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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What does EAWS stand for?
Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist
When was the EAWS program established and why?
1980, to recognize enlisted personnel who acquired the specific professional skills. knowledge, and military experience
When was it mandatory for all sailors to have a warfare qualification?
August 2010
What is the BMR publication number?
NAVEDTRA 14325
What are the three objectives of first aid?
to prevent further injury, infection, and the loss of life
How many categories of first aid are there and what are they?
8 categories
bleeding, burns, fractures, electric shock, obstructed airways, heat related injuries, coldweather, and shock.
What are the methods of controlling bleeding?
direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and use of tourniquet as last resort.
What is a pressure point?
a point in the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone.
What are the 11 principal pressure points on each side of the body?
- superficial temporal artery(temple)
- facial artery(jaw)
- common carotid(neck)
- subclavian artery(collar bone)
- brachial artery(inner upper arm)
- brachial artery(inner elbow)
- radial/ ulnar artery(wrist)
- femoral artery(upper thigh)
- iliac artery(groin)
- propliteal artery(knee)
- anterior/posterior tibial artery(ankle)
What are the three classifications of burns? and describe each
first- produces redness, warmth and mild pain

second- causes red, blistered skin and severe pain

third- destroys tissue, skin and bone in severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed
what are the two types of fractures? and desrcibe each
"closed/simple" and "open/compound"

closed/ simple- is a broken bone without a break in the skin.

open/compound- break in the skin with possible bone protrusion
what is a major trauma associated electric shock?
cardiac arrest
What indications are there for airway obstruction?
inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the skin turning bluish in color.
What are the two types of heat related injuries?
heat exhaustion and heat stroke
Describe heat exhaustion.
A serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs. The skin is cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils are dilated. Body temperature may be normal or high; the victim is usually sweating profusely.
Describe Heat Stoke.
A very serious condition caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body. The victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup. Symptoms may include hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse.
What are the three types of cold weather injures?
Hypothermia, Superficial and Deep frostbite.
Describe hypothermia
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. The victim may appear pale and unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff.
Descibe superficial frostbite
Is when ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Descibe deep frostbite
Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Describe shock
life-threatening medical condition whereby the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of severe injury or illness.
What are the five types of shock?
septic
anaphylactic
neurogenic
cardiogenic
hypovelmic
Describe septic shock.
Results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins. Common causes of this are pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections (such as a ruptured appendix) and meningitis.
Describe anaphylactic shock.
A type of severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction. Causes include allergy to insect stings, medicines or foods (nuts, berries, seafood) etc..
Describe cardiogenic shock.
Occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body. This can be the end result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure.
Descibe Hypovolemic shock.
Caused by severe blood and fluid loss, such as from traumatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body.
Descibe neurogenic shock .
Caused by spinal cord injury, usually as a result of a traumatic accident or injury.
What does CPR stand for?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
What is CPR?
combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest.
When cardiac arrest occurs what does CPR supply?
support a small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to ―buy time until normal heart function is restored
What are the steps to CPR?
Circulation/Airway/Breathing
To give CPR what should a person have in order to give successful resuscitation?
Cerftification from the American Heart Association and the American Red Creoss
What are the Steps of the survival chain for CPR?
- Recognition/activation of CPR
- Chest compressions
- AED/defibrillator
- Rapid defibrillation
- Effective advanced life support (EMT’s, ambulance)
- Integrated post
-cardiac arrest care
What are the five steps to ORM?
Identify the hazard
Assess the hazard
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
What are the three classifications of mishaps?
Class A B and C
Describe a class A mishap.
The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $2,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
Describe a class B mishap
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
Describe a class C mishap
Class C. The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case). For reporting purposes, reportable lost workday Class C mishaps are those which result in 5 or more lost workdays beyond the date of injury or onset of illness (exceptions apply).
What are the four types of chemical agents?
Nerve agents- liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue. Examples are Sarin (GB), Tabun (GA), SOMAN (GD), and VX.

