- Shuffle
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Alphabetize
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Front First
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Both Sides
Toggle OnToggle Off
Front
How to study your flashcards.
Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key
Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key
H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key
PLAY BUTTON
PLAY BUTTON
203 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Vd (volume of distribution) equation
|
amount drug in body/plasma drug conc.
|
|
CL (clearance) equation
|
rate of elimination/plasma drug concentration
|
|
T 1/2 equation
|
0.7 X Vd (volume of distribution) / CL (clearance)
|
|
How many half lives does it take to reach 94% of steady state?
|
4 half lives
|
|
Loading dose equation
|
Cp (target plasma conc.) X Vd (volume of distribution) / F (bioavailability)
|
|
Maintenance dose equation
|
Cp (target plasma conc.) X CL (clearance) / F (bioavailability)
|
|
What does Zero order elimination mean? What are three notable drugs that do so?
|
Plama concentration of drug decreases linearly with time independent of drug concentration (PEA = Phenytoin, Ethanol, Aspirin)
|
|
What does First order elimination mean?
|
Plasma concentration of drug decreases exponentially with time dependent on drug concentration (constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time)
|
|
Does acidic or basic environment trap weak acids? What would you use to treat weak acid drug OD?
|
Basic environment traps weak acids. Treat a weak acid drug OD with bicarbonate.
|
|
Does acidic or basic environment trap weak bases? What would you use to treat weak base drug OD?
|
Acidic environment traps weak bases. Treat a weak acid drug OD with ammonium chloride.
|
|
What is the difference between phase I and phase II metabolism?
|
Phase I (p450s) = slight polarized but often still active; Phase II (conjugation) = very polarized and inactive metabolites out in urin
|
|
Does a competative or non-competative agonist increase EC50?
|
A competative agonist does and thus decreases potency. A non-competative decreases efficacy.
|
|
Does a full agonist or partial agonist have a higher potency?
|
It depends. A partial agonist has less EFFICACY (maximal effect) than a full agoinst, but potency is an independent factor. Thus a partial agonist could have greater/equal/less potency than a full agonist.
|
|
What is the difference between Nicotinic and Muscarinic Ach receptor mechanisms?
|
Nicotinic are ligant gated Na/K channels; Muscarinic are G protein coupled
|
|
What Ach receptor (Nicotinic or Muscarinic) is found in all synapses in direct connection to the CNS?
|
Nicotinic (ligand gated Na/K channels) Ach receptors
|
|
What final receptor type connects to ALL parasympathetic (cardiac, smooth m., gland cells, and nerve) terminals?
|
Muscarinic (G protein coupled) receptors
|
|
What receptor type connects postganglionic sympathetic nerves to sweat glands?
|
Muscarinic (G protein coupled) receptors
|
|
What receptor type connects postganglionic sympathetic nerves to cardiac, smooth m., gland cells, and nerve terminals?
|
NE alpha and beta receptors
|
|
What receptor type postganglionic sympathetic nerves to renal vascular smooth m.?
|
D1 receptors
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the alpha 1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gq; increases vascular smooth m. contraction
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the alpha 2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gi; decreases sympathetic outflow and decreases insulin release
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the beta 1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gs; increases: HR and contractility, renin release, and lipolysis; also maintains aqueous humor formation in eye
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the beta 2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gs; vasodilation, bronchodilation; increase: HR and contractility, lipolysis, glucagon release
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the M1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gq; CNS and ENS (enteric nervous system)
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the M2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gi; decreases HR and contractility
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the M3 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gq; increases: exocrine gland secretions, gut peristalsis, and bladder contraction
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the D1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gs; relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the D2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gi; modulates transmitter release especially in brain
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the H1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gq; increases: respiratory mucous, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, and pain
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the H2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gs; increases gastric acid production
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the V1 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gq; increases vascular smooth m. contraction
|
|
What G protein class is associated with the V2 receptor? What are the receptors functions?
|
Gs; increases H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
|
|
What receptors are Gq mediated?
|
HAVe 1 M&M = H1, alpha1, V1, M1, M3
|
|
What receptors are Gs mediated?
|
Beta1, Beta2, D1, H2, V2
|
|
What receptors are Gi mediated?
|
MAD 2s = M2, alpha2, D2
|
|
What does hemicholinium do?
|
blocks choline uptake into cholinergic presynaptic neuron = cant make Ach
|
|
What does Metyrosine do?
|
blocks tyrosine uptake into Noradrenergic presynaptic neuron = cant make Dopamine or NE
|
|
What does Reserpine do?
