and the cell will die. Most will give rise to a less effective AB. A small percent will give rise to a more effective AB, with higher AG affinity.
Dendritic cells sit in the light zone of the germinal center, presenting antigens on their surfaces. The clones that have generated the best antibodies compete with each other for binding to the dendritic cells.
Cells that bind the DCs receive survival signals. Cells that do not bind the DCs undergo apoptosis in the light zone. The presence of lots of apoptotic cells is what makes the light zone light.
Most common cause of DIC?
Sepsis
Trauma
OB
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephropaty
Transfusion
Most common glomerulonephritis?
IgA (Berger's)
Pathogen associated with inguinal lymph nodes containing granolomatous microabscesses and localized lymphedema & rectal strictures as a complication:
Lymphogranuloma venereum- only STD without ulcers
What is the mech for clindamycin?
binds to 50 ribosomal subunit to inhibit translocation of peptidyl-RNA, inhibiting protein synthesis
In terms of treating asthma, what is special about theophylline?
i. likely causes bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, thereby decreasing cAMP hydrolysus
ii. usage limited b/c of narrow therapeutic index (cardiotoxicity -- increased HR, arrhythmia, neurotoxicity)
iii. metabolized by P-450
iv. blocks actions of adenosine (used for SVT)
What is Hyper IgM syndomre?
B cells can also undergo a process called switch recombination, in which one class of antibody is exchanged for a different class (e.g. A for M, E, G, etc). This process is also mediated by AID. When AID introduces mutations in the "switch region," the result is a DNA break and deletion of the intermediary sequence.
Mech of
Carbamapezine, phenytoin
decreased axonal conduction by preventating Na influx through Na channels
Most common cause of hemochromatosis?
Multiple transfusions or hereditary HFE mutation (can result in CHF, "bronze diabetes," and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)
Mech of
ethosuximide?
decreased entry of Ca through T-type channels in thelamaic neurons (sensory motor relay, responsible for absence seizures)
Why is somatic hypermutation in the germinal centers dangerous?
Somatic hypermutation in the germinal centers is a very dangerous process, and can lead to mutations in protooncogenes that result in lymphomas.
99.9% of cells in the germinal centers undergo apoptosis, during which the DNA is chopped up. If a cell is "rescued" in the beginning of apoptosis, the high rate of mutations and recombinations can often lead to cancer. Hodgkin's is an example of such a cancer. Hodgkin's cells are B cells that have mutations making their Igs non-productive, which suggests that these cells were supposed to undergo apoptosis after their (normal) hypermutation was non-productive, and "by mistake," didn't. A large percentage of Hodgkin's cells contain the Epstein Barr virus, which stops apoptosis.
What are the side effects that anticonvulsants tend to have?
CNS depression -- drowsiness, sedation, nyastigmus

osteomalacia, megaloblastic & aplastic anemia
Causes of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma

Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune disease
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia
ERSP
Drugs (e.g. sulfa)
What macrolide antibiotic is safe in pregnancy? What adverse effect is caused by erythromycin given to infants less than 6 weeks of age for pertussis?
azithromycin

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Which lysosomal storage diease is a/w renal failure?
Fabry's
What can carbamazepine be used for outisde of seizures?
trigeminal neuraligia
manic phase of bipolar
What are the microscopic sequences of change?
1-4 hours wavy myocyte fibers
4-24 hrs coagulative necros.
1-3 days neutrophilic infil.
3-7 days macrophages
7-28 days granulation tis.
months fibrotic scar
What is the most common lysosomal storage disease?
Gaucher's
Which lysosomal storage diseases are a/w an early death (by 3)?
Tay Sach
Niemann-Pick
Krabbe's
What is the gross sequence of an MI?
0-18 hours no gross change
18-24 hrs vague pallor and soft.
1-7 days yellow pallor
7-28 day central pall w/red bord
months white, firm scar
Which lysosomal storage disease is a demyelinating disease?
metachromic leukodystrophy
How might corneal clouding and mental retardation help distinguish b/w the mucopolysaccharidoses?
Hurler's -- has both
Hunter's -- mental
Scheie's -- corneal
I-cell -- may or may have mental retardation
What is Thiopental? How is it used? What are its characteristics? How is it distributed?
barb
used for induction of anesthesia, short surg procedures
highly lipid soluble, rapid onset, decreased cerebral blood flow

redistributed in tissues, not metabolized
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w a-L-iduronidase deficiency?
Hurler's
Scheie's
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w iduronate sulfatase deficiency?
hunter's
How does Ketamine work? Side effects?
blocks NMDA antagonists
- CV stimulation, increased blood flow, increased intracranial pressure
- dissociatice
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w arylsulfatase A def?
metachromic leukodystrophy
What are the different types of local anesthetics?
esters (1 i)
amides (2 is)
What is are three example of molecular mimicry? How do they work?
Rheumatic fever--following a strep A infection, molecular mimicry develops between the M protein on the streptococcus and other proteins, expressed on the heart and brain. Autoantibodies begin to attack the myocardium, in the presence of pro-inflammatory cytokines. Cytotoxic T cells are triggered to destroy myocardial and valvular tissue.

NB: molecular mimicry is not the same thing as cross reactivity.
Molecular mimicry occurs when an autoreactive cell or antibody recognizes and destroys a self-structure on a pathogen or autoantigen.
Cross reactivity occurs when an autoreactive cell or antibody simply recognizes a self-structure on a pathogen or autoantigen.

Multiple sclerosis--an autoimmune disease of the CNS. In MS patients, myelin basic protein and myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein act as self-antigens and are attacked by macrophages and T cells. The T cell response in MS may be the result of a hep B infection, since hep B viral polymerase is very similar to MBP. According to this hypothesis, hep B polymerase induces a molecular mimicry mechanisms which triggers the T cells to start destroying host tissue.

Guillain-Barre syndrome--an immune-mediated disease of the PNS, in which autoantibodies attack the myelin sheaths and axons of peripheral nerves.
In many cases of Gullain-Barre, the disease follows an acute infection of the campylobacter jejuni bacterium. This infection results in the production of the autoantibodies that attack the myelin sheaths. One possible mechanism for this disease is that a lipooligosaccharide (LOS) on the bacterial cell wall is also present on the myelin sheaths, resulting in molecular mimicry.
How do these local anesthetics work?
block Na channels -- non ionized form crosses axonal membrane, activated & ionized inside where it binds to specific receptors on inner portion of channel
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w a-galactosidase A def?
Fabry's
Which nerves are more affected by local anesthetics?
type C (the smaller diameter)

coadministration with a1 agonists for vasoconstriction in oder to decrease absorption into system, prolong effects and decrease toxicity

-- neurotoxicity, CV tox (bupivacaine)
Why is imipenem given with cilstatin?
cilstatin is inhib of renal dihydropeptidase, which ordinarily would inactivate imipenem in renal tubules
What are the nondepol (competative) skeletal muscle relaxants?
tubocuraine
--curonium
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w galactocerbrosidase def?
Krabbe's
What is the mech for nondepol relaxants? reversible? complications
nicotinic with zero efficacy, binds to a subunit, reversible with AChE (neostigmine)

progressive paralysis: face, lumbs, resp musckls
no effect on cardio, CNS, smooth muscle
What lysosomal storage disease is a/w b-glucocerebrosidase def?
Gaucher
What is special about atrocurium?
rapid recovery; sade in hepatic or renal impairment
- spontaneous inactivation to laudanosine, which can cause seizure
Which gram neg rods with ampicillin kill?
Haem
E coli
Listeria
Proteus
Salmonella
enterococi
What is speical about mivacurium?
ultrashort acting b/c degreaded by plasma choliesterases
What is I-cell disease?
- Deficiency in mannose

- phosphorylation
no mannose 6 phosphate to target lysosomal proteins --> secretion out of cell instead of into lysosomal death by age 8

- increased corneal clouding, coarse facies, HSM, skeletal abnormalities, restricted
Wha is a depol (noncompeitive) relaxanT? How does i act? What are comlications?
Succinylcholine (nicotine agonist)

- Phase I -- prolonged depolarization, fasciculations, flaccid paralysis

- Phase II -- desensitization

hyperkalemia, malignant hyperthermia
How can rheumatoid arthritis be treated?
Rheumatoid arthritis can be treated by IL1 and TNFα blockers.
Remicade and humira are anti-TNFα drugs that are used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.
Enbrel is another drug, made from an antibody that blocks binding of TNFα to its FcRII receptor.
How to treat malignant hyperthermia? Mech?
Dantolene

prevents Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
Which drugs kill pseudomonas?
car, tic, piperacillin
imipenem/cilstatin
aztreonam
fep, fop, taz
fluoroquinolones
aminoglycosides
Morphine
- mu opiod receptor antagonist
- resp depression, CNS depres
- minimal effect on heart but vasodilation
- circular constricts
- nausea, vomiting, increased histamine
What are the serum levels in hypervitaminosis D?
Increased Ca, Phos
Normal alk phosphate
Decreased PTH
Merperidine
antimuscarinic but no myosis
no GI GU GB spasm
causes seizures b/c metablizes into DRI
What are the serum levels in renal insufficiency?
Decreased Ca
Increased PTH
Increased phos (b/c can't excrete it)
Levodopa
- converted inDA by AAAD once crosses BBB
- always given with carbidopa (non comp inhib of AAAD,incresing bioavailability)

side -- dyskinesia, on off, psychosis
What are the toxicities of polymixins?
neurotoxicity, nephrotoxicity
Toicapone/entracapone
- inhib COMT,enhance levodopa uptake and efficacy (prevents degradation)

_ TOLCAPONE hepatotoxic
What is Wegener's granulomatosis? How does it work?
an inflammation of the small blood vessels that typically affects the upper respiratory tract and kidneys. This disease is characterized by the presence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies that activate neutrophils, causing oxidative bursts the result in the destruction of the endothelium.
How does Selegiline work? When is it used? What are the side effects?
- selective MAOb inhib (decreases central doapmine degradation)
- no tyramine interactions
- initial treatment and adjunct to levodopa
- side effects -- dyskinesia, psychosis, INSOMNIA b/c metabolized to amphetamine
Erection, emission, and ejaculation are mediated by which nerves?
erection -- parasympathetic

emission -- sympathetic; hypogastric nerve

ejaculation -- visceral and somatic nerves (pudendal)
benzotopine
decreased tremor and rigidity, anti-muscarinic,atropine-like
How can high insulin levels lead to hypertension?
because insulin:
1. Enhances sodium reabsorption in the kidneys
2. Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system by activating sympathetic centers in the brain
3. Increases the pressor response to angiotensin II
4. Increases angiontensin II production
5. Increases sodium sensitivity
6. Stimulates smooth muscle proliferation
7. Increases intracellular Ca
What are the drugs used to treat status epilepticus?
1. lorazepam

2. phenytoin (decreases Na current in cortical neurons)
What is the function of the spermatogoonia? Location?
maintain germ pool and produce primary spermatocytes

line seminiferous tubules
What is the function of sertoli cells? Location?
secrete inhibin --> inhibit FSH

secrete androgen-binding protein (ABP) --> maintain levels of testosterone

tight junctions -- blood testes barrier (isolate gametes from attack)

support and nourish developing spermatozoa, regulate spermatogenesis

produce MIF
What is the function of Leydig cells? Location?
interstitium
In men, where is estrogen produced?
Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in adipose tissue and sertoli cells by enzyme aromatase
How does exogenous testerosterone affect men?
Inhibits HPG axis, leading to decreased intracellular testosteronem leading to decreased testicular size and azoospermia
What are the side effects of AmpB?
fever/chills
hypotension
nephrotoxicity
arrhythmias
anemia
IV phlebitis

reduce toxicit with hydration or liposomal Amp
Which cells are responsible for maintaining a high testosterone concentration in the seminiferous tubules?
Leydig cell makes testosterone, but sertoli cells secrete ABP, which helps maintain testosterone in area
Testicular tumor a/w elevated aFP?
yolk sac
embryonal
How does capsofungin work? What is it used to treat?
inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhib b-glucan

Invasive aspergillosis
testicular tumor a/w elevated b-hCG?
choriocarcinoma
embryonal
What is the NMDA receptor?
Glutamate (excitatory) receptor in the brain, voltage-dependent activation, a result of ion channel block by extracellular Mg2+ ions. This allows the flow of Na+ and small amounts of Ca2+ ions into the cell and K+ out of the cell. Involved in learning and memory.
Describe Phase II of neutrophil recruitment.
Once leukocytes marginate, rolling & adhesion.
1. Induction of adhesion molecule on endothelium more sticky
2. Weak binding mediated via selectins and will slows the WBC by rolling. P-selectins are made de novo and bind to carbs.
3. Strong binding mediated via integrins (LFA 1), which cause firm adhesion. Expressed on leukocutes.
What is GABA? What are the receptor types?
Inhibitory neurotransmitter.

1. GABAa receptor increases Cl conductance and is the site of action for benzos and barbituates

2. GABAb receptor increases K conductance
Most common testicular tumor in men over 60
testicular lymphoma
How do integrins function in "rolling and adhesion?"
Integrins are heterodimers of alpha and beta chains. Firm adhesion will only occur after conformational change of integrins. Though constantly expressed by leukocutes, they are expressed in inactive form. Dur to cytokines and chemokines (lie CXCL8) will bind to receptor, and integrin will become activated and undergo conformational change.
What is the difference between a frontal lobe lesion and right parietal lobe lesion?
Frontal Lobe Lesion– Disinhibition and deficits in concentration, orientation, and judgement; may have reemergence of primitive reflexes.


Right Parietal Lobe Lesion – Spatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral side of the world)
Flucanazole is choice for?
cyrptococcal meningitis in AIDSs patients and candida
Testicular tumor with histologic appearance similar to kiolocytes?
seminoma
What is LAD?
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency: Defect in beta2, recurrent infections, impaired wound healing. (integrin problems)

Neutrophils cannot be recruited to site of infection. If there is no full stop, they cannot get out of vessel.
What is tabes dorsalis?
Tabes Dorsalisis the degeneration/demyelination of dorsal columns and dorsal roots due to tertiary syphilis, resulting in impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia. Associated with Charcot'sjoints, shooting (lightning) pain, Argyll Roberton pupils (reactive to accomodation but not light), absence of deep tendon reflexes, positive Romberg, and sensory ataxia at night.

Positive rombert because dorsal columns carry info of position (proprioception), vibration, and discriminitive touch.
Testicular tumor histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions?
Embryonal
Which drugs can lead to gingival hyperplasia?
phenytoin
Which drugs can lead to gout?
furosemide, thiazide
Which drugs can lead to osteoperosis?
corticosteroids
heparin
Characteristics of Fentanyl?
1) opoid analgesic
2) used with other CNS depressants during general anesthesia
What is the mech for pyrimethamine?
selectively inhibits plasmodial DHFR. drug of choice for toxoplasmosis when combined with sulfadiazine
Characteristics of Propofol?
1) used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures
2) less postop nausea than thiopental
3) potentiates GABAa
Which drugs can lead to Fanconi's anemia?
expired tetracycline
heavy metal exposure
Wilson's
Which drugs can lead to interstitial nephritis?
methicillin
NSAIDs
furosemide
What is the mech for suramin?
inhibits enzymes involved in eergy metabolism. No CNS involvement (like melarsoprol)
What are the a-agonists that are used in glaucoma? How to they work?
Work on the a1 receptor (increases vascular SM contraction, papillary dilator muscle contraction, intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction)

1. epinephrine -- decreases aueous humor secretion, causes mydriasis
2. brimonidine -- decreases aqueous humor, no dilation
Which drugs can lead to seizures?
buproprion
imipenem/cilstatin
INH
What are the b-blockers used in glaucoma? What is the mechanism?
Timolol -- decreases aqueous humor secretion
What are some developmental landmarks for the thymus?
It is at its maximum size at puberty, and gets smaller at maturity.
What are the diuretics used in glaucoma? What is the mechanism?
Acetazolamine -- decrease aqueous humor secretion due to decreased HCO3- (via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the the proximal convoluted tubule)
What is the mech for nifurtimox?
forms free radicals
What are the cholinomimetics used in glaucoma? What are the mechanisms?
1. Direct
- pilocarpine (emergencies)
- carbachol

2. Indirect
- physiostigmine
- echothiopate

Decrease outflow of aqueous humor by contracting ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork
HLA 3/4
DM I
SLE
RA
What is the prostaglandin used in glaucoma? What is the mechanism?
Lantanoprost (PGF2a) -- decreased outflow of aqueous humor
What is the most common infection secondary to blood transfusion?
HCV
What is the mech of sodium stibogluconate?
inhibits glycolysis at PFK reaction
What is the most common malignancy a/w noninfectious fever?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
How does penicillin kill?
It inhibits transpeptidase, which cross links PDG cell wall of gram positive bacteria.
What is the most common cause of myocaditis?
Cox B (can also cause asceptic meningitis)
What is the mech for chloroquine?
blocks plasmodium heme polymerase, leading to accumulation of toxic hemoglobin breakdown products that destroy organism
What are the most common neoplasms in kids?
1. ALL
2. cerebellar medulloblastoma
How are cyclins and CDKs involved in cell cyle?
cyclins are regulatory proteins that control cell cycle events. They kind to and activate CDK which phosphorylate target proteins to drive the cell cycle.

When jon is completes, cyclins are degrade by ubiquitin protein ligase
What is p21?
p21 binds to and inactivates cyclin-cdk complexes so that the cell cycle may not continue. regulated by p53.
What are the G1 --> S cyclin-cdks?
cyclin D activates cdk4, which phosphorylates Rb. Rb is released from transcription factor E2F. With E2F unbound, the cell is free to transcribe/synthesize components needed for progression through the S phase (cyclin E, DNA polymerase, thymidine kinase, DHFR)

cyclin E binds cdk2, and the cell is allowed to progress into S phase
What is the mechanism of hexamethonium? What is it used for? What are its toxicities?
i. nicotinic antagonist
ii. ganglionic blocker. Used in experimental models to prevent vagal reflex responses to changes in BP-- e.g., prevents reflex bradycardia caused by NE
iii. severe orthostatic hypotenison, blurred vision, constipation, sexual dysfunction
What is mech for pyrantel pamoate?
stimulates nicotinic receptors at NMJ. contraction occirs, followed by depolarizing-induced paralysis. No effect on tapeworms or flukes.
What are the cyclin-cdk complexes that regulate G2 --> M?
cyclin A - cdk 2 --> mitotic prophase

cyclin B - cdk 1 complex activated by cdc25, which leads to the breakdown of the nuclear envelope and initiates mitosis
What cytoskeletal elements contain actin and myosin?
microvilli
adherins
cytokenesis
What is the first step of heme production?
Glycine and succinyl CoA comes together and interact with ALA synthase to form ALA.
What is the mech for ivermectin?
intensifies GABA-mediated neurotransmission and causes immobilization. Does not cross BBB
What contains vimentin?
CT (fibroblasts, leukocytes, endothelium)
What contains peripherin?
neurons
How does the tyrosine kinase receptor work?
transmembrane receptors that bind an extracellular ligand then intracellularly transfer a phosphate group from ATP to selected tryosine side chains on specific cellular proteins including itself (autophosh). The first step in the signaliing cascade that is initiated by tyrosine kinase receptors is autophorsphoryl
What are the two tyrosine kindase pathways?
1. activated phospholipase C --> IP3/Ca and DAG/PKC

2:
adaptor protein
Ras activating protein
active Ras protein
activation of protein kinase 1-3
affected target
What is ribavirin mech? What is its clinical use Toxicities?
mech -- inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides by competiviely inhib IMP dehydrogenase.

use -- RSV, chronic hep C, arenavrisu

tox -- hemolytic anemia, severe tetratogen
What types of cell injury are reversible?
decreased ATP synthesis

cellular swelling (no ATP --> impaired Na/K pump)

nuclear chromatin clumping

decreased glycogen

fatty change

ribosomal detatchment (decreased protein synthesis)
What is the function of astrocytes?
physical support, repair, K metabolism, removal of excess neurotransmitter, maintanence of BBB. reactive gliosis in response to injury. astrocyte marker -- GFAP
What types of cell injury are irreversible?
nuclear pyknosis, karyolysis, karyorrhexia

Ca influx --> caspase activation

plasma membrane damage

lysosomal rupture

mitochondrial permeability
What is the function of microglia? How are they affected in HIV?
CNA phagocytes. Mesodermal origin. respond to tissue damage by differentiating into large phagocytic cells.

