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402 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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bending a limb at a joint
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flexion
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straightening a limb at a joint
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extension
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moving a limb away from the midline of the body
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abduction
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moving a limb toward the midline of the body
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adduction
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turning the forearm so that the palm is down
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pronation
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turning the forearm so that the palm is up
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supination
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moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
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circumduction
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moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle
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inversion
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moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle
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eversion
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moving the head around a central axis
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rotation
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moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground
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protraction
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moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground
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retraction
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raising a body part
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elevation
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lowering a body part
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depression
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these joints are freely movable because they have bones that are separted from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity
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synovial joints
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this is an enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid, much like a joint located in areas of potential friction and help muscles and tendons glide smmothly over bone
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bursa
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this is composed of bundles of muscle fibers, or fasiculi Is attached to bone by a tendon.
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skeletal muscle
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also known as growth plates
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epiphyses
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at what age does the closure of the epipyses
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20
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The most characteristic change in posture of a pregnant female is know as what?
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lordosis
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what is referred to as the loss of bone density
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osteoporosis
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what is the aging adults decreased height due to?
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shortening of the vertebral column. caused by loss of water content and thining of the intervetebral disks, which occurs more in the middle years, and a decrease in height of individual vertebrae, which occurs in later yrs. from osteoporosis
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In reference to the musculoskeletal system what is some subjective data?
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1. joints
pain, stiffniess, swelling, heat, redness, limitation 2. muscles pain (cramps), weakness 3. Bones pain, deformity, trauma (fractures, sprains, dislocations) 4. Functional assessment (ADL) 5. Self-care behaviors |
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what is the most common musculoskeletal concerns that prompt a person to seek care?
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joint pain and loss of function
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what are some questions the examiner would ask for joints?
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any problems w/ jts. pain?
loc. which jts. 1 side, both side, quality, severity, onset, timing, how often, is the pain aggravated by movement, rest, position, weather? pain relieved by rest, med., application of heat or ice, is thepain assoc. w/ chills, fever, recent sore throat, trauma, repititive activity, any stiffness, swelling, heat, redness, limitaion, which activities give you problems |
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What time of day is rheumatoid arthritis worse?
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morning
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What time of day is osteoarthritis worse?
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Later on the day
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What time of day is tendinitis worse?
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morning, improves during the day
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Joint injury occurs from?
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trauma, repetitive motion
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Rheumatoid arthritis stiffness occurs when?
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morning and after rest periods
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what is muscle pain usually felt like
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cramping or aching
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what does the examiner ask in ref. to muscles?
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any problems in the muscles, such as pain, cramping?, if in calf is the pain when walking, does it go away w/ rest?, are your muscle aches assoc. w/ fever, chills, the "flu", any weakness in muscles., location where is the weakness, how long have you noticed weakness, do the muscles look smaller there?
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What does the examiner ask in ref to bones?
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any bone pain, affected by movmt., any deformity of any bone or jt. due to injury trauma, does it affect the ROM, any accidents or trauma,:fractures, jt. strain, sprain, dislocation, which ones?when did this occur? at treatment was given? any problems or limitations now? any back pain, in which part, is it felt anywhere else like shooting down leg?, any numbness, tingling, limping
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What does the examiner ask in ref. to functional assessment? (ADL)
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Do your jt. problems create any limits on your usual activities of daily living? which one? if the person answers yes ask specifically about each activity, bathing, toileting, dressing, grooming, eating, mbility, communicating
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Why is it important to screen for functional assessment
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Funcional assessment is important to screen the safety of independent living, the need for home health care services, and quality of life. Assess any self care deficit
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what are some examples of questions the examiner would ask in ref. to self care behaviors
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any occupational hazards that could affect eh muscles and jts.? does your work invlove heavy lifting or any repetitive motion or chronic stres to jts. any efforts to alleviate these? thell me about your exercise program, any pain, how do you treat it, have you had any recent wt. gain, please describe your daily diet. taking any med. for musc system: aspirin,..., ifperson has chronic disability or crippling illness: how was your illness affected (interfered w/ family, friends, the way you view yourself)
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What is some additional history for infants and children?
