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91 Cards in this Set

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What are common causes of anovulatory cycle?
disruption at any level in the hypothalamic–pituitary–ovarian (HPO) axis - Hypothalamic and brain, Pituitary,Ovarian, Systemic.
Common causes are Stress, menarche, menopause, anorexia nervosa
What is endometrial hyperplasia?
excessive proliferation and thickness of the endometrial cells in the uterus lining.
What causes endometrial hyperplasia?
hyperestrinism with the absence of progesterone. Commonly occurs after menopause in PCOS
What does endometrial hyperplasia place you at risk of?
endometrial cancer
What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
When there lacks an enzyme in the adrenal gland, which results in an overproduction of androgens - causes androgeny in women and shortness in adult men - and lower production in cortisol and aldosterone
What is endometriosis?
A condition where endometrial cells appear and flourish in aberrant locations outside the uterus
What are the common locations of endometriosis?
ovaries, interuterine ligaments, rectovaginal septum, pelvic peritoneum
what are the less common locations of endometriosis?
vulva, vagina, appendix, umbilicus
What are the symptoms of endometriosis?
severe dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain, infertility
How is endometriosis diagnosed?
laparoscopy looking for endometrial lesions, stroma or haemosiderin which is degraded haemoglobin
What are the potential origins or pathways of spread in endometriosis?
Regurgitation theory:
retrograde blood flow to the fallopian tubes where endometrial cells are regurgitated and adhere to the wall of peritoneal cavity
Metaplastic theory:
Where the coelomic epithelium undergoes metaplasia - causing endometrial cells on the epithelium of abdominal organs
Vascular/dissemination theory:
dissemination through lymph network and pelvic veins to explain lesions in lungs and lymph nodes.
What is cryptochidism?
unilateral or bilateral failure for testis to descend.
What is the descent pathway for testes?
genital ridge, abdomen, inguinal canal scrotal sac
Where are most undescended testes located?
abdomen in 15% of cases, inguinal canal 25%, high scrotal 60%
What is the rate of cryptochidism?
at birth 3-4%, at 1yo 1%
What is the prognosis for cryptochidism and treatment?
infertility, increased risk of malignancy (4-5times) and increase of trauma due to location and crushing against ligaments and bones.