HIV-infected microglia fuse toform multinucleated giant cells in the CNS
What is the mech for foscarnet? Use? Tox?
viral DNA polymerase inhib that binds to pyrophosphate-binding site of enzyme. Does not require thymidine kinase activation.

Used for CMV retinitis (gangciclovir too)

Hematotoxicity, nephrotoxicity
What is the function of oligodendroglia?
each oligodenfrocyte myelinates multple CNA axons. predom in white matter. Look like fried eggs, destroyed in MS
What effect do prostacyclins have?
PGI

decreased platelet aggregating
decreased uterine tone
vasodilation
What are the function of Schwann cells?
each cell myelinates only 1 PNS axon. Also promite axonal regeneration. Derived from neural crest. create new pathways

destroyed in Gullain-Barre syndrome
What effect do prostaglandins have?
PGE2

increased pain
increased uterine tone
increased temp
decreased vascular tone
What types of free nerve endings are there? Where are they located? What do they sense?
C -- slow, unmyelinated fivers

A(d) -- fast, myelinated

Located in all skin, epidermis, some viscera

senses pain and termperature
What are the toxicities of gangcylovir?
leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal toxicity
What are Meissner's corpuscles? Where are they located? What do they sense?
located in glabrour (hairless) skin

position sense, dynamic fine touch (e.g. manipulation), adapt quickly (sends signal only at the beginning and end of a stimulus)
What effect do TXA2s have?
increased platelet aggregation
vasoconstriction
What are Pacinian corpuscules? Where are they located? What do they sense?
Located in deep skin layers, ligaments, and joints

vibration and pressure
What provides the structural framework for DNA and the nuclear envelope?
lamins
What are Merkel's disks? Where are they located? What do they sense?
located in hair follicles

position sense, static touch (e.g. shapes, edges, textures), adapt slowly (continuous)
How are molecules transported into the nucleus?
signal rich in arginine, lysine, or proline
What are the peripheral nerve layers?
1. endoneurium -- invests single nerve fibers, inner (inflammatory infiltrate in Guillan-Barre)

2. Perineurium (permeability barrier) -- surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers. must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment

3. epineurium -- dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nevers (fascicles and blood vessels)
What is the reticular activating system?
reticular formation
locus ceruelus (makes NE)
raphe nuclei (makes serotonin)

mediates consciousness and attentiveness
Locations of synthesis?
1. NE
2. dopamine
3. 5-HT
4. ACh
5. GABA
1. locus ceruleus
2. ventral tegmentum and SNc
3. raphe nucelus
4. basal nucleus of meynert
5. nucleus accumbens
Location of synthesis for DA
ventral tegmentum and SNc
Location of 5 HT synthesis
raphe nucleus
Location of ACh synthesis
basal nucleus of Meynert
Location of GABA synthesis
nucleus accumbens
What is needed for GABA synthesis?
B6 to turn glutamate into GABA
Regulates the parasympathetic NS
Destruction results in hyperthermia
anterior, preoptic
What makes ADH? oxytocin?
ADH -- supraoptic nucleus

oxytocin -- paraventricular nucleus
What information does the VL relay?
dentate nucleus and basal ganglia --> supplementary motor cortex
How do opiod analgesics work?
act as agonists at opioid receptors (m= morphone, d=enkephalin, kappa=dynorphin) to modulate transmission -- open K channels, close Ca2+ channels, decreased synaptic transmission. Inhibits release of ACh, NE, 5-HT, glutamate, substance P
What information does the VA relay?
basal ganglia --> prefrontal, premotor, and orbital cortices
What are the toxic effects of opiods?
addiction
respiratory depression
contipation
miosis
additive CNS depression

treat with naloxone
What information the anterior thalamus relay?
mamillothalamic tract --> cingulate gyrus (part of papex circuit)
What is heparin? How is it used?
Heparin is an indirect anticoagulant. Today, low molecular weight heparin, called Enoxaparin is used. Low molecular weight heparin can be given subcutaneously, twice daily, unlike regular heparin, which needs to be given via IV.
The dose of low molecular weight heparin needs to be adjusted if the patient has renal dysfunction.
Heparin is contraindicated in a patient with a risk of bleeding. In such a patient, there is no alternative treatment option, and the bleeding needs to be controlled before heparin can be used.

The higher the TIMI risk score, the greater the efficacy of low molecular weight heparin.
What are the signs of intoxication of amphetamine?
Signs of intoxication include:
1. impaired judgement
2. pupillary dilation
3. prolonged wakefulness and attention
4. delusions
5. hallucinations
6. fever

Signs of with withdrawal include:
1. stomach cramps
2. hunger
3. hypersomnolence
What are factor Xa inhibitors?
Factor Xa is necessary for thrombin activation. Factor Xa inhibitors block thrombin by blocking Xa, acting much closer to thrombin on the coagulation cascade than heparin does, which makes them more selective, and less prone to adverse side effects.
Fondaparinux--a Xa inhibitor.
What is cardiac tamponade?
Beck triad --
hypotension
increase JVP
distant heart sounds
What are ADP antagonists?
ADP is present in the circulation, and rises in inflammatory and thrombotic states. Platelets have an ADP receptor, which ADP can bind to, to active the platelet.
Drugs that block the ADP receptor (most are thienopyridines) are the mainstay of ACS treatment.
Thienopyridines bind covalently to the ADP receptor, irreversibly inhibiting it.

ADP antagonists include:
1. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
2. Ticlopidine
3. Prasugrel
4. Ticagrelor
What is derived from phenylalanine?
(a) Phenylalanine → tyrosine → DOPA → Dopamine → NE → Epinephrine
i. tyrosine –> thyroxine
ii. Dopa → melanin
How do K channel openers work?
hyperpolarize vascular smooth muscle > arterial vasodilation
What is derived from tryptophan?
Melatonin
Niacin (needs B6) --> NAD, NAHP
What is the significance of prolonged QT intervals?
Inhibition of potassium channels (Class III activity) widens the action potential, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram. Such an effect is associated with increased risk of developing life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias
What are adverse effects of statins?
a.
Liver: Biochemical abnormalities in liver function have occurred with the HMG CoA reductase inhibitors. Therefore, it is prudent to evaluate liver function and measure serum transaminase levels periodically. These return to normal on suspension of the drug. [Note: Hepatic insufficiency can cause drug accumulation.]

b. Muscle: Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis (disintegration or dissolution of muscle) have been reported only rarely. In most of these cases, patients usually suffered from renal insufficiency or were taking drugs such as cyclosporine, itraconazole, erythromycin, gemfibrozil, or niacin. Plasma creatine kinase levels should be determined regularly.
holds head up
social smile
3 months
stranger anxiety
recognizes people
sits alone
crawls
7-9 months
walks
separation anxiety
few words
15 months
climbs stairs
stacks 3 blocks
object permanence
200 words, 2 word sentences
12-24 months
What is the underlying problem in Wilson's Disease?
(a) Inadequate hepatic copper excretion and failutre of copper to enter circulation as ceruloplasmin
(b) leads to copper accumulation, especially in liver, brain, vornea, kidneys, and joints
parallel play
core gender identity
24-36 months
What is Wilson's Disease characterized by?
i. asterixis (wrist tremor)
ii. basal ganglia degeneration (parkinsonian symptoms)
iii. ceruloplasmin decrease, cirrhosis, corneal deposits, copper accumulation, carcinoma
iv. dementia, dyskinesia, dysarthria
v. hemolytic anemia
stacks 9 blocks
toilet training
900 words, complete sentences
rides tricycle
copies line or circle drawings
3 years
simple stick figure drawings
cooperative play
imaginary friends
grooms self, brushes teeth
4 years
can draw complete person
6 years
What drugs can lead to sexual dysfunction?
tricyclics
antihypertensives
SSRIs (may inhibit orgasm)
What is dry beriberi?
polyneuritis
symmetrical wasting
What is the key to initiating sleep?
serotongergic predominance of raphe nuclei
What is wet beriberi?
high-output cardiac failure (dilated cardiomyopathy)
edema
Why are there eye movements in REM?
due to PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center)
What is Wernicke-Korsakoff?
Wernicke -- confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia

Korsakoff -- memory loss (antero/retrograde), confabulation, personality changes

Can be caused by thiamine (B1) deficiency or mamillary body lesion
What is delerium? What does it often present with? What does the EEG look like? Causes?
waxing and waning level of consciousness with acute onset; rapid decrease in attention span and level of arousal. Characterized by acute changes in mental status, disorganized thinking, hallucinations (often visual), illusions, misperceptions, disturbance in sleep-wake cycle, cognitive dysfunction.
usually secondary to other illness (e.g. meningitis, CNS disease, infection, trauma, substance abuse/withdrawal)

presents abnormal EEG
What is dementia? What does it present with? Whatdoes the EEG look like? Causes?
gradual decrease in cognition with no change in level of consciousness. Characterized by memory deficits, aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, loss of abstract thought, behavioural/personality changes, impaired judgment. Patient is alert. No psychotic symptoms. more often gradual onset. Normal EEG.

Caused by Alzheimer's disease, vascular thrombosis/hemorrhage (may have acute/subacute onset), HIV, Pick's disease, substance abuse, CJD

irreversible loss of memory, loss of intellectual abilities
What is delusional disorder?
fixed, persistent, nonbizarre belief system lasting > 1 month. Functioning otherwise not impaired, Often self-limited
How does ecstacy affect the brain both with acute and chronic use?
acts as hallucinogen combined with an emphetamine; effects begin in 45 minutes and last 2 hours

acute -- dehydration, fatigue
chronic -- destruction of the serotonin receptors (increased impulsiveness); destruction of connection b/w brain cells (memory gaps)
What is the function of the anterior hypothalamus? Posterior?
Anterior -- cooling, parasympathetic

Posterior -- heating, sweating
What are the TCAdepressants?
Imipramine
Amitriptyline
Desipramine
Clompramine
What are the side effects of TCAs?
sedation, a-blocking side effects, atropine-like (anticholinergic) side effects (tachycadia, urinary retention).

tertiary TCAs (amitriptyline) have more anticholin effects than secondary TCAs (nortriptyline)

Desipramine is the least sedating and has lower seizure threshold. gives energy before stabilizes mode = suicide window, sexual dysfunction
What are the toxicities of TCAs?
convulsions
coma
cardiotoxicity
respiratory depression
hyperpyrexia
confusion and hallucination in elderly

withdrawal should be gradual --> akathisia, hyskinesia, anxiety, sweating, dizziness, vomiting, cholinergic and depression rebound
Where does the cerebellum receives its information from? How does it send out signals? What are the deep nuclei?
receives contralateral cortical input via middle cerebellar peduncle and ipsilateral proprioceotive information via inferior cerebellar peduncle. Input nerves = climbing and mossy fibers

provides stimulatory feedback to contralateral cortex to modulate movement. Output nerves = Purkinhe fibers output to deep nuclei of cerebellum, which in turn output to cortext via cerebellar peduncle.

Fast Gerbils Exercise Daily (M-->L)
Fastigial, Globose, Emboliform, Dentate
What is serotonin syndrome?
with any drug that increases serotonin (e.g. MAO inhibitors) -- hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, CV collapse, flushing diarrhea, seizure

Treatment -- take med away, cyprohetadine if severe
What are the deep nuclei (L-->M)?
dentate
emboliform
globose
fastigial
What are SNRIs? What are mechs and uses and toxicities?
venlafaxine, duloxetine (depression + pain)

inhibit seronin and NE reuptake

use: depression. venafaxien is also used in generalized anxiety disorder; duloxetine is also indicated for diabetic peripheral neuropathy, greater effect on NE

tox: increased BP most common; also stimulant effects, sedation, nausea
What do the lateral and medial cerebellum mediate?
Lateral -- voluntary movement of extremities

Medial -- balance, truncal coordination, ataxia, propensity to fall toward injured side
What is bupropion? What are the tox?
Also used for smoking cessation. Increased NE and DA via unknown mech.

tox -- stimulant effects (tachy, insomia), headaches, seizure in bulimic patients.
What is the function of the basal ganglia? How does it work? What are the pieces?
Important in voluntary movements and making postural adjustments.

receives cortical input, provides negative feedback to cortex to modulate movement

striatum -- putamen + caudate
lentiform -- putamen + globus pallidus
What is mitrazapine? What are the tox?
a2 antagonist (increased release of NE and serotonin) and potent 5-HT receptor antagonist.

tox -- sedation, increased apetite, weight gain, dry mouth
How does the D1 pathway work?
Excitatory aka direct pathway

1. DA on D1 receptor stimulates striatum (caudate -- cognitive; putamen -- motor)

2. Striatum releases ACh, stimulating release of GABA and substance P

3. GABA, substance P inhibits globus pallidus interna and substantia nigra reticulara

4. Inhibition of GPi and SNr leads to inhibition of the thalamus, which stimulates the cortex
What is maprotiline? What are the tox?
blocks NE reuptake.

tox -- sedation, orthostatic hypotension
How does the D2 pathway work?
Inhibitory aka indirect pathway

1. DA binds to D2 receptor, which inhibits the striatum

2. Inhibition leads to release of ACh, which will lead to release of GABA and enkephalin

3. GABA and enkephalin inhibit GPe, which in turn inhibits the subthalamic nucleus

4. STN stimulates the GPi, which will inhibit the thalamus, which stimulates the cortex
What is trazodone? What are the tox?
primarily inhibits serotonin reuptake. used for insomnia, as high doses are needed for antidepressant effects.

tox -- sedation, nausea, priaprism, postural hypotension, strong a1 block
What is the function of the sonic hedgehog gene? Where is it ptoduced?
Produced at base of lumbs in zone of polarizing activity. Involved ini patterning along anterior-posterior axis.

Mediates ectoderm; mutation --> holoencephaly
What is the function of Wnt-7 gene? Where is it produced?
Produced at apical ectodermal ridge (thickened ectoderm aat distal end of each developing limb). Necessary for proper organization along dorsal-vebtral axis.
What is the function of FGF gene/ Where is it produced?
Produced at apical ectodermal ridge. Stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm, providing for lengthening of limbs.

Mut FGF3 = achondroplasia
What is the function of the HOX gene? What can mutations lead to? What vitamin can affect gene expression?
Involved in segmental organization of embro in craniocaudal direction. Blueprint for skeletal morphology.

Code for transcription regulators.

Mutation in HOX 13 --> synpolydactly

retinoic acid alters HOX gene expression
Teratogenicity of alkylating agents?
absence of digits, multiple anomalies
(stop cell growth)
Teratogenicity of aminoglycosides?
CN VIII toxicity
What are urachal duct abnormalities?
rd week -- yolk sac forms allantois, which extends into urogenital sinus. Allantois becomes urachus, a duct b/w bladder and yolk sac.

Failure to obliterate:
1. patent urachus -- urine drainage from umbilicus
2. vesicourachal diverticulum -- outpouching of bladder
What will a lesion in the dominant temporal lobe lead to?
euphoria
auditory hallucinations
delusions
thought disorders
poor verbal comprehension

HAPPY PSYCHOTIC
What are vitelline duct abnormalities?
7th week -- obliteration of vitelline ducts (omphalomesenteric duct), which connects to midgut lumen

vitelline fistula -- failure of duct to close --> meconium discharge from umbilicus

Meckel's diverticulum may have ectopic gastric mucosa --> melena and periumbilical pain
What will a lesion in the nondominant temporal lobe lead to?
dysphora
irritability
decreased visual and musical abilitu
What is truncus arteriosis?
neural crest migration from hindbrain through pharyngeal arches --> truncal and bulbar ridges that spiral and fuse to form the AP septum --> ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

pathology -- tnrasposition of great vessels (failure to spiral), tetralogy of Fallor (skewed AP septum development), persistent TA (partial AP septum development)
What does the parietal cortex govern?
intellectual processing of sensory information
left -- languag (dom)
right -- visual/spatial (nondom)
Outline the pathway by which the ventricles and their outflow tracts are separated?
1. ventricular chamber lays anteriorly in S shapes heart tibe --> muscular ventricular septum forms which begins to divide the ventricles

2. truncoconical swellings (ridges) of TA meet, fuse, and zip (both superiorly and inferiorly) in a 180 degres turn to form from the spiral septum (aka AP septum)

3. Inferior portion of spiral septum meets with muscular ventricular septum to divide the ventricles and form the aorta and pulmonary arties
What will a lesion in the dominant parietal cortex lead to?
agraphia
acalculi
finger agnosia
R/L disorientation
What are the aortic arch derivatives?
1st -- maxillary

2nd -- stapedal artery and hyoid

3rd -- common carotid and proximal part of internal carotid

4th -- on left, aortic arch; on right, proximal part of right subclavian

6th -- proximal part of pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosis
What will a lesion in the nondom parietal lobe lead to?
denial of illness
construction apraxia (difficulty outlining objects)
neglect of opposite side
What is the order of fetal erythropoesis?
Y (3-8 wk)
L (6-30 wk)
S (9-28 wk)
B (28 wk onward)
What is Ebstein's anomaly?
a/w materal lithium use
tricuspid leaflets are displaced into RV, hypoplastic RV, tricuspid regurg or stenosis

80% hjave a patent foramen ovale with a R --> L shunt

dilated RA = increased risk of SVT and WPW

physical exam -- widely split S2, tricuspid reurg

Rx -- PGE, digoxin, diuresis, pronpanolol for SVT
What are the branchial cleft derivatives?
2st -- external auditory meatus

2nd - 4th -- temporary cervical sinuses, which are oblierated by proliferation of 2nd arch mesenchyme
Where does the spinal cord end?
spinal cord extends to lower borders of L1 - L2

subarachnoid space extends to lower border of S2
What is persistent cervical sinus?
branchial cleft cyst within lateral neck
don't move with swallowing
What are the clinical reflexes of

bicep
tricep
patella
achilles
bicep = C5 nerve root
tricep = C7 nerve root
patella = L4 nerve root
achilles = S1 nerve root
What are the branchial arch derivates of derivative 1?
M's & Ts
- mastication
- mylohyoid
tensor tympani, etc
anteriot 2/3 of tongue
trigmenial
What are the branchial arch derivaties of dervative 2?
S's
stapes
styloid
faSial
What is the function of the superior and inferior colliculi? What is Parinaud Syndrome?
superior -- conjugate vertical gaze center

inferior -- auditory

Parinaud syndrome -- paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi (e.g. pinealoma)
What are the branchial arch derivatives of 3?
pharyngeus
Where are the cranial nerve nuclei located?
located in tegmentum portion of brain stem (b/w dorsal and ventral positions)

1. midbrain -- 3, 4
2. pons -- 5,6,7,8
3. medulla -- 9,10,11,12
What are the branchial arch derivs of 4-6?
neck, voice box
4th -- cricothyroid, superior laryngeal branch -- swallowing
6th -- all except crico; recurrent laryngral -- speaking
What are the afferent and afferent pathways of the corneal reflex?
V1 (opthalmis -- nasociliary branch: levator palpebrae)

VII (temporal branch: orbicularis oculi)
What occurs when there is failure of lateral fold closure of anterior ab wall?
omphalocele -- persistence of herniation of abdominal contents into umbilical cord, covrered by peritoneum;
- liver often protruding
- other annomalies common 50%5 GI, CV, GU, CNS, MS

gastroschisis -- extrusion of ab contents through ab folds; not covered by peritoneum
- liver never protruding
- other anomalies less common
- defect lateral to umbilicus
What are the afferent and afferent pathways of the lacrimation reflex?
V1 (loss of reflex does not preclude emotional tears)

VII
How does the SRY gene contribute to male development?
SRY gene on Y chromosome -- produces TDF.

note that MIF is secreted from Sertoli cells -- suppresses development of paramesonephric ducts
What develops from the genital tubercle?
Males -- glans penis
Female -- glas clit

Males -- corpus cavernosum, spongiosum
Females -- vestibular bulbs
What develops from the urogenital sinus?
Males -- Bulbourethral glands
Females -- Greater vestibular glands

Males -- prostate
Females -- urethral and paraurethral glands of Skene
What are the afferent and afferent pathways of the gag reflex?
IX

IX, X
What develops from the urogenital folds?
Male -- ventral shaft of penis
Female -- Labia minora
What is the function of the nucleus solitarus?
visceral sensory information (e.g. taste, baroreceptors, gut distention)

VII, IX, X
What is derived from the labioscrotal swelling?
Males -- scrotum
Females -- labia majora
What is the function of the nucleus ambigus?
motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus (e.g. swallowing, palate elevation)

IX, X, XI
What are the male and female remnants of the gubernaculum?
Female -- ovarian ligament + round ligament of uterus

Male -- anchors tests within scrotum
What are the male and female remnant of the processus vaginalis?
males -- obliterated

females -- tunica vaginalis
Which nerves go through the middle cranial fossa and where?