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were you told about any trauma to inant during labor and delivery? did the baby come head first? was there a need for forceps
did the baby needd resuscitation were the baby's motor milestones achieved at about the same time as siblings or age mates has your child ever broken any bones, have you ever noticed any bone deformity? spinal curvature? |
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what is some additional history for adolescents
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involved in any sports how frequently,
do you use any special equip, what is the nature of your daily warm up, what do you do if you get hurt, how does your sport fit in w/ other shool demands and other activities |
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what is some additional history for the aging adult
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use the functional assessment history quest. to elicit any loss of function, self care deficit, or safety risk that may occur as a process of aging or musculoskeletal,
any change in weakness over the past mo. or yr. any increase in falls or stumbling over the past. mo or yr do you use any mobility aids to help you get around |
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when is a complete musculoskeleatl examination appropriate
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when the person has articular disease, a history of musculoskeletal symptoms, or any problems w/ ADL
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how is the normal screening musculoskeletal examination
done |
inspection and palpation of jt. integrated w/ each body region
observation of ROM as person proceeds through motions, age specific screening measures, such as ortolani's sign for infants, or scoliosis screening for adolescents |
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what is the order of the examination
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inspect, palpate, ROM, Muscle testing
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what would you inspect in ref to musculoskeletal
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the size and contour of the jt. inspect the skin and tissues over the jts. for color, swelling, and any masses or deformity. presence of swelling is significant and signals jt. irritation.
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when palpating what things would you look for
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palpate each jt., for skin temp., muscles, bony articulations, and are of jt. capsule,
notice any heat, tenderness, swelling, or masses. |
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if you see a limitation, in active rom you would attempt
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passive rom
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what would you use to measur joint angles
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geniometer
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is palpable fluid normal or abnormal
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abnormal, because fluid is contained in an enclosed sac, if you push on one side of the sac, the fluid will shift and cause a visible bulging on another side.
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deformities in the joints include?
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dislocation, subluxation, contracture, ankylosis
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this term is one or more bones in a jt. being out of position
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dislocation
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what is term to describe a shortening of a muscle leading to limited ROM of joint
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contracture
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this term is defined as stiffness or fixation of a jt.
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ankylosis
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is palpable fluid considered to be normal or abnormal
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abnormal, because fluid is contained in an enclosed sac, if you push on one side of the sac, the fluid will shift and cause a visible bulging on another side
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what would you use to determine the angle of greatest flexion
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goniometer
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this term is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement. it occurs when the articular surfaces in the jts. are roughened
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crepitation
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describe subcutaneous nodules
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are raised, firm, and nontender, and overlying skin moves freely. common sites are in the olecranon bursa and along extensor surface of the ulna, occur w/ RA
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how would you perform the phanlen's test
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ask the person to hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrist 90 deg. acute flexion of the wrist for 60 sec. produces no symptoms in the normal hand
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what would the abnormal findings be in a phalen's test
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reproduces numbness and burning in a person w/ carpal tunnel syndrome
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how would you perform the tinel's test
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direct percussion of the location of the median nerve at the wrist produces no symptoms in the normal hand
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how would you perform the bulge sign
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firmly stroke up on the medial aspect of the knee 2-3 times to displace any fluid watch the medial side in the hollow for a distinct bulge from a fluid wave. normally none is present
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describe the abnormal bulge sign
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occurs w/ very small amts of effusion, 4-8mm from fluid flowing across the jt
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what is the ballottement of the patella test?
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is reliable when larger amts. of fluid are present.
