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216 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What are the four irreversible enzymes in glycolysis?
|
1. hexokinase/glucokinase
2. phosphofructokinase-1 3. pyruvate kinase 4. pyruvate dehydrogenase |
|
What is the rate-limiting step in glycolysis?
|
Conversion of Fructose-6-phosphate into Fructose-1,6 BP via phosphofructokinase 1
|
|
What factor negatively inhibits hexokinase in glycolysis?
|
Glucose-6-Phosphate
|
|
What factors (2) negatively inhibit PFK-1 in glycolysis?
|
1. ATP
2. citrate |
|
What factors (2) positivcely affect PFK-1 in glycolysis?
|
1. AMP
2. fructose-2,6-BP |
|
What factors (2) NEGATIVELY inhibit pyruvate kinase in glycolysis?
|
1. ATP
2. alanine |
|
What factor positively affects pyruvate kinase in glycolysis?
|
fructose-1,6 BP
|
|
What factors (3) negatively inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase in glycolysis?
|
1. ATP
2. NADH 3. acetyl-Coa |
|
What enzymes (2) CONVERT D-glucose into Glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis?
|
1. hexokinase
2. gLucokinase (liver only) |
|
What enzyme CONVERTS PEP into pyruvate?
|
pyruvate kinase
|
|
What enzyme CONVERTS pyruvate into Acetyl-CoA
|
pyruvate dehydrogenase
|
|
What enzyme converts Fructose-6-P into Fructose-1,6-BP?
|
Phosphofructokinase (rate-limiting step)
|
|
What glycolytic enzyme deficiencies result in hemolytic anemia? (7)
|
1. hexokinase
2. glucose phosphate isomerase 3. aldolase 4. triosephosphate isomerase 5. phosphate glycerate kinase 6. enolase 7. pyruvate kinase |
|
Do RBCs possess mitochondria?
|
no: metabolize glucose anaerobically and thus depend solely on glycolysis
|
|
Order of enzymes in a phagolysosome that destroy bacteria in oxygen-dependent respiratory burst?
|
1. NADPH OXIDASE
2. SOD 3. MYELOPEROXIDASE |
|
What enzyme converts O2 into its free radical?
|
NADPH OXIDASE, using NADPH
|
|
What enzyme converts an O2 free radical into H2O2?
|
SOD
|
|
What enzyme converts H2O2 into HOCl free radical
|
myeloperoxidase, using a chloride anion
|
|
What enzyme converts GSH into GSSG?
|
catalase, via oxidation using H2O2
|
|
What enzyme converts NADPH into NADP+ using GSSG?
|
glutathione reductase, resulting in GSH and NADP+
|
|
What enzyme restores NADPH by converting G6P into 6-phosphogluconolactone?
|
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
|
|
A deficiency in what enzyme can cause chronic granulomatous disease?
|
NADPH OXIDASE DEFICIENCY --> CGD
|
|
How many enzymes does the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex contain?
|
3 enzymes
|
|
What are the 5 co-factors for the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex?
|
1. Pyrophosphate
2. FAD 3. NAD 4. CoA 5. Lipoic acid (First 4 B vitamins plus lipoic acid) |
|
From what is PyroPhosphate derived in the PDH complex?
|
1. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
2. TPP |
|
From what is FAD derived in the PDH complex?
|
Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
|
|
From what is NAD derived in the PDH complex?
|
Vitamin B3 (niacin)
|
|
From what is CoA derived in the PDH complex?
|
Vitamin B5 (pantothenate)
|
|
What is the overall reaction in the PDH complex?
|
pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA --> acetyl-CoA + CO2 + NADH
|
|
What three factors activate PDH during exercise?
|
1. increase in NAD+/NADH ratio
2. increase in ADP ratio 3. increase in Ca2+ |
|
PDH complex is similar to what other complex by having the same cofactors, similar substrate, and similar action?
|
PDH is similar to alpha-KG DH complex
|
|
What enzyme deficiency cause cause lactic acidosis?
|
PDH complex deficiency from a backup of pyruvate and alanine
|
|
Alcoholism with a Vitamin B1 deficiency can also cause what (besides Wernicke-Korsakoffe)?
|
PDH deficiency (B1 is a co-factor)
|
|
What are the findings in PDH complex deficiency?
|
neurologic deficits
|
|
What is the treatment for PDH complex deficiency?
