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436 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What are the three components of the carotid sheath?
|
VAN
Internal jugular vein (lateral) Common carotid artery (medial) Vagus nerve (posterior) |
|
List the coronary arteries and their important tributaries.
|
Right coronary artery > marginal artery > posterior descending artery
Left coronary artery > left anterior descending artery > circumflex artery |
|
What are the SA and AV nodes typically supplied by?
|
The right coronary artery.
|
|
The inferior margin of the left ventricle is usually supplied by what artery?
|
posterior descending artery
|
|
What are the two common variations of the posterior descending artery?
|
It arises from either the RCA (80%) or the CFX (20%).
|
|
What is the most posterior part of the heart, and why is this clinically significant?
|
The left atrium; enlargement may cause dysphagia (esophageal n.) or hoarseness (recurrent laryngeal n.).
|
|
What is the equation for cardiac output?
|
CO = (stroke volume) x (heart rate)
|
|
What is the fick principle?
|
CO = (rate of O2 consumption)/(arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)
|
|
What is the equation for mean arterial pressure?
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MAP = (CO) x (total peripheral resistance)
|
|
How can MAP easily be determined.
|
MAP = 2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure
|
|
What is the pulse pressure described as?
|
systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
|
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What is pulse pressure proportional to?
|
stroke volume
|
|
During exercise, what initially causes and increase in CO, and what maintains a prolonged high CO? Functionally, what does this mean?
|
increase in SV, then an increase in HR. Heart contractility can increase initially and is followed by an increase in heart rate.
|
|
What happens if the heart rate is too high?
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In ventricular tachycardia, diastolic filling is incomplete and cardiac output goes down.
|
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What happens to stroke volume when preload increases?
|
SV increases
|
|
What happens to stroke volume when afterload increases?
|
SV decreases.
|
|
What are four things that can cause an increase in contractility (and SV)?
|
1. Catecholamines cause ↑ activity of Ca2+ pump in sarcoplasmic reticulum
2. ↑ intracellular calcium 3. ↓ extracellular sodium (↓ activity of Na+/Ca2+ exchanger) 4. Digitalis (↑ intracellular Na+, resulting in ↑ Ca2+) |
|
What are five things that can cause a decrease in contractility (and SV)?
|
1. beta1 blockers
2. heart failure 3. acidosis 4. hypoxia/hypercapnea 5. non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers. |
|
What happens to the stroke volume in a patient with heart failure?
|
The stroke volume decreases.
|
|
What are three natural physiological causes of increase in stroke volume?
|
1. anxiety
2. exercise 3. pregnancy |
|
What four factors increase the O2 demands of myocardium?
|
1. ↑ afterload
2. ↑ contractility 3. ↑ heart rate 4. ↑ heart size (wall tension) |
|
What is the definition of preload?
|
Ventricular end diastolic volume
|
|
What is the definition of afterload?
|
mean arterial pressure
|
|
How does nitroglycerin affect preload?
|
It is a venodilator that decreases preload.
|
|
What two primary effects does hydrAlAzine have on the cardiovascular system.
|
It is a vasodilator that decreases Afterload and Arterial pressure.
|
|
What does the frank starling mechanism of the heart state?
|
The force of contraction is proportional to the initial lenght of cardiac muscle fibers (preload).
|
|
During exersice, what happens to the curve of CO versus preload?
|
The exercise curve shifts up and to the left giving an increased CO (SV) at any given preload. This is due to sympathetic innervation increasing contractility.
|
|
Administering digitalis will have what effect on the curve of CO versus preload for a patient with CHF?
|
The curve will shift up and to the left, with an increase in CO (SV) at any given preload due to increased contractility.
|
|
List three factors which increase the contractile state of cardiac muscle.
|
1. Catecholamines
2. Digitalis 3. Sympathetic stimulation |
|
List two factors which diminish the contractile state of cardiac muscle.
|
1. Pharmacologic depressants
2. Loss of myocardium |
|
What is the ejection fraction equal to?
|
SV/EDV
|
|
What is the normal ejection fraction?
|
>55%
|
|
What is the equation for pressure?
|
ΔP=QR
|
|
Resistance is directly proportional to ________ and inversely proportional to ________.
|
viscosity; radius to the fourth power
|
|
Differentiate between resistance of vessels in parallel and in series.
|
series: Pt=P1+P2...
parallel: 1/Pt=1/P1+1/P2... |
|
In blood vessels, what does the vicosity mainly depend upon?
|
The hematocrit
|
|
What portion of the vasculature account for most of the total peripheral resistance?
|
Arterioles
|
|
Viscosity of the blood increases in three major diseases/disorders, list these.
|
1. Polycythemia
2. Hyperproteinemic states such as MM 3. Hereditary spherocytosis |
|
List the five phases of the left ventricle in the cardiac cycle.
|
1. Isovolumetric contraction
2. Systolic ejection 3. Isovolumetric relaxation 4. Rapid filling 5. Reduced filling |
|
Which period within the cardiac cycle has the highest oxygen consumption.
|
Isovolumetric contraction of the left ventricle.
|
|
What are the four cardiac sounds?
|
S1-4
|
|
What does S1?
|
Mitral and tricuspid valve closure.
|
|
Where is the S1 sound loudest?
|
In the mitral valve area.
|
|
What does the S2 sound represent?
|
Aortic and pulmonary valve closure.
|
|
Where is S2 loudest?
|
At the left sternal border
|
|
What does the S3 sound represent?
|
Rapid ventricular filling in early diastole. Associated with increased filling pressures and more common in dilated ventricles.
|
|
When is an S3 sound normal?
|
In children and pregnant women.
|
|
What does the S4 sound represent?
|
Atrial kick in late diastole: always pathological.
|
|
What disease may present an S4 sound and why?
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy leads to ventricular hypertrophy and the LA must push against a thickened LV wall.
|
|
What are the three components of the jugular venous pulse (JVP)?
|
a-wave: atrial contraction
c-wave: RV contraction v-wave: RA filling |
|
What causes S2 splitting?
|
When the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic valve.
|
|
What normally causes a split in S2?
|
Inspiration.
|
|
What does wide splitting of the S2 with differences between expiration/inspiration indicate?
|
Pulmonary stenosis or a right bundle branch block.
|
|
What is a fixed splitting of the S2 associated with?
|
Atrioseptal defects.
|
|
What is paradoxical splitting and what is associated with it?
|
Splitting decreases upon inspiration. This indicates either aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block.
|
|
What is the physiological basis for normal splitting?
|
Inspiration ↓ intrathoracic P, ↑pulmonary circulation so pulmonic valve closes late and aortic valve closes early.
|
|
What is the physiology behind wide splitting of S2?
|
Conditions that delay RV emptying delays the pulmonic sound.
|
|
Why do ASDs lead to fixed S2 splitting?