Blister Agents. Liquid or solid casualty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and/or death. Examples are Distilled mustard (HD), Lewisite (L), Phosgene Oxime (CX), and Levinstein Mustard (HL).

Blood Agents. Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood. Examples are Hydrogen Cyanide (AC), Cyanogen Chloride (CK), and Arsine (SA).

Choking Agents. Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache. The lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow. Examples are Phosgene (CG) and Diphosgene.

M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper. Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does not detect chemical agent vapors.
Atropine/2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector. Used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.
What is Biological Warfare?
Biological Warfare is the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces is.
What are the two types of Biological Warfare?
pathogens and toxins
What are pathogens?
bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa and prions.
What are toxins?
The categorization of toxins is based on the organisms (source) that produce them and the physiological affects the toxins cause in humans.

- The major groupings by source are mycotoxins (which are from fungi), bacterial toxins, algal toxins, animal venoms and plant toxins.

- The primary groups based on physiological effects are neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins and dermatoxins.
What are the IPE for chemical/biological agent environments consists of?
- Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filter)
- Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG)
- Chemical protective gloves and liners
- Chemical protective overboots and laces
- Skin decontamination kit
What is Radiological Warfare?
Radiological Warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
What are the types of nuclear explosions?
High altitude air burst occurs at altitudes in excess of 100,000 feet, with ionosphere disruptions and EMP.

Air burst where fireball does not reach the surface. The vacuum created collects debris caused by the severe blast damage in radiation fallout.

Surface Burst has the worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout.

Shallow underwater burst has a small fireball and blast wave however, it causes large waves and water contamination.

Deep underwater bust is similar to the shallow underwater bust but with less visual effect and yields greater contaminated water.
What are shipboard shielding stations categorized as?
ready-shelter or deep-shelter stations.
Describe a ready shelter?
Ready-shelter stations are just inside the weather envelope, with access to deep shelter. They provide minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations.
Describe a deep shelter?
Deep-shelter stations are low in the ship and near the centerline. They provide maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requiring personnel to be far removed from battle stations.
What is a DT-60 dosimeter?
DT-60 dosimeter is a non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter, which has to be placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens.
What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
MOPP 0
Issue IPE, accessible within five minutes.
MOPP 1
- Afloat. JSLIST, MASK, Gloves readily accessible.

- Ashore. Don protective equipment, M9 tape.
MOPP 2
- Afloat. Mask carried, decon supplies stage.

- Ashore. Additional to level 1 is don protective over-boots.
MOPP 3
- Afloat. GQ, install filters, don over-boots.


- Ashore. fill canteens, activate decon stations.
MOPP 4
- Afloat. Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown.

- Ashore. Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.
What is the primary duty for firefighters?
saving lives.
What is the secondary duty for firefighters?
extinguish fires and limit the damage to aircraft,
shipboard, airfield installed equipment, and/or airfield structures.
What does the fire triangle include?
heat, fuel, and oxygen
CLASS A FIRE
Occur in combustibles materials that produce an ash such as burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, and paper products. Effective extinguishing agents are water (H2O) or Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF).
CLASS B FIRE
Occur with flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other petroleum based products. Effective extinguishing agents are AFFF, Halon 1211, Purple K Powder (PKP) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
CLASS C FIRE
Are energized electrical fires that are attacked by using non-conductive agents. Effective extinguishing agents are:

- Energized. CO2, Halon, PKP, and H2O in fog patterns with a minimum distance of 4 feet.