|
1. increase intake of KETOGENIC nutrients (high fat content)
2. increase intake of LEUCINE and LYSINE |
|
What four items can pyruvate be converted into?
|
1. alanine
2. oxaloacetate 3. acetyl-Coa 4. lactate |
|
How can OAA be used after it is converted from pyruvate?
|
1. replenish TCA cycle
2. gluconeogenesis |
|
What enzyme converts pyruvate into alanine?
|
ALT
|
|
What enzyme converts pyruvate into OAA?
|
pyruvate carboxylase (using CO2 + ATP)
|
|
What enzyme converts pyruvate into Acetyl-CoA?
|
PDH (using NAD+ and releasing CO2)
|
|
What enzyme converts pyruvate into lactate in the cytosol?
|
LDH (using NADH)
|
|
What is the purpose of the Cori cycle?
|
Cori cycle transfers excess reducing equivalents from RBCs and muscle --> liver, allowing muscle to function anaerobically.
|
|
In the TCA cycle, what are the products per one acetyl CoA?
|
1. 3 NADH
2. 1 FADH2 3. 2 CO2 4. 1 GTP |
|
How many ATP are produced from a single acetyl-Coa in the TCA cycle?
|
12 ATP/acetyl-Coa in the TCA cycle
|
|
How many ATP are produced from a single glucose molecule in the TCA cycle?
|
24 ATP
|
|
In the TCA cycle, what are the products per one glucose molecule?
|
1. 6 NADH
2. 2 FADH2 3. 4 CO2 4. 2 GTP |
|
What enzyme converts pyruvate into Acetyl-Coa?
|
PDH in glycolysis
|
|
What three factors inhibit PDH?
|
1. ATP
2. Acetyl-Coa 3. NADH |
|
What factor inhibits Citrate synthase?
|
ATP
|
|
wWhat enzyme converts Acetyl-CoA + OAA --> citrate?
|
citrate synthase in the TCA cycle
|
|
What enzyme converts Isocitrate into alpha-KG?
|
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
|
|
What 2 factors negatively inhibit Isocitrate DH?
|
1. ATP
2. NADH |
|
What factor positively affects Isocitrate DH?
|
ADP
|
|
What two molecules are released in the conversion of Isocitrate into alpha-KG?
|
1. CO2
2. NADH |
|
what enzyme converts alpha-KG into Succinyl-CoA
|
alpha-KG DH
|
|
What two molecules are released in the conversion of alpha-KG into Succinyl CoA?
|
1. CO2
2. NADH |
|
What 3 factors negatively inhibit alpha-KG?
|
1. Succinyl-CoA
2. NADH 3. ATP |
|
What 2 molecules are released in the conversion of Succinyl-CoA --> Succinate?
|
1. GTP
2. CoA |
|
What molecule is released in the conversion of Succinate --> Fumarate?
|
FADH2
|
|
What molecule is released in the conversion of malate into OAA?
|
NADH
|
|
1 NADH yields how many ATP?
|
3 ATP per 1 NADH
|
|
1 FADH2 yields how many ATP?
|
2 ATP per 1 FADH2
|
|
Name 4 electron transport inhibitors:
|
1. rotenone
2. antimycin A 3. CN- 4. CO |
|
What is the end result of electron transport inhibition?
|
1. decrease in proton gradient
2. block of ATP synthesis |
|
What is an example of a mitochondrial ATPase inhibitor?
|
Oligomycin
|
|
The enzymes for gluconeogenesis are located in what organs only?
|
1. liver
2. kidney 3. intestinal epithelium |
|
Can muscle participate in gluconeogenesis?
|
NO
|
|
The pentose phosphate pathway (HMP Shunt) produces [...] from G6P for nucleotide synthesis
|
ribose-5-P
|
|
The Pentose Phosphate Pathway (HMP Shunt) produces [...] from [...] for FA and steroid biosynthesis and for maintaining reduced glutathione inside RBCs.
|
NADPH from NADP+
|
|
All rxns in the HMP Shunt ocur in the [...].
|
cytoplasm
|
|
[...] ATP is used or produced in the HMP Shunt.
|
NO
|
|
What are the organs involved in the HMP Shunt (Pentose Phosphate Pathway)?
|
1. lactating mammary glands
2. liver 3. adrenal cortex 4. all sites of FA or steroid synthesis |
|
[...] is the rate-limiting enzyme in the HMP shunt
|
G6PD
|
|
Hemolytic anemia is caused by a decrease in [...] in RBCs due to poor RBC defense against oxidizing agents.