|
Left to right shunting increases the amount of blood being pumped through pulmonic valve regardless of breath leading to delayed pulmonic valve closure.
|
|
Why would aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block lead to paradoxical splitting?
|
These conditions delay LV emptying and aortic valve closure, leading to splitting which actually decreases with inspiration because delayed pulmonic valve closure gets closer to aortic valve closure.
|
|
What does a holosystolic high-pitched "blowing murmur" indicate?
|
Mitral/tricuspid valve regurgitation.
|
|
For mitral regurgitation, what techniques enhance the murmur?
|
Techniques that increase afterload (squatting) or LA return (expiration).
|
|
For tricuspid regurgitation, what techniques enhance the murmur?
|
Manuevers that increase RA return (inspiration).
|
|
What are three primary causes of mitral regurgitation?
|
Ischemic heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, or LV dilation.
|
|
What are two primary causes of tricuspid regurgitation?
|
RV dilation or endocarditis, both may be caused by rheumatic heart disease.
|
|
What does a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following ejection click indicate?
|
Aortic stenosis.
|
|
What is a an important feature of aortic stenosis that may be auscultated?
|
Radiation to the carotid arteries.
|
|
What may cause a holosystolic harsh-sounding murmur that is loudest at the tricuspid area?
|
VSD
|
|
What is a late systolic crescendo murmur with a mid-systolic click indicative of?
|
Mitral valve prolapse.
|
|
Why does MV prolapse yield a mid-systolic click?
|
Because of sudden tensing of the chordae tendinae.
|
|
What does an immediate, high-pitched "blowing" diastolic murmur indicate?
|
Aortic regurgitation.
|
|
What is a delayed "rumbling" diastolic murmur following an opening snap indicative of?
|
Mitral valve stenosis.
|
|
What is a continuous machine-like murmur that is loudest at S2 indicative of?
|
Patent ductus arteriosus.
|
|
What is cardiac muscle contraction dependent upon?
|
extracellular calcium which induces Ca release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
|
|
What is the major difference in the action potential between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?
|
Cardiac muscle AP has a plateau phase which is due to Ca2+ influx.
|
|
What channels confer nodal spontaneous depolarization?
|
If channels that permit influx of sodium.
|
|
What is significant about the cellular architecture of myocardium?
|
Cells are linked together by gap junctions which facilitates cell to cell contraction.
|
|
What are the two cardiac action potentials?
|
Ventricular and pacemaker potentials.
|
|
notes
|
|
List the phases of the ventricular action potential.
|
Phase 0, Phase 1, Phase 2, Phase 3, Phase 4, Phase 5
|
|
What occurs during Phase 0 of the ventricular AP?
|
rapid upstroke due to voltage-gated sodium channel (Ina) opening.
|
|
What occurs during Phase 1 of the ventricular AP?
|
Initial repolarization due to inactivation of Ina channels. Voltage-gated sodium channels start to open (IK+).
|
|
What occurs during Phase 2 of the ventricular AP?
|
Plateau phase caused by Ca influx through voltage-gated Ca-channels (ICa), balancing K efflux. Ca influx triggers Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum inducing contraction.
|
|
What occurs during Phase 3 of the ventricular AP?
|
Rapid repolarization due to massive K efflux due to opening of voltage gated slow K channels and closure of voltage-gated Ca channels.
|
|
What occurs during Phase 4 of the ventricular AP?
|
Resting potential due to high K permeability through K channels.
|
|
Where do cells reside that have a pacemaker action potential?
|
In the SA and AV nodes.
|
|
What is the major difference in the Phase 0 of pacemaker and ventricular APs?
|
Pacemaker APs do not have fast voltage-gated Na channels, rather, the opening of voltage gated Ca channels results in slow conduction velocity.
|
|
What determines the heart rate in the SA node?
|
The slope of phase 4 which represents the If sodium channels.
|
|
notes
|
|
What effect do ACh, catecholamines, and sympathetic stimulation have on the heart rate?
|
ACh ↓ depolarization and ↓ HR; catecholamines ↑ depolarization and ↑ HR; sympathetic stimulation ↑ chance that If channels are open and ↑ HR.
|
|
What does the P wave represent?
|
atrial depolarization.
|
|
What does the PR interval represent?
|
conduction delay through the AV node (normal < 200 msec)
|
|
What does the QRS complex represent?
|
ventricular depolarization
|
|
What does the QT interval represent?
|
mechanical contraction of the ventricles
|
|
What does the T wave represent?
|
ventricular repolarization
|
|
What does T-wave inversion suggest?
|
recent MI
|
|
Why is atrial repolarization not observed on the EKG?
|
Because it is masked by the QRS complex.
|
|
What does the ST segment represent?
|
isoelectric region where the ventricles are depolarized.
|
|
Which muscle cells conduct the fastest?
|
Purkinje fibers.
|
|
What is the inherently dominant pacemaker of the heart?
|
The SA node.
|
|
Approximately how long is the delay at the AV node, and what is it's significance?
|
100msec to allow for ventricular filling during diastole.
|
|
What is torsades de pointes?
|
Ventricular tachycardia characterized by shifting sinusoidal waveforms on ECG.
|
|
What can Torsades de Pointes progress to/
|
Ventricular fibrillation.
|
|
What ECG abnormality predisposes to Torsades de Pointes?
|
Anything that prolongs the QT interval, specifically congenital disorders such as cardiac sodium or potassium channel disorders (Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome).
|
What is the diagnosis?
|
Torsades de Pointe
|
|
What syndrome is known as ventricular preexcitation syndrome?
|
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
|
|
In WPW syndrome, why do the ventricles begin to partially depolarize earlier than normal?
|
Because an accessory conduction pathway from the atria to the ventricles (bundle of kent) is present, giving rise to a characteristic delta wave on ECG.
|
|
What is a potential complication of WPW syndrome?
|
A reentry current may result leading to supraventricular tachycardia.
|
|
What is the hallmark of atrial fibriallation on an ECG?
|
Chaotic and erratic baseline (irregularly irregular) with no discrete P waves in between irregularly spaced QRS complexes.
|
|
What can Atrial Fibrillation lead to?
|
Atrial stasis and subsequent stroke.
|
|
How can you treat atrial fibrillation?
|
With beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker; prophylaxis against thromboembolism with warfarin or coumadin.
|
|
What is typical of the ECG trace for patients with Atrial Flutter?
|
A rapid succession of identical, back to back atrial depolarization waves.
|
|
What is pathognomonic for atrial flutter?
|
Sawtooth pattern on ECG.
|
|
How do you treat atrial flutter?
|
Attempt to convert to sinus rhythm using class IA, IC, or III antiarrhythmics.
|
|
What is highly indicative of first degree AV block?
|
The PR interval is prolonged (>200 msec).
|
|
What are two examples of second degree AV block?
|
Wenckebach (Mobitz Type I) and Mobitz Type II
|
|
What does a Wenckebach or second degree AV block look like?