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how would you perform the ballottement of the patella test
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use your left hand to compress the suprapatellar pouch to move any fluid into the knee jt. w/ you rt. hand, push the patella sharply against the femur, if no fluid is present the patella is already snug against the femur
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pronounced crepitus is significant and it occurs w/ what
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degenerative diseases of the knee
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what is the test for meniscal tears
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mcmurray's test
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how would you perform the mcmurray's test
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perform this test when the person has reported a history of trauma followed by locking, giving way, or local pain in the knee. position the person supine as you stand on the affected side. hold the heel and flex the knee and hip. place your other hand on the knee w/ fingers on the medial side. rotate the leg in and out to loosen the jt. externally rotate the leg and push a valgus (inward) stress on the knee . normally the leg extends smoothly w/ no pain
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what is the abnormal finding of the mcmurray's test
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if you hear or feel a click mcmurray's test is positive for torn meniscus
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where would you start the examinatin in infants
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start w/ feet and work your way up the extremeties
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what is referred to as the twisting of the tibia
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tibial torsion
place both feet flat on the table and push to flex up the knees. w/ the patella and the tibial tubercle in a straight line, place your fingers on the malleoli. in an infant, note that a line connecting the four malleoli is parallel to the table |
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the hindfoot is in alignment w/ the lower leg and just the forefoot angles inward. this forefoot adduction is?
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metartarsus adductus. it is usually present at birth and usually resolves spontaneously by age 3
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this is referred to as the adduction and invesion of the foot?
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metatarsus varus
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what is the most reliable method in checking the infants hips for congenital dislocation
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ortolani's maneuver,
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when should the ortolani's maneuver be done
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at every professinal visit until the infant is 1.
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what is the allis test used for
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also used to check for hip dislocation by comparing leg lengths
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what would be an abnormal finding of a allis test
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one knee significantly lower than the other is a positive indication of allis' sign and suggest dislocation
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how would you perform the allis test
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place the baby's feet flat on the table and flex the knees up. scan the tops fo the knees; normally they are at the same elevation
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a tuft of hair over a dimple in the midline of the infant may indicate what
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spina bifida
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what is the term to describe extra fingers or toes
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polydactyly
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what is the term to describe webbing between adjacent fingers or toes
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syndactyl
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this is a single palmar crease that occurs w/ down syndrome accompanied by short broad fingers, incurving of little fingers, and low set thumbs
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simian cease
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a small dimple in the midline anywhere fromthe head to the coccys-suggests what
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dermoid sinus
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a baby who starts to "slip" between your hands shows what?
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a weakness of the shoulder muscles
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this term is referred to as a "bowlegged" stance
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genu varum
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this is a lateral bowing of the legs.
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genu varum (knees apart)
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this is known as "knock knees"
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genu valgum (knees together)
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this is present when there is more than 2.5 cm between the medial malleoli when the knees are together it occurs between 2 &3.5 yr. treatment is not indicated
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genu valgum
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also known as flat foot
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pes planus
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when would you scree for scoliosis and how would you test it
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is common during adolescence because of chronic poor posture. screen w/ the forward bend test starting at age 10-12,
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pain or tenderness in extremeties is usually caused by?
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trauma or infection
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what is the expected postural changes in pregnancy
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include progressive lordosis and toward the third trimester, anterior cervical flexion, kyphosis, and slumped shoulder
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what is the postural changes in the aging adult
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include a decrease in ht., more apparent in the 8th and 9th decades also slight flexion of hips and knees, kyphosis is also common
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what are some contour changes in the aging adult
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include a decrease of fat in the body periphery and fat deposition over the abdomen and hips. the bony prominences become more marked.
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For the aging adult you need to determine adequate and safe performance of functions essential for independent home life what would instruct the person
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walk (w/ shoes on), climb up stairs, walk down stairs, pick up object from floor, rise up from sitting in chair, rise up from lying in bed
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this is swelling from excess fluid in the jt. capsule, best observed anteriorly. fluctuant to palpation.
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joint effusion
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wrist in extreme flexion, due to severe rheumatoid arthritis.