|
NADPH
|
|
What are the oxidizing agents involved in hemolytic anemia due to a G6PD deficiency?
|
1. fava beans
2. sulfonamide 3. primaquine 4. Anti-TB drugs |
|
What are Heinz bodies?
|
altered H.emoglobin precipitates within RBCs
|
|
What is the inheritance pattern of G6PDH deficiency?
|
X-linked recessive
|
|
Glucose-6-Phosphate DH converts G6P and NADP+ into what?
|
1. 6-PG
2. NADPH |
|
Glutathion reductase converts NADPH and oxidized GS-SG into what?
|
1. NADP+
2. 2 GSH (reduced) |
|
Hydrogen peroxide reacts with what to produc GS-SG (oxidized) + 2 H2O?
|
2 GSH (reduced)
|
|
What enzyme is associated with Essential fructosuria?
|
Fructokinase
|
|
What enzyme is associated with Fructose intolerance?
|
Aldolase B
|
|
What is the end result of Fructose intolerance?
|
1. Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates
2. DECREASE in available phosphate 3. INHIBITION of GLYCOGENOLYSIS and GLUCONEOGENSIS |
|
What are the symptoms of hereditary aldolase B deficiency (Fructose intolerance)?
|
1. hypoglycemia
2. jaundice 3. cirrhosis 4. vomiting |
|
What is the treatment for Fructose intolerance?
|
1. DECREASE intake of fructose
2. DECREASE intake of sucrose (glucose + FRUCTOSE) |
|
Aldolase B converts Fructose-1-P into what 2 products?
|
1. DHAP
2. glyceraldehyde |
|
What enzyme converts Glyceraldehyde into Glyceraldehyde-3-P?
|
Triose kinase
|
|
What enzyme converts Galactose-1-P to Glucose-1-P?
|
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
|
|
Galactosemia is caused by the absence of what enzyme?
|
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
|
|
What are the symptoms of galactosemia?
|
1. cataracts
2. hepatosplenomegaly 3. mental retardation |
|
What is the treatment of galactolsemia?
|
1. EXCLUDE galactose
2. EXCLUDE LACTOSE (galactose + glucose) from diet |
|
What causes the symptoms of galactosemia?
|
accumulation of toxic substances (galactitol)
|
|
What enzyme converts UDP-galactose back into UDP-glucose?
|
4-epimerase
|
|
What is the mnemonic for all essential amino acids?
|
P.riV.aT.e T.I.M. H.A.L.L.
|
|
What are the glucogenic/ketogenic essential amino acids?
|
1. P.henylalanine
2. I.le 3. T.ryptophan "Gluco/ketogenic is the P.I.T.s" |
|
What are the Glucogenic essential amino acids?
|
1. M.ethionine
2. T.hreonine 3. V.aline 4. A.rginine 5. H.istidine "MTV? AH!" |
|
What essential amino acids are required during growth?
|
1. Arginine
2. Histidine both increase GH |
|
What basic amino acid has no net charge at body pH?
|
Histidine
|
|
What is the most basic AA?
|
Arginine
|
|
What 2 amino acids are found in histones?
|
1. Arginine
2. Lysine (both have an extra NH3 group) |
|
What is formed in the conversion of glutamate --> alpha-KG?
|
NADPH
|
|
The Urea Cycle degrades [...] into amino groups.
|
amino acids
|
|
What accounts for 90% of nitrogen in the urine?
|
Urea Cycle
|
|
In what organ does the Urea Cycle occur?
|
liver
|
|
In what organelle does carbamoyl phosphate incorporation occur?
|
mitochondria
|
|
Where do the remaining steps of the Urea Cycle occur, besides the mitochondria?
|
cytosol
|
|
What is released in the conversion of Arginine --> Ornithine?
|
Urea
|
|
Tryptophan is used to form what 3 things?
|
1. Niacin
2. Serotonin 3. Melatonin |
|
Glycine is used to form what?
|
glycine --> porphyrin --> heme
|
|
Arginine is used to form what?
|
1. Creatine
2. Urea 3. Nitric oxide |
|
In PKU, what constituents(2) are deficient?
|
1. phenylalanine hydroxylase
2. tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor |
|
What are the findings (5) in PKU?