|
blocks dopamine uptake into presynaptic vessicle
|
|
What does Guanethidine do?
|
blocks pressynaptic NE vessicle release (somewhat like botulinum works with cholinergic synapse)
|
|
What major effect does amphetamine have on presynapse?
|
enhances presynaptic NE vessicle release
|
|
What major effect do Cocaine and TCA have on presynapse?
|
block NE reuptake into presynaptic vessicle
|
|
What presynaptic NE receptors decrease NE release?
|
alpha 2 and M2 receptors
|
|
What presynaptic NE receptor increases NE release?
|
AII (angiotensin II receptor)
|
|
What are the signs/symptoms of lead poisoning?
|
Lead Lines on gingivae and on epiphyses of long bones on x-ray. Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling. Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia. Drops - wrist and food drop.
|
|
What is the first line tx of lead poisoning?
|
Dimercapol and EDTA. Succimer for kids
|
|
What is the mechanism of iron poisoning?
|
Cell death due to peroxidation of membrane lipids.
|
|
Symptoms of iron poisoning?
|
Acute- gastric bleeding. Chronic - metabolic acidosis, scarring leading to GI obstruction.
|
|
What drug has atropine-like side effects?
|
Tricyclics
|
|
What drugs cause coronary vasospasm?
|
cocaine, sumatriptan
|
|
What drugs cause cutaneous flushing?
|
niacin, Ca2+ blockers, adenosine, vancomycin
|
|
What drugs cause cardiomyopathy?
|
doxorubicin (Adriamycin), daunorubicin
|
|
What drugs cause Torsades des pointes?
|
Class III (sotalol), class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics, cisapride
|
|
Which drugs cause agranulocytosis?
|
clozapine, carbamazepine, cochicine, propylthiouracil, methimazole
|
|
Which drugs cause aplasic anemia?
|
chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouricil, methimazole
|
|
Which drugs cause direct Coombs- positive hemolytic anemia?
|
methyldopa
|
|
What drug causes Gray Baby Syndrome?
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
Which drugs cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient pts?
|
isoniazid, sulfonamides, primaquine, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin
|
|
Which drugs cause thrombotic complications?
|
OCPs (estrogens and progestins)
|
|
Which drugs cause cough?
|
ACE inhibitors
|
|
Which drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis?
|
bleomycin, busulfan, amiodarone
|
|
Which drugs cause acute hepatitis?
|
macrolides
|
|
Which drugs cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis?
|
halothane, valproic acid, acetaminophen, amanita phalloides
|
|
What drug causes hepatitis?
|
INH
|
|
Which drugs cause pseudomembranous colitis?
|
clindamycin, ampicillin
|
|
Which drugs cause adrenocortical insufficiency?
|
glucocorticoid withdrawal
|
|
Which drugs cause gynecomastia?
|
spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use
|
|
Which drugs cause hot flashes?
|
tamoxifen, clomiphene
|
|
Which drugs cause gingival hyperplasia
|
phenytoin
|
|
Which drugs cause gout?
|
furosemide, thiazides
|
|
Which drugs cause osteoporosis?
|
corticosteroids, heparin
|
|
Which drugs cause photosensitivity?
|
sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracycline (SAT for a photo)
|
|
Which drugs cause SLE-like syndrome?
|
hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin
|
|
Which drugs cause tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage in kids?
|
Fluoroquinolones
|
|
Which drugs cause Fanconi's syndrome?
|
expired tetracyclines
|
|
Which drugs cause interstitial nephritis?
|
methicillin, NSAIDS
|
|
Which drugs cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
|
cyclophosphamide, ifosfaminde
|
|
Which drugs cause cinchonism?
|
quinidine, quinine
|
|
Which drugs cause Diabetes insipidus?
|
lithium, demeclocycline
|
|
Which drugs cause seizures?
|
bupropion, imipenem/cilastatin
|
|
Which drugs cause tardive dyskinesia?
|
antipsychotics
|
|
Which drugs cause disulfiram-like reaction?
|
metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, preocarbazine, 1st-generation sulfonylureas
|
|
Which drugs cause nephrotoxicity/neurotoxicity?
|
polymyxins
|
|
Which drugs cause nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity?
|
aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cisplatin
|
|
Which drugs induce P-450 interactions?
|
quinidine, barbiturates, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine, st. john's wort
|
|
Which drugs inhibit P-450 interactions?
|
isoniazid, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ketoconazole, erythromycin, grapefruit juice
|
|
What inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase?
|
fomepizole
|
|
What inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?