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ankylosis
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what is the term to describe flexion contracture.
it occurs w/ chronic rheumatoid arthritis and is often accompanied by ulnar drift of the fingers |
swan neck often resembles curve of swan's neck
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this term is relatively common deformity and includes flexion of proximal interphalangeal jt. w/ compensatory hyperextension of distal interphalangeal jt
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boutonniere deformity the knuckle looks as if it is being pushed through a buttonhole.
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this is characterized by hard, nontender nodules, 2-3mm or more.
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osteoarthritis
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Osteophytes (bony over growth) of the distal interphalangeal jts are called
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Heberden's nodes
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the osteophytes of the proximal jts are called
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bouchard's nodes
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this is painful swelling and stiffness of jts. w/ fusiform or spindle shape swelling of the soft tissue of proximal intephalangeal jts. fusiform swelling is usually symmetric, the hands are warm and the veins are engorged. the inflamed jt. have range of motion
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acute rheumatoid arthritis
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inflammation of a tendon sheath near the ankle produces a superficial linear swelling and a localized tenderness along the route of the sheath. mov't of the involved tendon usually causes pain
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achilles tenosynovitis
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this is the term to describe the lateral curvature of thoracic and lumbar segments of the spine, usually w/ some involved vertebral bodies
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scoliosis
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describe functional scoliosis
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is flexible; it is apparent w/ standing and disappears w/ forward bending. it may be compensatory for other abnormalities such as leg length discrepency
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describe structural scoliosis
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is fixed; the curvature shows both on standing and on bending forward.
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this is a congenital, rigid, and fixed malposion of foot including 1. inversion, 2. forefoot adducion and 3. foot pointing downward (equinus). a common birth defect, w/ an incidence of 1:1000, to 3:1000 live births males are affected twice as frequently as females
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talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
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where does the stensen's duct run?
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forward to open on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar
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where does the wharton's duct run?
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up and forward to the floor of the mouth and opens at either side of the frenulum
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how many teeth do adults normally have
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32 permanent teeth 16 in each arch
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how many teeth do children have
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20 deciduos, or temporary teeth, all should appear by 2 1/2 yr. of age
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nasal stuffiness and epistaxis may occur during pregnancy due to increased what?
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vascularity in the upper respiratory tract
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at what age does the decrease in the sensation of smell begin
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after age 60, and it continues progresively w/ age
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what are some things that may be lossed in the aging adult in ref. to the mouth?
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the oral cavity the soft tissues atrophy and the epi. thins, especially in the cheek and tongue. a decrease in salivary secretion and the presence of dentures that cover secondary taste sites. tooth surface is abraded, gums begin to recede and the teeth begin to erode at the gum line.
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what are some things that may start to happen during later middle adult years?
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a gradual loss of subcutaneous fat starts during later middle adult years, making the nose appear more prominent in some people. the nose hairs grow coarser and stiffer and may not filter the air as well. the hairs protrude and may cuase itching and sneezing.also the sense of smell may diminish because of a decrease in the olfactory nerve fibers
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this is a condition in which the uvula is split either completely or partially
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bifid uvula
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if tooth loss occurs, the remaining teeth drift, causing what?
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malocclusion
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what would be some subjective data in the nose?
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discharge, frequent colds, sinus pain, trauma, epistaxis, allergies, altered smell
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what would be some subjective data in the mouth and throat?
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sores or lesions, sore throat, bleeding gums, toothache, hoarseness dysphagia, altered taste, smoking, alcohol consumption, self care behaviors, dental pattern dentures or appliances
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the stress of chewing w/ maloccluding teeth causes further problems what are they?
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1.excessive bone resorption w/ further tooth loss occurs; 2. muscle imbalance results form a mandible and maxilla now out of alignment,which produces muscle spasms, tenderness of muscles of mastification and chronic headaches; and 3. the temporomandibular jt. is stressed, leading to osteoarthritis, pain and inablility fully open mouth.
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this occurs w/ trauma, vigorous nose blowing, foreigh body
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epistaxis
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what should a person do if epistaxis occurs
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sit up w/ head tilted forward, pinch nose between thumb and forefinger for 5 to 15 min.