1. optic canal
2. super orbital fissure
3. foramen rotundum
4. foramen ovale
5. foramen spinosum
CN II - VI -- through sphenoid bone

1. optic canal -- CN II, opthalmic artery, central retinal vein)

2. superior orbital fissure -- CN III, IV, V1, VI, opthalamic vein, sympathetic fibers

3. foramen rotundum -- V2

4. foramen ovale -- V3

5. middle meningeal artery
What are the hormone levels in Kleinfelters?
Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubuls --> decreased inhibit, which increases FSH

Abnormal Leydig cell function --> decreased testosterone --> increased LH and estrogen
Which nerves go through the posterior cranial fossa and where?

1. internal auditory meatus
2. jugular foramen
3. hypoglossal canal
4. foramen magnum
posterior cranial fossa (CN VII - XII) -- through temporal or occipital bone

1. internal auditory meatus -- VII, VIII

2. jugular foramen -- IX, X, XI, jugular vein

3. hypoglossal canal -- CN XII

4. foramen magnum -- spinal roots of CN XI, brain stem, vertebral arteries
What are the hormone levels in Turner's?
decreased estrogen, increased LH, FSH
What is cavernous sinus syndrome?
opthalmogplegia
opthalmic and maxillary sensory loss

nerves that control extraocular muscles (V1/2) pass through the cavernous sinus
What are the hormone levels in PCOS?
increased LH
decreased FSH
increased estrogen, increased testosterone
A UMN lesion in the face will present how? Examples of this type of lesion?
lesion of motor cortex or connection b/w cortex and facial nucleus

contralateral paralysis of lower face only, since upper face reveibes bulateral UMN innervation
What are the endocrine pancreas cell types? Location?
a -- glucagon (peripheral)
b -- insulin (central)
d -- somatostatin (interspersed)
What are the anabolic effects of insulin?
1. increased glucose transport
2. increased glycogen synthesis and storage
3. increased triglyceride synthesis and storage
4. increased Na retention (kidneys)
5. increased protein synthesis (muscles)
6. increased cellular uptake of K and amino acids
What is Bell's palsy? What is the cause? How does it present?
complete destruction of the facial nucleus itself or its branchial efferent fibers (facial nerve proper)

peripheral ipsilateral facial paralysis with inability to close eye on involved side

can occur idiopathically, gradual recovery in most cases
What is desmolase? How is it involved in the adnreal steroid pathway?
It converts cholesterol to pregnenolone.

1. ACTH increases desmolase
2, Ketoconazole decreases desmolase
In what diseases is Bell's palsy a complication?
AIDS
Lyme disease
Herpes simplex
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes
What are the clinical symptoms of Albright Hereditary Osteodystrophy?
- autosomal dominant
- hypocalcemia
- short stature
- mental retardation
- shortened 4/5th digits
- obesity

treat with Ca and vit D supplementation
What is pepilledema?
increase in intracranial pressure --> elevated optic disk with blurred margins, bigger blind spot (can be seen in hydrocephalus)
In terms of PTH and calcium pathologies, chronic renal failure?
secondary hypoparathyroidism
High PTH
Low Ca
Describe pupillary control.
1. constriction -- pupillary sphincter muscle (circular) parasympathetic; innervated by CN III from Edinger-Westphal nucleus --> ciliary ganglion

2. Dilation -- radial muscle (aka pupillary dilator muscle) sympathetic. Innveration -- T1 preganglionic sympathetic -> superior cervical ganglion --> postganglionic sympathetic --> long ciliary nerve
In terms of PTH and calcium pathologies, surgical removal of parathryoid?
hypoparathryoidsm
Low PTH
Low Ca
What is retinitis?
retinal necrosis + edema --> atrophic scar
In terms of PTH and calcium pathologies, carcinoma or adenoma?
hyperparathyroidism
High PTH
High Ca
What is iritis?
systemic inflammation (e.g. Reiter's)
In terms of PTH and calcium pathologies, excess Ca ingestion or cancer?
PTH-independent hypercalcemia
Low PTH
High Ca
What is near vision?
ciliary muscle contracts (zonular fibers relax --> lens relaxes --> more convex)
What can happen with a craniopharyngioma?
remnants of Rathke's pouch, visual field defect, suprasellica

can be confused with prolactinoma
What is distant vision?
ciliary muscle relaxes (lens flattens)
How do corticoids have an antiinflammatory effect?
inhibit phospholipase A2, which is the enzyme that liberates arachidonate from membrane phospholipids, providing precursor for prostaglandins and leukotrienes.

inhibit IL-2, which inhibit proliferation of T cells
How does aging affect the eye?
sclerosis and decreased elasticity cause lens shape to change
What are the actions of glucagon?
Increases gluconeogenesis -- decreases the production of F2,6BP, decreasing phosphofructokinase.

Increases lipolysis -- ketoacids (b-hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate) are produced from acetyl CoA, which results from fatty acid degeneration

Increases urea production
What is retinal artery occlusion?
acute, painless monocular loss of vision; pale retina and cherry-red macula (has its own blood supply -- choroid artery)
What neoplasms are common responsible for PTHrP --> hypercalcemia?
squamous cell carcinoma
renal cell carcinoma
breast carcinoma
What neoplasms are commonly responsible for erythropoetin --> polycythemia?
renal cell carcinoma
hemangioblastoma
What muscles are involved with the iris? What are the innervations? What is the ciliary muscle?
dilator/radial muscle
(a1 --> mydriasis)

sphincter/circular/constrictor muscle
(M3 --> miosis)

ciliary muscle (M3 --> accommodation)
Name some vaccines that use live virus.
1. Influenza A & B
2. MMR
3. Polio
4. Rota
5. Varicella, Zoster
6. Adeno
7. Smallpox
8. Yellow Fever
Which vaccines use killed virus?
1. Hep A
2. Flu A & B
3. Polio
4. Rabies
During the process of rolling and adhesion, what are the adhesion molecules?
1. Selectins -- expressed in WBCs to mediate formation of weak bonds.
P selectins stored in endothelial cells and expressed upon the expression of CXCL8.
E selectins are synth'ed de novo.

2. Integrins -- mediate formation of strong bonds. on WBCs.
LFA1 binds to ICAM on endothelial.
What are cataracts? What are the risk factors?
painless, bilateral opacifications of lens --> decrease in vision

Risk: age, smoking, EtOH, sunlight, classsic galactosemia, galactokinase deficiency, diabetes (sorbitol), trauma, infection
DR2
MS
Hay feber
SLE
Goodpasture
What are Argyll Robertson pupils?
bilateral small pupils that constrict when the patient focuses on a near object (they “accommodate”), but do not constrict when exposed to bright light (they do not “react” to light).

no direct or consequential light reflex; lesion in pretectal nuclei
DR4
rheumatoid arthritis
DM type I
What are Marcus Gunn pupils?
lesion of afferent limb of pupillary light reflex; diagnoses made with swinging flashlight
1. affected pupil not fully constrict
2. normal pupil constriction
3. shine light immediately again in affected --> apparent dilation of both pupils b/c stimulus carried through CN II weaker
DR 5
pernicious anemia
Hashimoto's
DR7
steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome
What is the difference b/w Meyer's loop and dorsal optic radiation?
Meyer's loop -- inferior retina; loops around inferior horn of lateral ventricle

Dorsal radiation -- superior retina; takes shortest path via internal capsule
What is Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?
a) X-linked recessive (increased in boys)
b) defect in BTK, a tyrosine kinase gene → block B-cell differentation/maturation
c) presents as recurrent bacterial infections after 6 months (decreased maternal IgG) due to opsonization
d) labs show normal pro-B, decreased maturation, decreased number of B cells, decreased immunoglobins of all classes
What is a migrane? How to treat?
unilateral; 4-72 hours of pulsating pain with nausea, photophobia, or phonophobia. +/- "aura" of neurological symptoms before headache, including visual, sensory, speech disturbances/ Due to irritation of CN V and release of substance P, CGRP, vasoactive peptides.

Treat -- propanolol; NSAIDs; sumatriptan for acute migranes
What is Hyper-IgM syndrome?
a) defective CD40L on helper T cells = inability to class switch
b) severe pyogenic infections early in life
c) increased IgM, very low IgG/A/E
What is a tension headache? How to treat?
bilateral; > 30 minutes of steady pain. Not aggravated by light or noise; no aura
What is selective Ig deficiency?
a) defect in isotope switching → deficiency in specific class of immunoglobulins
b) sinus and lung infections, milk allergies and diarrhea, anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA
c) IgA deficiency most common
d) failure to mature into plasma cells, decreased secretory IgA
What is common variable immunodeficiency? (CVID)
a) defect in B-cell maturation; many causes
b) can be acquired in 20s-30s
c) increased risk of autoimmune disease, lymphoma, sinopulmonary infections
d) labs show normal number of B cells; decreased plasma cells, immunoglobin
What is DiGeorge Syndrome?
a) 22q11 deletion, failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch to clse
b) presents with tetany (hypocalcemia), recurrent viral/fungal infections (T-cell deficiency), congenital hear and great vessel defects
c) because thymus and parathyroid fail to develop, labs show decreased T cells, PTH, and Ca
What is IL-12 receptor deficiency?
a) decreased Th1 response
b) present as disseminated mycobacterial infections
c) decreased IFN-gamma
What is Hyper-IgE syndrome?
a) Th cells fail to produce IFN-gamma → inability of neutrophils to respond to chemotactic stimuli
b) presented as FATED
1) coarse Facies
2) cold, noninflamed staphylococcal Abscesses
3) retained primary Teeth
4) increased IgE
5) Dermatologic problems (eczema)
c) lab shows increased IgE
What is SCID?
a) several types: defective IL-2 receptor (most common, X-linked), adenosine deaminase deficiency, failure to synthesize MHC II antigens
b) presents are recurrent viral, bactieral, funal and protozoal infections due to both B- and T-cell deficiency
c) treat with bone marrow transplant
d) labs show decreased IL-2R, decreased T-cell activation; increased adenin = toxic to B and T cells; decreased dNTPs, DNA synthesis
What is ataxia-telangiectasia?
a) defect in DNA repair enzymes
b) Triad: cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider angiomas (telangiectasia), IgA
c) labs show IgA deficiency
What is Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
a) X-linked recessive defect, progressive deletion of B and T cells
b) presents with TIE triad
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Infections
Eczema
c) labs show increased IgE, IgA; decreased IgM
What are the side effect a/w all NRTIs?
lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis
What is the mech of NRTIs?
interfere with reverse transcriptase though competitive inhibition. Must be phosphorylated by thymidine kinase
Which NRTI is used as general HIV prophylaxis and during pregancy?
ZDV (tox -- megaloblastic anemia)
Which two NRTIs can cause pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathies?
didanosine
stavudine
What is the mech of NNRTIs? What are they? What are their tox?
bind directly to RT

Nevirapine
Eavirenz
Delaviridine

rash, bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy
IFN-a is used to treat?
chronic hep B, C
Kaposi's sarcoma
IFN-b is used to treat?
MS
IFN-g is used to treat?
NADPH oxidase deficiency
How does polio evolve?
1. Stepwise accumulation of nucleotide substitutions (RNA primed RNA polymerase, no proof reading, high error rate)

2. Genetic recombination during co-infection in same cell. E.g. two polio strains party it up together.
What are the different types of epithelial cell junctions?
Zona occludens (tight junctions; claudins and occludins)
Zona adherins (intermediate--cadherins connect to actin)
Macula adherins (desmosome)
Gap junctions
Hemidesmosome
What is tennis elbow?
inflammation of extensor carpi ulnaris from forced extension and flexion of forearm at elbow (lateral epicondylitis). Pain over lateral epicondyle, radiating downward posteriorly.

degenerative injury due to repeated use; leads to tiny tears in tendons and muscles. think also: medial epicondylitis (gold elbow)
What is Klumpke's pallsy and thoracic outlet syndrome?
An embryological or childbirth defect affecting inferior trunk of brachial plexus (C8, T1); a cervical rib can compress subclavian artery and inferior trunk, resulting in thoracic outlet syndrome.

1. atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences
2. atrophy of the interosseous muscles
. sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand
4. disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head toward the ipsilateral side
Obturator:

1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
3. sensory deficit?
L2-L4

anterior hip dislocation

thigh adduction
medial thigh
Femoral:

1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
3. sensory deficit?
L2-L4

pelvic fracture

thigh flexion and leg extension
anterior thigh and medial leg
Common peroneal

1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
3. sensory deficit?
Trauma to lateral aspect of leg or fibula neck fracture

foot eversion and dorsiflexion; toe extension; foot drop, foot slap, steppage gait
anterolateral and dorsal aspect of foot
Tibial:

1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
3. sensory deficit?
L4-S2

knee trauma

foot inversion and plantarflexion; toe flexion
Superior gluteal:


1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
L4-S1

posterior hip location or polio

thigh abduction (positive Trendelenburg sign -- hip drops when standing on opposite foot)
Inferior gluteal:

1. cause of injury?
2. motor deficit?
L5-S2

posterior hip dislcation

can't jump, climb stairs, rise from seated position (can't push downward/inferiorly)
The difference b/w peroneal and tibial injury?
PED = peroneal everts and dorsiflexes; if injured, foot dropPED

TIP = tibial inverts and plantar flexes; if injured, cannot stand on TIP toes
What does the sciatic nerve split into?
Common peroneal and tibial nerve
What is the process of muscle contraction in skeletal muscle?
When a depolarization (opening of voltage gated Ca channels) reaches the T-tubule, it stimulates the release of Ca from the SR trhough 1. the dihydropyridine receptor then 2. ryanodine receptor. Ca binds to troponin C, which binds to troponin T, which binds to tropomyosin. Binding to troponin T to tropomyosin pulls it off the myosin binding site, allowing myosin (release of ADP) to bind to actin, and stimulating muscle contraction. After contraction, Ca is pumped back into the SR, via SERCA.

H and I bands shorten, A remains same.
What is the process of muscle contraction in smooth muscle?
Actin is bound to alpha-actinin containing complexes, dense bodies. Calcium binds to calmodulin, which activates MCK. The MCK phosphorylates myosin, which then binds to actin and stimulates contraction.
What are two types of muscle fiber? What are their characteristics?
Type I -- (e.g. postural weight bearing); slow twitch; red fibers due to increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (increased oxidative phosphorylation) --> sustained contraction.

Type II -- (e.g. purposeful movement) fast twitch; white fibers due to decreased mt and myoglobin concentration (increased anaerobic glycolysis); weight training results in hypertrophy of fast-twitch muscle fibers.
What is the source of osteoblasts?
mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum
What do osteoclasts contain?
acid phosphatase and collagenase to resorb bone

in Howship lancunae
What form of fibrous dysplasia has manifestations in other parts of the body?
McCune-Albright Syndrome is a form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia characterized by multiple unilateral bone lesions a/w endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty) and unilateral pigmented skin lesions (cafe au lait spots)
What is hypertrophic osteoarthropathy? What is it commonly a/w?
swelling or wrists, fingers, ankles, knees, elbows
- ends of long bone have periosteal new bone formation (thickening)
- digital clubbing; angle of nailbed is lost
- arthritis of adjacent joints is commonly seen

a/w
1. bronchogenic carcinoma
2. chronic lung disease
3. cyanotic heart disease
4. IBD
What is Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
common cause of knee pain in adults
pathophys: stress from quads during rapid growth causes inflammation of proximal tibial apophysis @ insertion of patellar tendon

can result in permanent knobby knees
What is an osteoma?
a/w Gardner's Syndrome (FAP). New pioece of bone grows on another piece of bone, ften in skill, facial areas

Can extend into orbit sinuses (hyperostosis frontalis interna)
What is an osteoid sarcoma? In whom is it more common? What is seen?
Interlacing trabeculae of woven bone surrounded by osteoblasts. < 2 cm and found in proximal tibia and femur. Most common in men < 25 years of age; tenderness worse @ night.

See lytic central lucency with sclerotic rim like osteomyelitis
What is an osteoblastoma? Where does it occur?
same morphologically as osteoid osteoma (interlacing trabeculae of woven bone) but larger and found in vertebra
What is a giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)? Where does it occur? What are its characteristics?
occurs most commonly at epiphyseal end of longbones. bulky masses, usually around knee, red bown mass w/cytic degeneration.

Peak incidence 20-49, locally aggressive benign tumor. Characteristic "double bubble" or soap bubble appearance on xray. Spindle shaped celles with multinucleated giant cells. 40-60% recurrence, 4% met to lungs.
What is osteochondroma?
most common benign bone tumor. Mature bone with cartilaginous cap. Usually in men <25 years of age. Commonly originates from long metaphysis. Malignant bone transfomation to chondrosarcoma is rate.

Single painfulmasses. If multiple, symmetric, and all over body, osteochondromatosis.
What is an enchondroma?
Benign catilaginous neoplasm found in intramedullar bone. Usually distal extremities (vs. chondrosarcoma), asymptomastic usually in the center of phyallanges.
What are two diseases that present with multiple enchondromas?
1. Ollier disease -- nonherititary multiple in hands and feet. Present with pain and fracture, may undergo malignant transformation, ovarian carcinoma nd brain glioma.

