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89 Cards in this Set
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- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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What does cigarette smoking do?
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oxidizes the critical methionine residure at the active site of alpha1-antitrypsin (alpha1AT), reducing its ability to inhibit elastase by 2000 fold. This creates a phenocopy of alpha1AT deficiency.
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30% of newborns are afflicted with these 3 surgically fixable diseases
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1.) Congenital heart defects
2.) Cleft Lip and Pallate 3.) Pyloric Stenosis |
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name 3 major factors contributing to unsatisfactory treatment of genetic disease
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1.) gene not identified or pathogenesis not understood.
2.) Prediagnostic fetal damage 3.) severe phenotypes are less amenable to intervention (and first presenting) |
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Why would PKU treatments be classified as imperfect?
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Although diet prevents the onset of mental retardation, intelligence levels are diminished.
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What is galactosemia?
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inability to metabolize galactose, a component of lactose (milk). individuals lack galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase. (GALT)
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What does galactose-1-phosphatase normally do?
what does a deficiency of these enzyme cause? |
catalyzes the conversion of galactose 1 phosphate to uridine diphosphogalactose.
Galactosemia. |
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What are the symptoms of galactosemia?
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usually normal at birth but develop gatrointestinal problems, cirrhosis of the liver, and cataracts in the weeks after introduction to milk.
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what is the common course of treatment for restinoblastoma?
why is this an imperfect treatment? |
Removal of affected eye.
increased susceptibility to neoplam formation after the first decade. |
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Why would doses of clotting factor lead to serious side effects?
what disease is clotting factor a treatment for? |
Adding foreign clotting factor can create antibodies which destroy the bodies already diminished supply.
Hemophilia. |
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What is the major side effect of blood transfusion aside from the immune response?
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Iron overload - this is treatable by using chelating agents.
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Why is diagnosis of hyperphenylalanemia not enough for treatment to be decided?
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You must also know if the condition is caused by the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene itself or if the condition is in the synthesis of its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)
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Why must patients with hyperphenylalanemia still receive some PHE in their diet?
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phenylalanine is essential for protein synthesis.
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Name the 6 main categories of metabolic intervention in the treatment of genetic disease
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ARI DDD
Avoidance Dietary Restriction Replacement Diversion Inhibition Depletion |
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Name the 10 most common theraputic and management strategies to control metabolic disorders.
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SPSPSCTBAE
Supportive (30%) Product Replacement (20%) Substrate Limitation (20%) Pharmacological Intervention (10%) Surgery (4%) Cofactor Supplementation (4%) Tissue Transplantation (4%) Bone Marrow Transplantation (3%) Alternate Pathway (3%) enzyme replacement/gene therapy (1%) |
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name two diseases whose treatment involves dietary restriction and what is restricted
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Hyperphenylalanemia: Phenylalanine
Galactosemia: Galactose |
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name two diseases whose treatment is replacement and what is being replaced
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Congenital hypothyroidism - Thyroxine
Biotinidase Deficiency - Biotin |
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name two diseases whose treatment involves diversion to alternative pathways and the activators of these alternative pathways
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Urea cycle disorders (nitrogen poisoning) - Sodium Benzoate (glycine pathway)
Familial hypercholesterolemia (heterozygotes only) - Addition of resins that bind bile salts to digest them. also drugs that block intestinal absorption of bile acids. (drives creation of new bile acids which require lipids) |
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what is the function of the Urea cycle?
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convert ammonia which is neurotoxic to urea which is benign and excretable.
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a defect in ornathine transcarbamalase would lead to what disease?
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hyperammonemia (urea cycle)
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How does sodium benzoate treat hyperammonemia?
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It binds with glycine to form hippurate which is excreted in the urine.
in order to replace the glycine, ammonia is consumed. |
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what is the resin used to treat familial hypercholestrolemia
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cholestyramine
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statins treat hypercholestrolemia how?
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inhibit 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase, the rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis.
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Define synergistic
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two drugs working in tandem create a greater result. (example cholestyramine and statins)
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homozygotes for hypercholesterolemia are treated how?
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LDL apheresis (direct removal of LDL from plasma.)
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small molecules are how large (molecular weight)?