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this occurs w/ many conditions, including gastroesophageal reflux disease, pharyngitis, stroke and other neurologic diseases, esophageal cancer
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dysphagia
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what is some additional (subjective info) history for infants and children in ref. to self care behaviors
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does the child have any mouth inf. or sores, such as thrush or canker sores, does the child have frequent sore throat, did the child's teeth erupt about on time?, are the teeth straight to you, using a bottle etc.,
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what is some additional history for the aging adult
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any dryness in the mouth, are you taking any med., have you had any loss of teeth, can you chew all types of food, are you able ot care for your own teeth, noticed a change in your sense of taste or smell
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what term is used when the nasal mucosa is swollen and bright red w/ an upper respiratory infection
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rhinitis, discharge is common w/ this, varying from watery and copious to thick, purulent, and green yellow
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with chronic allergy mucosa looks like what?
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swollen, boggy, pale, and gray
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what is the objective data in ref to nose?
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inspect and palpate the nose external nose, nasal cavity,
palpate the sinus areas (transillumination), |
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a deviated septum looks like a what?
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hump or shelf in the nasal cavity
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this is seen as a spot of light form penlight shining in other naris
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perforation
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sinus areas are tender to palpation in persons w/?
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chronic allergies and acute infection (sinusitis)
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you may use this technique when you suspect sinus inflammation, although it is of limited usefulness
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transillumination
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When inspecting the mouth what things are considered to be objective?
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lips-color, moisture, cracking or lesions
teeth and gums-note any diseased, absent, loose, or abnormally positioned teeth, compare the number of teeth to what is expected; gums look pink o rcoral w/ a stippled (dotted) surface; tongue- check fo rcolor, surface characteristics, and moisture buccal mucosa- for color, nodules, or lesions, palate-the more anterior hard palate is white w/ irregular transverse rugae. the soft palate is pinker smooth, and upwardly movable |
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this is cracking at the corners of the lips
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cheilitis (perleche)
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an expected finding upon inspecting a buccal mucosa is a stensen's duct which is what
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the opening of the parotid salivary gland.
|
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what does the abnormal orifice of stenson's duct look like?
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red w/ mumps
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this is a prodromal sign of measles found in the buccal mucosa
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koplik's spots
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this is a benign grayish opague area, more common in blacks and east indians found in the buccal mucosa
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leudoedema
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these are small isolated white or yellow papules on the mucosa of cheek, tongue, and lips
little sebaceous cysts are painless and not significant |
fordyce's granules
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what is an abnormal hard palate appear to be?
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yellow w/ jaundice. in blacks w jaundice, it may llk yellow, muddy yellow, or green brown
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this is the most common early lesion in people w/aids on the palate
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oral kaposi's sarcoma
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some objective info. in inspecting the throat would include?
|
observe the oval, rough surfaced tonsils behind the anterior tonsillar pillar. the color is the same pink as the oral mucosa and their surfae is peppered w/ indentations, or crypts. in some crypts collect small plugs of whitish cellular debris.
|
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tonsils are graded in size as the following?
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1+ visible
2+ halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula 3+ touching the uvula 4+ touching each other |
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with an acute infection, tonsils appear to be what?
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bright red, swollen and may have exudate or large white spots
|
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nasal flaring in the infant indicates?
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respiratory distress
|
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a transverse ridge across the nose of a child occurs w/ ?
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chronic allergy from wiping the nose upward w/ palm.
|
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summary checklist for the nose?
|
1. inspect and external nose for symmetry, and deformity, or lesions 2. palpation-test patency of each nostril 3. inspect using nasal speculum: color and integrity of nasal mucosa, septum-note any deviation, perforation or bleeding turbinates-note color, any exudate, swelling, or polyps
4. palpate teh sinus areas-note any tenderness |
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summary checklist for mouth and throat?