|
1. MR
2. growth retardation 3. fair skin 4. eczema 5. musty body odor |
|
What is the R(x) for PKU?
|
1. DECREASE Phe
2. INCREASE Tyr in diet |
|
What are the 3 phenyllactones that accumulate in PKU?
|
1. phenylacetate
2. phenyllactate 3. phenylpyruvate |
|
What is the incidence of PKU?
|
1/10,000
|
|
What enzyme converts Phe --> Tyr?
|
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
|
|
What enzyme converts DHB --> THB and restores NADP+?
|
dihydropterin reductase
|
|
What are the 2 possible causes of albinism?
|
1. deficiency of TYROSINASE (inability to synthesize malanin from tyrosine)
2. Defective tyrosine transporters (DECREASE amounts of tyrosine and thus melanin) |
|
[...] can result from a lack of migration of neural crest cells
|
Albinism
|
|
Full-term neonate of uneventful delivery becomes mentally retarded and hyperactive and has a musty odor. What is the D(x)?
|
PKU
|
|
Stressed executive comes home from work, consumes 7 or 8 martinis in rapid succession before dinner, and becomes hypoglycemic. What is the mechanism?
|
NADH increase prevents gluconeogenesis by shunting pyruvate and OAA to lactate and malate.
|
|
2-year-old girl has an increase in abdominal girth, failure to thrive, and skin and hair depigmentation. What is the D(x)?
|
Kwashiorkor
|
|
Alcoholic develops a rash, diarrhea, and altered mental status. What is the vitamin deficiency?
|
Vitamin B3 (pellagra)
|
|
51-year-old man has black spots in his sclera and has noted that his urine turns black uon standing. What is the D(x)?
|
Akaptonuria
|
|
25-year-old male complains of severe chest pain and has xanthomas of his Achilles tendon. What is the disease, and where is the defect?
|
Familial hypercholesterolemia; LDL receptor.
|
|
What is the definition of UNAMBIGUOUS when describing the genetic code?
|
each codon specifies only 1 AA
|
|
What is the definition of Degenerate when describing the genetic code?
|
more than 1 codon may code for the same AA
|
|
Why organism does NOT have a commaless, nonoverlapping genetic code?
|
viruses
|
|
What are the EXCEPTIONS to a universal genetic code?
|
1. mitochondria
2. archaeobacteria 3. Mycoplasma 4. yeasts (some) |
|
[...] makes an RNA primer on which DNA polymerase III can initiate replication in PROKARYOTIC DNA replication.
|
Primase
|
|
[...] degrades the RNA primer in PROKARYOTIC DNA replication.
|
DNA polymerase I
|
|
DNA polymerase III has [...] synthesis and proofreads with [...] exonuclease
|
5'--> 3' synthesis; 3' --> 5' exonuclease (DNA polymerase III for PROKARYOTES)
|
|
In PROKARYOTIC DNA replication, DNA polymerase I excises the RNA primer with a [...] exonuclease
|
5' --> 3'
|
|
Where does replication begin for Eurkaryotic DNA polymerases?
|
consensus sequences of AT base pairs.
|
|
What is the function of Eukaryotic DNA polymerase alpha?
|
synthesize RNA PRIMERS
|
|
What is the function of Eukaryotic DNA polymerase beta?
|
LEADING-strand DNA
|
|
What is the function of Eukaryotic DNA polymerase gamma?
|
LAGGING-strand DNA
|
|
What is the function of Eukaryotic DNA polymerase delta?
|
MITOCHONDRIAL DNA
|
|
What is the function of Eukaryotic DNA polymerase epsilon?
|
DNA repair
|
|
X-rays can damage DNA, and a repair defect can cause what?
|
ataxia-telangiectasia
|
|
Radiation can damage DNA, and a repair defect can cause what?
|
Bloom's syndrome
|
|
Cross-linking agents can damage DNA, and a repair defect can cause what?
|
Fanconi's anemia
|
|
DNA, RNA, and protein are all synthesized in what direction?
|
5' --> 3'
|
|
AA's are linked [...] to [...]
|
N --> C
|
|
What are the types of RNA polymerases for EUKARYOTES?
|
1. RNA POLYMERASE I
2. RNA POLYMERASE II 3. RNA POLYMERASE III |
|
Do RNA polymerases have proofreading function?
|
NO
|
|
Alpha-amantin inhibits which RNA polymerase?