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hundreds to thousands of AMU
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how is homocystinuria treated
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Vitamin B6 supplements. (vitamin B6 is pyridoxine, the precursor of pyridoxal phosphate neccesary to alleviate a deficiency in cystathionine synthase)
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what defect is present in cyctic fibrosis
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the delta508 mutation causes misfolding which is recognized by a calcium dependent chaparone protein and degraded in the Endoplasmic reticulum
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What has shown promise in mice affected by cyctic fibrosis
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curcumin, a nontoxic mixture of compounds in tumeric, inhibits a calcium pump in the ER, thereby preventing the binding of the calcium dependent chaparone to the mutant delta 508 cystic fibrosis protein.
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ashkanazi jews have a condition of cystic fibrosis with what issue on the genetic molecular level?
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Premature stop codon
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what does gentamicin do?
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encourages translational apparati to skip over the premature stop codon, and instead translate an Amino acid with a similar codon. (Treats cystic fibrosis)
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What part of the body is gentimicin specified for?
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Nasal epithelial cells.
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what protein is augmented in hemophilia treatments?
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factor VIII is added to plasma during blood transfusion
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What are some problems with protein augmentation?
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frequency of treatment
available supply immune response |
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Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency effects what human process
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immune response. (B and T cell immunity deficiency) due to accumulation of toxic purines.
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how is ADA deficiency treated
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Bone Marrow transplant although gene therapy exists. Bovine versions of the protein also work well.
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whyis PEG-ADA superior to unmodified ADA
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1.) less susceptible to antibody response
2.) longer half life 3.) remains in the extracellular fluid, so it will degrade excess purines. |
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what two lysosomal storage diseases are enzyme replacement tharapies established.
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Gaucher Disease and Fabry Disease
(research in 6 others) |
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Gaucher Disease
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lysosomal storage disorder affecting 1/450 ashkanazi jews and 1/40000 to 1/100000 in other populations. Autosomal recessive. deficiency of glucocerebrosidase.
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what is glucocerebrosidase and what disease results from its deficiency
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enzyme which degrades glucocerebroside in the lysosome of macrophages.
deficiency results in Gaucher Disease and an enlargement of the Liver and Spleen. Bone marrow is replaced by lipid laden macrophages called "Gaucher cells". |
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Gaucher Cells
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lipid laden macrophages resulting from accumulation of glucocerebrosides in Gaucher disease. These cells replace bone marrow and compromise creation of erythrocytes and platelets. this results in anemia and thrombocytopenia and bone lesions.
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Why is Gaucher disease an excellent model for protein targeting (4)
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1.) Does not involve the CNS
2.) Alternative is high risk bone marrow 3.) Protein is available in abundance. 4.) the macrophage is well understood to target an enzyme to it. |
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What technique is used to treat herditary angiodema
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increasing the amount of mRNA transcribed from the normal or functional allele.
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how is hereditary angiodema transmitted to its progeny.
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Autosomal Dominant
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What gene is affected in hereditary angiodema?
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the gene encoding complement 1 esterase inhibitor.
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how is the mRNA of the complement 1 esterase inhibitor increased during treatment of hereditary angioderma?
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long term prophylaxis with attenuated androgens, particularly danazol.
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what form of hemoglobin has its gene expression increased to treat Sickle cell disease and B-Thallesemia
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fetal hemoglobin Hb F
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how is fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) expression enhanced postnatally?
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incorporation of cytidine analogues (decitabine) are incorporated into the DNA instead of cytidine which inhibits methylation of CpG repeats in the 5' promotor region.
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diminishing the amount of affected protein made is done by what method
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RNAi
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Name two diseases treated using RNAi
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Huntingtons - Toxic protein
Osteogenesis Imperfecta - Defective protein. |
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tissue transplantation can be regarded as a genetic treatment in what regard?
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The cells maintain the genetic composition of the donor.
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name a disease treated by tissue transplantation
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homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia
(a1AT deficency) is also also showing promise |
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What are the two properties of stem cells?
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1.) ability to proliferate to form the differentiated cell types of tissue in vivo
2.) ability to self renew--to form a new stem cell. |
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what is a common name for nuclear transplantation.
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Cloning
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Define Theraputic Cloning
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the use of embryonic stem cells generated by nuclear transplantation to form differentiated cell types of the body in culture
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Define reproductive cloning
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reimplanting an embryo obtained by nuclear transplantation into the uterus of a surrogate mother.
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What two types are currently in clinical use?
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hematopoetic stem cells and corneal stem cells
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how much of the body's cell mass is derive from bone marrow cells
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10% (a lot)
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what are the two mechanisms of hematopoetic stem cell treatment for lysosomal storage diseases
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1.) implanted cells replace existing cells.