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1. inspect using penlight: lips, teeth and gums, tongue, buccal mucosa-note color; if structures are intact, any lesions
palate and uvula-note integrity and mobility as person phonates grade tonsils, pharyngeal wall-note colro, any exudate, or lesions 2. palpation: when indicated in adults, bimanual palpation of mouth w/ the neonate, palpate for integrity of palate and to assess sucking reflex |
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this is a small boil located in the skin or mucous membrane appears red and swollen and is quite painful. avoid any manipulation or trauma that may spread the infection
|
furuncle
|
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these cold sores are groups of clear vesicles w/ a surrounding indurated erythematous base. evolve into pustules, which rupture, weep, and crust and heal in 4-10 days
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herpes simplex 1
|
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chalky white, thick, raised patch w/ well defined borders. the lesion is firmly attached and does not scrape off.
it may occur on the lateral edges of tongue. it is due to chronic irritation and occurs more frequently w/ heavy smoking and heavy alcohol use. lesions are precancerous, and the person should be referred |
leukoplakia
|
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a white cheesy, curdlike patch on the buccal mucosa and tongue. it scrapes off, leaving raw, red surface that bleeds easild
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candidiasis or monilial, termed "thrush"
|
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the surface is slick and shiny; the mucosa thins and looks red from decreased papillae. accompanied by dryness of tongue and burning
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smooth, glossy tongue (atrophic glossitis)
|
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pattern of normal coating interspersedw/ bright red, shiny, circular bald areas, having raised pearly borders. pattern resembles a map, and changes in a few days
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geographic tongue (migratory glossitis)
|
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also known as tongue tie
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ankloglossia
|
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the elongation of filiform papillae and painless overgrowth of mcelial threads of fungus infection on the tongue.
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black hairy tongue
|
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enlarged tongue may protude from mouth what is it also referred to as
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macroglossia
|
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an ucer w/ rolled edges; indurated. occurs particularly at sides, base, adn under the tongue
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carcinoma
|
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what term is referred to as decay in teeth
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caries
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cheilitis
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red scaling, shallow, painful fissures at corners of mouth
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closure of nasal cavity due ot congenital septum between ansal cavity and pharynx
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choanal atresia
|
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nosebleed, usually from anterior septum
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epistaxis
|
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"canker sores" small painful round ulcers in the oral mucosa of unknown cause
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aphthous ulcers
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this separates the external ear and middle ear and is translucent membrane w/ a pearly gray color
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typmanic memebrane or eardrum
|
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the middle ear has three functions what are they:
|
1. it conducts sound vibration form the outer ear to the central hearing apparatus in the inner ear
2. it protects the inner ear by reducing the amplitude of loud sounds 3. its eustachian tube allows equalization of air proessure on each side of the tympanic membrane so that the membrane does not rupture |
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concerning the fuction of hearing, the auditory system can be divided into three levels?
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peripheral, brainstem, and cerebral cortex.
|
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what is the term to describe the middle ear infection
|
ottitis media, or OM
|
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what is some subjective data in ref. to ears
|
1. earaches, 2. infections, 3. discharge 4. hearing loss
5. environmental noise 6. tinnitus 7. vertigo 8. selfcare behaviors |
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what is the term to describe an outer ear infection
|
ottitis externa
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what would the examiner ask on the focused patient history when reviewing the system?
|
Hx frequent ear infection (OM, OE)
Discharge? (ottorhea, rhinorrhea) Hearing deficits Speech or language problems Immunization history |
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discharge in the ear is also known as what?