|
Progressive lengthening of the PR interval unitl a beat is "dropped" (a P wave not followed by a QRS complex).
|
What is the diagnosis?
|
Wenckebach (Mobitz Type I) 2nd degree AV block
|
|
What does a Mobitz Type II 2nd degree block usually present as?
|
Dropped beats which are not preceded by a change in the PR interval length.
|
|
What is a Mobitz Type II usually found as?
|
A 2:1 block, where there are 2 P-waves to every one QRS response.
|
|
What may Mobitz Type II result in?
|
It may convert to a 3rd degree block.
|
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What is the major difference between Wenckebach (Mobitz Type I) and Mobitz Type II?
|
The PR interval increases in Wenckebach until a QRS complex is skipped, whereas the PR interval remains constant in Mobitz Type II.
|
What is the diagnosis?
|
Mobitz Type II 2nd degree block.
|
|
What happens in 3rd degree AV block?
|
The atria and ventricles beat independently of each other.
|
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How can a 3rd degree AV block be identified on EKG?
|
The P waves will bear no relation to the QRS complexes. Typically the atrial rate is faster than the ventricular rate.
|
|
What disease can cause 3rd degree AV block?
|
Lyme disease.
|
|
How is a 3rd degree AV block usually treated?
|
Pacemaker
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What is the diagnosis?
|
Third degree AV block
|
|
What does ventricular fibrillation present as?
|
A completely erratic rhythm with no identifiable waves.
|
|
What should be done if a patient presents with ventricular fibrillation?
|
Fatal arrhythmia will occur without immediate CPR and defibrillation.
|
What is the diagnosis?
|
Ventricular fibrillation
|
|
What are two main mechanisms that function to regulate mean arterial pressure?
|
Renin-angiotensin system in the kidneys and the baroreceptor/sympathetic response.
|
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
|
Study this figure from Robbins
|
|
Specifically outline how a decrease in mean arterial pressure would elicit a responsive increase via the baroreceptor/sympathetic system.
|
1. ↓ MAP
2. ↓ baroreceptor firing 3. ↑ sympathetic activity 4. β1 (↑HR, ↑contractility = ↑CO); α1 (venoconstriction = ↑CO); α1 (arteriolar constriction = ↑TPR) |
|
Specifically outline how a decrease in mean arterial pressure would elicit a responsive increase via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
|
1. ↓ MAP
2. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) senses 3. ↑ RAA system 4. Angiotensin II (vasoconstriction = ↑TPR); Aldosterone (↑ blood volume = ↑CO) |
|
What is ANP?
|
Atrial natriuretic peptide released by the atria in response to ↑ blood volume and atrial pressure.
|
|
What does ANP do?
|
It is involved in "escape from aldosterone" and causes vascular relaxation by constricting efferent renal arterioles and dilating afferent arterioles.
|
|
What are two types of receptors that are present in the aortic arch and carotid sinus?
|
Baroreceptors and Chemoreceptors
|
|
How do receptors in the aortic arch transmit signals to the medulla?
|
Through the vagus nerve; they only respond to increased BP.
|
|
How do receptors in the carotid sinus transmit signals to the medulla?
|
Through the glossopharyngeal nerve; they respond to increase/decrease in BP.
|
|
What does carotid massage do?
|
Increases pressure on carotid artery, increasing stretch or baroreceptors, leading to decreased HR.
|
|
What types of chemoreceptors are there?
|
Peripheral (carotid and aortic bodies) and Central.
|
|
What do peripheral chemoreceptors do?
|
They respond to decreased PO2, increased PCO2, and decreased blood pH.
|
|
What do central chemoreceptors do?
|
Respond to changes in pH and PCO2 of brain interstitial fluid.
|
|
What is responsible for the Cushing reaction?
|
Central chemoreceptors: ↑ICP, cerebral ischemia, HTN (sympathetic), reflex bradycardia
|
|
What is the Cushing triad?
|
HTN, bradycardia, respiratory distress
|
|
What organ receives the largest share of systemic cardiac output?
|
The liver.
|
|
What organ has the highest blood flow per gram of tissue?
|
The kidney.
|
|
What organ has the largest arteriovenous O2 difference?
|
The heart.
|
|
How is the O2 demand of the heart met?
|
By the coronary circulation.
|
|
What is a good approximation of LA pressure?
|
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP).
|
|
What pressure changes occur in mitral valve stenosis?
|
PCWP>LV diastolic pressure
|
|
List the approximate systolic/diastolic pressures in the RA, RV, pulmonary artery, PCWP, LA, LV, and aorta.
|
RA: <5
RV: <25/<5 Pulmonic artery: <25/10 PCWP: <12 LA: <12 LV: <130/10 Aorta: <130/90 |
|
What can be used to measure the PCWP?
|
A Swan-Ganz catheter.
|
|
What is unique about the pulmonary circulation with regard to response to hypoxia?
|
Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction so that only well ventilated areas are well perfused.
|
|
In the heart, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
O2, adenosine, NO
|
|
In the brain, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
CO2 and pH
|
|
In the kidneys, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
Myogenic and tubuloglomerular feedback.
|
|
In the lungs, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction
|
|
In the skeletal muscle, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
Lactate, adenosine, potassium
|
|
In the skin, what factors determine autoregulation?
|
Sympathetic stimulation mediating temperature control.
|
|
What four forces determine fluid movement through capillaries?
|
1. Pc = capillary pressure
2. Pi = interstitial fluid pressure 3. πc = plasma collid osmotic pressure 4. πi = interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure |
|
Which forces act to push fluid into capillaries, and which forces act to push fluid out of capillaries?
|
In: Pi and πc
Out: Pc and πi |
|
What equation describes the net filtration pressure?
|
Pnet = (Pc-Pi) - (πc-πi)
|
|
What does Kf represent?
|
The filtration constant which is affected by the capillary permeability.
|
|
What equation defines the net fluid flow out of a capillary?
|
Net fluid flow = (Pnet)(Kf)
|
|
What is edema?
|
Excessive fluid outflow into the interstitium.
|
|
What are four main ways that edema may occur and link these to the factors affecting capillary flow.
|
1. ↑ capillary pressure (↑Pc; heart failure)
2. ↓plasma proteins (↓πc; nephrotic syndrome, liver failure) 3. ↑ capillary permeability (↑ Kf; toxins, infections, burns) 4. ↑ interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (↑ πi; lymphatic blockage) |
|
What are the five primary causes of right to left shunts leading to early cyanosis or "blue babies"?
|
The 5 T's: Tetralogy of Fallot (most common), Transposition of great vessels, Truncus arteriosus, Tricuspid atresia, TAPVR (total anomalous pulmonary venous return)
|
|
What is tricuspid atresia, and what does it require for viability?