|
disulfiram
|
|
What effects does acetaldehyde have on the body?
|
nausea, vomiting, headache, hypotension
|
|
Which drugs can lead to allergies in sulfa-allergic patients?
|
celecoxib, furosemide, thiazides, TMP-SMX, sulfonyureas, sulfasalazine
|
|
What is the clinical use of Bethanechol?
|
post op and neurogenic ileus, urinary retention
|
|
what is the action of Bethanochol?
|
activates bowel and blader smooth muscle; resistant to AChE
|
|
what is the clinical use of carbachol?
|
glaucoma, pupillary contraction, release of intraocular pressure
|
|
what is the clinical use of pilocarpine?
|
potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva
|
|
what is the action of pilocarpine?
|
contracts ciliary muscle of eye, pupillary shincter; resistant to AChE
|
|
what is the clinical use of methacholine?
|
challenge test for dx of asthma
|
|
what is the action of methacholine?
|
stimulate muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled
|
|
what do bethanechol, carbachol, pilocarpine, methacholine have in common?
|
all are cholinomimetic agents and all are direct agonists
|
|
what is the clinical use of neostigmine?
|
post op and neurogenic ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of post op neuromuscular block
|
|
what is the action of neostigmine?
|
increase endogenous Ach, no CNS penetration
|
|
what is the clinical use of pyridostigmine?
|
myasthenia gravis (long acting)
|
|
what is the action of pyridostigmine?
|
increase endogenous Ach, no CNS penetration
|
|
what is the clincial use of edrophonium?
|
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (very short acting)
|
|
what is the action of edrophonium?
|
increase endogenous Ach
|
|
what is the clinical use of physostigmine?
|
glaucoma (crosses blood brain barrier into CNS), atropine overdose
|
|
what is the action of physostigmine?
|
increase endogenous Ach
|
|
what is the clinical use of echothiophate?
|
glaucoma
|
|
what is the action of echothiophate?
|
increase endogenous Ach
|
|
what do neostigmine, pyridostigmine, edrophonium, physostigmine, and echothiophate all have in common?
|
they are all indirect agonists/anticholinesterases
|
|
Your patient has just come in because he was poisoned with cholinesterase inhibitors. What symptoms would you expect?
|
diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, skeletal/CNS excitation, lacrimation, sweating, salivation, abdominal cramping
|
|
Your patient has just come in because he was poisoned with cholinesterase inhibitors. What do you give them for an antidote?
|
atropine (muscarinic antagonist) and pralidoxime (antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase)
|
|
Atropine/homatropine/tropicamide: what organ system do these work on and what are they used for?
|
organ system: eye; application: produce mydriasis and cycloplegia
|
|
Benztropine: what organ system does it work on and what is it used for?
|
organ system: CNS; application: Parkinson's
|
|
Scopolamine: what organ system does it work on and what is it used for?
|
organ system: CNS; application: Motion sickness
|
|
Ipratropium: what organ system does it work on and what is it used for?
|
organ system: respiratory; application: asthma, COPD
|
|
Oxybutynin/glycopyrrolate: what organ system do these work on and what are they used for?
|
organ system: GU; application: decrease urgency in mild cystitis, reduce bladder spasms
|
|
Methoscopolamine/pirenzepine/propantheline: what organ system do these work on and what are they used for?
|
organ system: GI; application: peptic ulcer treatment
|
|
what does Atropine do in the following organ systems? (eye, airway, stomach, gut, bladder)
|
eye: increase pupil dilation, cycloplegia; airway: decrease secretions; stomach: decrease acid secretion; gut: decrease motility; bladder: decrease urgency
|
|
what are the symptoms of atropine toxicity?
|
hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter; increased body temp, rapid pulse, dry mouth, dry flushed skin, cycloplegia, constipation, disorientation
|
|
what can atropine cause in the following patients: elderly, men with prostate hyperplasia, infants?
|
acute angle glaucoma in elderly, urinary retention in men w/ prostate hyperplasia, hyperthermia in infants
|
|
what is the mechinism of hexamethonium?
|
nicotinic antagonist, ganglionic blocker
|
|
what is the clinical use of hexamethonium?
|
experimental models to prevent vagal reflex response to changes in bp (prevents reflex bradycardia caused by NE)
|
|
what are the symptoms of hexamethonium toxicity?
|
severe orthostatic hypotension, blurred vision, constipation, sex dysfunction
|
|
epinephrine is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
a1, a2, B1, B2
|
|
what is epinephrine used for?