- De-energized. Treat as a Class A, B, or D fire.
CLASS D FIRE
Combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium. Effective extinguishing agents are H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog, apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter as small explosions can occur.
AFFF
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF). AFFF liquid concentrates consist primarily of synthetic fluorocarbon surfactant materials that are noncorrosive and have an unlimited shelf life when stored in a protected area. Three-percent and six-percent AFFF concentrate is approved for naval use. Current shipboard equipment requires six-percent concentrate.
H2O(FIREFIGHTING)
Water is not generally considered to be a suitable agent for use in combating large aircraft fuel fires without the addition of either foam agents or surfactants. It has the ability, when properly applied, to cool the aircraft fuselage and provide a heat shield for personnel. Water is also an effective agent for cooling ordnance, batteries, and Class A fires.
Halon 1211 (Bromochlorodifluoromethane)
Intended primarily for use on Class B and C fires; however it is effective on Class A fires. Halon 1211 is a colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up. Halon 1211 extinguishes fires by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of the combustion process.
Carbon Dioxide 15-Pound Portable Units and 50-Pound Wheeled Extinguisher Units.
These units are intended primarily for use on Class B and C fires. CO2 is a colorless, odorless gas that is approximately one and one-half times heavier than air. Fire suppression is accomplished by the displacement of oxygen to below the level that is required to support combustion.
Potassium Bicarbonate (Purple-K-Powder or PKP).
PKP is intended primarily for use on Class B fires. The principal chemical in PKP is potassium bicarbonate and the dry chemical extinguishes the flame by breaking the combustion chain. It does not have cooling capabilities, therefore it will not result in permanent extinguishing (reflash protection) if ignition sources are present.
What is the proper protective equipment required for the flight line?
The required flight line protective equipment will include the following items:

- Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
- Cranial impact helmet
- Protective eye goggles
- Leather gloves.
Descibe a runway
Runways- Paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing.
Describe a threshold marking.
Threshold Markings. These are parallel stripes on the ends of the runways. The stripes are 12 feet wide by 150 feet long and designate the landing area.
Describe a overrun area.
Overrun Area. Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
Describe a MA-1 series overrun barrier.
MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier. Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks. The MA-1A is always in a standby status, in case there is an aborted takeoff or an emergency overrun landing.
Describe Emergency shore based recovery equipment.
Used during in-flight emergencies that require stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft.
Describe a taxiway
Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.
Describe a parking apron
Open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line. Used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft; they are connected to the runways by taxiways.
Describe a compass calibration pad(compass rose)
A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.
Describe the runway numbering system
Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees, i.e., a runway heading of 250 degree is runway 25. If there are 2 runways whose centerline is parallel, the runway will be identified as L (left) and R (right) or 25L or 25R, if there are 3 parallel runways C (center) is added.
Describe the airfield rotating beacon.
When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, day or night, the airport rotating beacon is used to identify the airport's location. It rotates clockwise at a constant speed and military airfields use 2 white lights and one green flashing 12 to 15 times per minute.
What are safe flight deck equipment?
- Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
- Protective jersey
- Cranial impact helmet
- Protective eye goggles
- Leather gloves
YELLOW JERSEYS
Aircraft Handling Officer, Flight Deck Officer, Catapult Officer, Air Bos’n, Arresting Gear Officer and Plane directors.
WHITE JERSEYS
Safety department, Air Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plane Inspectors (troubleshooters) and medical.
BROWN JERSEYS
Plane captains
BLUE JERSEYS
Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman (Chocks, Chains and Tractors) and Elevator Operators.
GREEN JERSEYS
Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel, Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man and Photographers.
RED JERSEYS
Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnance Disposal, and Ordnance handling personnel.
PURPLE JERSEYS
Aviation fuel crew.
Purple K Powder (PKP)
Identified by a 12-inch wide red stripe with a white 3-inch high ―PKP‖ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a white 18-inch diameter circle with red 5-inch high ―PKP‖ letters is painted on the flight deck.
Saltwater Stations
Identified by an 18-inch wide red stripe with a yellow 3-inch high ―W‖ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a red triangle 18-inches per side with a yellow "W" is painted on the flight deck.
CO2 Bottle Stowage.
Identified by a 12-inch wide red stripe with a white 3-inch high ―CO2‖ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a white 18-inch diameter circle with a red 5-inch high "CO2" is painted on the flight deck.
AFFF Station.
Identified by an 18-inch wide green stripe with white 3-inch high ―AFFF‖ stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a green 18-inch square with white 3-inch high "AFFF" letters is painted on the flight deck.
Bomb Jettison Ramp
Ramps designated to eliminate loose ordinance will have a yellow stripe painted up and over the deck edge at both ends of the ramp opening. The flight deck in front of the ramp opening is marked with alternating 4-inch wide red and yellow stripes with a 12-inch black facsimile of a bomb centered.
Steam Smothering
Identified by an 18‖ black stripe with a 3" white "STEAM" stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming.
What are the danger areas for aviation?
Danger areas for aviation include intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, hazardous materials, eye, hearing and other industrial environment dangers.
Why is windshield static grounding necessary?
Windshield static grounding is necessary because during flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield.
What determines tie-down categories?
wind velocity
What are the tie down categories?
-Up to 45 Knots. Initial tie-down: a minimum of 6 chains are required, initial tie-down is used immediately prior to, in between, or immediately after flight.