|
Tricuspid atresia is characterized by absence of tricuspid valve and presence of a hypoplastic right ventricle. It requires both ASD and VSD for viability.
|
|
What are three primary causes of left to right shunts leading to late cyanosis or "blue kids"?
|
1. VSD (most common cardiac anomaly).
2. ASD (loud S1; wide fixed split S2) 3. PDA (close with indomethacin) |
|
List the left to right shunts in order of appearance.
|
VSD>ASD>PDA
|
|
What change is seen in the pulmonary circulation with a persistent left to right shunt?
|
Increased pulmonary resistance due to arteriolar thickening.
|
|
What is Eisenmenger's complex?
|
In kids with left to right shunts, over time the pulmonary resistance increases until progressive pulmonary HTN reverse to a right to left shunt.
|
|
What does Tetralogy of Fallot consist of?
|
PROVe
Pulmonary stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy, Overriding aorta, Ventricular septal defect. |
|
In tetralogy of fallot, what is early cyanosis caused by? Why?
|
A right to left shunt across the VSD. Because pulmonic valve stenosis restricts outflow tract of RV.
|
|
In tetralogy of fallot, what does the heart look like and why?
|
Boot-shaped because of RV hypertrophy.
|
|
What congenital anomaly actually causes tetralogy of fallot?
|
Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum.
|
|
What do tetralogy of fallot patients learn to do to alleviate their symptoms?
|
Squat.
|
|
How does squatting help tetralogy of fallot patients?
|
Compression of femoral arteries increases afterload. This decreases the right to left shunt, directing more blood from the RV to the lungs.
|
|
What is the defect in transposition of great vessels?
|
The aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral in embryogenic development so the aorta leaves the RV and the pulmonic valve leaves the LV.
|
|
What must be present for a patient with transposition to live?
|
A shunt such as VSD, ASD or patent foramen ovale.
|
|
What are the two types of coarctation of the aorta?
|
Infantile (IN close to the hear; preductal) and Adult (Distal to the ductus).
|
|
What is adult type coarctation of the aorta associated with?
|
Notching of the ribs (due to collateral circulation), HTN in upper extremities, weak pulses in lower extremities.
|
|
What syndrome is coarcation of the aorta associated with?
|
Turner's syndrome
|
|
What cardiac problem may occur secondary to coarcation of the aorta?
|
Aortic regurgitation.
|
|
Discuss the shunt through the ductus arteriosus during fetal and infant life.
|
In fetal period, shunt is right to left. In neonatal period, lung resistance decreases and DA closes.
|
|
What occurs of the ductus arteriosus remains patent (PDA)?
|
A left to right shunt occurs from the aorta through the pulmonic valve.
|
|
What murmur is heard in patients with a PDA?
|
A continuous machine like murmur.
|
|
What causes patency of PDA and what can be used to close it?
|
Open: PGE[E] kEEps it open and low pO2
Closed: [E]NDomethacin |
|
Under what circumstance would one want to administer PGE to maintain a PDA?
|
In transposition of the great vessels.
|
|
What congenital cardiac defect is associated with 22q11?
|
Truncus arteriosus and tetralogy of fallot.
|
|
What congenital cardiac defects are associated with Down syndrome?
|
ASD, VSD, AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)
|
|
What congenital cardiac defects are associated with congenital Rubella?
|
Septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis.
|
|
What congenital cardiac defects are associated with Turner's syndrome?
|
Coarctation of the aorta.
|
|
What congenital cardiac defects are associated with Marfan's syndrome?
|
Aortic insufficiency.
|
|
What congenital cardiac defects are associated with an infant of a diabetic mother?
|
Transposition of the great vessels.
|
|
What is the definition of hypertension?
|
BP greater than 140/90.
|
|
What are six major risk factors for HTN?
|
age, obesity, diabetes, smoking, genetics, ethnicity (black>white>asian)
|
|
What are the contributing factors for primary and secondary HTN and which is most common?
|
Primary: 90%, essential HTN related to increased CO or increased TPR
Secondary: 10%, usually secondary to renal disease |
|
What is malignant HTN?
|
Severe and rapidly progressing HTN.
|
|
What does HTN predispose to?
|
Atherosclerosis, LVH, stroke, CHF, renal failure, retnopathy, and aortic dissection.
|
|
What are four important signs of hyperlipidemia?
|
Atheromas, xanthomas, tendinous xanthomas, corneal arcus.
|
|
List the three important types of Arteriosclerosis.
|
Monckeberg, arteriolosclerosis, atherosclerosis
|
|
What is Monckeberg arteriosclerosis?
|
Calcification in the media of arteries especially radial and ulnar arteries. It commonly occurs in the radial or ulnar arteries. Typically benihn forming pipestem arteries that do not obstruct blood flow and intima is not involved.
|
|
What is Arteriolosclerosis?
|
Hylaine thickening of small arteries in essential HTN or diabetes mellitus. Causes hyperplastic onion-skinning in malignant HTN.
|
|
What is atherosclerosis?
|
Fibrous plaques and atheromas form in the intima of arteries.
|
What is the diagnosis?
|
Arteriolosclerosis
|
What is the disease pathology?
|
Atherosclerosis
|
|
What is an aortic dissection?
|
A longitudinal intraluminal tear forming a false lumen.
|
|
What is an aortic dissection typically associated with?
|
HTN or cystic medial necrosis.
|
|
Patients with what syndrome are at higher risk for aortic dissection?
|
Marfan's syndrome.
|
|
The clinical presentation of aortic dissection is most frequently confused with what other disease?
|
Myocardial infarction. AD presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the back.
|
|
What is the major complication of aortic dissection?
|
It can result in aortic rupture and death.
|
|
What types of arteries does atherosclerosis mainly affect?
|
Elastic arteries and large and medium muscular arteries.
|
|
What are the primary risk factors for atherosclerosis?
|
Smoking, HTN, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, family history
|
|
List the progression of atherosclerosis.
|
Endothelial cell dysfunction → macrophage and LDL accumulation → foam cell formation → fatty streaks → smooth muscle cell migration → fibrous plaque → complex atheroma
|
|
What are the major complications of atherosclerosis?
|
aneurysms, ischemia, infarcts, peripheral vascular disease, thrombus, emboli
|
|
Specifically, rank the four arteries at highest risk for atherosclerotic plaque development.
|
abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery > carotid artery
|
|
List the four possible manifestations of Ischemic heart disease.
|
Angina, myocardial infarction, sudden cardiac death, and chronic ischemic heart disease.
|
|
What causes angina?
|
Narrowing of the coronary arteries by 75% or more.
|
|
What are the three principle types of angina?
|
Stable, Prinzmetals variant, and unstable/crescendo.
|
|
What is the major cause of stable angina?
|
Atherosclerosis.
|
|
What is the ECG change typically associated with stable angina?
|
ST depression
|
|
What is the clinical presentation of stable angina?
|
Retrosternal chest pain with exertion.