2.) enzyme from implanted cells is released and accepted by a recipient cell. |
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What are two forms of treatment options for bone marrow transplant.
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1.) Allogenic donor cells
2.) patients won bone marrow cells transduced with the normal gene encoding the enzyme which is mutant in the patient |
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Where is the mononuclear phagocyte sytem derived
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Bone Marrow
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Describe the cause, symptoms and treatment of Globoid cell Leukodystrophy or Krabbe disease
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Cause: deficiency of galactocerebrosidase
Symptoms: relentless degeneration of central and peripheral myelin, spasticity, dementia, and peripheral neuropathy Treatment: bone marrow transplant |
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why is placental cord blood better than regular bone marrow (3)
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1.) recipients are more tolerant of histoincompatible blood than of other allogenic donor cells
2.) wide availability of cord blood 3.) risk of graft vs host disease is substantially reduced. |
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Why is placental cord blood particularly useful in neonatal Krabbe disease?
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there is a time dependence to treatment. Placental blood is readily available in comparison to bone marrow which can take a long time to locate a donor.
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what is the only treatment available for chronic liver disease associated with cystic fibrosis and a1AT deficiency
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live transplant
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Name two major problems limiting widespread use of
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1.)mortality after transplant is significnat
2.) finite supply of organs (cord blood is an exception) |
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Recombinant DNA therapy has shown promise in what field
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Severe combined immunodeficiency
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what is a risk of using recombinant gene therapy
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recombination brings with it a large risk of deletion/insertion mutations
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what is an episome
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stable nuclear but nonchromosomal piece of DNA
Similar to to the adenovirus. |
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For what types of cells is integration of genetic material not neccesary for gene therapy?
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long lived cells such as neurons, myocytes and hepatocytes
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How would gene therapy help patients with huntingtons disease.
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Recombination effects could remove CAG repeats. or the dominant allele entirely.
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How would conditions that don't involve the blood stream be treated by blood marrow transplants.
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PKU could be treated by implanting phenylalanine hydroxylase into bone marrow cells which would function as the normal enzyme in a new location
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What are the three most widely used classes of viral vectors
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1.) retrovirus
2.) adenovirus 3.) adeno-associated virus |
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how much DNA can be incorporated into a retrovirus?
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8kb
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what is a problem with the efficacy of retroviruses (aside from mutation)
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the cell must replicate in order to incorporate the material. this limits use in neurons.
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what is a lintivirus and what advantage does it provide?
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the class of viruses that include HIV, which are capable of incorporating DNA into slowly dividing cells.
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What are the benefits and disadvantages of adenoviruses
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Benefits: no adverse effects on humans, can be obtained at high titer
Disadvantage: only can hold up to 5kb. Associated with a death due to immune response in clinical trials. |
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List the 4 types of nonviral vectors
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1.) Naked DNA: cDNA or siRNA
2.) DNA packaged in liposomes 3.) protein-DNA conjugates 4.) artificial chormosomes |
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name 3 risks associated with gene therapy
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1.) immune response
2.) malignant neoplasms due to insertional inactiation of tumor supressor genes 3.) insertional inactivation of essential genes. |
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describe the cause and symptoms of X-linked SCID
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mutations in genes required for lymphocyte maturation. Patients lack B and T lymphocytes and early death is common.
X linked SCID is particularly caused by the loss of a gene encoding the gamma c-cytokine receptor. |
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why was X linked SCID chosen for gene therapy trials? (2)
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1.) restoration of the receptor form bone marrow studies demonstrates pathophysiological potential
2.) transduction would create a selective advantage over untransduced cells (testable) |
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What major setbackin the SCID trial is slowing research
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Development of lymphocytosis and leukemia due to insertion by the retroviral vector inot LMO2.
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What disease is mutations involving LMO2 associated with
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T cell accumulation and leukemia.
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what is Leber congenital amaurosis?
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photoreceptor degenerative disease, leading to blindness.
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What gene is affected in Leber congenital amaurosis
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more than 10 genes, but the RPE65 gene is the current focus
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What does RPE65 do?
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cycling of retinoids (vitamin A metabolites) to photoreceptors
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What holds back Duchenne muscular distrophy from gene therapy.
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large size of cDNA needed and the need to incorporate the gene into a massive number of myocytes.
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Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy involves a loss of function of what protein?
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dystrophin
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Hemophilia B is caused by what affected gene?
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Factor IX
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Is Brian Gay?
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Very
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Obvious |