Treatment is orchiplexy, surgical placement of the testicle in the scrotal sac before 2yo of age. This may not restore fertility later on.
Testicular torsions affect boys bewteen which ages?
12-18 year olds
Testicular torsions are caused by what?
twisting of spermatic cord
What people are particularly at risk of testicular torsion?
boys with bell clapper gubernaculums - allows testis free movement to twist and move in the scrotal sac.
What are the timelines of treatment for testicular torsion?
if rescued within 6 hours it is 100% recoverable, in 24hrs it is irretrievable and requires removal.
What are the most common viral STIs?
genital herpes (HSV), human papilloma virus (HPV), Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
What are the most common bacterial STIs?
gonorrhea, chlamydia, mycoplasma & syphilis
What are notifiable STIs?
Chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV, Syphilis, Hep B
Site of HSV1 and HSV2
replicate at the site of infection in skin and mucous membranes. HSV1&2 affect skin and genitals
What are the lesions like in HSV1&2
fluid filled vesicles which ulcerate after rupture
Is HSV1/2 curable - why?
the virus remains in previously disrupted nerve cells to ganglion. They wait until reactivation, caused by depleted immunity, which causes spread of the disease.
When is the HSV contagious
during outbreak
How many strains of HPV is there?
over 100
Which HPV strains cause warts?
1,2,4 and 7
Which HPV strains cause squamous cell carcinoma?
16 and 18
HPV can cause ...
cancer of the cervix, mouth, throat, anus, and 80% of penile cancers, which is rare in Aus due to hygeine and circumcision
HPV in pap smears most seen in women around what age
between 20 - 30
What bacterium is Gonorrhoea caused by
Neisseria gonorrhoea diplococcus which is a gram negative bacteria
How does gonorrhoea gain entry to the body
through columnar epithelium
T/F Gonorrhoea is more common in men than in women
False it is more common in women than in men
T/F Gonorrhoea is always symptomatic
False it can present asymptomatically
Does Gonorrhoea affect immune function
Yes, it affects IgA and raises the likelihood of becoming infected with other STIs
What are the common symptoms for Gonorrhoea?
burning during urination, itchiness and yellow discharge
What is the bacterium which causes chlamydia?
Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram negative obligate intracellular pathogen of columnar epithelial cells.
What symptoms does chlamydia cause?
burning, itching, yellow discharge and urethritis
T/F Men are more symptomatic than women in gonorrhoea
True
Women are affected by chlamydia more than men - true/false
True
Chlamydia often presents with which other STI?
Gonorrhoea
What is the most common STI in Australia
chlamydia
What is PID?
PID refers to the infection of the uterus, fallopian tubes and other reproductive organs
What is the cause of PID?
results from three main organisms gonorrhoea, chlamydia and ascending infection strep, staph, enteric bacteria
What are the symptoms of PID
pelvic pain, fever, vaginal discharge
PID is the cause of _______ in 30-40% of cases
infertility
How does PID account for 50% ectopic pregancies
PID causes salpingitis which is the inflammation of the fallopian tubes, if after scarring after chronic inflammation, the tubes are partially blocked the fertilised egg may remain in the fallopian tube.
What consequences can PID have (5)
peritonitis
intestinal obstruction
bacteremia
infertility
ectopic pregnancy
What kind of inflammation does PID cause
salpingitis, cervicitis, vaginitis, endometritis
What is the microbe responsible for syphilis
Caused by treponema pallidum
What is syphilis?
a systemic venereal disease with multiple presentations that eventually has CNS involvement
Describe the primary stage of syphilis
occurs approx 3 weeks after contact. Begins with chancre lesion. Lyphadenopathy may occur in primary or secondary stage.
Describe the secondary stage of syphilis
occurs 2 months - 2 years after initial infection. Spread of spirochetes, fever arthritis, lymphadenopathy
Describe the tertiary stage of syphilis
2-20 years after initial infection. Active inflammation of the aorta, heart and CNS
Describe the rule of 90s in relation to male reproductive tumours
90% 25-45 yo
90% curable
90% malignant
90% germ cell origin (5% leydig cells, sertoli cells, 5% metastases)
List the tumours of the testis
Seminoma
•Malignant nonseminomatous germ cell tumor
–Embryonal carcinoma
–Teratocarcinoma
–Choriocarcinoma
•Mixed germ cell tumors
•Teratoma
•Yolk sac tumor of infancy
•Sex cord tumours
–Leydig & Sertoli cells
What are the diseases of the prostate?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia, and carcinoma of the prostate
How common is benign prostatic hyperplasia?
affects 70% of men over 60
What are the symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Acute urine retention
Frequent urination
Nocturia
Poor stream
Explain why prostatic hyperplasia may lead to renal failure
Hyperplasia causes obstruction of the urethra leading to the retention of urine in the bladder. Greater pressure then in required for micturition which causes the ureterovesical angle to become less oblique and loss of valve function. High urine pressure is then transferred up the ureters from the bladder causing megaureter and hydronephrosis. Renal tissue undergoes atrophy - both ureters are affected so will result in renal failure
How significant is prostate cancer?
most common cancer in men, and is the 3rd highest cancer in terms of cancer related deaths
What are the risk factors of prostate cancer?
age, hormone influences, genetics, race, but otherwise unknown risk factors
where are prostate cancer metastases often found?
hematogenous spread often seeds the carcinoma in bone, lymph spread to other organs
What is the argument that prostate cancer is a chronic disease
there is a similar argument that there is dysplasia and cellular changes as early as 10 years prior to neoplasia
Where is prostate cancer found? Is this the same zone as prostatic hyperplasia?
70% in the peripheral zone of the prostate as opposed to prostatic hyperplasia found in the central zone
Most common cancer of the cervix?
SCC at 90%
Describe the CIN rating system
stands for cervix intraepithelial neoplasia and extends from CIN1,2,3.
CIN1 is mild dysplasia
CIN2 is moderate dysplasia
CIN3 is carcinoma in situ
How sensitive are pap smears?
72% sensitivity and 94% specificity
Staging of SCC in the cervix is rated on what?
lymph node involvement, size, invasion and metastatic potential
What is the prognosis for the various stages of SCC cervical cancer?
Stage 1 85% confined to cervix
Stage 2 75% upper vagina
Stage 3 35% lower vagina and pelvic wall
Stage 4 10% metastases
What are the two tumour tissue types in the uterus
Tumours of the myometrium and the endometrium
What is the tumours of the myometrium and how common are they?
Leiomyomas and Leiomyosarcomas, benign is common, malignant is rare
What is the tumour(s) of the endometrium? and the incidence?
adenosarcoma, and common
What is leiomyomas of the myometrium, incidence, and the three specific locations
fibroids, 25% women, subserosal, submucosal, intramural.
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?
hyperestrinism, endometrial hyperplasia, perimenopause, post menopause, endometriosis
What is the prognosis of adenocarcinoma of the endometrium?
Poor after Stage 1 which is 90%, then 50%, 20% and 5%
Are ovarian tumours common? T/F
True
Ovarian tumours can grown in which locations?
epithelium, germ cells, sex cord stroma, non specific stroma
What's the incidence of ovarian tumours?
6% in cancers in women
What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?
nulliparity, family history, BRCA1, BRCA 2
What is another term for teratoma>
dermoid cyst
Who is most likely to get a teratoma?
Women younger than 25
What is unique about teratomas?
multipotential --> any tissue type, often mixed cell tumour
What is an ectopic pregnancy
fertilised egg outside of the uterus.
90% of ectopic pregnancies are caused by PID T/F
False. 50% are
What are the 4 outcomes of ectopic pregnancies?
intratubal haemorrage from dissociating placenta, intratubal rupture, regression and abdominal abortion
What is Gestational trophoblastic disease?
tumour like condition of pregnancy associated trophoblastic tissue
What is a hydatidiform mole?
A hydatidiform mole is a rare mass or growth that forms inside the uterus at the beginning of a pregnancy. It is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
Two types of moles, incomplete and partial. Complete sperm fetilizes an ovum with no nucelus, or two sperm fertilize an empty egg. (androgenesis)

Partial mole are normally triploidy
What is the link between hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinoma
Complete molar pregnancies are linked to choriocarcinoma (2%)