|
RNA polymerase II
|
|
Where does RNA polymerase II bind?
|
promotor site of DNA
|
|
In Prokaryotes, does RNA polymerase make all 3 kinds of RNA?
|
yes
|
|
What binds to a PROMOTOR site?
|
1. RNA polymerase
2. transcription factors (UPSTREAM FROM THE GENE) |
|
What binds to an ENHANCER site?
|
transcription factors
|
|
What binds to an OPERATOR?
|
repressors (a repressive operator)
|
|
Only [...] RNA is transported out of the nucleus
|
processed
|
|
The [...] the Km, the higher the affinity.
|
lower
|
|
The S phase of the cell cycle involves what?
|
Synthesis of DNA
|
|
The G0 phase in the cell cycle is a quiescent [...] phase
|
G1 phase
|
|
In the cell cycle, [...] is the shortest phase
|
mitosis
|
|
Most cells are in what phase?
|
Go
|
|
RER does what 2 things?f
|
1. synthesis of secretory (exported) proteins
2. N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins |
|
What are the major functions of the Golgi?
|
1. MODIFIES N-oligosaccharides on asparagiNe
2. ADDS O-oligosaccharides to serine and threOnine 3. sulfation of sugars on proteoglycans 4. sulfation of Tyrosine 5. ADDITION of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosomal proteins, which targets the protein to the lysosome. |
|
What are the symptoms of I-cell disease?
|
1. coarse facial features
2. restricted joint movement |
|
What are the 3 key features of microtubules?
|
1. helical
2. alpha + beta tubulin dimers (2 GTP bound each) 3. forms flagella, cilia, and mitotic spindles |
|
What are 5 drugs that act on microtubules?
|
1. Mebendazole/thiabendazole
2. Taxol 3. Griseofulvin 4. Vincristine/vinblastine 5. Colchicine |
|
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to a microtubule polymerization defect, resulting in a DECREASE in [...]
|
phagocytosis
|
|
What are the 2 key features of Cilia?
|
1. 9 + 2 arrangment of microtubules (9 doublets)
2. doublets linked by Dynein, an ATPase |
|
Kartagener's syndrome is due to a dynein arm defect, resulting in [...] cilia.
|
immotile cilia
|
|
What 2 components in the plasma cell membrane can INCREASE the melting temperature?
|
1. cholestrol
2. long saturated fatty acids |
|
Name 5 functions of Phosphatidylcholine:
|
1. RBCs
2. myelin 3. bile 4. surfactant (DiPalmitoyl Phosphatidyl Choline) 5. esterification of cholesterol (LCAT) |
|
Ouabain INHIBITS the Na+/K+ pump by binding to what?
|
K+ site
|
|
What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
|
collagen
|
|
What are the components of Type I collagen?
|
1. B.one
2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late-wound repair |
|
What are the components of Type II collagen?
|
1. C.artilage ("Type II: carTWOlage"); hyaline too
2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus |
|
What are the components of Type III collagen?
|
1. R.eticulin
2. skin 3. blood vessels 4. uterus 5. fetal tissue 6. granulation tissue |
|
What are the components of Type IV collagen?
|
1. B.asement membrane
2. basal lamina "Type IV: under the FLOOR (basement membrane)" |
|
What is the component of Type X collagen
|
epiphyseal plate
|
|
What is the mnemonic for the first four collagen types (I-IV)?
|
"B.e C.ool, R.ead B.ooks"
|
|
What is the 1st step in collagen synthesis INSIDE fibroblasts?
|
collagen alpha chains (PREPROCOLLAGEN) translated on RER--usually Gly-X-Y polypeptide (X and Y are proline, hydroxyproline, or hydroxylysine)
|
|
What is the 2nd step in collagen synthesis INSIDE fibroblasts?
|
ER--> hydroxylation of specific proline and lysine residues (requires vitamin C)
|
|
What is the 3rd step in collagen synthesis INSIDE fibroblasts?
|
Golgi --> glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain lysine residues and formation of PROCOLLAGEN(triple helix of 3 collagen alpha chains)
|
|
What is the 4th step in collagen synthesis INSIDE fibroblasts?
|
PROCOLLAGEN molecules are exocytosed into the extracellular space
|
|
What is the 5th step in collagen synthesis OUTSIDE fibroblasts?