|
|
What causes Prinzmetal's variant of Ishcemic heart disease?
|
Coronary artery spasm.
|
|
What is the ECG findings for Prinzmetal's variant of Ishcemic heart disease?
|
ST elevation
|
|
What is the clinical presentation of unstable angina?
|
Worsening chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion.
|
|
With unstable angina, what is the ECG finding?
|
ST depression
|
|
What typically causes MI?
|
Acute thrombosis due to coronary artery atherosclerosis.
|
|
What is the definition of sudden cardiac death?
|
Death from cardiac causes within 1 hour of onset of symptoms, most commonly due to a lethal arrhythmia (V-fib)
|
|
List the three coronary arteries in order of likelihood of occlusion due to atherosclerosis.
|
LAD>RCA>circumflex
|
|
What are the most important symptoms of MI?
|
diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting, severe retrosternal pain, pain in left arm and/or jaw, shortness of breath, fatigue, adrenergic symptoms
|
|
In the first day of an MI, what is the major risk?
|
Arrhythmia
|
|
What gross features or light microscopic features are visible within 1/2 hour of ischemic heart damage?
|
None, because the cellular damage is reversible.
|
|
Within 12-24 hours of ischemic heart damage, what morphological and microscopic signs are apparent?
|
Dark mottling and coagulative necrosis, contraction band necrosis.
|
|
If a slide of heart tissue following ischemic event reveals extensive neutrophil infiltration, what is the approximate time frame for the ischemic event?
|
1-3 days following the event.
|
|
1-4 days following an ischemic event in the heart, what is the major complication risk?
|
Arrhythmias.
|
|
5-10 days following ischemic event, what are the major complication risks?
|
Free wall rupture, tamponade, papillary muscle rupture, interventricular septal rupture.
|
|
2-8 weeks following an ischemic event, what morphological and microscopic changes are evident?
|
Gray-white scar morphologically and increased collagen deposition with decreased cellularity microscopically.
|
|
What is the major risk of complication 2 weeks and beyond after having an ischemic event?
|
Ventricular aneurysm.
|
|
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of an MI during the first 6 hours?
|
ECG changes.
|
|
What are the three principal ECG changes that may be seen with an MI?
|
ST elevation (transmural infarct)
ST depression (subendocardial infarct) pathologic Q waves (transmural infarct) |
|
What is the most specific molecular marker for MI?
|
Cardiac Troponin I
|
|
What two protein markers are most commonly used to evaluate MI?
|
Cardiac troponin I and CK-MB
|
|
What are the two principle types of myocardial infarcts?
|
Transmural and subendocardial
|
|
What is subendocardial necrosis due to?
|
Ischemic necrosis of <50% of the ventricle wall. This occurs because there are fewer collaterals in the subendocardium making it more susceptible to MI.
|
|
What is the most important cause of death in patients with an MI before reaching the hospital?
|
Cardiac arrhythmia.
|
|
What are seven important complications of an MI?
|
1. Cardiac arrhythmia; 2. LV failure/pulmonary edema; 3. Cardiogenic shock; 4. Ventricular free wall rupture; 5. Aneurysm formation; 6. Postinfarction fibrinous pericarditis; 7. Dressler's syndrome
|
|
What are the three principle types of cardiomyopathies?
|
Dilated, hypertrophic, and restrictive.
|
|
What is the most common cardiomyopathy?
|
Dilated cardiomyopathy
|
|
What are three clinical findings with dilated cardiomyopathy?
|
S3 heart sound, dilated heart on ultrasound, balloon appearance on chest x-ray.
|
|
What is the major complication of dilated cardiomyopathy?
|
Systolic dysfunction leading to CHF.
|
|
What are the major etiologies of dilated cardiomyopathy?
|
AB3CD: Alcohol, wet Beriberi, Coxsackie B virus myocarditis, chronic Cocaine use, Chagas' disease, Doxorubicin toxicity, hemochromatosis, peripartum cardiomyopathy
|
|
What are two principle physiological problems in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
|
A hypertrophied IV septum interferes with LV outflow, and hypertrophied LV has reduced compliance.
|
What type of cardiomyopathy is present in this patient?
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy due to disoriented hypertrophied myocardial fibers.
|
|
What is the most common cause of sudden death in young athletes?
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
|
|
Which of the three cardiomyopathies has the most obvious genetic component?
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
|
|
What neurological disorder is associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
|
Friedreich's ataxia
|
|
What clinical findings are associated with normal sized heart?
|
S4 heart sound, apical impulses, and a systolic murmur.
|
|
How is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy treated?
|
Treat with beta-blocker or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (verapamil).
|
|
What are major causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
|
Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, postradiation fibrosis, endocardial fibroelastosis, loffler's syndrome, and hemochromatosis.
|
|
Identify which types of dysfunction (systolic or diastolic) occurs with each type of cardiomyopathy?
|
Dilated: systolic dysfunction
Hypertrophic: diastolic dysfunction Restrictive: diastolic dysfunction |
|
What is CHF?
|
A clinical syndrome that occurs in patients with an inherited or acquired abnormality of cardiac structure or function, who develop a constellation of clinical symptoms (dyspnea, fatigue) and signs (edema, rales).
|
|
What causes dyspnea on exertion?
|
Failure of LV output to increase during exercise.
|
|
What causes cardiac dilation?
|
Greater ventricular end-diastolic volume.
|
|
What causes pulmonary edema and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in CHF patients?
|
LV failure leads to increased pulmonary venous pressure and subsequent transudation of fluid into the alveoli.
|
|
What is seen microscopically in the lungs of patients with CHF?
|
Heart failure cells which are hemosiderin laden macrophages gobbling up iron from microhemorrhages in the lungs due to the increased capillary pressure.
|
|
What is orthopnea?
|
Shortness of breath when supine.
|
|
What causes orthopnea?
|
Increase in venous return (preload) exacerbates pulmonary vascular congestion.
|
|
In CHF, what morphological changes occur in the liver?
|
Hepatomegaly (nutmeg liver).
|
|
What causes hepatomegaly in CHF?
|
Increased central venous pressure causes and increased resistance to portal flow
|
|
What causes ankle and sacral edema?
|
RV failure causes increased venous pressure and fluid transudation.
|
|
What causes jugular venous distention?
|
Right heart failure causing increased venous pressure.
|
|
What causes isolated right heart failure?
|
Cor pulmonale
|
|
What organisms typically cause bacterial endocarditis?
|
Acute: Staphylococcus aureus (high virulence)
Subacute: Streptococcus viridans (low virulence) |
|
What is most frequently involved in bacterial endocarditis?
|
Mitral valve
|
|
What form of bacterial endocarditis is associated with IV drug abuse?
|
Tricuspid valve endocarditis (don't Tri drugs)
|
|
What are important complications of bacterial endocarditis?