2. Maffuci Syndrome:
Multiple enchondromas, soft tissue hemangioomas, incresed risk of maligant transformation --> ovarian and brain cancer
What are the classic presentations of RA?
1. morning stiffness lasting > 30 min and improving with use, symmetric joint involvment, systemic symptomes (fever, fatigue, pleuritis, pericarditis, lymphadenopthy)

2. Caplan Syndrome -- a/w pneuomonociosis (chronic pleuritis with effusions)

3. Fetty Syndrome: RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia

15% develop Sjorgren's
What is neuropathic arthropathy? What can it be caused by?
Charcot Joint -- joint damage secondary to impared joint innervation leading to inability to sense pain

15% diabetes mellitus -- tends to damage the tarsometatarsal joint in midfoot

20-25% syringomyelia -- tends to damage shoulder, elbow, and wrist joints

10-15% tabes dorsalis -- tends to damage the hip, knee, and ankle joints
What is sarcoidosis?
characterized by immune-mediated, widespread noncaseating granulomas and elevated serum ACE levels. Common in black females
What is sarcoidosis a/w?
restrictive lung disease
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
erthema nodosum
Bell's palsy
epithelial granulomas containing microscopic Schaumann and asteroid bodies
uveoparotitis
hypercalcemia (die to elevated 1a-hydroxylase-mediated vitamin D activation in epithelioid macrophages)

Treat -- steroids

Gammaglobulinemia
RA
ACE increase
Interstitial fibrosis
Noncaseating granulomas
What is polymyalgia rheumatica? What are findings? What is treatment?
Pain and stiffness in shoulders and hips, often with fever, malaise, and weight loss. Does not cause muscular weakness. Occurs in patients > 50 years of age; a/w temporal (giant cell) arteritis)

Findings: increased ESR, normal CK
treat -- predisone
What is Leser-Trelat?
sudden appearnace of multple seborrheic keratoses indicates an underlying malignancy (e.g. Gi, lymphoid)
Melasma
Hyperpgimentation a/w pregnancy or OCP
necrotizing fasciitis
deeper tissue injury, usually from anaerobic bacteria and s. pyogenes. results in crepitus from methane and CO2 production. Flesh eating bacteria
staphylococcoal scalded skin syndrome
exotoxin destroys keratinocyte attachments in stratum granulosum only -- characterized by fever and generlized erythematous rash with sloughing of the upper layers of the epidermis. Seen in newborns and children.
What is erythema nodosum? Where does it form? What is it a/w? How to treat?
Panniculitis
Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
Painful
Red
Occurs of anterior lower legs
Associated with systemic disease
Coccidiomycosis
TB
Strep pharyngitis
Sarcoidosis
UC
Pregnancy/OCP
Mycoplasma, yersinia, histoplasmosis

Treatment: Treat the underlying illness
What does erythema multiforme look like? How to treat?
Target lesions
Occurs on palms and soles
Treat by removing the underlying cause
If known Mycoplasma infection: macrolide or doxy
Stop the offending medication
How does squamous cell carcinoma present in the skin?
2nd most common skin cancer
Precancerous lesion – actinic keratosis
Sun exposure → DNA damage → squamous dysplasia
Found on sun-exposed places
Can also occur in scar tissue (from a burn/surgery): called Marjolin’s ulcer
Minimal malignant potential, but way more than BCC
Ulcerated, scaly
Usually from the lower lip and downwards (except the ear)
How does basal cell carcinoma present in the skin?
Most common skin cancer
From the upper lip and upward
Minimal malignant potential
VERY locally aggressive
Caused by UV light
Found in hairy areas
Arises from......
Pearly papule, telangiectasias, umbilicated centre
What are the NSAIDs? What is the mechanism? What are the toxicities?
ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin, ketorolac

reversibly inhibit COX-1/2. block prostaglandin synthesis

tox: renal damage, fluid retention, aplastic anemia, GI distress, ulcers
What are the mechanisms of COX-2 inhibitors? What are their clinical uses? What are their toxicities?
reversibly inhibit specifically th COX 2, found in inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium and mediates inflammation and pain, sparing COX-1, which helps maintain gastric mucosa.

RA, osteoartherities

tox: increased risk of thrombosis. sulfa algergy for celecoxib) less toxiv to GI mucosa
What is the mech of acetominophen? What are its toxicities?
reversibly inhib COX, mostly in CNS. Inactivated peripherally

overdose produces hepatic necrosis; acetominophen metabolite depletes glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts in liver. N-acetylcysteine is antidote -- regenerates glutathione
What are bisphosphonates? What is their mech? Tox?
inhibit osteoclastic activity, reduce both formation and resorption of hydroxxyapatite.

malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, Paget's disease of bone, postmenopsusal osteoperosis

tox: corrosive esophagitis (except zoledronate), nausea, diarrhea, osteonecrosis of jaw
What is etanercept?
recombinant form of human TNF receptor that binds TNF

used for RA, proriasis, AS

(decoy receptor)
What is infliximab?
anti-TNF antibodu

Crohn's, RA, AS
--> predisposes to infections (reactivating TB)
What is adalimumab?
anti-TNF antibodu

RA, psoriasis, AS
What is seen in SLE, scleroderma, and dermatomyositis?
deposition of Ig at dermoepidermal junction
How is bone affected in ricket's?
excess deposition of osteoid
What are the side effects of MTX?
mouth ulcers (stomatitis), hepatotoxivitu, pulmonary fibrosis, myelosuppression, B-cell lymphome
What are the following conditions? What are they associated with?

1. Acute inflammatory demyelinative diseases

2. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

3. Periventricular leukomalacia

4. Leukodystrophy
These are conditions asociated with defects in the oligiodendrocytes.

1. Acute inflammatory demyelinative diseases
i. MS--produces demyelinated plaques around the ventricles
2. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy--an infectious disease of the CNS in which the polyoma JC virus infects and kills oligodendrocytes, resulting in fatal demyelination
3. Periventricular leukomalacia--softening of the white matter, usually around the ventricles. This condition is most often seen in premature infants, and produces regions of necrosis around the ventricles. It is the underlying pathology of most cases of cerebral palsy.
4. Leukodystrophy--destruction of the white matter due to biochemical abnormalities in myelin lipids and proteins
What are signs of an UMN disorder? What are UMN lesions caused by?
Limb paralysis
Hypertonia/spasticity
Hyper-reflexia
Disuse atrophy

(a) caused by transection of the corticospinal tract or destruction of the cortical cells of origin

CONTRALATERAL
What are signs of a LMN disorder? What are examples of disorders that result in LMN lesions?
Muscle paralysis
Hypotonia/atonia
Hyporeflexia
Wasting, fasisculations

IPSILATERAL

Poliomyelitis, Werdnig-Hoffman
What is the consequence of a lesion in the right parietal lobe?
Spatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral side of the world)
What is the consequence of a lesion in the reticular activating system (midbrain)?
Reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness (e.g. coma)
What is the consequence of a lesion in the basal ganglia?
may result in tremor at rest, chorea, or athetosis
What is the consequence of a lesion in the cerebellar hemisphere?
Intention tremor, limb ataxi

damage to the cerebellum results in ipsilaeral deficits; fall toward side of lesion (cerebellum --> SCP --> contralateral cortex --> corticospinal decussation = ipsilateral)
What is the consequence of a lesion in the cerebellar vermis?
Truncal ataxia, dysarthria
What is the consequence of a lesion in the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)?
Eyes look away from side of lesion
What is the consequence of a lesion in the frontal eye fields?
Eyes look toward lesion
Contralateral hemiparesis
Contralateral loss of tactile, vobration, conscious propioception
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of tongue
Deviation of tongue toward side of lesion
contralateral hemiparesis (lower extremities)

medial lemniscus (decreased contralateral proprioception)

ipsilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve

= MEDIAL MEDULLARY SYNDROME (Anterior Spinal Artery)
contralateral loss of pain and temp of upper lumbs, ipsilateral face weakness
ipsilateral Horner's
palate droop
devation of uvula away from lesion
dysphagia
loss of gag reflex
1. Controlateral loss of pain and termperature
2. Ipsilateral dysphagia
3. Hoarseness *CN X, vagus problem*
4. decreased gag reflex
5. vertigo
6. diplopia
7. nystagmus
8. vomiting
9. ipsilateral Horner's
10. ipsilateral facial pain and temperature
11. trigeminal nucleus (spinal tract and nucleaus)
12. ipsilateral ataxia

= LATERAL MEDULLARY SYNDROME (PICA, Wallenberg's)
What happens when the AICA is occluded?

Lateral inferior pontine syndrome
1. Ipsilateral facial paralysis
2. ipsilateral cochlear nucleus
3. vestibular (nystagmus)
4. ipsilateral pain and temperature
5. ipsilateral dystaxia (MCP, ICP)
What happens when the posterior cerebral artery is occluded?
contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing; supplies occipital cortex
What happens when the middle cerebral artery is occluded?
contralateral face and arm paralysis and sensory loss, aphasia (dominant sphere), left-sided neglect
What happens when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded? What does it supply?
Supplies medial surface of brain, leg-foot area of motor and sensory cortices --> bilateral lower qquandrantanopia
What happens when the lateral striate is occluded? What does it supply?
Divisions of middle cerecral artyer; supply internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus.

Arteries of stroke -- infarct of the posterior limb of the internal capsule causes pure motor hemiparesis
What is Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy? What are its symptoms?
PML is a disease of the white matter in the brain that typically affects patients with T cell suppression (e.g. AIDS patients, cancer patients). Demyelination is caused by the JC virus, which triggers lysis of oligodendrocytes. Unlike MS, the spinal cord and optic nerve are spared.
In 1:1,000 cases, PML can be triggered by natalizumab therapy.
Symptoms of PML include:
Cognitive and personality disorder
Motor weakness
Seizures
What is seen on an MRI for progressive mutlifocal leukoencephalopathy? How to treat?
On MRI, huge lesions will be visible in the white matter. The JC virus should be detectible in the CSF.

About 50% of patients with PML respond to highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART).

The average survival of patients with PML who do not have AIDS is about a year. The average survival of patients who do have AIDS is a few months.
What is metachromatic leukodystrophy? What can it be diagnosed?
progressive personality and cognitive changes, and may be misdiagnosed as schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. Patients may also experience seizures.
A diagnosis of metachromatic leukodystrophy can be confirmed with:
Deficient arylsulfatase A activity in the urine
Metachromatic granules on nerve biopsy
Symmetrical white matter lesions visible on MRI
Metachromatic leukodystrophy affects both the CNS and the PNS.
What is the morphology of MS? Where are the plaques generally found?
tan-grey lesions within the white matter. Plaques are of a firmer consistency than the surrounding white matter (hence, the name "sclerosis"), due to the inflammatory process, and are most commonly found-
Around the lateral ventricles
Optic nerve and chiasm
Brainstem tracts
Cerebellum
Spinal cord
What are the two phases of MS?
The active phase—lesions are sharply defined with lots of inflammatory cells (typically, chronic inflammatory cells—lymphocytes and macrophages). Most inflammatory cells are found around the blood vessels and at the periphery of the plaque. In the lesions, axons are preserved, but the myelin is destroyed.

The inactive/gliotic phase—lesions have little myelin, reduced numbers of oligodendrocytes, and proliferation of astrocyte processes.
What are common clinical manifestations of MS?
- Blindness/retrobulbar neuritis—caused by demyelination of the optic nerve. Unilateral visual loss with a dark, cloudy area in the center of the visual field ("central scotoma" is a common presenting symptom
- Motor weakness
- Cerebellar ataxia
- Depression
- Psychosis
- Parasthesia
6. How to mitochondrial myopathies present?
(a) Proximal muscle weakness, sometimes with severe involvement of the extraocular muscles involved in eye movement
(b) weakness may be accompanied by other neurologic symptoms, lactic acidosis, cardiomyopathy
(c) ragged red fibers
(d) some contain paracrystalline parking lot inclusions
7. What are the clinical courses and genetics of mitochrondrial myopathies?
(a) Point mutation
(b) genes encoded by nuclear DNA
i. Leigh syndrome
ii. Barth syndrome
(c) deletions or duplications
i. Kearns-Sayre syndrome, which is characterized by ophthalmoplegia and pigmentary degeneration of the retina and complete heart block
4. What is myotonic dystrophy?
(a) Sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles
(b) AD, presents late childhood with abnormailities in gait secondary to weakness of foot dorsiflexors and subsequently progresses to weakness of the hand intrinsic muscles and wrist extensors
(c) atrophy of muscles of face and ptosis ensue; cataracts
(d) can occur in ion channel myopathies along with hypotonicparalysis
What is a subfalcine hernation? What can be compressed in the a subfalcine herniation?
Cingulate gyrus herniates under falx cerebri

anterior cerebral artery
What is an uncal hernation? What are the complications?
medialprotion of temporal love herniates through the tentorium cerebelli

compression CN III, posterior cerebral artery (=hemorrhagc infarction of occipital lobe), parasympathetic fibers
What is normal pressure hydrocephalus? What is the triad of symptoms?
Seen in elderly, due to neuronal loss = dilation of ventricles (no increase in pressure)

Triad --
1) dementia
2) apraxia (magnetic) gait
3) urinary incontinence
What disease features trinucleotide repeat of GAA?
Freidrich's ataxia
What is the mutation in the familial cases of ALS? What happens in ALS?
ch 21
defective superoxide dismutase 1

see degeneration in UMN & LMN, common in cervical enlargment -- bilateral
1, progressive spinal muscular atrphy (ventral horn)
2. primary lateral sclerosis (corticospinal tract)
- spastic paralysis in lower limbs
- flaccid paralysis in upper limbs
- increased tone and reflexes
What drug prolongs the lifetime of an ALS patient?
Riluzole (glutamate antagonist)
What does Wernicke's encephalopathy feature?
confusion
atacia
nystagmus
opthalmoplegia
What does Korsakoff's psychosis feature?
antero/retrograde amneia
confabulations
hallucinations
What is a medullablastoma? Occurence? Location? Spread?
Malignant smell cell tumor, primarily in children -- orimnitive neuroectodermal tumor; sheets of small cells, mitotic figures

Arises from the external granular cell layer of the cerebellum, often located in the cerebellar vermis

Often seeds the neuraxis and invades the fourth ventricle
What is the mutation seen in CJD?
chr. 20, a helix --> b-pleated PrP
What are the different types or infarctions in a true stroke?
1. thrombis (pale infarct) -- due to atherosclerosis

2. embolus (usually from heart) -- think of a fib, infective endocarditis

3. hyaline arteriosclerosis -- small vessel disease affecting basal ganglia, brainstem
What is known as the "talk and die" hemorrage?
epidural
middle meningeal
CN III palsy
lenticular appearance
can have subfalcine herniation
Which hemorrhage is related to shaken baby?
subdural
bridging veins )low pressure)
develops over time
crescent shape on CT
impairmen of cognitive skills, gait instability days, week later
How does syringomyelia present?
damages anterior white comminsure of spinothalamic tract, resulting in bilateral loss of pain and temperature
- cape-like distribution (C7-T1)
- bladder problems, charcot arthropathy
What is the clinical presentation of MS?
- sudden loss of vision
- nystagmus in abducting eye
- hemiparesis
- incontinence
- scanning speech
- intention tremor
What is histologically seen in Parkinsons? What is it made of?
Lewy Bodies -- intracytoplasmic round eosinophilic inclusions that contain a-synuclein
How does Pick's differ from Alzheimer's? Where is Alzheimer's atrophy more pronounced?
Alzheimer's is global, while Pick's locally affects anterior or tempral lobe.

Alz's atrphy more pronouned in frontal love and hippocampus
Histologically, what is seen in Alzheimer's?
- neurofibrillary filament (made of TAU); aggregates of insoluble cytoskeletal elements

- Hirano bodies (Small,round eosinophilic lesions)

- amyloid (seen in neuritic plaques and blood vesels)

- graunulovaculoar degeneration
What does Lewy Body Dementia involve? What is the clinical presentation?
involves limbic system, cingulate gyrus
Parkinson's + hallucination + memory loss
What is the clinical manifestation of Fredreich's ataxia?
Staggering gait
frequent falling
nystagmus
dysarthria
pes cavus
hammer toes
hypertropic cardiomyopathy (death)

presents in childhood with kyphoscoliosis

no sensory deficits
What is acute intermittent porphyria?
autosomal dominant defect in porphyrin metabolism w/deficient uroporphyroginogen synthase
- porphorbilinogen and aminolevulinic acid increase
- urine initially colorless, turns dark red on light
- may develop severe ab pain, psychosis, neuropathy, dementia
What are the different types of vertigo?
illusion of movement, not to be confused with dizziness or lightheadedness.

peripheral vertigo -- more common. inner ear etiology (e.g. semicircular canal debris, vestibular nerve infection, Meniere's disease). Positional testing --> delayed horizontal nystagmus

Central vertigo -- brain stemor cerebellar lesion (e.g. vestibular nuclei, posterior fossa tumor). Positional testing --> immediate nystagmus in any direction; may change directions
What are the clinical signs of uncal herniation?
1. ipsilateral dilated pupil/ptosis -- stretching of CN III (innervates levator palpebrae)

2. contralateral homonymous hemianopia -- compression ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery

3. ipsilateral paresis -- compression of contralateral crus cerebri (Kernohan's notch)

4. duret hemorrhages -- paramedian artery rupture -- caudal displacement of brain stem
What are the regions of the developing brain in a foetus?
1. proenceph
2. mesenceoh
3. rhomboenceph
What do the embryonic regions of the brain become?
Pros --> tel, di
Telencephalon wall -- cerebral hemispheres
Telencephalon cavity -- lateral ventricles
Diencephalon wall -- thamus
Diencephaon cavity -- 3rd ventricle

Mes --> mes
Mesencephalon wall -- midbrain
Mesenecephalon cavity -- aqueduct

rhombo --> met, myel
Metenceph wall -- pons, cerebellum
Metenceph cavity -- 4th ventricle

Myenceph wall -- medulla
Myenceph cavity -- 4th ventricle
What is the most common cause of cerebral palsy?
perinatal brain injury --

germinal matrix hemorrhage
periventricular leukomalacia (infarcts in watershed areas)
multicystic encephalopathy (multiple brain infarcts occur early in pregnancy)
Describe the general sensory pathway from the cerebral cortex.
1. stimulus

2. 1st order
- receive signal, send message to CNS, located in dorsal root or spinal cord ganglia

3. 2nd order
- signal receives (in spinal cord or brainstem) in relay, sends to thalamus; may cross midline

4. 3rd order
- located in thalamus, send to cerebral cortex

5. 4th order = conscious perception
What is pathway of the dorsal column/medial lemniscal pathway?
First Order
- signal in doral root --> ipsilateral nucleus gracilis/cuneatus of medulla

Second Order
crosses midline, ascends to contralateral thalamus (VPL -- body sensation)

Third Order
- ascends to sensory cortex
What is the pathway of the anterolateral pathway/spinothalamic?
First Order
- stimulus from A-d and C fibers enter spinal cord at dorsal horn

Second Order
- crosses midline (almost immediately) --> anterolateral quandrant of spinal cord --> ascend to contralateral thalamus (VPL)

Third Order
- ascend to somatosensory cortex

A lesion to the thalamic nuclei results in loss of sensation of contralateral side of body
What are the relay stations in the thalamus? Where is the signal relayed to?
VA -- motor
VL -- body sensation
VPL -- spinothalamic/dorsal
VPM -- trigeminal and gustatory pathway (face sensation and taste)