- Up to 45 Knots. Normal weather tie-down, 9 chains required.

- 46 to 60 Knots. Moderate weather tie-down, 14 Chains required.

- Above 60 Knots. Heavy weather tie-down, 20 Chains required.
What are mandatory hand signals?
"emergency stop", "wave off", and "hold"
What is the difference in THREATCON and DEFCON?
THREATCON scale determines the condition for defense of the United States homeland and assets abroad, the DEFCON scale determines the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war.
What does FPCON stand for?
Force Protection conditions
FPCON NORMAL
applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
FPCON ALPHA
applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. Alpha measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.
FPCON BRAVO
applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining Bravo measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities.
FPCON CHARLIE
applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of Charlie measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.
FPCON DELTA
applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized condition, also FPCON Delta measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods.
What is DEFCON?
A defense readiness condition (DEFCON) is an alert posture used by the United States Armed Forces.
Who was DEFCON developed by?
A defense readiness condition (DEFCON) is an alert posture used by the United States Armed Forces. The DEFCON system was developed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff, unified, and specified combatant commands.
How many levels are there in DEFCON?
The system prescribes five graduated levels of readiness (or states of alert) for the U.S. military, and increase in severity from DEFCON 5 (least severe) to DEFCON 1 (most severe) to match varying military situations.
What subsystem is DEFCOM a series of?
Alert Conditions (LERTCONS) along with EMERGCONs, WATCHCONs, and FPCONs.
DEFCON 5
Normal peacetime readiness.
DEFCON 4
Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security
measures.
DEFCON 3
Increase in force readiness above normal readiness.
DEFCON 2
Further Increase in force readiness, but less than maximum.
DEFCON 1
Maximum force readiness
What are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP?
The two types of maintenance described in the NAMP are rework and upkeep

Rework is the restorative or additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and aircraft SE at FRCs, contractors' plants, and such other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs.

Upkeep is the preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities.
What are the different types of upkeep inspections/maintenance.
Turnaround, Daily, Special, Conditional, phase, acceptance, and transfer
What level is rework done at?
rework maintenance, since rework is a more intensive type of maintenance it is performed at D-Level.
- Reliability centered maintenance (RCM). A process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operating context. The military adopted the RCM from the commercial aviation industry in the mid-1970s. As a result we now have different types of rework maintenance modeled after the RCM concept such as the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) and Periodic Maintenance Interval (PMI).
What is management defined as?
Management is defined as "the efficient attainment of objectives,"
What is maintenance described as?
"all actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability".
What are the two most critical aspects in naval aviation?
Two of the most critical aspects in naval aviation are the release of an aircraft safe for flight and the acceptance of the aircraft.
When is the MMP prepared and distributed?
prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month at the O-level and the 1st of each month at I-level.
what is a aircraft logbook?
The logbook is a hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment. Each aircraft logbook shall have a record of rework, major repairs, flight and operational data; also included in the logbook is a record of maintenance directives affecting the aircraft, its components, and accessories.
What are the different levels of inspectors?
Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)

Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)

Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)
What are the programs managed by QA?
-Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL).
-Maintenance Department/Division Safety.
-SE Misuse/Abuse.
-QA audit program
-Naval aviation maintenance reporting program
-Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP).
What are the three types of audits done by QA?
Special.Workcenter.Program audits.