|
chordae rupture, glomerulonephritis, supparative pericarditis, emboli.
|
|
What are the diagnostic elements for infective (bacterial) endocarditis?
|
Bacteria FROM JANE: Fever, Roth's spots, Osler's nodes, Murmur, Janeway lesions, Anemia, Nail-bed hemorrhage, Emboli
|
|
Briefly describe several features of non-bacterial endocarditis.
|
Endocarditis may be non-bacterial in origin and may occur secondary to malignancy or a hypercoagulable state.
|
|
What organisms cause culture-negative endocarditis?
|
HACEK: Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella
|
|
What causes Libman-Sacks endocarditis?
|
SLE causes LSE.
|
|
What is Libman-Sacks Disease?
|
Wartlike sterile vegetations occurring on both sides of the valve.
|
|
What is rheumatic heart disease?
|
A consequence of pharyngeal infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
|
|
What does rheumatic heart disease cause in terms of heart problems?
|
Vegetations and fibrosis of heart valves (mitral>aortic>>tricuspid)
|
|
What are the pathological abnormalities associated with rheumatic heart disease?
|
Aschoff bodies in myocardium (granuloma with giant cells), activated histiocytes, elevated ASO titers
|
|
What clinical findings are associated with rheumatic heart disease?
|
FEVERSS: Fever, Erythema marginatum, Valvular damage, ↑ ESR, Red-hot joints (migratory polyarthritis), Subcutaneous nodules (Aschoff bodies), St. Vitus' dance (chorea)
|
|
What is cardiac tamponade?
|
Compression of heart by fluid (blood or effusions) in the pericardium, leading to ↓ CO and eventual equilibration of diastolic pressures in all four chambers.
|
|
What are the major clinical findings in patients with cardiac tamponade?
|
hypotension, ↑ venous pressure (JVD), distant heart sounds, ↑ HR, pulsus paradoxus
|
|
What is pulsus paradoxus and where is it seen?
|
An exaggerated ↓ in ampliturde of pulse during inspiration. Seen in severe cardiac tamponade, asthma, obstructive sleep apnea, pericarditis, and croup
|
|
What are the three forms of pericarditis?
|
Serous, fibrinous, and hemorrhagic
|
|
What is Dressler's syndrome?
|
An autoimmune response to cardiac antigens following an MI which results in a pericardial friction rub and pericardial effusion.
|
|
List some causes of serous pericarditis.
|
SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, viral infection, uremia
|
|
List some causes of fibrinous pericarditis.
|
Uremia, Dressler's syndrome, rheumatic fever
|
|
List some causes of hemorrhagic pericarditis.
|
TB, malignancy (e.g., melanoma)
|
|
What are some clinical findings that are associated with pericarditis?
|
Pericardial pain, friction rub, pulsus pradoxus, and distant heart sounds.
|
|
What ECG changes may occur with pericarditis?
|
ST-segment elevation in multiple leads
|
|
How may pericarditis resolve?
|
Without scarring or lead to chronic adhesive or chronic constrictive pericarditis.
|
|
What happens in syphilitic heart disease?
|
Disruption of the vasa vasorum of the aorta with consequent dilation of the aorta and valve ring.
|
|
What abnormalities may syphilitic heart disease cause?
|
Aneurysm of the ascending aorta or aortic arch and aortic valve incompetence as calcification of the aortic root (tree bark appearance).
|
|
What are the three types of tumors seen in the heart?
|
Myxomas, rhabdomyomas, and metastases.
|
What is this?
|
A myxoma
|
|
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in adults, and where do they occur?
|
Myxomas, usually in the left atrium
|
|
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in children, and what are they associated with?
|
Rhabdomyomas, associated with tuberous slcerosis.
|
|
What are the most common heart tumors overall?
|
Metastases (e.g., melanoma, lymphoma)
|
|
What is a telangiectasia?
|
An arteriovenous malformation in small vessels.
|
|
How will telangiectasias be apparent in patients?
|
Dilated vessels on skin and mucous membranes.
|
|
What are the clinical features of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia?
|
It is an autosomal-dominant inherited disorder that presents with recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, mucosal telangiectasias, and GI bleeds.
|
|
What are varicose veins?
|
Dilated, tortuous superficial veins due to chronically ↑ venous pressure.
|
|
What do varicose veins predispose to?
|
Poor wound healing and varicose ulcers.
|
|
Does thromboembolism frequently occur with varicose veins?
|
No
|
|
What is Raynaud's disease?
|
↓ blood flow to the skin due to arteriolar vasospasm in response to cold temperature or emotional stress.
|
|
What disorders may cause Raynaud's phenomenon?
|
Connective tissue disease, SLE, or CREST syndrome (systemic sclerosis scleroderma).
|
|
What is Wegener's granulomatosis characterized by?
|
A triad of focal necrotizing vasculitis in small vessels, necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway, and necrotizing glomerulonephritis.
|
|
What signs and symptoms are associated with Wegener's granulomatosis?
|
Heomptysis, hematuria, perforation of nasal septum, chronic sinusitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, cough, dyspnea.
|
|
What are important clinical findings associated with Wegener's granulomatosis?
|
c-ANCA (anti-neutrophil Abs), chest X-ray with multiple nodular densities, heaturia and RBC casts
|
|
List four vasculitis disorders in which ANCAs are positive.
|
Microscopic polyarteritis nodosa, pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis, and Churg-Strauss syndrome
|
|
What is the major distinction between Wegener's granulomatosis and microscopic polyarteritis nodosa?
|
MPN lacks the granulomas seen in Wegener's
|
|
What is a major distinction between primary pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis and Wegener's granulomatosis?
|
The vasculitis is limited to the kidney, and there is a relative paucity of antibodies.
|
|
What is Sturge-Weber disease?
|
A congenital vascular disorder that affects capillary-sized blood vessels.
|
|
What are some important clinical features of Sturge-Weber disease?
|
It manifests with port-wine stain (nevus flammeus) on face, ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomatosis, seizures, and early-onset glaucoma.
|
|
What is Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
|
It is the most common form of childhood systemic vasculitis.
|
|
What is the typical triad of symptoms associated with Henoch-Shonlein purpura?
|
Skin, joints, GI; all lesions of approximate same age.
|
|
Describe some clinical features of Henoch-Schonlein purpura.
|
Skin rash on buttocks and legs (palpable purpura), arthralgia, intestinal hemorrhage, abdominal pain, and melena.
|
|
What antibodies are associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
|
IgA immune complexes.
|
|
What is Buerger's disease?
|
Also know as thromboangiitis obliterans. It is idiopathic, segmental, thrombosing vasculitis of small and medium peripheral arteries and veins
|
|
Who usually gets Buerger's disease?
|
Heavy smokers
|
|
What are some typical symptoms of Buerger's disease?
|
Intermittent claudication, superficial nodular phlebitis, Raynaud's phenomenon, severe pain in affected part. May lead to gangrene and auto-amputation of digits.