LGN -- input CN II, sense to calcarine sulcus
MGN -- input superior olive and inferior collicular of pons, sens to auditory cortex of temporal lobe
Differentiate cones and rods in the eye?
rods -- sensitive to low light, lower visual acuity not in fovea, rods adapt later, no color vision

cones -- sensitive to high intensity light, increased acuity in fovea, adapt first, color vision
What is the mech of butorphanol?
Clinical use? Tox?
partial agonist at opiod mu receptors, agonist at kappa

pain, causes less resp depression that full agonists

causes withdrawal if on full opioid agonist
What is the mech of tramadol? Use? Tox?
very weak opoid agonists, also inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake (works on multiple transmitters)

chronic pain

similar to opioids, decreases seizure threshold
What are first line for tonic clonic seizures?
phenytoin, carbamepazine, valproic acid
Which inhaled anesthetic has the highest MAC (lowest potency?) vice versa?
NO (>100%)

Halothane (0.75%)
What effects do inhaled anesthetics have on the brain?
Increased cerebral vascular flow and intracranial pressure
What effects do inhaled anesthetics have on the blood?
increased blood solubility, which increases gas required to saturate blood = slower onset of action (samd as in tissue)
Which inhaled anesthetic is nephrotoxic? proconvulsant?
nephro -- methoxyflurane

proconvulsant -- enflurane
Which two opioids are used to treat diarrhea?
loperamide
diphenoxylate
Tacrine
for Alzheimers
cholinesterase inhibitor
hepatotoxic
Ipratropium
treatment of COPD, asthma
Tubocuraraine
at low doses, prevent binding of Ach, prevent depolarization of muscle cell membrane, inhibit muscle contraation, compete with ACh

at high doses, blocks end plate

releases histamine = fall in BP, flushing, bronchoconstriction
Succinulcholine
depolarizing

lasts several minutes, used for intubation
hyperthermia, apnea (paralysis of diaphragm), hyperkalemia
Guanethidine & Bretylium
Blocks relrease of NE
What is potency?
Relative of two or more agonists to produce same magnitude of effect, shown by proximity of cruve to y axis (if curves do not rss)
What is efficacy?
How well drug produces response, shown by max height reached by curve
What is Kallman's Syndrome?
decreased synthesis of gonadotropin in the anterior pituitary; anosmia, lack of secondary sexual characteristics
What does the pathophys of preclampsia involved?
involves a generalized arteriolar constriction that impacts the brain (seizures and stroke), kidneys (oliguria and renal failure), liver (edema), and small blood vessels (thrombocytopenia and DIC).
What is the difference b/w preeclampsia and eclampsia?
(a) Preeclampsia – hypertension, edema, proteinuria
(b) Eclampsia – + seizures
What are the common causes of recurrent miscarriages?
1. 1st weeks – low progesterone levels (no response to beta-hCG)
2. 1st trimester – chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. robertsian translocation)
3. 2nd trimester – bicornate uterus (incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts)
What is a follicular cyst? What might it be associated with?
Distention of unruptured graafian follipcle. May be a/w hyperestrinism and endometrial hyperplasia. Regress spontaneously.
What is a corpus luteum cyst?
Most common ovarian mass in pregnancy. Hemorrhage into persistent corpus luteum. Commonly regresses spontaneously.
What is a theca-lutein cyst? What is it associated with?
Often bilateral/multiple. Due to gonadotropin stimulation. A/w choriocarcinoma and moles -- has to do with b-hCG; related to pregnancy
What is a chocolate cyst?
Blood-containing cyst from ovarian endometriosis. Varies with menstrual cycle.
What is stuma ovarii?
Teratoma that contains functional thyroid tissue. Can present as hyperthyroidism.
What is a mucinous cystadenocarcinoma?
Malignant. Pseydomyxoma peritonei -- intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material from ovarian or appendiceal tumor.
What is sarcoma botryoides?
Rhabdosarcoma variant that affects young girls (<4) with spindle-shaped tumor cells that are desmin positive.
Poor prognosis.
What is a Gartner cystic duct?
cyst of lateral duct due to persistence of mesonephric ducts
What is Rokitansky Kuster Hauster Syndrome?
absence of upper part of vagina and uterus, presents with primary amenorrhea
How does invasive lobular present?
Orderly row of cells "single file"
Often multiple, bilateral
There is about a 20% chance that the opposite breast will also be involved, and many of them arise multicentrically in the same breast.
5%

Loss of e-cadherin cell adhesion gene on chrom 16
can also present with signet ring cells
How do medullary breast tumors present?
fleshy, cellular, lymphocytic infiltrate. good prognosis
How does a seminoma present?
Malignant, painless. homogenous testiular enlargment; most common testicular tumow, mostly affecing males age 15-35. large cells in lobules with water cytoplasm and a "fried egg" appearance. Radio & chemo sensitive. Late mets, excellent prog. Note the lymphoid stroma between the nests of seminoma.
How does testicular embryonal carcinoma present?
malginant, painful, worse prognosis than seminoma. Often glandular/papillary morphology. Sheets of blue cells are trying to form primitive tubules. Can differentiate to other tumors. May be a/w AFP, b-hcg
How does a Leydig cell tumor present?
Contains Reinke crystals. usually androgen producing; gynecomastia in men, precocious puberty in boys. Golden brown color.
How does Sertoli cell tumor present?
androblastoma from sex cord stroma
How does testicular lymphoma present?
most common testicular cancer in older men
What are examples of tunica vaginalis lesions? Go through them.
Lestions in ther serous covering of testis -- present as testicular masses that can be transilluminated (vs. testicular tumors)
1. varicocele -- dilated vein in pampiniform plexusl can cause infertility, "bag of worms"; usually seen on left testicle due to either increased venous pressure (drains to left renal vein) or obstruction (renal cell carcinoma)
2. hydrocele -- increase seconarty to incomplete fusion of the processus vaginalis; invariably a/w indirect inguinal hernia. painless.
3. spermatocele -- dilated epididymal duct containing sperm
What is Bowen's disease?
Gray, solitary, crusty plauw usually on the shaft of the penis or on the scrotum; peak incidence in the 5th decade of life; progresses to invasive SCC in < 10% of cases.
What is erythroplasia of Queyrat?
Red velvety plaques, usually involving the glansl for of Bowen's disease?
What is Bowenoid papulosis?
Multiple papular lesions; affects younger age group than other subtypesl usually does not become invasive
What are the toxicities of testosterone?
Causes masculinization in females; reduces intratesticular testosterone in males by inhibiting release of LF (via neg feedback), leading to gondal atrophy.
Premature closure of epiphyseal plates. Increased LDL, decreased HDL.
What is the mech of flutamide?
A nonsteroidal comp. inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor. Used in prostate carcinoma.
How do ketoconazole and spironolactone work? How are they used?
Keto -- inhibits steroid synthesis (inhibits desmolase)

Spir -- inhibits steroid binding

Both are used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome to prevent hirutism. Both have side effects of gynecomastia and amenorrhea
What is clomiphene? How does it work?
partial agonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus. Prevents normal feedback inhibition and increased release of LH and FSH from pituitary, which stimulates ovulation. Used to treat infertility and PCOS. May cause hot fflashes, ovarian enlargement, multiple simulataneous pregnancies, and visual disturbances
What is anastrozole/exemestane?
aromatase inhibitors used in postmenospausal women with breast cancer.
What is dinoprostone?
PGE2 analog causing cervical dilation and uterine contraction, inducing labor
What is ritodrine/terbutaline?
b2-agonist that relax the uuterus; reduce premature uterine contractions. Ritodrine allows the fetus to :return to dreams: by preventing early delivery.
What is tamsulosin?
a1-antagonsit used to treat BPH by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction. Selective for a1ad receptors (found on prostate) vs vascular a1b receptors.
What are the side effects for viagra?
headache, flushing, dyspepsia, impaired blue-green color vision. Risk of life-threatening hypotension in patients taking nitrates.
What are causes for endometritis?
Acute -- group B strep, group A, staph aureus, bacteriodes fragilis, clamydia, gonorrheae, e.coli

Chronic -- IUD w/actinomyces, gonorrhea
How does a thecofibroma present?
benign tumor a/w Meig's Syndrome (ascites, right-sided pleural effusion); regression of effusions follows removal of tumor.

he thecoma component of the neoplasm gives the tumor a yellowish cast because of the lipid content and can also produce estrogen. These are tumors that arise from the ovarian stroma. They are bilateral in only about 10% of cases. A right-sided hydrothorax in association with this tumor is known as Meig's syndrome.
What does DHT lead to the formation of?
Penis
Prostate
Scrotum
What is papillary hiradenoma?
benign tumor of the modified appocrine sweat glands of labia majora and interlabial folds; may mimic carcinoma (ulceration and along milk line)
What is a mixed mullerian tumor?
contains both malignany stromal cells and endometrial adenocarcinoma.
What does from the paramesonephric duct?
develops into female internal --
fallopian tube
uterus
upper 1/3 of vagina
(lower 2/3 from urogenital sinus)
What is PID? What are the stages?
ascending STD infection from cervix to endometrium to fallopian tubes to pelvic cavity.

1. vaginal discharge (cervicitis)
2. vaginal bleeding and midline ab pain (endometriosis)
3. bilateral lower ab and pelvic pain (salpingitis)
4. abdominal tenderness and peritoneal signs (guarding, etc) (peritonitis)
5. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome --pain localizes to pleuritic right
What are complications of PID?
1. salpingitis can get called off = abscess (tubo ovarian)
2. healing leads to scarring --> infertility, ectopic pregnancies
3. fibrous adhesions ("violin strings") --> intestinal obstruction
What are isochromes? How is this related to Turner's?
isochromes occur when the centromere divides transversely (instead of longitudinally) so that one of the chromosome arms is duplicated and the other arm is lost.

Isochrome Xq is found in 20% of Turner's.
How can choriocarcinoma present in a man?
1. b/c spreads hematogenously -- spread to lungs

2. b-hCG --> gynecomastia
How does haemophilus ducreyi present? How to treat?
gram neg that causes chancrinoid
male dominant
high incidence of HIV
painful genital and perianal ulcers with suppurative inguinal nodes
Diagnosis with Gram stain ("school of fish") appearance

treat with ceftriazone or azithromycin
What are the hormone levels in Kleinfelters?
Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubuls --> decreased inhibit, which increases FSH

Abnormal Leydig cell function --> decreased testosterone --> increased LH and estrogen
What is the lymphatic drainage for the proximal 2/3 of vagina/uterus?
obturator, external iliac, hypogastric
What ligaments support the female reproductive system? What structures do they support?
(a) Suspensory ligament of the ovaries – connects ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall (contains ovarian vessels)
(b) Cardinal ligament – cervix to side wall of pelvis (contains uterine vessels)
(c) Round ligament of the uterus – uterine fundus to labia majora
(d) Broad ligament – uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to pelvic side wall (ovariaes, fallopian tubes, and round ligaments of the uterus
(e) Ligament of the ovary – ovary to lateral uterus
How is estradiol made in the ovary?
1. pulsatile release of GnRH
2. FSH and LH stimulated
3. FSH stimulates aromatase, which turns androsenedione into estrogen in the granulosa cell
4. LH stimulates desmolase (17a-hydroxylase), which turns cholesterol into androstenedione in theca cell
How does estrogen affect transport proteins and fats?
increase transport of proteins
SHBG
increase HDL, decrease LDl
How does estrogen affect prolactin?
stimulation of prolactin secretion, but blocks its action at the breast
What are the functions of progesterone?
1. stimulation of endometrial glandular secretions and spiral artery development
2. maintainance of pregnancy
3. degcreased myometrial excitability
4. production of thich cervical muscus, which inhibits sperm entry into uterus
5. inceased body tempeature
6. inhibition of gonado
7. uterine smooth relaxation (preventing contractions)
8. decreased estrogen receptor expressivity
Outline the general hormone sequence of the female reproductive cycle.
FSH --> follicle maturation --> production of estradiol --> production of LH surge --> ovulation and production of progesterone (along with estradiol) --> inhibition of FSH and LH production --> decline of corpus luteum --> no production of estradiol and progesterone --> loss of FSH inhibition --> increase in FSH
Olgiomenorrhea
> 35 days
Polymenorrhea
< 21 days
Metrorrhagia
frequent but irregular menstruation
Menometrorrhagia
heavy, irregular menstruation at irregular intervals
Which hypothalamic nucleus is incolved in ovulation?
arcute nucleus
What are the layers of endometrium? Which ones are shed?
Basalis
Spongiosum (shed)
Compactum (shed)
How does the corpus luteum maintain a pregnancy?
produces progesterone until the placenta can form and take over with b-hCG
How does estrogen increase the risk of thrombi?
inhibits antithrombin III, increases the synthesis of fibrinogen, V, VIII
What are the most common causes of anovulation?
PCOS
obesity
HPO axis abnormalities
premature ovarian failure
hyperprolactinemia
thryoid disorder
eating disorders
Cushing's syndrome
adrenal insufficiency
What is the most common gynecologic malignancy?
endometrial cancer

increased risk in PCOS b/c of constant stimulation of the uterus
What is the hormonal pathway of PCOS?
1. LH is increased and stimulates production of androgens in the theca cells
2. estrodione is being made in the fat cells, leading to increased estrogen and positive feedback on LH
3. FSH will be suppressed
What are some of the normal physiological chanrges that take place during pregnancy?
1. CO increases 30-50%
2. plasma volume increases 50%, RBC volume increases 30%
3. BP decreases in early pregnancy
4. mild resp alkalosis
5. increased procoagulation factors
6. normal TSH and free T4
7. increased peripheral resistance to insulin that worsens through pregnancy --> hyperinsulinemia, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidema
A woman with previous c-section is increased for what?
accreta
previa
How can lobulat carcinoma in situ present?
may have signet ring cells
always estrogen, progesterone positive
Which sensory receptor communicates prprioceptive information -- muscle length monintoring?
muscle spindle
Which sencory receptor communicates proprioceptive information -- muscle tendon monitoring
golgi tendon
What is the mesocortical pathway?
Ventral tegmental of midbrain --> cotex

Increase in negative symptoms of psychosis (ie social withdrawal and depression)
What is the mesolimbic pathway?
Ventral tegmental of midbrain --> limbic

Relief of psychosis (positive symptoms)
What is the nigrostriatal pathway?
substantia nigra (pars compacta) --> striatum (caudate + putamen)

Parkinson's symptoms (stimulation would result in extrapyramidal side effects)
What is the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
Arcute nucleus of hypothalamus --> pituitary (to inhibit prolactin)

Increase in release of prolactin from pituitary --> amenorrhea, gynecomastia, galactorrhea
Damage to the vermis? Anterior?
Postural instability
slurring of speech

anterior governs legs: broad based, staggering gait
chromic alcohol abuse = thiamine deficiency = degeneration of the cerebellar cortex
What is the difference b/w essential, resting, and intention?
Essential -- family history of tremor, occurs with movement and rest

Resting -- a/w Parkinson's disease, disappears with voluntary movement

Intention tremor -- a/w cerebellar damage, appears only with voluntary movement
How does nondominant Broca's present?
inability to express emotion or inflection in speech
How does nondominant Wernicke's present?
inability to comprehend emotion of infection in speech
Aneurysm causes the eye to look down and out?
posterior communicating artery lesion
Aneurysm may cause bilateral loss of lateral visual defects?
anterior communicating artery lesion
Contralateral spastic paralysis
CN III palsy
midbrain infarction resulting from occlusion of the paramedian branches of posterior cerebral artery (Weber's)
What is a risk after a subarachnoid hemorrhage? How to treat?
2-3 days after, risk of vasospasm due to blood breakdown products, which irritate vessels (use Ca channel blackers like nimodipine to treat)
What can happen in an epidural hemorrhage?
rapid expansion under systemic arterial pressure --> transtentorial herniation

CN III palsy
What is a parenchymal hematoma?
Caused by hypertension, amyloid angiopathy -- lobar strokes all over brain, DM, and tumor. Typically occurs in basal ganglia and interal capsule.

Severe headache, nausea, vomitting; steady progression 15-20 minutes --> coma
What is an intracranial hemorrhage?
hemorrhage into ventricular system
most common in premies within first 72 hours.

originates from the germinal matrix in the subependymal, subventricular zone that gives rise to neurons and glia during development
Which part of the brain is most susceptible to ischemia?
hippocampus
neocortex
cerebellum
watershed
Where is the choroid plexus? What is its purpose? Where is main return?
Lateral, 3rd, 4th vent

CSF made by choroid plexus, reabsorbed by venous sinus arachnoid granulations

superior sagittal sinus main location of CSF return via arachnoid granulations
What is communicating hydrocephalus?
decreased CSF absorption by arachnoid villi, which can lead to increased intracranial pressure, papilledema, and herniation (e.g. arachnoid scarring post-meningitis)
What are the characteristics of pseudotumor cerebri?
young, obese female
headache -- daily (wose in the morning), pulsatile, possible nausea/vomiting, possible retrocular pain worsed by eye movement

papiledema, vision loss
abence of ventricular dilation, no tumor or mass
CSF pressure elevated (>200mmHg in nonobense, >250mmHg in obese)
Where does each of the following spinal tracts cross over?
1. dorsal
2. lateral corticospinal
3. spinothalamic
1. medulla
2. medullary pyramid
3. anterior white commisure
A patient cannot abduct her left eye on lateral gaze, convergence normal. Difficulty smiling.
Problems with 6 & 7

lesion in the pons
Where are the cranial nerve nuclei located?
located in tegmentum portion of brain stem (b/w dorsal and ventral positions)

1. midbrain -- 3, 4
2. pons -- 5,6,7,8
3. medulla -- 9,10,11,12
If trhe portion of the right motor cortex (or right corticobulbar tract) that innervates the soft palate is damaged, to which side will the uvula deviate?
since th soft palate fibers from the right motor cortex (or right corticobulbar tract) travel to the left nucleus ambiguus, the uvula will deviate to the right (towards the side of the lesion)

nucleus ambiguus -- motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus (8,9,10)
What innervates taste from the anterior 2/3 of tongue?
FACIAL
What innervates the muscles of mastication?
TRIGEMINAL
Loss of arm abduction?
axillary nerve (teres minor)
Exam of a patient reveals decreased pain and temperature sensation over the lateral aspect of her foot and leg. What muscular defect would you also expect to be present?
Peroneal prob -- sensory anterolateral leg and dorsal aspect of foot

motor -- foot eversion and toe extension (foot is DROPPED)
A patient fractures her fibula neck. What nerve is most at risk for being damaged?
common peroneal
Describe what light reflexes can be seen in both eyes if the right optic nerve is damaged propr to the pretectal nucleus
No constriction of either the left or right eye when light is shined in eye
Both pupils constrict if the light is shined in the left eye
Describe what light reflexes will be seen in both eyes if the right oculomotor nerve is damaged (aka efferent defect).
Right eye will not respond to light shone in either the left or right eye

left eye will constrict when a light in shined in either eye
Light stimulus in patient's right eye produces bilateral pupillary constriction. When the light is shown in the left eye, there is a paradoxial bilateral dilation. What is the defect?
afferent defect
Which diseases can lead to bell's palsy?
my Lovely Bell Has An STD

Lyme disease
Herpes Zoster
AIDS
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes
What does the cranial nerve look like in cross section?
center -- output to ocular muscles: affected primarily by vascular disease (e.g. diabetes: glucose --> sorbitol) due to decreased diffusion to interior

Outer -- parasympathetic: affected 1st by compression (e.g. PCA berry aneurysm, uncal herniation); use pupillary light reflex in assessment)
How does retinal detachment present?
separation of neurosensory layer of retina from pigment epithelium --> degeneration of photoreceptors --> vision loss. May be seconary to trauma, diabetes
What are the age-related macular degeneration? Differentiate "wet" and "dry"
Degeneration of macula (central area of retina). Causes loss of central vision (scotomas).