Special. Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. They may be requested by the work center at any time or when a new work center supervisor is assigned. Copies of audits are held for one year.

Workcenter. Conducted semi-annually to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All areas of the work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc..

Program audits. evaluate specific programs, providing a systematic and coordinated method of identifying deficiencies and determining adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions. QA shall audit the programs, at a minimum, annually.
What is ACSP?
Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP). The objective of the ACSP is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks. Activities not having a sufficient demand for entry authority (EA) services use the services of the supporting FRC site EA.
What is NAMDRP?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program (NAMDRP). QA maintains the program binder and assists with the reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications.
When was the NATOPS est.?
NATOPS was established by the United States Navy in 1961
In 1950 how many aircraft were lost by the NAVY/MARINE?
In 1950 the US Navy/Marine Corps lost 776 aircraft (roughly 2 airplanes per day or a rate of 54 major mishaps per 10,000 flight hours).
What year was the angled flight deck created?
1954
When was the NAMP created?
1959
When was the Fleet Replacement Squadron(FRS) created?
1961
WARNING
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed
CAUTION
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
NOTE
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.
SHALL
means a procedure that is mandatory.
SHOULD
Means a procedure that is recommended.
MAY
"May" and "need not" mean the procedure is optional.
- Will. Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
COMNAVAIRLANT.
The first character shall be "A through M"; second character "A through Z".
COMNAVAIRPAC side desig.
The first character shall be "N through Z"; second character "A through Z".
CNATRA.
The first character shall be "A through G"; there is no second character.
14 November 1910
First take-off from a ship—Eugene Ely, a civilian pilot, took off in a 50-hp Curtiss plane from a wooden platform built on the bow of USS BIRMINGHAM (CL 2). The ship was at anchor in Hampton Roads, Va., and Ely landed safely on Willoughby Spit.
8 May 1911
Captain W. I. Chambers prepared requisitions for two Glenn Curtiss biplanes, although these requisitions lacked the signature of the Chief of the Bureau of Navigation they did indicate Captain Chambers' decision as to which airplanes the Navy should purchase. The planes were purchased for $5,500 each and later became the Navy’s first aircraft the A-1 Triad. From this, May 8 has been officially proclaimed to be the birthday of naval aviation. The Wright brothers soon sold the Navy another aircraft. Curtiss and the Wrights agreed to train a pilot and a mechanic.
20 June 1913
Ensign William D. Billingsley, piloting the B-2 at 1,600 feet over the water near Annapolis, Md., was thrown from the plane and fell to his death, the first fatality of Naval Aviation. Lieutenant John H. Towers, riding as passenger, was also unseated but clung to the plane and fell with it into the water, receiving serious injuries.
22 October 1917.
Special courses to train men as inspectors were added to the Ground School program at MIT with 14 men enrolled. Eventually established as an Inspector School, this program met the expanding need for qualified inspectors of aeronautical material by producing 58 motor and 114 airplane inspectors before the end of the war, becoming the predecessors of the modern Quality Assurance Representatives.
20 March 1922
The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was re-commissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the USS LANGLEY (CV-1).
10 March 1948.
FJ-1 Fury, The first Navy jet made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer (CV 21).
Coral Sea 7-8 May 1942.
Thanks to the breaking of the Japanese Navy code, the U.S. was alerted to a large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned invasion of Australia. The Japanese operation centered around three aircraft carriers and dozens of troop transports, but the Americans met them with two carriers of their own. On May 7, the Japanese planes sank two minor ships, while U.S. planes sank an isolated enemy carrier. The next day, both sides launched all their planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other unseen in the clouds, in the world's first carrier verses carrier battle. One Japanese carrier was damaged. The U.S. carrier Lexington was sunk, and the carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew. Although a tactical victory, Coral Sea was a strategic setback for the Japanese who never again threatened Australia.