|
anaphylaxis, glaucoma (open angle), asthma, hypotension
|
|
NE is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
a1, a2>B1
|
|
what is NE used for?
|
hypotension (but decreases renal perfusion)
|
|
Isoproterenol is a sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
B1 = B2
|
|
what is isoproterenol used for?
|
AV block
|
|
Dopamine is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
D1=D2>B>a (inotropic and chronotropic)
|
|
what is dopamine used for?
|
shock (increases renal perfusion), heart failure
|
|
Dobutamine is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
B1>B2 (inotropic but NOT chronotropic)
|
|
what is dobutamine used for?
|
shock, heart failure, cardiac stress testing
|
|
phenylephrine is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
a1>a2
|
|
what is phenylephrine used for?
|
pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, nasal decongestion
|
|
albuterol/terbutaline are direct sympathomemetics to which receptors?
|
B2>B1
|
|
what is albuterol and terbutaline used for?
|
albuterol: acute asthma; terbutaline: reduces premature uterine contractions
|
|
Ritodrine is a direct sympathomemetic to which receptors?
|
B2
|
|
what is ritodrine used for?
|
reduces premature uterine contractions
|
|
what is the mechinism of amphetamine?
|
indirect sympathomemetic agonist, releases stored catecholamines
|
|
what is amphetamine used for?
|
narcolepsy, obesity, ADD
|
|
what is the mechinism of ephedrine?
|
indirect sympathomemetic agonist, releases stored catecholamines
|
|
what is ephedrine used for?
|
nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension
|
|
what is the mechinism of cocaine?
|
indirect sympathomemetic agonist, uptake inhibitory
|
|
what is cocaine used for?
|
vasoconstriction and local anesthesia
|
|
what is the mechinism of clonidine/alpha methyldopa?
|
centrally acting a2 agonists, decrease central adrenergic outflow
|
|
what are clonidine and alpha methyldopa used for?
|
HTN (esp with renal dz because there is no decrease in blood flow to kidneys)
|
|
what is the mechanism for metaproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline?
|
B2 agonists
|
|
what is the difference between phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine?
|
phenoxybenzamine is irreversible and phentolamine is reversible
|
|
what are phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine used for?
|
pheochromocytoma
|
|
what are the symptoms of phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine toxicity?
|
orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
|
|
what receptors do phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine block?
|
both a1 and a2 (non-selective)
|
|
what is the mechinism of prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin?
|
block a1 receptors
|
|
what are prazosin, terazosin and doxazosin used for?
|
HTN, urinary retention in BPH
|
|
what are the symptoms of prazosin/terazosin/doxazosin toxicity?
|
1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache
|
|
what is the mechanism for mirtazapine?
|
a2 blocker
|
|
what is mirtazapine used for?
|
depression
|
|
what are the symptoms of mirtazapine toxicity?
|
sedation, increased serum cholesterol, increased appetite
|
|
What are the six uses of B-blockers?
|
HTN, Angina pectoris, MI, Supraventricular tachycardia, CHF, Glaucoma
|
|
what is the effect of B-blockers on HTN?
|
decreases CO, decreases renin secretion
|
|
what is the effect of B-blockers on angina pectoris?
|
decreases HR and contractility, results in decreased oxygen consumption
|
|
what is the effect of B-blockers on MI?
|
decrease mortality
|
|
what is the effect of B-blockers (propanolol, esmolol) on supraventricular tachycardia?
|
decreases AV conduction velocity (class II antiarrhythmics)
|
|
what is the effect of B-blockers on CHF?
|
slows progression of chronic failure
|
|
what is the effect of B-blocker on Glaucoma (timolol)?
|
decreases secretion of aqueous humor
|
|
what are the symptoms of B-blocker toxicity?
|
impotence, exacerbation of asthma, CV adverse effects (bradycardia, AV block, CHF), CNS adverse effects (sedation, sleep alterations)
|
|
which types of patients do you want to refrain from giving B-Blockers?
|
Diabetics
|
|
which receptors do propranolol, timolol, and labetalol work on?
|
nonselective antagonists of B1 and B2
|
|
which receptors do Esmolol, atenolol, and metoprolol work on?
|
B1 selective antagonist
|
|
which receptors do carvedilol and labetalol work on?
|
nonselective a and B antagonists
|
|
which receptors do pindolol and acebutolo work on?
|
partial B agonists
|
|
what is the antidote for acetaminophen?
|
N-acteylcysteine
|
|
what is the antidote for salicylates?
|
NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
|
|
what is the antidote for amphetamines?
|
NH4CL (acidify urine)
|
|
what is the antidote for anticholinesterases and organophosphates?
|
atropine, pralidoxime
|
|
what is the antidote for antimuscarinic and anticholinergic agents?
|
physostigmine salicylate
|
|
what is the antidote for B-Blockers?
|
glucagon
|
|
what is the antidote for digitalis?
|
stop digitalis, normalize K+, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg2+
|
|
what is the antidote for iron?
|
deferoxamine
|
|
what is the antidote for lead?
|
CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
|
|
what is the antidote for mercury, arsenic, and gold?
|
dimercaprol (BAL), succimer
|
|
what is the antidote for copper, arsenic, gold?
|
penicillamine
|
|
what is the antidote for cyanide?
|
nitrite, hydroxocobalamin, thiosulfate
|
|
what is the antidote for methemoglobin?
|
methylene blue, vitamin C
|
|
what is the antidote for carbon monoxide?
|
100% oxygen, hyerbaric oxygen
|
|
what is the antidote for methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
|
ethanol, dialysis, fomepizole
|
|
what is the antidote for opioids?
|
naloxone/naltrexone
|
|
what is the antidote for benzodiazepines?
|
flumazenil
|
|
what is the antidote for TCAs?
|
NaHCO3 (serum alkalinization)
|
|
what is the antidote for Heparin?
|
protamine
|
|
what is the antidote for warfarin?
|
vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma
|
|
what is the antidote for tPA, streptokinase?
|
aminocaproic acid
|
|
what is the antidote for theophylline?
|
B-Blocker
|
|
28-y/o chemist presents with MPTP exposure (used in chemical industry and herbicides).
|
DA depleted=Parkinson-like symptoms (neurotoxic to DA-ergic neurons in Substancia Nigra).
|
|
Woman taking tetracycline develops photosensitivity. Other symptoms? Significant drug characteristics?
|
Photosensitive rash, enterocolitis. Binds Ca2+: teeth staining (kids), decreased absorption if taken with antacids or dairy products.
|
|
Black man develops hemolytic anemia after visiting Africa (he received prophylaxis). What prophylaxis did he use for malaria? Mechanism causing anemia?
|
Prophylaxis: quinine + doxycycline/atorvaquone + proguanil (Africa=Chloroquine-resistant area). Mechanism: G6PD deficiency (race)-->bite cells (RBCs), dark urine for 1 week, resolves on own.
|
|
Farmer presents with dyspnea, salivation, miosis, diarrhea, cramping, and blurred vision. Causative agent? Mechanism? Treatment?
|
Insecticide poisoning (organophosphates, SLUDGE syndrome). Mech: AChE inhibition-->parasympathetic over-activation. Treat: Atropine (M blocker)/Pralidoxime (cleaves AChE phosphorylated (by insecticide) active site.
|
|
27-y/o woman with Hx of psychiatric illness presents with urinary retention due to a neuroleptic. How to treat?
|
Bethanechol (muscarinic (M3) receptor agonist)
|
|
Recent kidney transplant recipient currently on cyclosporine requires an antifungal agent for candidiasis. Which antifungal would result in toxicity?
|
Ketoconazole (not used as much-replaced with more effective itra- and fluconazole).
|
|
Patient is on carbamazepine: What does this drug treat? Mechanism? What routine work-up should always be done? Why?
|
Treats: partial seizures (+ grand mals). Mechanism: blocks Na+ channels. Work-up: liver function tests, because it strongly induces liver enzymes.
|
|
23-y/o woman taking rifampin for TB gets pregnant despite being on birth control. Why?
|
Rifampin induces CYP 3A4, which accelerated the (hepatic) metabolism of her contraceptives.
|
|
Enzyme kinetics: What is the relationship between Kd and affinity (of ligand for its receptor)?
|
Inversely proportional.
|
|
Enzyme kinetics: Given k1 [L] [R] = k2 [LR], Kd=? What type of L<->R interactions determine k1 vs. k2?
|
Kd=k2/k1=[L] [R]/[LR]. k1 determined by ionic (charge-charge), while k2 (dissociation) is determined by Van der Waals (cumulative hydrophobic) interations.
|
|
Enzyme kinetics: Competitive vs. Non- Inhibitors in terms of (1) similarity to substrate (S), (2) ability to be overcome by high [S], (3) effect on Vmax (4) effect on Kd?
|
Competitive inhibitors: similar to S, can be overcome by high [S] (bind same/active site), do not change Vmax, increase Kd. Non-competitive: dissimilar, etc., decrease Vmax, do not change Kd.
|