Dry/atrophic ARMD is slow, due to fat deposits and causes gradual decrease in vision.

"Wet" ARMD is rapid, due to neovascularization
How does Pick's disease present?
dementia
aphasia
parkinsonian aspects
spares parietal lobe and posterior 2/3 of superior temporal gyrus
How does Lewy body dementia?
Parkinsonism with dementia and visual hallucination
What can a cluster headache be associated with?
may be a/w partial Horner's syndrome (ptosis and miosis), ipsilateral nasal congestion or eye rednress, rhinnorhea or tearing
A 255 year old female present with sudden uniocular vision loss and slightly slurred speech. She has a history of weakness and paresthesia that have resolved. What is the diagnosis?
MS
A patient presents with veritgo + tinnitus + hearing loss. What is the diagnosis?
Meniere

disorder of the inner ear that can affect hearing and balance to a varying degree. It is characterized by episodes of vertigo and tinnitus and progressive hearing loss, usually in one ear.
A 255 year old female present with sudden uniocular vision loss and slightly slurred speech. She has a history of weakness and paresthesia that have resolved. What is the diagnosis?
MS
A patient presents with veritgo + tinnitus + hearing loss. What is the diagnosis?
Meniere

disorder of the inner ear that can affect hearing and balance to a varying degree. It is characterized by episodes of vertigo and tinnitus and progressive hearing loss, usually in one ear.
Drug of choice for partial (simple and complex) and tonic-clonic seizures
pheny
carb
valp
Common side effects of epilepsy drugs?
diplopia
sedation
ataxia
nysatgmus
dizziness
Side effects of phenytoin
gingerval hyperplasia
SLE
hirutism
increased 450
megaloblastic anemia
hepatotoxic antiepleptics
valp
carb
Which anti epilep block Na channel?
phen
cab
val
lamotrigine
topiramate
Which antiep potentiate GABA?
top
valp
benzo
phenobarbitol
What is the order of a nerve blockade in local anesthetics?
small-diameter fibers > large diameter.

myelinated > myelinated.

Overall, size factor predominates over myelination such that small unmyelinated > small unmy > large my > large unmy
What is the order of loss under local anesthesia?
pain
temp
touch
pressure
How is local anethetic given?
With vasoconstrictors (usually epinephrine) to enhance local action

decrease blooeding
increases anesthesia by decreasing systemic concentration
What is needed to regenerate methionine?
B12 and folate

(methionine turned into homocysteine, using homocysteine methyltransferase)
Glycogen storage disease:

lactic acidosis
hyperlipidemia
hyperuricemia
von Gierke (type I -- glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency)

No gluconeogenesis
Glycogen storage disease:

a1,4 glucosidase deficiency
Pompe's (II)
Glycogen storage disease:

a1,6 glucosidase
Cori (III)

less severe form of Von Gierke (type I) b/c CAN breakdown glycogen but not fully
Glycogen storage disease:

diaphragm weakness --> resp failure
Pompe
Glycogen storage disease:

hepatomegaly
hypoglycemia
hyperlipidemia
normal kidneus, lactate, and uric acid
Cori
How does arsenic affect TLCFN?
arsenic inhibits lipoic acod

Findings: vomiting, rice water stools, garlic breath
What does the TCA cycle produce? Where?
3 NADH
1 FADH2
2 CO2
12 ATP

x 2 per glucose

Occurs in mitochondria
Which substances inhibit complex I in the ETC?
amytal (barbituate)
rotenone (fish protein)
MPP
Which substances inhibit complex III?
antimycin A
What are the activated carriers for the following?

1. phosphoryl
2. electrons
3. acyl
4. CO2
5. carbon
6. CH3
7. aldehydes
1. ATP
2. NADH, NADPH, FADH2
3. CoA, lipoamide
4. biotin
5. THF
6. SAM
7. TPP
What are the products of the TCA cycle?
3 NADH
1 FADH2
2CO2
12 ATP

x 2 per glucose, in mitochondria
What are the sites of HMP shunt?
lactating mammary glands, liver, adrenal cortex (sites of fa OR STEROID SYNTHESIS), rbcS, NEUTROPHILS
Why does inflammation preceiptate hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
free radicals generated via inflammatory response can diffuse into RBCs and cause oxidative damage
Why is there production of ketones in prolonged starvation of DKA?
OAA is depleted for gluconeogensis, which stalls the TCA cycle, which shunts glucose and FFA toward production of ketone bodies
Why is there production of ketones in alcoholism?
NADH shunts OAA to malate, which stalls the TCA cycle, which shunts glucose and FFA toward production of ketone bodies
What fuels are produced and used in the post absorb period?
Produced:
glucose from liver
FA from adipose

Used -- muscle, brain, and others predom use glucose
When does gluconeogenesis begin in the post absorb period? When does it become fully active?
Begins 4-6 hours after last meal
Fully active when glycogen stores are depleted (10-18 hours after last meal)
How does the pattern of fuel production and usage change in early starvation (24 hours after last meal)?
Produced:
Glucose from gluconeogenesis w/some glycogen from glycogenolysis
FA from adipose tissue

Used:
brain predouse glucose
muscles and other tissues use some glucose but predom fatty acids
In immediate starvation (48 hours after last meal(, how does the pattern of fuel production and consumption change?
Produced:
glucose from gluconeogenesis, no more glycogenolysis
FA
ketones from liver

Used:
brain predom uses glucose but also some ketones
muscles and other tissues use predom FA but also some ketones
What metabolic scenario favors the synthesis of ketone bodies? Can ketone bodies be used by all body tissue?
excess acetyl CoA from FA synth

RBCs cannot use ketones
What is the pattern of fuel utilization and production in prolonged starvation (5 days after last meal)?
Prod:
glucose
FA
keto

Used:
brain predom use ketones
muscles and other tissues predom use FA but also some ketones
Comparingn an overnight fast to a 3 day fast, what percentage of energy comes from glucose and from ketone bodies?
overnight:
95% glucose (2/3 glycogen breakdown, 1/3 gluconeogenesis)
5% from ketone bodies

3 day:
60% from ketone bodies (1/2 b-hydroxybutyrate, 1/2 acetoacetate)
40% from glucose (most from gluconeogenesis)
Aneurysm causes eye to look down and out
PCA
What are the two types of chemoreceptors that regulate respiration?
1. Peripheral Chemoreceptors

2. Central Chemoreceptors
What are central chemoreceptors? What do they do?
Receptors located on medulla.
Assess PaCO2 and H+ -- normal regulation

Cause hyperventilation in response to low pH in the CSF, hypoventilation when high pH in CSF. (e.g. meningitis will lead to increased H+ in CSF)
What do the peripheral receptors do? Name any key details.
These receptors are located in the carotid bodies (at bifurcation of common carotid) and aortic bodies (above & below aortic arch).

The following will produce an increase in breathing rate:
Decrease in PO2 (<80) -- response occurs when PO2 reaches below 60 mmHg (breathing rate will increase steeply and linearly).

will take over breathing drive, so for one who has chronically hypoventilated, the peripheral receptors dominate so don't correct PaO2 b/c lose drive to breathe
What is the relationship between lung and chest wall?
Lungs want to collapse inward (lung recoil, positive pressure)

Chest wall wants to spring outward (intrapleural pressure, negative pressure)
How to calculate pulmonary vascular resistance?
PVR = P(pulm artery) - P(LA wedge pressure) over CO
What is the alveolar gas equation?
alveloar PO2 = inspired PO2 - (arterial PCO2/R)

can be apprx
alveolar PO2 = 150 - (arterial PCO2/0.8)
How does V/Q change with exercise?
with exercise (increased CO), there is vasodilation of apical capillaries, resulting in V/Q ratio that approaches 1.
In what form is most CO2 transported? How is this related to Cl?
1. Bicarbonate
2. bound to hemoglobin at N terminus of globin (not heme( as carbaminohemoglobin
3. dissolved

Cl influx for HCO3- outflux
Hypochloremia = impaired efflux --> acidosis b/c backup of CO2 in RBCs
What are two examples of hypoxic response?
1. Kidney Cell will produce erythropoeitin, which acts on bone marrow to stimulate RBC production.

2. Vascular muscle cells will constrict.
How does H+ work in the lung and peripheral tissues?
In lungs, oxygenation of Hb promotes dissociation of H_ from Hb. This shifts equilibrium toward CO2 formation; therefore, CO2 is released from RBCs.

In peripheral tissue, increased H+ from tissue metabolism shifts curve to right, unloading O2 (Bohr effect)
Describe the innervation of the respiratory system.
All the intercostal muscles are innervated by the corresponding spinal cord segment.
The diaphragm is innervated by C3-5.
Spinal cord damage at the low cervical levels will lead to paralysis of the intercostal muscles. Spinal cord damage at the high cervical level will lead to paralysis of the diaphragm, impairing the ability of the patient to breath independently.
What is compliance? In what situations does it change?
change in lung volume for a given change in pressure; decreased in pulmonary fibrosis, insufficient surfactant, and pulmonary edema.
What is one of the best measurements to calculate elastic qualities?
Specific compliance (not affected by changing volume).
What the relationship b/w the chest wall and elastic recoil?
Elastic pushes lungs in.

Chest wall tries to expand outward.
Go over the pressure differences in the lung.
Alveoli at top of lungs = lower pressures and larger than alveoli at the bottom of the lungs. (weight of the lungs presses on bottom alveoli, which creates a positive pressure that counters the negative pressure created by the pleural space)
What is an equation for resistance?
R=8nl/πr4
-n = coefficient of the gas's viscosity
-l = length of the airway
-r = radius of the airway
What is a standard with which is used to identify respiratory obstruction?
At least 70% of the lung volume should be able to be exhaled in a second. Therefore, FEV1/FVC should be 70% or higher. If it is less than 70%, there is respiratory obstruction.
What is the respiratory exachange ratio?
The rate of CO2 production/rate of O2 consumption. On average, less than one, but depends on substrate.
What is the histology of the respiratory tree?
pseudostratified ciliated columnbar cells extend to the respiratory bronchioles (macrophages clear debris in alveoli)

goblet cells extend only to bronchi
How is Hg modified to become metheglobin? Why does this happen? How to treat?
Oxidized form of Hg that does not bind O2 as readily, but has increased affinity for Cn.

To treat Cn poisoning, use nitrites to oxidize Hg to metHg, which binds cyanide, allowing cytochrome oxidase to function. Use thiosulfate to bind this cyanids, forming thiocyanate, which is renally excreted
What are common causes for methemoglobinemia?
chloroquine, primaquine
dapsone
sulfonamides
local anesthetics
metoclopramide
nitrates
42 year old woman with fibroids is chronically tired. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what changes have occured?
hypochromic microcytic anemia

no change in O2 delivery or O2 saturation, but not as much hemoglobin (diffusion limited)
Patient is shown to have hypoxia and CXR shows an enlarged heart. What is most likely cause of hypoxia?
CHF -- lungs not perfused well enough to oxygenate the rest of the body
What are causes for SECONDARY pulmonary hypertension?
1. COPD (destruction of lung parenchyma)
2. emboli (decreased cross sec area)
3. mitral stenosis (increased resistance, LHF)
4. shunting disease (increased shear stress)
5. sleep apnea or high alt (hypoxic vasoconstric)
6. autoimmune disease
What is the cause for primary pulmonary hypertension
due to an inactivating mutation in the BMPR2 gene (normally functions to inhibit vascular SM prolferation)

poor prognosis

a/w HIV and Kapso sarcome
What is the course of pulmonary hypertension?
severe respiratory distress --> cynanosis and RVH --> death from decompensated cor pulmonale
How to treat pul. hypertension?
Bosentan -- competivitely inhibt endothelin-1 receptors, decreaing pulmonary vascular resistance

Prosta
Sildenafil
Nifedipine
At what values is the A-a gradient normal? What are its in pathology?
300 - 500 mmHg normal
< 300 mmHg --> gas exchange deficit
< 200 mmHg --> severe hypoxia (ARDS)
V/Q in apex of lung? base?
1. apex -- 3 (wasted vetilation)
2, base -- 0.6 (wasted perfusion)
Most common benign ovarian tumor?
serous cystadenoma
Most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
gallstones
alcohol
Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?
alsochol (adults)
CF (kids)
Most common cause of primary amenorrhea?
Turner
Causes for hepatocellular carcinoma?
chronic hepatitis
cirrhosis
hemochromatosis
a-1 antitrypsin
When can pulsus paradoxus be seen?
Pericarditis
Cor tamponade
Asthma
Sleep apnea
Croup
What are causes for eosinophilia?
Drugs
Neoplasm
Allergy, Asthma
Addison's
Acute interstitial nephritis
Collagen vascular disease
Parasites
What is the pathophys for ARDs?
Shock, infection, toxic gas inhalation, aspiration, high O2, pancreatitis, herioin leads to INFLAMMATION and FREE RADICALS

damage to endothelial or alveolar epithlial Type I cells

diffuse alveolar damage and hyaline membrane disease
What are the physical findings of a bronchial obstruction?
Absent/decreased breath sounds
decreased resonance
decreased fremitus
deviation tward side of lesion
What are the physical findings of pleural effusion?
decreased breath sounds
dullness
decreased fremitus, no tracheal dev
What are the physical findings of pneumonia (lobar)?
may have bronchial breath sounds over lesion
dullness
increased fremitus
no trach deviation
What are the physical findings of tension pneumothorax?
decreased breath sounds
hyperresonant
absent fremitus
trach dev away from lesion
What cancers can asbestos exposure cause?
squamous cell
bronchogenic carcinoma
mesothelioma
Common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation?
h. influ
Genetic syndrome:

inherited defect in tubular amino transporter
cystinuria

use acetazolamide to alkanize urine, prevent stones
Genetic syndrome:

hypoglycemia
jaundice
cirrhosis
fructose intolerance
Genetic syndrome:

Rx -- increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (e.g. high fat content or increased lysine and leucine)
pyruvate dehydrogenase def

Causes backup of substrate (pyruvate and alanine), resulting in lactic acidosis. Can be congential or acquired (B1 def in alcoholics)
Where is diaphragmatic and gallbladder pain referred?
to the right shoulder via phrenic nerve
What are the risk factors for cholesterol gallstones?
fat
female
fertile
fourty
native american
cf
crohn's disease
fibrates
rapid weight loss
What are the risk factors for pigment gallstones?
chromic hemolysis
alcoholic cirrhosis
age
biliary infection
What is the rate-limiting step for bile acid synthesis?
7a hydroxylase
What is the rate-limiting step for bile acid synthesis?
7a hydroxylase
Which biochemical diseases are X-linked?
Lesch Nyhan
G6PD deficiency
OTC deficiency
Which biochemical diseases are X-linked?
Lesch Nyhan
G6PD deficiency
OTC deficiency
How does lactulose work?
In bowel, becomes acidic --> traps ammonia and additionally, pulls from blood = excreted
How does lactulose work?
In bowel, becomes acidic --> traps ammonia and additionally, pulls from blood = excreted
What does C-III?
inhibits LPL
What does C-III?
inhibits LPL
What is the mech and tox of cyclosporine?
binds to cyclophilins. blocks the differentation and activation og T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus preventing the production of IL-2 and its receptor.

Predisp patients to viral infections and lymphoma; nephrotox (preventab;e with mannitol diuresis
What is the mech and tox of tacrolimus?
similar to cyclosporine; binds to FK-binding protein, inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines

Tox -- nephrotox, peripheral neurop, hypertension, pleural effusion, hyperglycemia
What is the mech and use of Sirolismus?
binds FKBP-12 intracellular protin --> inhibition of mTOR --> inhibition of T cell prolif

Immunosupression after kidney transpplant with cyclosporine and corticosteroid
What is the mech of daclizumab?
monoclonl antobody with high affinity got IL-2
What is the mech and use of muromonab-CD3?
monoclonal antibody that binds CD on the surface of T cells. Blocks cellular interaction with CD protein responsible for T cells signal transduction.

tox -- cytokine release syndrome hypersensitive reaction
May prevent nephrotoxicity with mannitol
inhibits calcineurin = loss of IL-2 production
cyclosporine
antibody that binds IL-2 receptor on activated T cell
daclizumab
inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

used lupus nephritis
mycophenylate
Binds FK-binding protein --> loss of IL-2 production
tacrolimus
Binds FKBP-12 --> inhibition of mTOR --> inhibition of T cells proliferation
Sirolimus
What is the marker for hypertension? prehypertension?
pre: 120-139/80-89

hyper 140/90
What are the common organisms for endocarditis?
Staph areus
Viridans
Entero (VRE)
Epidermidis

Haem
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eichenella
Kingella
Common places for tophi in gout?
ear
olacrenon bursa
big toe
What are the retroperitoneal structures?
Duodenum
Descending colon (right side)
Ascending colon (left side)
Kidneys and ureters
Pancreas
Aorta
IVC
adrenals & rectum
What does the falciform ligament connect? What is contained within? Where is it derived from?
connects liver to anterior abdominal wall

contains ligamentum teres

derived from fetal umbilical vein
What does the falciform ligament connect? What is contained within? Where is it derived from?
connects liver to anterior abdominal wall

contains ligamentum teres

derived from fetal umbilical vein
What does the hepatoduedenal ligament connect? What does it contain?
Liver to duodenum

contains portal triad" hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct
What does the hepatoduedenal ligament connect? What does it contain?
Liver to duodenum

contains portal triad" hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct
What does the gastrohepatic ligament contain?
Connescts liver to lesser curvature to csomach

contains gastric arteries
What does the gastrohepatic ligament contain?
Connescts liver to lesser curvature to csomach

contains gastric arteries
What does the gastrocolic ligament contain?
connects greature cirvature and transverse colon
-- part of the greater omentum
contains gastroepilopic arteries
What does the gastrocolic ligament contain?
connects greature cirvature and transverse colon
-- part of the greater omentum
contains gastroepilopic arteries
What does the gastrosplenic contain?
connects greater curv to spleen

contains short gastrics

separates greater and lesser sacs
What does the gastrosplenic contain?
connects greater curv to spleen

contains short gastrics

separates greater and lesser sacs
What does the splenorenal contain?
connects spleen to posterior ab wall

contains splenic artery and vein
What does the splenorenal contain?
connects spleen to posterior ab wall

contains splenic artery and vein
How is the hepatoduodenal ligament relevant in surgery?
may be compressed by obstructing epilopic foramen of Winslow to control bleeding
How is the hepatoduodenal ligament relevant in surgery?
may be compressed by obstructing epilopic foramen of Winslow to control bleeding
What are the layers of the gut wall (inside to outside)?
1. muscosa -- epithelium (absorption), lamina propria (suppoer), muscularis mucosae (motility)

2. submucosa -- includes submucosal nerve plexus (Meissner's)

3. muscularis externa -- includes myenteric nerve plexus (auerbach's)