Midway 3-5 June 1942.
Midway was the turning point of the Pacific war. The U.S. breaking of the Japanese naval code was again the key element as it had been at Coral Sea a month earlier. A huge Japanese armada of 160 warships was involved, but Commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force, sending some ships north to the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack. The Japanese retained superior numbers approaching Midway which included 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships. At Midway the U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships. The Americans knew what was coming because of the broken codes, and Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise and Yorktown, out of Japanese reconnaissance range. As the Japanese carriers launched their planes to assault the Midway defenses, the U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers. It took attack after attack, but finally the U.S. crews got through and sank 3 Japanese carriers. The next day the fourth carrier was sunk. Japanese planes sank the Yorktown. In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
Guadalcanal 13-15 November 1942.
After three days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and U.S. Marines were able to secure the island of Guadalcanal. The Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers. The USS JUNEAU was involved in the battle. Navy policy was to place members of the same family on different ships, but the five Sullivan brothers, from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together. An exception was made and they all became crewmen onboard the JUNEAU. The JUNEAU was damaged during the battle in a close-range night encounter. As it limped off for repairs, it was torpedoed. The Sullivan's along with 700 others were lost. Because of this tragedy, Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated. A ship was later named in their honor. With the fall of the island, the southern Solomon's came under Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.
What are the basic fundamentals of aviation pertaining motion to flight
acceleration. speed. and velocity
What is Newton's first law?
law of inertia...an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
What is Newton's second law?
Law of motion(force)...states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Newton's Third Law.
The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
Describe Bernoulli's principle
The principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased.Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow across the airfoil.
Lift
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.
Weight.
Weight. The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
Drag.
Drag. The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft. Drag resists motion.
Thrust.
The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
Longitudinal axis.
An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.
Lateral axis
An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings.
Vertical axis
An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.
Fixed wing-Ailerons
(roll). longitudinal axis.
Fixed wing-Elevators
(pitch). lateral axis.
Fixed wing-Rudder
(yaw). vertical axis.
Slats.
Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. When open, or extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge.
Angle of Attack (AoA)
The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air. Defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative wind is the direction of the air stream in relationship to the wing. Angle of attack is measured in "units" as opposed to degrees.
Autorotation.
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power. As a helicopter is descending in altitude the collective is lowered allowing the reverse airflow through the rotor to maintain RPM. When the helicopter reaches a predetermined altitude the collective pitch is increased to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce the rate of descent and cushion the landing.
Basic aircraft hydraulic system
reservoir
pump
tubing
selector valve
actuating unit
What does NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
What does OOMA/OIMA stand for?
Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity/Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity
At O level what does OOMA reside on a computer server as? and what does it consist of?
foundation tier