|
|
How is Buerger's disease treated?
|
Smoking cessation
|
|
What is Kawasaki disease?
|
An acute, self-limiting necrotizing vasculitis in infants and children. Associated with Asian ethnicity.
|
|
What are some symptoms of Kawasaki disease?
|
Fever, conjunctivitis, changes in lips/oral mucosa (Strawberry tongue), lymphadenitis, desquamative skin rash. May develop coronary aneurysms.
|
|
How is Kawasaki disease treated?
|
IV immunoglobulin, aspirin
|
|
What is polyarteritis nodosa?
|
Immune complex-mediated transmural vasculitis with fibrinoid necrosis.
|
|
What are some common findings in polyarteritis nodosa?
|
Hep B + in ~30% of patients. Multiple aneurysms and constrictions on arteriogram.
|
|
What is Takayasu's arteritis?
|
It is know as "pulseless disease" and is associated with thickening of aortic arch and/or proximal great vessels.
|
|
What are some common symptoms of Takayasu's arteritis?
|
FAN MY SKIN On Wednesday: Fever, Arthritis, Night sweats, MYalgia, SKIN nodules, Ocular disturbances, Weak pulses in upper extremities
|
|
What is temporal arteritis?
|
The most common vasculitis affecting medium and large arteries, usually branches of carotid artery. (Giant cell arteritis)
|
|
What is the typical location of clinical findings in temporal arteritis?
|
TEMporal arteritis has signs near TEMples
|
|
What are some common clinical symptoms associated with temporal arteritis?
|
Unilateral headache, jaw claudication, impaired vision (occlusion of ophthalmic artery that may lead to irreversible blindness)
|
|
What are some clinical findings associated with temporal arteritis?
|
Increased ESR. Half of patients have systemic involvement and polymyalgia rheumatica.
|
|
What is a strawberry hemangioma?
|
A benign capillary hemangioma of infancy. Initially grows with child, then spontaneously regresses.
|
|
What is a cherry hemangioma?
|
Benign capillary hemangioma of the elderly. Does not regress and frequency increases with age.
|
|
What is a pyogenic granuloma?
|
A polypoid capillary hemangioma that can ulcerate and bleed. It is associated with trauma and pregnancy.
|
|
What is a cystic hygroma?
|
A cavernous lymphangioma of the neck, associated with Turner's syndrome.
|
|
What is a glomus tumor?
|
A benign, painful, red-blue tumor under the fingernails. Arises from modified smooth muscle cells of glomus body.
|
|
What is a bacillary angiomatosis?
|
Benign capillary skin papules found in AIDS patients. Caused by Bartonella henselae infections and frequently mistaken for Kaposi's sarcoma.
|
|
What is an angiosarcoma?
|
A highly lethal malignancy of the liver. It is associated with vinyl chloride, arsenic, and ThO2 (Thorotrast) exposure.
|
|
What is a lymphangiosarcoma?
|
Lymphatic malignancy associated with persistent lymphedema (e.g., post-radical mastectomy).
|
|
What is Kaposi's sarcoma?
|
An endothelial malignancy of the skin associated with HHV-8 and HIV. It is frequently mistaken for bacillary angiomatosis.
|
|
What are typical treatments for essential HTN?
|
Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), calcium channel blockers.
|
|
What antihypertensive medications are typically prescribed to patients with CHF?
|
Diuretics, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, beta-blockers (compensated CHF), potassium-sparing diuretics
|
|
What antihypertensive medications are typically prescribed to patients with diabetes mellitus?
|
ACE inhibitors/ARBs, calcium channel blockers, diuretics, beta-blockers, alpha-blockers
|
|
When are beta-blockers contraindicated in patients with CHF?
|
If the CHF is decompensated (ie, CO is decreased).
|
|
What is the advantage of using ACE inhibitors for diabetics?
|
ACE inhibitors are protective against diabetic nephropathy.
|
|
What is the mechanism of hydralazine?
|
It vasodilates arterioles and veins by increasing cGMP and thus causing smooth muscle relaxation.
|
|
What is the net effect of administering hydralazine?
|
Afterload reduction.
|
|
What is the clinical use for hydralazine?
|
Treating severe HTN and CHF. It is the first-line therapy for HTN in pregnancy with methyldopa. It is frequently coadministered with a beta-blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia.
|
|
What is the major toxicity associated with hydralazine therapy?
|
Reflex tachycardia.
|
|
When is hydralazine contraindicated?
|
In patients with angina or coronary artery disease.
|
|
What is Minoxidil used for?
|
To treat severe HTN.
|
|
What is the mechanism of minoxidil?
|
It is a potassium channel opener. It hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular smooth muscle.
|
|
List three common calcium channel blockers.
|
Nifedipine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
|
|
What is the mechanism of calcium channel blockers?
|
They block voltage-dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac and smooth muscle and thereby reduce muscle contractility.
|
|
Rank the three common calcium channel blockers in terms of their effectiveness on cardiac muscle and vascular smooth muscle.
|
Verapamil = Ventricle
Heart: verapamil>diltiazem>nifedipine Vascular: nifedipine>diltiazem>verapamil |
|
What are the primary clinical uses for calcium channel blockers?
|
Treatment of HTN, angina, arrhythmias (except nifedipine), Prinzmetal's angina, and Raynaud's
|
|
What are the primary toxicities associated with calcium channel blockers?
|
Cardiac depression, AV block, and peripheral edema.
|
|
What do nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate do?
|
They cause vasodilation by releasing nitric oxide in smooth mucle, causing and increase in cGMP and smooth mucle relaxation. The dilate veins >> arteries therefore decreasing preload.
|
|
What are the primary clinical applications for nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate?
|
For treating angina and pulmonary edema.
|
|
What are the major toxicities associated with nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate?
|
Reflex tachycardia and hypotension.
|
|
What is "Monday disease" as it relates to occupational exposure to nitroglycerin?
|
A person who is exposed to nitroglycerin during the work week develops resistance, then loses resistance over the weekend. On the following Monday, the patient feels symptoms.
|
|
What are three drugs that can be used to treat malignant hypertension?
|
Nitroprusside, fenoldopan, and diazoxide.
|
|
What is the function of nitroprusside?
|
It is short acting and increases levels of cGMP via direct release of NO. It may release cyanide.
|
|
What is the function of fenoldopam?
|
It is a dopamine D1 receptor agonist that causes relaxation of renal vascular smooth muscle.
|
|
What is the function of diazoxide?
|
Potassium channel opener that hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular smooth muscle. Can cause hyperglycemia by reducing insulin release.
|
|
What is the goal of anti-anginal therapy?
|
Reduction of myocardial oxygen consumption (MVO2) by decreasing one or more of the determinants of MVO2.
|
|
What are five determinants of MVO2 which may be targeted by anti-anginal therapy?