4. serosa/adventitia
What are the layers of the gut wall (inside to outside)?
1. muscosa -- epithelium (absorption), lamina propria (suppoer), muscularis mucosae (motility)

2. submucosa -- includes submucosal nerve plexus (Meissner's)

3. muscularis externa -- includes myenteric nerve plexus (auerbach's)

4. serosa/adventitia
What are the frequencies of basal electric rhythm (slow waves)?
stomach -- 3 waves/min
duodenum -- 12 waves/min
ileum -- 8-9 waves/min
histology of duodenum
villi and microvilli increase absorb surface
Brunner's glands (mucosa) and crypts of liberkuhn
histology of jejunum
largest number of goblet cells in SI
plicao circulares and crypts of lieb
histology of ileum
Peyer's patches (lamina propria, submucosa), plicae circulares (prox ileum), and crypts of liberkuhn
histology of colon
cypts but no villi
What is the parasympatheic innervation of hindgut?
pelvic NS
If the abdominal aorta is blocked, what are the arterial anastomoses that compensate?
1. internal thoracic/mammary (subclavian) -- superior epigastric (internal thoracic) -- inferior epigastric

2. superior pacreaticoduodenal (celiac) -- inferior pancreaticoduodenal

3. middle colic (SMA) -- left colic (IMA)

4. superior rectal (IMA) -- middle rectal (internal iliac)
site of anastomses of esophagus?
left gastric -- esophagus

esoophageal varices
site of anastomeses of umbilicus?
paraumbilical -- superficial and inferior epigastric

caput medusae
site of anastomoses of rectum?
superior rectal -- middle and inferior rectal

internal hemorrhoids
Where are varcies commonly seen in portal hypertension? How to treat?
varices of gut, butt, and caput are commonly seen with portal hypertension.

inserting a TI{s b/w the portal vein and hepatic vein percutaneously relieves portal hypertension by shunting blood to systemic circulation
What is phospholipase A2? Where is it stored? How it is activated?
Stored in pancreatic acinar cells as an inactive, proform activated by proteolytic cleavage in the intestinal lumen
Delayed activation of the enzyme is likely important in the prevention of autodigestion of the pancreas.
Phospholipase A2 breaks down dietary phospholipids by cleaving the fatty acid located in the 2-position of glycerol, and degrading phosphatidylcholine in biliary secretions
Its activity is dependent on luminal calcium
Where is pepsin made? What is its action? How is it regulated?
Pepsinogen released from chief cells, aids in protein digestion. Increased by vagal stimulated and activated by H+/
What are enkepalins? How do they effect the GI system?
endogenous opiod peptide; b-endorphin derived from POMC

leads to contraction of GI SM, inhibition of intestinal secretion of fluids and electrolytes
What are Peyer's Patches? What do they contain? What are some pathologic changes?
large oval patches lymphoid tissue in lamina propria and submucosa of the small intestine especially in the ileum.
Contain M cells that take up antigen.

partially or entirely disappear in advanced life and
in typhoid fever become the seat of ulcers which may perforate the intestines
What happens to B cells stimulated in germinal centers of Peyer's patches?
differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells, which ultimately reside in lamina propria. IgA receives protective secretory component and is then transported across epithelium to gut to deal with intraluminal antigen
What are Brunner's glands? What do they do? Where are they located? What is a pathological change?
Brunner’s Glands: contained in the initial portion of the duodenum of the submucosa; secretes an alkaline mucous to protect the duodenal mucous membrane against the effects of the acidic gastric juice and to bring the intestinal contents to the optimum PH for pancreatic enzyme action.

Hypertrophied in PUD.
What is trypsinogen? What are its actions? How is it regulated?
pancreatic enzyme that is converted to active for TRYPSIN by enterokinase.enteropeptidase, an enzyme secreted from duodenal mucosa. Trypsin will activate other proenzymes and more trypsinogen (e.g. the proteases -- chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidases for protein digestion)
What are the steps of carbohydrate digestion?
1. Salivary amylase -- starts digestion, hydrolyzes a-1,4 linkages to yield disaccharides (maltose and a-limit dextrans)

2. pancreatic amylase -- highest concentration in duodenal lumen, hydrolyzes starch to oligiosaccharides and disaccarides.

3. Oligiosaccharide hydrolases -- At brush border of intestine, the rate-liming step in carbohydrate digestion, produces monosaccharides from oligo- and disaccharides.
In what form are carbs absorbed? How? Where?
Only monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose) are absorbed by enterocytes. Glucose and glactose are taken up by SGLT1 (Na dependent). Fructose is taken up by facillitated diffusion by GLUT-5. All are transported to blood by GLUT-2
Where are the following absorbed?
1. iron
2. folate
3. B12
1. absorbed as Fe2+ in duodenum

2. absorbed in jejunum

3. absorbed in terminal ileum along with bile acids, requires IF
What is bile composed of? What is its purpose?
Composed of bile salts (bile acids conjugated to glycine or taurine, making them water soluble), phospholipids, cholesterol, bilirubin, water, and ions. Mechanism for cholesterol excretion.

Needed for digestion of TG and micelle formation (required for absorption of non-polar nutrients such as lipids) in SI
What are the mechanisms of antiacids? What are examples antiacids? What happens in their overuse?
Weak bases that increase gastric pH through acid-neutralizing ability to form salt and water. Can affect absorption, bioavailability, or urinary excretion of other drugs.

1. aluminium hydroxide -- sonctipation and hypophosphatemia; proximal muscle weakness, osteodystrophy, seziures (aluMINIMUM amount of feces)

2. magnesium hydroxide -- diarrhea, hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest (Mg = must go)

3. calcium recarbonate -- hypercalcemia, rebound acid increased
What is the mechanism for infliximab? What is its clinical use? What are its toxicities?
1. monoclonal antibody to TNF, proinflammatory cytokine.

2. Chron's disease, RA

3. resp infection (including reactivation of latent TB), fever, hypotension
What are H2-receptors? What are the toxicities?
Competitively antagonize H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells. Decrease gastric acid secretion by parietal cells.

Cimetidine has antiandrogenic effects (prolactin release, gynecomastia, impotence, decreased libido in males) and can cross the BBB (confusion, headaches, dizziness)

Both ranitidine and cimetidine decreased renal excretion of creatinine.
How do PPIs work?
inhibit gastic acid secretion cia inhibiting gastric parietal cell H/K ATPase (proton pump)

omeprazole and lansoprazole
How does cisapride work? What is it used for?
Increases LES pressure; accelerate gastric emptying time; increases ampitude of contractions.

partial 5-HT agonist
How does metochlopramide work? What is it used for? What are its side effects?
D2 receptor antagonist. Increased resting tone, contractility, LES tone, motility. Does not influence colon transport.

Diabetic and post-surgery gastroparesis

Increased parkinsonian effects. Restlessness, drowniness, fatigue, depression, nausea, diarrhea. Drug interaction with with digoxin and diabetic agents. Contraindicated in patients with small bowel obstruction
What is misoprostol? What can it be used for?
A PGE1 analog. Increased production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier, decreased acid production.

prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcers; maintenance of a patent ductus arteriosus. Also used to induce labor
Which muscarinic antagonists can be used for PUD?
Pirenzepine
Propantheline

Block M1 receptors on ECL cells (decreased histamine secretion) and M3 receptors on parietal cells *decreases H+ secretion)

tox -- tachycardia, dry mouth, difficulty focusing eyes
What is octreotide?
somatostatin analog, which can be used for acute variceal bleeds, acromegaly, VIPoma, carcinoid tumors.
What is sulfasalazine? What are its toxicities?
A combination of sulfapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammatory). Activated by colonic bacteria.

tox -- malaise, nausea, sulfonamide toxicity, reversible oligospermia
What is the mech of ondancetron? When it is used? What are the tox?
mech -- 5-HT3 antagonist. Powerful central-acting antiemetic. No extrapyramidal side effects, unlinke metoclopramide.

use -- control vomiting post-op and in patients undergoing cancer chemo

tox -- headache, constipation
What treatment options are available to eradicate H.Pylori?
triple therapy with a PPI added to two antimicrobial agents, wuch as metronidazole, amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin.

four-drug reimengs consisting of triple therapy plus bismuth
What supplementation shoudl patients receive while on sulfasalazine?
folic acid
What and where is the major chemosensory area for emesis?
chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is found in the area postrema of the fouth ventricle of the brain
What medication can be used in conjunction with antibiotics to bulk stools and absorb C. dif toxins A and B?
cholestryamine, nonabsorabable binding agent
What are some salivary gland tumors?
generally benign and occur in parotid gland.

1. pleomorphic adenoma (more common, painless, mobile, high recurrence)

2. Warthin's tumor *benign, heterotopic salivary gland tissue trapped in a lymph node, surrounded by lymphatic tissue)

3. mucoepidermiod carcinoma (most malignant)
What is the organization of femoral region?
NAVEL
nerve, artery, vein, empty space, lymphatics

(venous near the penis)
What are the borders of Hesselbach's triangle?
inferior epigastric
lateral border of rectus abdominus
inguinal ligament

(area of direct inguinal hernia) -- medial to inferior epigastric arteries
What are the borders tor an indirect inguinal hernia?
lateral rectus
superior border of inferior epigastric
inguinal liament

-- follows path of decent of testes
What is a paraesophageal hernia?
GE junction normal. Cardia moves into thorax
What is a sliding hiatal hernia?
GE junction displaces
What are potent stimulators of gastrin?
phenylalanine
tryptophan
hypercalcemia
Where is the watershed area of the colon?
splenic flexure
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in carbohydrate digestion
oligiosac hydrolases at brush border
What enzyme upregulates conjugation of bilirubin?
phenobarbitol
What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate gastric acid secretion?
histamine
ACh
gastrin
Which hormones stimulate pancreatic secretion?
secretin
CCK
ACh
What is bile? What is its purpose?
Composed of bile salts (bile acis conjugated to glycine or taurine, making them water soluble), phospholipid, cholesterol, bilirubin, water, and ions. Sig mech for cholestrol (and copper) excretion. Needed for digestion of TG and micelle formation (required for absorption of non-popular nutrients such as lipids) in SI
What are risks for esophageal cancer?
Alcohol/Achalasia
Barrett's esophagus
Cigarettes
Diverticuli
Esophageal Web/Esophagitis
Familial
GERD
Hot Dogs
Tylosis
What is one way to treat abetalipoproteinemia?
vit E (prevent neuro symptoms)
What are the different names for diverticuli based on their location in the esophagus?
1. immediately aboves UES -- Zenker's

2. near the midpoint -- traction diverticulum

3. immediately above the LES -- epiphrenic
biopsy of pt with esophagitis reveals large pink intranuclear linclusions and host cell chromatin that is pushed to the edge of nucleus
HSv
biopsy of mass in parotid gland reveals a double layer of columnar epithelial cells resting on a dense lymphoid stroma
Warthin
biopsy of small intestine reveals small lymphocytes with irregular nuclear contours and prolieration of these lymphocutes into the mucosa and epithalial galnds
MALToma
basal cell hyperplasia
eosinophilia
elongation of lamina propria papilla seen in biopsy of esophagus
gastric reflux
stomach biopsy reveals lymphoid aggregates in lamina propria, columnar absorptive cells, and atrophy of glandular structures
chronic gastritis
biopsy of pt with esophagitis reveals enlarged cells, intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions, and clear perinuclear halo
CMV
biopsy of mass in parotid gland reveals a carcinoma composed of mostly mucus-secreting cells but also some squamous cells, and intermediate hybrids of both
mucoepidermoid
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Source: cholinergic neurons

Actions:
Contraction of smooth muscle in wall
Relaxation of sphincters
Increased salivary secretion
Increased gastric secretion
Increased pancreatic secretion
Norepinephrine (NE)
Source: adrenergic neurons

Actions:
Relaxation of smooth muscle in walls
Contraction of sphincters
Increased salivary secretion
PAS stain on biospy obtained from a pt with esophagitis reveals hyphenated organisms
candida
Where is the loss of function in Hirschprung? What is it associated with? When is it acquired?
receptor tyrosine kindase RET

10% Down's
Can be acquired in Chagas
What is VIP? Where does it come from? What are its actions? How is it regulated?
Source: Neurons of mucosa and smooth muscle (parasympathetic ganglia in sphincters, gallbladder, SI)

Actions:
Relaxation of smooth muscle and sphincters
Increased intestinal secretion
Increased pancreatic secretion
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) or bombesin

From whenceforth did it come? What is its action?
Source: Neurons of gastric mucosa (vagal nerves stimulate G cells in antrum)

Action:
Increased gastrin secretion
Enkephalins (opiates)
Source: Neurons of mucosa and smooth muscle

Actions:
Contraction of smooth muscle
Decreased intestinal secretion
What are the actions for gastrin? How are they regulated? What are some potent stimulants? What happens with the use of atropine?
Stimuli for secretion:
Small peptides and AAs (especially phenylalanine and tryptophan)
Distention of stomach
Vagal stimulation (GRP) -- atropine blocks vagal stimulation of parietal cells, but G cells are unaffected b/c they use GRP.

Actions:
Increased Gastric H+ secretion primarily through its effects on ECL cells (leading to histamine release) rather than through its direct effect on parietal cells.
Stimulates growth of gastric mucosa
From whenceforth does CCK come? What are its actions? Regulation?
Stimuli for secretion:
Small peptides and AAs
Fatty acids

Actions:
Increased pancreatic enzyme secretion
Increased pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Contraction of gallbladder and relaxation of sphincter of Oddi
Stimulates growth of exocrine pancreas and gallbladder

Released from I cells of duodenum and jejunum
What are the types of esophageal carcinomas? Where are they located? Risk factors?
1. Squamous Cell Carcinoma -- mid-esophageal,
- alcohol
- heavy smoking
- achalasia
- Plummer-Vinson
- Tylosis (proliferation of squamous cells)
- prior lye ingestion

2. Adenocarcinoma -- distal esophagus, poor prognosis

Often asymptomatic until late in course, progressive dysphagia, weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, hoarseness, cough
What are the stimuli for secretin? What is its function?
Stimuli for secretion:
H+ in duodenum
Fatty acids in duodenum

Actions:
Increased pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Increased biliary bicarbonate secretion
Decreased gastric H+ secretion
Inhibits trophic effect of gastrin on gastric mucosa

Increased Bicarb neutralizes gastric acid, allowing pancreatic enzymes to function
What is seen in Menetrier Disease? What can it lead to?
- middle age men, enlargement of rugal folds (proliferation of mucus cells; no parietal cells)
- in body & fundus; see profound hyperplasia of surface mucus cells w/glandular atrophy
- decreased acid production, protein-losing enteropathy
- can lead to stomachcancer
What is acute hemorrhagic gastritis? How do they present?
- acid-induced injury, acute inflammation, erosion of gastric mucosa
- presents w/UGI bleed, melena, ab pain
What are gastric stress ulcers? What do they look like? What is their etiology?
- multiple small, round, superficial ulcers of stomach and duodenum
- Etiology:
NSAID use
severe stress
sepsis, shock
severe burns (Curling)
brain injury (Cushing's)
What is Fundus Type A Chronic Gastritis? What is its pathogenesis? What is seen? Increased risk?
chronic inflammation of gastric mucosa, eventually leading to atrophy
- autoimune, autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor
- loss of folds, loss of parietal cells, decreased acid secretion, malabsorption, pernicious anemia
- increased risk of gastric carcinoma
What is Fundus Type B Chronic Gastritis? What are the risk factors? What happens?
Caused by H.Pylori
- See chronic inflammation w/lymphoid follicles, intestinal metaplasia
- increased risk of gastric carcinoma
What are associations with duodenal peptic ulcer?
Where is it usually located? When is pain relieved?
- H.Pylori
- increased gastric acid secretion
- increased rate of gastric emptying; increased acid production; increased parietal cell mass
- blood group O
- MEN Type I & ZE Syndrome
- cirrhosis, COPD

Usually located at anterior wall of proximal duodenum.
Pain relieved after food
What are associations with gastric peptic ulcers? Where are they located? What do they look like? When is pain?
- H.Pylori
- delayed gastric emptying, defective mucosal barrier --> ischemia --> decreased PGE
- bleeding most common from left gastric artery

Located in lesser curvature of antrum, well-demarcated, "punched-out" ulcers, round w/radiating mucosal folds
What are the risk factors for gastric carcinoma?
Dietary --
- smoked fish & meats
- pickled vegetables
- nitrosamines
- benzpyrene
- decreased intake of fruits & vegetables

- H.Pylori (intestinal-type)
- Chronic atrophic gastritis
- Smoking
- Blood type A
- Bacterial overgrowth in stomach
- Prior subtotal gastrectomy
- Menetrier Disease
What are the two types of gastric carcinoma?
1. Intestinal Type -- gland-forming adenocarcinomas, associated with H.Pylori

2. Diffuse-Type -- not associated with H.Pylori, diffuse infiltration of stomach by poorly differentiated tumor cells, stomach does not peristalse
What is seen in diffuse type gastric carcinoma?
- signet-ring cells: nucleus is displaced to periphery by intracellular main

- linitis plastica: thickened "leather bottle"-like stomach
What are the metastises in diffuse-type gastric carcinoma?
1. Virchow (sentinel) node: left supraclavicular lymph node

2. Krunkenberg tumor: ovarian malignancy

3. Sister Mary Joseph: periumbilical
What type of stool are seen intussuception?
- bowel telescopes into self
- impingement of arteries, infarction
- in infant, children, Peyer's patchs grow into terminal ileum; if happens to adults, suspect mass or tumor
- currant-jelly stool
What is tropical sprue? How to treat?
malabsorptive disease w/o known etiology, seen in tropical areas

- treat w/antibiotics, B12, folate
What is Whipple Disease? What is sen?
rare, infectious, multiorgan (joints, lungs, heart, spleen, liver, CNS, small intestine)

- tropheryma whipplei
- villi present,but small bowel lamina proria is filled w/foamy macrophages stuffed w/PAS-pos gram pos rod shaped bacilli
- see arthralgias, cardiac,neuro symptoms
What are the key distinguishing features of Crohn's Disease?
- terminal rectum; mouth to anus
- discontinuous
- linear fissures
- cobblestone appearance
- "creeping fat"
- noncaseating granules
- transmural
- string sign on barium
- sinus tracts
- Troussaeu, erythema nodosum, ankylosing spondylitis
What are key distinguising features of ulcerative colitis?
- retum
- continuous
- pseudopolyps
- crypt abscesses
- unflammation limited to musosa and submucosa
- complication of toxic megacolon
- HLA-B27 positivity
- PSC, pyoderma gangrenosum
- increased risk of colon cancer
What is angiodysplasia? What is seen? Where does it occur? What are its assocations? How is it treated?
- arteriovenous malformation of instestines, dilation of muscosal & submucosal venules
- occurs in cecum, light colon
- hematochezia
- association with vWD, calcific aortic stenosis, CREST
- surgical resection
What is pseudomembranous colitis? What microb is related to this? What happens?
- formationofindlammatory pseudomembranes
- C.Difficileoften brought on by antibiotics (e.g. clindamycin,ampicillin)
- diarrhea,fever,ab cramp
- yellow-tan mucosal membranes
What is Meckel's Diverticulum? Rule of 2's? How to treat?
Congential, remnant of viteline duct