modules such as:
maintenance subsystem
material subsystem
flight subsystem
CM/Logs and records subsystem
What can you view on OOMA?
NMCS/PMCS status
flyable discrepancies
non-aircraft related discrepancies
ALSS status
SE status
Mission Mounted Equipment status
What are some responsibilities of maintenance control?
-monitor current aircraft/equiment status
- Maintain cognizance of incomplete maintenance actions and sets workcenter priorities.
- Take actions necessary for reporting configuration, material readiness, and flight data.
- Brief pilots/aircrew prior to an FCF through the use of the appropriate QA and workcenter personnel.
- Ensure upon completion of a flight that the aircrew initiates a Work Order (WO) for each discrepancy. For discrepancies discovered by personnel other than the pilot/aircrew the person who discovers the discrepancy initiates the WO.
- Review, update and approve all WOs, once approved the WO is automatically populated into the Automated Aircraft Discrepancy Book (AADB) and workcenter workload report.
- When the corrective action is completed, Maintenance Control reviews, approves, or rejects the corrective action block of the WO. Upon completion and approval the AADB is automatically updated where it remains for 10 flights.
- When parts are required Maintenance Control assigns the project/priority code for the requisition. The material request is automatically forwarded to Material Control’s via online DDSN assignment process.
- Work Orders/MAF Initiation. Upon completion of the flight, the pilot/aircrew initiates a MAF for each discrepancy. For discrepancies discovered by other than pilot or aircrew, the MAF will be initiated by the person who discovered the discrepancy. In the case of When Discovered Code O, Maintenance Control will initiate the MAF. NALCOMIS prompts the user for required data fields during MAF initiation. The JCN is automatically assigned when the MAF is approved. The Type MAF Code, TEC, BUNO, T/M, MODEX, received date, and received time are pre-filled. The received date and time can be changed. Work center, discrepancy, initiator, and up/down status field shall be filled in prior to saving to the database. All other fields are optional.
What is a JCN?
9 character alphanumeric code that is the bases for data collection.
what is TYPE MAINTENANCE?
prefilled based on the type of WO selected
What is Type WO?
A two character code that describes the type of maintenance to be preformed.
What is Accumulated job Status history?
The history of the WO from start to finish
Common types of Work Orders
DM
TS
CM
AD
FO
CL
CF
SX
SC
TD
- DM, Discrepancy Maintenance
- TS, Troubleshooting
- CM, Cannibalization Maintenance
- AD, Assist Maintenance
- FO, Facilitate Other Maintenance
- CL, Conditional look phase
- CF, Conditional fix Phase
- SX, Special inspection one workcenter
- SC, Special inspection control
- TD, Technical Directive
What are the six basic core capabilities that we addess in naval aviation?
Deterrence
sea control
power projectiom
maritime security
humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
Describe our navy's core capabiliy of forward presence.
The deployability and expeditionary character of Naval Aviation distinguishes it as the centerpiece of this core capability.
Decribe our navy's core capability of Deterrance.
Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning wars. Removing conditions for conflict, providing for the protection of forces deployed, and possessing superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors from acting.
Describe our navy's core capability of sea control.
Protects the ability to operate freely at sea and is an important enabler of joint and interagency operations. Maintaining sea control relies on numerous maritime capabilities such as surveillance, detection, and attack of coastal, surface, and subsurface platforms. These are missions readily executed by Naval Aviation assets in support of this capability.
Describe our navy's core capability of power projection.
The ability to project from the sea is the essential combat element of the Maritime Strategy. This core capability is uniquely suited to the strengths of Naval Aviation.
Describe our navy's core of maritime security.
The maintenance of security at sea and the mitigation of threats short of war. Combating terrorism, piracy, drug trafficking, and other threats enhances global stability and protects U.S. shorelines.
Describe our navy's core of Humanitarian Assisstance/Disaster Relief.
A human obligation and a foundation of human character. The majority of the world’s population lives within a few hundred miles of the ocean, meaning that access is best achieved by maritime forces.
HSC
Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC). These units perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and eventually combat search-and-rescue missions.
HSM
Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM); Tasked with the primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare, and secondary roles of logistics and rescue.
HT
Helicopter Training (HT). Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary wing aircraft.
VAQ
Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ). Fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppresses, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including communication, in support of air strike and fleet operations.
VAW
Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW). Fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft.
VC
Fleet Composite (VC). Fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.
VFA
Strike Fighter (VFA). Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
VP
Patrol (VP). Fixed wing land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
VQ
Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ). Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy. Selected squadrons serve as elements of the Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide communications relay services.