|
end diastolic volume, blood pressure, heart rate, contractility, ejection time
|
Fill in the blank spaces with arrows.
|
|
|
Briefly indicate the role of calcium channel blockers in antianginal therapy.
|
Nifedipine is similar to Nitrates in effect. verapamil is similar to beta-blockers in effect.
|
|
Why are pindolol and acebutolol contraindicated in angina?
|
They are partial beta-agonists, so they will actually increase contractility and ionotropy.
|
Study This
|
notes
|
Fill in this table
|
Answers
|
Remember this
|
notes
|
|
List 6 factors involved in excitation-contraction coupling.
|
1) sodium potassium ATPase
2) sodium calcium exchanger 3) voltage gated (L-type) calcium channels 4) calcium pump in SR 5) ryanodine receptors and calcium release channels in SR closely coupled to SR 6) site of action of calcium on troponin-tropomyosin |
|
What are β1 receptors, and how are they involved in cardiomyocyte contraction?
|
They are coupled to Gs and activate protein kinase A, which phosphorylates L-type calcium channels and phospholamban, both of which increase intracellular calcium during contraction.
|
|
What is the prototypical cardiac glycoside?
|
Digoxin.
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?
|
Direct inhibition of sodium/potassium ATPase leading to indirect inhibition of sodium/calcium antiporter. It increases calcium leading to increased inotropy. It also stimulates the vagus nerve.
|
|
What two cardiovascular problems are cardiac glycosides used to treat?
|
CHF (increase contractility)
atrial fibrillation (decrease conduction at AV node and depress SA node) |
|
What are some major toxicities associated with digitoxin therapy?
|
Cholinergic effects (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blurry yellow vision)
ECG changes, arrhythmia, hyperkalemia |
|
What worsens digoxin toxicity?
|
Renal failure, hypokalemia, and quinidine
|
|
What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
|
slowly normalize potassium, add lidocaine, cardiac pacer, anti-digitoxin Fab fragments, Mg
|
Study
|
Notes
|
|
List a few ways the mechanism of action for Class I (sodium channel blocking) antiarrhythmic drugs.
|
Slow or block conduction
decrease slope of phase 4 depolarization increase threshold for firing in abnormal pacemaker cells |
|
List the Class IA antiarrhythmic drugs.
|
"The Queen Proclaims Diso's pyramid"
Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide |
|
What do Class IA antiarrhythmic drugs do?
|
↑ AP duration, ↑ effective refractory period, ↑ QT interval
|
|
What are Class IA drugs particularly useful for?
|
Both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, especially reentrant and ectopic supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia.
|
|
What toxicities are associated with Class IA drugs?
|
Quidine: cinchonism (headache, tinitus), thrombocytopenia, torsades de pointes (↑QT interval)
Procainamide: reversible SLE-like syndrome. |
|
List Class IB antiarrythmatic drugs.
|
"I'd Buy Lidy's Mexican Tacos"
Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide |
|
How do Class IB antiarrythmatic drugs function?
|
Decrease AP duration.
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What do Class IB antiarrythmatic drugs preferentially affect??
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Ischemic or deplarized purkinje and ventricular tissue.
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What are Class IB antiarrhythmatic drugs useful for treating?
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Acute ventricular arrhythmias (post MI) and digitalis induced arrhythmias.
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What are the principle toxicities associated with Class IB antiarrythmatics?
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Local anesthetic, CNS stim/depress, cardiovascular depression
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List some Class IC antiarrhythmatic drugs.
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"Chipotle's Food has Excellent Produce"
Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone |
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What are class IC antiarrhythmatic drugs mainly used for?
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As a last resort in refractory tachycardias and for patients without structural abnormalities.
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What are the major toxicities associated with Class IC antiarrhythmatic drugs?
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Proarrhythmias, especially after MI.
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What antiarrhythmatic drugs are indicated and contraindicated for post MI?
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IB is Best
IC is Contraindicated |
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How does hyperkalemia affect toxicity in class I drugs?
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It increases toxicity for all class I drugs.
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List some class II antiarrhythmatic drugs.
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beta-blockers: Propranolol, esmolol, metoprolol, atenolol, timolol
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What is the mechanism of action for class II antiarrhythmatic drugs?
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↓ cAMP, ↓ Ca currents, ↓ slope of phase 4, ↑ PR interval
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What heart structure is particularly sensitive to beta-blockers?
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The AV node is particularly sensitive.
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What are the principal clinical uses for beta-blockers?
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Ventricular tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia, slowing ventricular rate during atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter.
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What are the major toxicities associated with beta-blockers?
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Cardiovascular depression, CNS effects, dyslipidemia (metoprolol).
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What is a major problem associated with using beta-blockers in diabetics?
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They may mask the signs of hypoglycemia.
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List several class III antiarrhythmatic drugs (potassium channel blockers).
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Sotalol, ibutilide, bretylium, dofetilide, amiodarone.
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What is the mechanism of class III antiarrhythmatic drugs?
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↑ AP duration, ↑ ERP, ↑ QT interval
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When are class III antiarrhythmatics used?
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When other antiarrhythmatics fail.
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What is a major toxicity associated with Sotalol?
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Excessive beta-block could lead to torsades de pointes.
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What toxicities are associated with amiodarone?
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Pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hyper/hypothyroidism (40% w/v iodine).
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When using amiodarone, what do you need to remember?
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To check the PFTs, LFTs, and TFTs
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Why does amiodarone have class I-IV effects?
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Because it alters the lipid membrane.
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Study
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notes
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What cardiovascular effects may Class III antiarrhythmatic drugs have?
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Bradycardia, heart block, and CHF
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List two examples of class IV (calcium channel blockers) antiarrhythmatic drugs.
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Verapamil and diltiazem.
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What is the mechanism of class IV antiarrhythmatic drugs?
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They primarily affect AV nodal cells, ↓ conduction velocity, ↑ ERP, ↑ PR interval.
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What are class IV antiarrhythmatic drugs primarily used for?
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To prevent nodal arrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia.
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What are some toxicities associated with class IV antiarrhythmatics?
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Constipation, flushing, edema, CV effects (CHF, AV block, sunus node depression).
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Study
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notes
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How does adenosine function as an antiarrhythmatic?
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It increases potassium efflux, causing hyperpolarization and ↓ ICa.
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What is adenosine the drug of choice for?
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Diagnosisng and abolishing supraventricular tachycardia.
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What toxicities does adenosine induce, and what can block these effects?
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Flushing, hypotension, and chest pain. This can be clocked by theophylline.
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What can potassium be used to treat?
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Depress ectopic pacemakers in hypokalemia (digoxin toxicity).
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What is magnessium used for?
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Treating torsades de pointes and digoxin toxicity.
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label
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What do the curves represent?
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answer
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Cardiac Cycle
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Study
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study
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notes
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study
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notes
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