- 2% population
- 2ft from ileocecal valve
- 2cm in length
- 2yrs or younger
- 2% present w/carcinoid tumow
- at least 2 layers of tissue

treat surgicaly, usually asymptomatic, though can contain gastric/pancreatic mucosa, leading to bleeding
What is colonic diverticulosis? What are risk factors? Where is it located? What are symptoms? Complications?
- acquired outpouching of wall, characterized by herniation of mucosa and submucosa through muscularis propria due to low-fiber diets

- most common in sigmoid colon, assocated w/Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos, APKD

- alternating diarrhea constipation, bleeding, diverticulitis, fistulas, perforation, peritonitis
What is FAP? What is the inheritance? Mutation? Presentation?
- AD
- inactivated APC gene on chr 5q21
- develop thousands of colonic adenomatous polyps
What is Gardner? Ineritance? Presenttation?
- rare FAP variant, AD

1. osteomas of jaw
2. fibromastosis
3. epidermal inclusion cysts/desmoid tumors
What is Turcot? Inheritnace? Presentation?
- rare FAP variant, AR
- gliomas (astrocytoma, medulloblastoma)
What is Lynch Syndrome? Inheritance? Mutation? Risks for spread?
- AD
- DNA mismatch gene mutated
- increased risk of endometrial and ovarian carcinoma
What is Peutz-Jeghers? Inheritance? Presentation? Spread?
- AD
- melanin pigmentation of oral muscosa
-multiple harmatomatous polyps
- lung, breast, endometrial cancers
What are the genetic mutations in colonic adenocarcinoma? Locations?
Loss of APC, K-ras mutaion, then loss pf p53

50% rectosignoid
What does right-sided CRC look like?
1. Gross: polypoid, cauliflower w/ulcer

2. Barium: polypoid mass

3. Presentation: microscopicbleeding
How does appendicitis present?
initial diffuse periumbilical pain --> locatlizaed at McBurney's point (1/3 distance from iliac crest to umbilicus -- RLQ)
What is the presentation of left-sided CRC?
1. Gross: ulcerated, stricture,
"napkin-ring" configuration

2. Barium: apple-core lesion

3. Presentation: constipation then diarrhea, reduced caliber stool (pencil-shape), obstruction
What is the pattern of CRC spread? What serum levels can be detected?
Lymph Nods
Luver
Lungs, Brain, Bone

monitor CEA levels
What is Duke's staging for CRC?
A - limited to sub/mucosa
B1 - invasion into muscularis propria but not through
B2 - invasion through MP
C1 - (B1) + lymph nodes
C2 - (B2) + lymph nodes
D -- distant metastesis
What use loperamide?
use to treat diarrhea
How can SSRIs be used for IBS?
for constipation-predominant
What are the H2 antagonists? How do they work?
Cimetidine
Ranitidine

Decrease proton pump indirectly, work on inhibiting HCl secretionor gastrin-induced release of hisatmine from ECL
What is misoprostol?
- PGE-1analog
- "cycloprotective"
- Increased mucus and bicarb, decreased HCl secretion
- selective for ulcers caused by NSAIDs
- contraindicated in pregnancy
What are the triple therapies for PUD?
1. Bismol + metronidazole + tetracycline + PPI

2. PPI w/metronidazole/amoxicillin + chlarithromycin
What are aminosalicylates? What do they do?
Sulfasalazine, mesalamine

Inhibit T cell proliferation & Ag presentation
Inhibit Ab production
Decrease TNF & IL-1
How does mesalamine work? Example?
coating to prevent digestion
- cisacol: acts on the distal ileumand colon

- petasa: released in SI
What are prodrugs?
Olsalazine
Balsalazide
What is the pathogenesis of Gilbert's Syndrome?
mildly decreased UDP-glucuronyl transferase or decreased bilirubin uptake = UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBINEMIA

appears during fasting and stress
What is the pathogenesis of Crigler-Najjar?
absent UDP-glucuronyl transferase, presents early in life
- jaundice, kernicterus (bilirubin deposition in brain), UNCONJUGATED

- type II is less severe and responds to phenobarbital, which increased liver enzymes synthesis

- treat w/plasmapheresis, phototherapy
What is Dubin-Johnson?
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion
- grossly black liver
- benign

CONJUGATED BILIRUBINEMIA

Rotor's (not black)
What serum enzymes are detected in cholestasis?
increased alkaline phosphatase
GGT
What are the associations of accumulation of bile pigment in hepatic parenchyma?
jaundice
pruritis
skin xanthomas
malabsorption
Where is the mutation in Wilson's Disease?
AR mutation of ATP7B gene/chr13
What is the mutation in hemochromatosis?
AR mutation in HFE, transferrin receptor 2, or hepcidin
What are the associations with hemochromatosis?
micronodular cirrhosis
diabetes mellitus
bronze pigment
What is primary biliary cirrhosis?
destructive disorder of intrahepatic biliary tree/a cholestatic disorder; inflamed & destroyed bile ducts

- autoimmune; elevated serum IgM (antimitochondrial Ab)
What is secondary biliary cirrhosis?
Drug toxicity
Viral hepatitis
Liver transplantation
Graft vs. host after BM transplant
What is detected in the serum for PBC?
serum alkaline phosphatase
calcium
What is PSC?
Disorder of intra/extrahepatic bile ducts

ASMA
ANA

onionskinning,concentric,beadedappearnace of depositionofcollagen aroundbile ducts
What are side effects of penicillamine?
fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, aplastic anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

elastosis perforans serpignosa
arthopaty
lupus-like reaction
nephrotic syndrome
myasthenia gravis
good pasture
How are serotonin antagonists used as antiemetics?
"--setron"
worksperipheraly and centrrally, most effective for treating chemo-induced nausea
What is serum g-glutamyltransferase?
intra/extrahepatic obstruction to bile flow.
induction of cytochrome P-450 system (e.g. alcohol)
Describe the pathophysiological process of portal hypertension.
Increasing pressure on the portal vein entering the liver, as well as increased resisteance from deformities of the veins. The body decides to bypass liver, forming varices in other areas (like esophagus and stomach).

Varices are prone to rupture, especially as pressure and resistance increases = encephalopathy.
Discuss hepatocytes and zonation theory.
Hepatocytes in various zones are different. The closer they are to the portal vein, the more oxygenated the blood received. More active hepatocytes are in Zone 1, though other zones can be recruited and become as active in event of damage.

When damage is ischemic, those in Zone 1 will be less harmed. The opposite holds true when damage is from oxidative stress.
Why is the lamina propria important of the mucosal layer of the GI tract?
It contains nerve endings, blood vessels, assortment of immune and inflammatory cells that contribute to host defense as well as to the control of normal gut physiology.

In the mucosa, may be important in providing for villous movement.
Where is the myenteric plexus of nerves located?
It is b/w circular and longitudinal muscle layers. It regulates their function, which is the motility of the GI smooth muscle.
Name the three divisions of intestine into functional segments.
1. Pylorus -- controls amount of food that moves from stomach to small bowel

2. Ileocecal Valve -- controls movement of food from small bowel to large

. Sphincter of Oddi -- controls pacreatic secretions to the duodenal
Explain the purpose of the cardia of the stomach.
Secretes mucous and bicarbonate to protect from corrosive gastric contents.
What two types of salivary acinar cells exist and what do they secrete? Where are they located What can be lesioned during surgery?
1. Serous acinar cells -- proteinaceous compounds (amylase, lysosyme, IgA). Located in the parotid -- CN VII runs through parotid, can be lesioned during surgery.

2. Mucous acinar -- watery mucus (large glycoproteins with viscoelastic properties). Located in the submandibulat and sublingual.
How do duct cells affect salivary secretion?
Modify composition of saliva as it passes along. At low rates of secretion, saliva is hypotonic with respect to plasma and has higher K than Na. Unlike initial secretions of acinar cells, which are leaky and isotonic & ionic comp comparable to plasma.

Low flow rate = hypotonic (more time to reabsorb Na, Cl)
High flow rate = isotonic (less time)
How does pH of saliva change?
It increases progressively along length of the duct.
How is the contractile function of the upper 1/3 of the esophagus innervated?
Somatic nerves originate in nucleaus retrofacialis and nucleus ambiguus. ACh is released.
Describe innervation of the esophagus.
Smooth muscle innervated by vagus. Vagal effernts synpase with myenteric neurons via ACh and with smooth muscle directly via ACh and substance P.
How can secondary peristalsis be produced even in the absence of vagal input?
Esophagus supplised with enteric neurons, coordinating local reflexes.
Describe innervation of gastric musculature.
Both intrinsic (enteric nervous system) and extrinsic (vagal) neural inputs.

Interstitial cells of Cajal are pacemaker cells of intestine, located w/in circular muscle layers of stomach and proximal gut. Establish rate at which contractions of tissue maximally can occur (basal electrical rhythm). Seperate pacemakers in each distinct segment.
What is important about ductular cells in the pancreas?
Polarized epithelial cells driven by cAMP to transport bicarb to pancreatic juice upon stimulation.
What happens with a copper-deficient diiet + penicillamine?
Pacreatic acini atrophy with not effect on duct. Following meal, no pancreatic enzymes secreted but volume increase.
Which amino acids are more effectively absorbed in peptide form?
Glycine
Proline
Describe B12 uptake.
IF (secreted by parietal cells) cannot bind to cobalamin in low pH, so cobalamin binds to R-binding protein, forming stable complex at acidic pH. IF will follow into duodenum. Once degraded and internalized, cobalamin is bound to TC II and synth'ed by enterocyte.
What is the gastrocolic reflex?
Mediated by 5-HT and ACh. Generalized increase in colonic matility with mass movement of feces.
Does the liver play a role in hormone synthesis? How does cirrhosis affect this?
Steroid hormones. In cases of curhossis, excess estrogen will not be metabolize, which will result in gynocomastia and spider anginoma.
Where does the urea cycle take place?
It takes place in the mitochondria and cytosol of the hepatocyte.
What drugs are used as a preventive measure for hepatic encephalopathy and hypercholesterolemia? How do they work?
1. Lactulose -- pH decreases, conversion of ammonia to ammonium

2. Neomycin -- reduce colonic bacterial load

3. Protein-free diet -- reducing ammonia production by protein breakdown
Where do false diverticuli in bowel usually occur?
where the vasa recta perforate the muscularis externa
What are the common causes of small bowel obstuctuction?
Adhesions from previous surgeries
Bublge/Hernia
Cancer/Tumors

insussception/volvulus, Chrohn's, gallstone ileus, sticture, radition enteriris, congential malformation
How does distal CRC differ in presentation from proximal CRC?
distal (after splenic flexure) -- where the stool is most hard = obstruction, colicky pain, hematochezia

prox -- dull pain, iron def anemia, fatigue
What are prokinetic agents?
Cholinergic
AChE inhib
metoclopramide
domperidone (-D2)
cisapride (+5-HT4)
macrolides (stimulate smooth muscle motilin receptors)
Which drugs lower the seizure threshold?
metoclopromide
buproprion
tramadol
enflurane
What are the two molecular pathways that lead to CRC?
1. microsatellite insbaility pathway (15%): DNA mismatch repair gene mutations --> sporadic and HNPCC syndrome. Mutations accumulate, but no defined morphologic correlates

2. APC/b-catenin (chromosomal instability) pathway (85%):
What are the signs of portal hypertension?
Esophageal varices --> hemtaemesis

Peptic ulcer --> melena

Splenomegaly

Caput Medusa

Portal hypertensive gastropathy

Hermorrhoids
What are the effects of liver cell failure?
coma
scleral icterus
fetor hepaticus
spider nevi
gynecomastia
jaundice
testicular atrophy
asterixis
bleeding tendency
anemia
ankle edema
What is serum SAAG used for?
Ascites gradient

SAAG > 1.1 in portal hypertension
SAAG < 1.1 inc ancer, nephrotic syndrome, TB, pancreatitis, biliary disease, CT
What can be used to test heavy alsohol consumption?
GGT
(good way to differentiate a high ALP due to an obstuctive liver disease, and not a bone disease or bile duct disease)
Which drugs can lead to hepatic steatosis?
didanosine
stavudine
What is a hemangioma?
benign vascular growth, spontaneously regresses (children)
How can Budd Chiari be differentiated from CHF?
Absence of JVD
How does Budd Chiari present?
occlusion of IVC or hepatic veins with centrilobular congestion and necrosis, leading to congestive liver disease (hepatomegaly, ascites, ab pain, and eventual liver failure). May develop varices and have visible ab and back veins. a/w hypercoaguable state, plycythemia vera, pregnancy, and HCC
What is the chromosomal instability pathway of CRC?
1. normal colon loses APC gene
(decreased intercellular adhesion and increased proliferation)

2. colon at risk, then K-RAS mutation
(unregulated intracellular signal transduction)

3. adenoma, then loss of p53
(increased tumorigenesis)
What is PBC? What is it a/w?
autoimmune reaction --> lymphocytic infiltrate + granulomas; destruction of intrahepatic tree

a/w other autoimmune diseases like CREST, RA, celiac disease
What is PSC? What is it a/w?
unknown cause of concentric "pnion skin" and bile duct fibrosis --> alternating strictures and dilation with "beading" and intra and extrahepatic bile ducts

hypergammaglobulinemia, a/w ulcerative colitis, can lead to 2ndary biliary cirrhosis and cancer.
What is seconadary biliary cirrhosis?
extrahepatic biliary obsruction (gallstone, biliary stricture, chronic pancreatitis, carcinoma of pancreatic head) --> increased pressure in intrahepatic ducts --> injury/fibrosis and bile stasis
What is the presentation of PBC, PSC, seconary biliary cirrhosis?
pruritis
jaundice
light stools
hepatosplenomegaly
xanthomas
fatigue
What are the lab values of PBC, PSC, seconary biliary cirrhosis?
increased conjugated bilirubin
increased cholesterol
increased ALP
What does jaundice always present with in the eyes?
scleral icterus
A 20 year old man contracts influenza then presents with idiopathic hyperbil. What is cause?
Gilbert's
Most common cause of acute RLQ pain
appendicitis
Most common cause of LLQ
diverticulitis
60 year old female with RA and no alcohol history present with fatigue and right ab pain, lab studies show high ANA and ASMA, elevated serum IgG, and no viral serological markers
autoimmune hepatitis
colonoscopy reveals very friable mucosa extending from rectum to distal transverse colon
UC
most common cause of RUQ pain
cholecystitis
liver biopsy on a 23 year old female with elevated levels of LKM-1 antibodies, no alcohol hisotry, and no viral serological markers reveals infiltration of portal and periportal area with lymphocytes
autoimmune hep
What are are causes of esophagitis?
GERD, HSV, CMV, candida
What is seen in Zollinger-Ellison? What are the associations?
- enlarged rugal folds
- pancreatic gastrinoma producing gastrin --> proliferation of parietal cells, secretes acid from malginant pancreatic islet cells
- associated with MEN Type I
What is celiac sprue? Where does the problem lie? What are associations?
Antigens against gliadin, tissue transglutaminase (tTG)

ingestion of gluten leads to immunostimulatory effect and leads to loss of small bowel villi & malabsorption

- association with IgA diseases like dermatitis herpiformis, Hashimoto's, PBC
What is autoimmune hepatitis? What is it associated with? What are the types? What enzymes are detected in the serum?
CD8 mediated.
Overlaps with PBC and PSC

Type 1:
ANA (anti-nuclear)
ASMA
AAA (anti-actin)
anti-soluble liver antigen/liver-pancreas antigen antibodies

Type 2:
anti-liver kidney microsome-1 (ALKM-1) antibodies -- mostly directed against CYP2D6
anti-liver cytosol-1 (ACL-1)

In US, type I more common,associated HLA-DR3
How are DA2 antagonists used for antiemetics? What are examples?
Peripherally stop the chemoreceptor trigger zone

1. Metoclopramide: crosses BBB, can have side effects
2. domperidone: does not cross BBB, well tolerated, prokinetic
What are the complications with acute pancreatitis?
ARDS
DIC
due to enzymes circulating in the blood

psuedocyst
calcification
What are the markers in pancreatic carcinoma?
increased CEA (non-specific)
CA19-9
What is acute cholecysitis? What are signs? How does it present? What are complications?
- biliary colic, increased WBC, low fever, malaise
- Murphy's sign pos (inhale, pain with deep palpation)
- complication, can be grangenous --> peritonitis
- fistula can form b/c inflammatory cells try to go through wall -- stone can pas through, go into SI, get trapped in ileocecal valve, air can enter biliary tract and also small bowel obstruction
What can be seen as porcelain gallbladder?
enlarged, painless
can block, can calcify (which makes it porcelain)
usually adenocarcinoma
poor prognosis
What are the associations with Budd-Chiari Syndrome?
- polycythemia vera
- hypercoagulable states (preganancy, oral contraceptives)
- PNH
What is serum alanine transaminase (ALT)?
Enzyme for liver cell necrosis
present in cytosol

ALT > AST: viral hepatitis
What is serum aspartate transaminase (AST)?
Present in mitochondria
Alcohol damages mitochondria: AST > ALT indicates alcoholic hepatits
What is pathophysiological process of ascite formation?
1. Portal hypertension leads to increase in NO
2. Increased NO results in vasodilation
3. As consequence, pressure in kidneys decreases, leading to renal sodium retention.
4. Blood volume increases and overfills intravascular volume.
How can portal hypertension be mitigated and lessen ascites?
Through transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt. This involves connecting portal vein to hepatic vein, artifically bypassing liver; however, there is no filtration.
Describe Vitamin C uptake. Where is it located? How is it regulated? What are its cotransporters?
Uptake of vitamin C is predominantly localized to the ileum
Sodium-coupled cotransporters referred to as SVCT1 and SVCT2, stereospecific and transport vitamin C in conjunction with two sodium ions, therefore leading to electrogenic solute uptake
Vitamin C uptake is also regulated by the levels of this compound in the body
Cholelithiasis
Gallstones
Cholecystitis

Physical diagonisis?
inflammation/infection of the gallbladder

positive Murphy's sign -- inspiratory arrest on deep palpation due to pain

inflammation usually from gallstones; rarely ischemia or infections (CMV)
Cholangitits
inflammation/infection of biliary tree
Choledocholithiasis
gallstones in bile ducts
What is chronic calcifying pancreatitis a/w?
alcoholism
smoking
increased risk of pancreatic cancer
What is pancreatic adenocarcinoma a/w, and how can it present?
a/w cirgarretes and chronic pancreatitis but not alcohol

presents with
ab pain radiating to back
weight loss (due to malab and anorexia)
migratory thrombophlebiitis -- redness and tenderness on plpation of extremities
obstructive jaundice with palpable gallbladder
What is seen in pernicious anemia?
megaloblastic anemia

CNS symptoms (myelin degeneration in the dorsal and lateral tracts of the spinal cord) --> sensory problems (pins and needles)

atrphy of stomach fundic glands (--> achlorydia) and replacement of the gastric eptithelium with mucus-secreting goblet cells that resemble those lining the large intestines

homocystinuria and methylmalonic acid in urine
What are the signs of vit A deficiency?
night blindness
xerophalamia (pathologic dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea) --> corneal ulceration and blindness

keratomalcia (wrinkling, clouding of cornea)

biltot spots (dry, silver-gray plaques on the bulbar conjunctiva)
In which populations is vit A supplementation a particularly bad idea/
pregnancy
smokers (increased lung cancer risk)
What is another name for vit E
a-tocophenol
A patient presents with convulsions and irritability. Vitamin def
B6
What vitamin in excess can cause hypercalcemia?
A, D
What vtamins function similar to reduced glutathione?
A, C, E
Increased RBC fragility. Vit def
Vit E