VR
Aircraft Logistics Support (VR). Fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies.
VRC
Carrier Logistics Support (VRC). Fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery.
VT
Training (VT). Fixed wing squadrons that provides basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers.
VX/VXE
Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE). Fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment. They develop tactic and doctrines for their most effective use.
What is hazmat defined as?
Hazardous material (HAZMAT) is defined as any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
Whose job is it to ensure the proper disposal and/or storage of HAZMAT/HAZWASTE to minimize personal and envoronment impact
EVERYONE'S
When are HAZMAT storage and inspection locations be inspected?
weekly and quarterly
What are the six categories of HAZMAT?
- Flammable or combustible materials
- Aerosol containers
- Toxic materials
- Corrosive materials (including acids and bases)
- Oxidizing materials
- Compressed gases
What are MSDS?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS); MSDS’s are technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
What is a HAZMAT AUL?
HAZMAT Authorized Use List (AUL). A current inventory of HAZMAT, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HAZMAT used for local acquisition and use. Local workcenters or codes should maintain a current inventory of items authorized for local use and keep it current.
All hands should be trained on the following
- Types of HAZMAT in their work area and aboard ship.
- What HAZWASTE is and how to dispose of it.
- How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.
- What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review. Protective measures when handling HAZMAT.
- Emergency procedures.
What is PMS?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS) disposal methods shall be followed during performance of PMS.
Where should you never place flammables HW?
into the ships incinerator.
Containerize spent or spilled hydraulic fluids in approved containers for?
proper shore disposal.
You should always keep collected petroleum fluids separate from...?
synthetic fluids
What are the general steps of spill response?
- Discovery
- Notification
- Initiation of action
- Evaluation
50
- Containment
- Damage control
- Dispersion of Gases/vapors
- Cleanup and decontamination
- Disposal
- Certification for re-entry
- Follow-up reports
What kind of roofs are used Naval aviation?
The roof systems are a column free front cantilevered roof structure.
A Type I maintenance hangar is primarily designed for?
carrier aircraft, but is adaptable to meet requirements for rotary wing and various types of smaller aircraft. The O1 and O2 level spaces in this type of hangar are configured for a typical strike fighter squadron, two carrier airborne early warning squadrons, or a helicopter antisubmarine warfare squadron. The Type I hangar bay module is 235’wide by 85’ deep.
A Type II hangar is primarily provided for?
US Marine Corps Aviation. The hangar is designed to accommodate CH-53 Helicopters, V-22 Ospreys and C-130 Hercules aircraft. This type of hangar may also accommodate Navy versions of the C-130, V-22 and H-53 aircraft. The Type II hangar bay module is 119 feet deep by 325 feet wide
A Type III maintenance hangar is principally designed for
land based patrol and large transport aircraft. The Type III hangar module is 165 feet deep by 165 feet wide.
What are some peculiar items to the shore based hangers?
- A painted red fire lane adjacent to the bulkhead that divides the hangar from the maintenance workcenters must be kept clear at all times.
- Portable CO2 fire extinguishers mounted on the bulkhead above the deck.
- Aircraft electrical system with cords for applying external electrical power to aircraft.
- Manually or automatically operated hangar door for securing access to the space and sealing off elements.
- Aircraft grounds that provide a 10ohm or less point to ground and discharge stray voltage are located on a pattern or grid through the hangar deck.
Hangar protection requirements for the protection of high value aircraft are:
- A low level AFFF system with low profile nozzles designed for a high degree of reliability and low maintenance requirements.
- A closed head water only overhead sprinkler system designed to protect the building and provide cooling to adjacent aircraft.
- Optical detection system to activate the low level AFFF system.
- Appropriate drainage systems to limit any spill pool size and contain AFFF.
- Draft curtains, to prevent cooling of the sprinkler heads, allowing earlier detection of heat sources.
The Estimated cost for a false activation would be in excess of $80,000 due to the following:
- Damage to aircraft
- Cost to recharge the system
- Cost of run-off retention
- Cost of AFFF removal
- Associated manpower expenses
Which aircraft carrier has the largest hangers?
CVN-they are 110ft wide by 685 feet long with 25 feet of overhead clearance encompassing 1.4 acres of maintenance and storage space. The hangar bays can hold more than 60 aircraft as well as spare jet engine, fuel tanks, and other heavy equipment. These hangars have divisional doors that can be closed in approximately 18 seconds and isolate the hangar bays into three separate bays to prevent the spread of fire. Hangar bay one and two have aircraft elevators on the starboard side and hangar bay three has aircraft elevators mounted on both the port and starboard side for moving aircraft, large support equipment, and essential supplies to the flight deck.
The hangar bays have AFFF fire protection installed in the overhead like their shore counterparts. Located on the port and starboard bulkheads are the portable fire extinguishing equipment, aircraft external power cables, high pressure air connections, and various ship specific systems.
What does NATOPS stand for?
Naval Air Training Operating Procedures