|
PROCOLLAGEN peptidases cleave terminal regionals of PROCOLLAGEN, transforming PROCOLLAGEN into insoluble TROPOCOLLAGEN
|
|
What is the 6th and last step in colagen synthesis OUTSIDE fibroblasts?
|
staggered TROPOCOLLAGEN molecules are reinforced by covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-linkage (by lysyl oxidase) to make COLLAGEN FIBRILS
|
|
What are the 8 major points concerning Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
|
1. faulty collagen synthesis
2. hyper-extensible skin 3. easy bleeding/brusing 4. hypermobile joints 5. berry aneurysms 6. type III collagen (reticulin: blood vessels, skin) 7. mitral valve prolapse 8. CAN'T make COLLAGEN FIBRILS from TROPOCOLLAGEN! |
|
What are the 9 major points concerning OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA?
|
1. AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT (UNIQUE)
2. faulty collagen synthesis 3. brittle bone disease 4. translucency of CT over choroid (blue sclerae) 5. hearing loss: abnormal middle ear bones 6. lack of dentition 7. Type II OI: fatal 8. Indicence of OI: 1/10,000 9. CAN'T make PROCOLLAGEN from PREPROCOLLAGEN |
|
What three metabolic processes occur in the mitochondria?
|
1. B.eta-oxidation
2. A.cetyl-CoA production 3. K.rebs cycle |
|
What five metabolic processes occur in the cytoplasm?
|
1. glycolysis
2. FA synthesis 3. protein synthesis 4. steroid synthesis 5. HMP shunt |
|
What 2 metabolic processes occur in BOTH the mitochondria and cytoplasm?
|
1. H.eme synthesis
2. U.rea cycle 3. G.luconeogenesis "H.U.G. both the mitochondria and cytoplasm for their metabolism." |
|
A deficiency of what enzyme causes MILD galactosemia?
|
Galactokinase
|
|
A deficiency of what enzyme causes SEVERE galactosemia?
|
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
|
|
Galactose-1-phosphate --> Glucose-1-phosphate by what enzyme?
|
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
|
|
A deficiency of what enzyme causes Von Gierke's disease?
|
Glucose-6-phosphatase
|
|
Glucose-6-phosphate --> 6-phosphogluconolactone by what enzyme?
|
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
|
|
Hemolytic anemia is caused by a deficiency of what enzyme?
|
G6PD
|
|
Ribulose-5-phosphate --> fructose-6-phosphate by what enzyme?
|
transketolase
|
|
A deficiency of what enzyme causes ESSENTIAL fructosuria?
|
fructokinase
|
|
A deficiency of what enzyme causes fructose INTOLERANCE?
|
Aldolase B
|
|
F1P --> DHAP + Glyceraldehyde. What enzyme?
|
aldolase B
|
|
PEP --> pyruvate. What enzyme?
|
pyruvate kinase
|
|
Pyruvate --> Acetyl-CoA. What enzyme?
|
pyruvate dehydrogenase
|
|
Acetyl-CoA --> Malonyl-CoA. What cofactor?
|
biotin to tranfer CO2
|
|
HMG CoA --> mevalonate. What enzyme?
|
HMG-CoA reductase
|
|
pyruvate --> OAA. What enzyme?
|
pyruvate carboxylase
|
|
OAA --> PEP. What enzyme?
|
PEP carboxykinase
|
|
Acetyl-CoA + OAA --> citrate. What enzyme?
|
citrate synthase
|
|
alpha-KG --> Succinyl-CoA. What enzyme?
|
alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
|
|
Ornithine + Carbamoyl phosphate --> citrulline. What enzyme?
|
ornithine transcarbamylase
|
|
Aerobic metabolism of glucose --> 38 ATP via [...]
|
malate shuttle
|
|
Aerobic metabolism of glucose --> 36 ATP via [...]
|
G3P shuttle
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What are 2 activated ACYL carriers?
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1. coenzyme A
2. lipoamide |
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What is an activated CO2 carrier?
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biotin
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What is an activated 1-carbon unit carrier?
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tetrahydrofolate
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What is an activated carrier of aldehydes?
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TPP
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What is an activated carrier of choline?
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CDP-choline
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ATP + methionine --> SAM. using what cofactor?
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B12
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NADPH used in 3 processes:
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1. anabolic processes
2. respiratory burst 3. p-450 |
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What enzymes involve NADPH in respiratory burst?
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1. NADPH oxidase
2. glutathione reductase 3. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase |