- Shuffle
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Alphabetize
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Front First
Toggle OnToggle Off
- Both Sides
Toggle OnToggle Off
Front
How to study your flashcards.
Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key
Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key
H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
PLAY BUTTON
![]()
89 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Required Return
|
real rate of return + expected inflation premium + risk premium for investment
|
|
Risk Free Rate
|
real rate of return + Expected inflation premium
- most commonly a 3-month US T-bill |
|
Risk premium
|
Additional return an investor requires on an investment to compensate for higher risks based upon issue and issuer characteristics
|
|
Holding period
|
the period of time over which an investor wishes to measure the return on an investment vehicle
|
|
paper return
|
return that has been achieved but not yet realized
|
|
holding period return
|
current income during period + capital gains (loss) during period
______________________________ beginning investment value |
|
reinvestment rate
|
rate of return earned on interest or other income received from an investment over its investment horizon.
|
|
fully compounded rate of return
|
the rate of return that includes interest earned on interest.
|
|
risk-return tradeoff
|
relationship between risk and return, in which investments with more risk should provide higher returns, and vice versa
|
|
business risk
|
degree of uncertainty associated with an investment’s earnings and the investment’s ability to pay the returns owed to investors.
|
|
financial risk
|
degree of uncertainty of payment resulting from a firm’s mix of debt and equity; the larger the proportion of debt financing, the greater this risk.
- • debt financing obligates the firm to make interest payments as well as to repay the debt, thus increasing risk |
|
purchasing power risk
|
chance that changing price levels (inflation or deflation) will adversely affect investment returns.
- investments whose values move with general price levels have low purchasing power risk and are most profitable during periods of rising prices - and vice versa |
|
interest rate risk
|
chance that changes in interest rates will adversely affect a security’s value.
- securities that offer purchases a fixed periodic return are affected by interest rate risk. |
|
liquidity risk
|
risk of not being able to liquidate an investment conveniently and at a reasonable price.
- investment vehicles traded in THIN markets, where demand and supply are small, tend to be less liquid than those traded in BROAD markets. |
|
tax risk
|
chance that Congress will make unfavorable changes in tax laws, driving down the after-tax returns and market values of certain investments.
|
|
market risk
|
risk of decline in investment returns because of market factors independent of the given investment.
- risk is reflected in the price volatility of a security – th |
|
event risk
|
unexpected event that has a significant and unusually immediate effect on the underlying value of an investment.
|
|
standard deviation
|
a statistic used to measure the dispersion (variation) of returns around an asset’s average or expected return
- the higher the number the greater the risk |
|
Standard deviation calculation
|
sq root of the sum of return for outcome minus the expected return all over the total number of outcomes minus 1
|
|
coefficient of variation
|
measures the relative dispersion of an asset’s returns; it is useful in comparing the risk of assets with differing average or expected returns
- the higher the number the greater the risk |
|
stock income
|
take into account both price changes and dividend income
|
|
routine decline
|
drop of 5% or more in one of the major market indexes, like the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)
|
|
correction
|
a drop of 10% or more in one of the major market indexes
|
|
bear market
|
drop of 20% or more in one of the major market indexes
|
|
rights offering
|
offering of a new issue of stock to existing stockholders, who may purchase new shares in proportion to their current ownership
|
|
stock spin-off
|
conversion of one of a firm’s subsidiaries to a stand-alone company by distribution of stock in the new company to existing shareholders
|
|
classified common stock
|
common stock issued in different classes, each of which offers different privileges and benefits to its holders
|
|
Book value
|
- the amount of stockholders’ equity
- The difference between the company’s assets minus the company’s liabilities and preferred stock |
|
market value
|
the current price of the stock in the stock market
|
|
market capitalization
|
the overall current value of the company in the stock market
Total number of shares outstanding multiplied by the market value per share |
|
investment value
|
the amount that investors believe the stock should be trading for, or what they think it’s worth
|
|
date of record
|
date on which an investor must be a registered shareholder to be entitled to receive a divident
|
|
ex-dividend date
|
3 business days up to the date of record
- determines whether is an official shareholder and can receive dividends - if you buy a share AFTER this date, the previous owner still gets the dividend |
|
earnings per share
|
the amount of annual earnings available to common stockholders, stated on a per-share basis
|
|
EPS calculation
|
net profit after taxes - pref. dividends
______________________________ # of common stock outstanding |
|
dividend yield
|
measure to relate dividends to share price on a percentage basis
- calculated by taking dividend divided by stock price |
|
dividend payout ratio
|
the portion of earnings per share (EPS) that a firm pays out as dividends
calculated by dividing DPS over EPS |
|
stock dividend
|
payment of a dividend in the form of additional shares of stock
|
|
dividend reinvestment plans
|
plans where cash dividends are automatically reinvested into additional shares of the firm’s common stock
|
|
blue-chips stocks
|
financially strong, high-quality stocks with long and stable records of earnings and dividends
|
|
income stocks
|
stocks with long and sustained records of paying higher-than average dividends
- some pay high dividends because of limited growth potential |
|
growth stocks
|
stocks that experience high rates of growth in operations and earnings
|
|
tech stocks
|
stocks representing the technology sector of the market
- difficult to put value on due to erractic or no earnings |
|
speculative stocks
|
stocks that offer potential for substantial price appreciation, usually due to some special situation such as a new product
|
|
cyclical stocks
|
stocks whose earnings and overall market performance are closely linked to the general state of the economy
|
|
defensive stocks
|
stocks that tend to hold their value, and even do well, when the economy starts to falter
- Products are staples that people use in good times and bad times, such as electricity, beverages, foods and drugs |
|
call risk
|
risk that a bond will be “called” (retired) before its scheduled maturity date
|
|
coupon
|
amount of annual interest income
|
|
current yield
|
measure of the annual interest income a bond provides relative to its current market price
|
|
principal
|
amount of capital that must be repaid at maturity
|
|
note
|
debt security originally issued with a maturity from 2 to 10 years
|
|
secured debt
|
backed by pledged collateral
|
|
senior bonds
|
backed by legal claim to specific assets
|
|
mortgage bonds
|
backed by real estate.
|
|
collateral trust
|
backed by securities (stocks, bonds) held in trust by a third party
|
|
income bond
|
requires interest to be paid only after a specific amount of income has been earned
|
|
Treasury bond
|
- Treasury notes: mature in 2 to 10 years
- Treasury bills: mature in 20 and 30 years - considered risk free - exempt from state and local taxes |
|
Treasury inflation-indexed obligations
|
type of treasury security that provides protection against inflation by adjusting investor returns for the annual rate of inflation.
|
|
agency bonds
|
- debt securities issued by various agencies and orgs of the US gov't.
- ex GNMA, FNMA, FHLC - usually provide yields that are comfortably above the market rates for treasuries |
|
municipal bonds
|
- debt securities issued by states, counties, cities and other political subdivision
- free from federal income tax |
|
taxable equivalent yield
|
return a fully taxable bond would have to provide to match the after-tax return of a lower-yielding, tax-free municipal bond
|
|
zero-coupon bonds
|
bonds with no coupons hat are sold at a deep discount from par value.
- Interest must be reported as it is accrued for tax purposes, even though no interest is actually received. |
|
mortgage-backed bond
|
debt issue secured by a pool of home mortgages
- Principal and interest are paid monthly - Self-liquidating investment since portion of principal is received each month |
|
collateralized mortgage obligation
|
mortgage-backed bond whose holders are divided into classes based on the length of investment desired; principal is channeled to investors in order of maturity with short-term classes first.
|
|
asset-backed securities
|
backed by a pool of bank loans, leases, and other assets
|
|
dollar-denominated bonds
|
Bonds issued by foreign governments or corporations and denominated in dollars
|
|
yankee bonds
|
registered with the SEC and issued and traded in U.S.
|
|
eurodollar bonds
|
not registered with the SEC and are issued and traded outside of the U.S.
|
|
convertible security
|
Fixed-income security that allows holder to convert the security into a specified number of shares of the issuing company’s common stock
|
|
mutual fund
|
an investment company that invests its shareholders’ money in a diversified portfolio of securities
|
|
open-end investment company
|
Investors buy and sell shares directly with the mutual fund company without a secondary market
|
|
net-asset value
|
underlying value of a share of stock in a particular mutual fund.
- NAV = total market value of all assets held by the fund, less any liability and dividing this amount by the# of shares outstanding. |
|
exchange-traded funds
|
A basket of securities designed to track a specific market index
|
|
load fund
|
mutual fund that charges a commission when shares are bought
|
|
no-load fund
|
mutual fund that does not charge a commission when shares are bought
|
|
back-end load
|
commission charged on the sale of shares in a mutual fund
|
|
12-b(1) fee
|
fee charged by some mutual funds to cover management and other operating costs; amounts to as much as 1% of the average net assets; can be charged regardless of the performance of the fund
|
|
taxes on mutual funds
|
Mutual funds do not pay taxes if income and capital gains are passed on to shareholders
Shareholders are taxed on their share of income and capital gains annually |
|
real estatel investment trust
|
Closed-end investment company that invests in mortgages and various types of real estate investments
|
|
Hedge Funds
|
unregulated investment, vehicle that invest money for a select group of high-net worth people.
|
|
growth fund
|
primary goals are capital gains and long-term growth
- little or no dividends |
|
aggressive growth fund
|
highly speculative mutual fund that seeks large profits from capital gains
|
|
value funds
|
seeks stocks that are undervalued in the markete
|
|
equity-income fund
|
emphasizes current income and capital preservation
|
|
balanced fund
|
generates a balanced return of both current income and long-term capital gains
- used both stocks and bond |
|
growth-and-income funds
|
seeks both long-term growth and current income, with primary emphasis on capital gains
- only use stocks |
|
bond funds
|
invests in various kinds and grades of bonds, with income as primary objective
|
|
money market funds
|
invests in short-term money market instruments
|
|
index fund
|
buys and holds a portfolio of stocks (or bonds) equivalent to those in a specific market index
|