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otorrhea and suggests infection; it may come from canal or may indicate a perforated eardurm
|
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what would the examiner ask of the past health when examining the ears?
|
*chilhood illnesses- history of frequent URI's, history of frequent ear infections, external and middle
*history of accidents, illnesses, no serious or chronic illnesses, no ear or other surgery *immunizations-of significance is pertussis, HIB, phneumoccal (PCV-7) *Developmental history speech and language *adaptive device, hearing aids *environmental noise, use of ear jacks *newborn hearing screen last exam date, hearing test results *allergies *current medications |
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What would the examiner ask of the family history when examining the ears?
|
Family social history
*history of ear infection *smoking *child care *self care-bottle feeding, pacifier use, ear canal cleansing *swimming-ottitis externa? |
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Objective data:
when palpating the ears what are you looking for? |
*tenderness or deformity:
tragus, pinna, mastoiditis |
|
Objective data:
when inspecting the external ear what are you looking for? |
*alignment, size, shape, symmetry
*skin: eczema, seborrhea, SCC, decubiti *masses, nodes, nodules, furuncles *drainage (otorrhea) *hygiene |
|
Objective data:
when using the otoscope what are you looking for? |
The external canal,the tympanic membrane,
|
|
how would you use the otoscope?
|
tilt the person's head slightly away from you toward the opposite shoulder. pull the pinna up and back on an adult or older child; this helps straighten the S-shape of the canal; pull the pinna down on an infant and a child under 3 yr. of age hold the pinna gently but firmly. hold the otoscope upside down. lastly perform the otoscopic examination before you test hearing; ear canals w/ impacted cerumen give the erroneous impression of pathologic hearing loss
|
|
Frank blood or clear, watery drainage (cerebrospinal fluid) following trauma suggests what?
|
basal skull fracture and warrents immediate referral. CSF fees oily and is positive for glucose on TesTape.
|
|
When inpecting the external canal w/ the otoscope what are you looking for?
|
*canal-note any redness and swelling, lesions, foreign bodies, or discharge.
(color, lesions, masses, discharge/cerumen/, foreign bodies/irritation from hearing aid, otitis externa (OE)). |
|
what is the normal eardrum look like?
|
shiny and translucent, w/ a pearl-gray color. the coneshaped light reflex is prominent in the anteroinferior quadrant (5o'clock in the rt. ear drum, 7o'clock in the left drum)
|
|
what sections are visible through the translucentdrum:
|
the umbo, manubrium, and short process
|
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when inspecting the tympanic membrane what are some of the objectives information you will be looking for?
|
coor and characteristics, position, integrity of membrane
|
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what does the scarring look like on the membrane of the tympanic?
|
is a dense white patch on the drum this is a sequele of repeated ear infections
|
|
a perforation in the ear drum appears to be what?
|
as a dark oval area or as a larger opening on the drum
|
|
what are the tests you would perform in testing hearing acuity
|
voice test, tuning fork tests which includes the weber test, and rinne test
|
|
how is the voice test done
|
by placing one finger on the tragus and rapidly pushing it in and out of the auditory meatus. shild your lips so the person cannot compensate for a hearing loss w/ your head 30-60cm from the person's ear exhale and whisper slowly some two syllable words, normally the person repeats each word correctly after you say it.
|
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what kind of sound is a whisper
|
high frequency sound and is used to detect high tone loss
|
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what do tuning fork tests measure?
|
hearing by air conduction (AC) or by bone conduction (BC), in which the sound vibrates through the cranial bones to the inner ear.
|
|
how would you activate the tuning fork,
|
hold it by the stem and strike the tines softly on the back of your hand. a hard strike makes the tone too loud, and it takes a long time to fade out.
|
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when is the weber test valuable
|
when a person reports hearing better w/ one ear than the other.
|
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how would you perform the weber test
|
place a vibrating tuning fork in the midline of the person's skull and ask if the tone sounds the same in both ears or better in one. the person should hear the tone by bone conduction through the skull, and it should sound equally loud in both ears
|
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what does the rinne test compare?
|
air conduction and bone conduction sound
|
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how do you perform the rinne test
|
place the stem of the vibrating tuning fork on the person's mastoid process and ask him or her to signal when the sound goes away
normally the sound is heard twice as long by air conduction (next to ear) as by bone conduciton (through the mastoid process) |
|
what is a normal respone in for the rinne test?
|
AC>BC
|
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what does the romberg test assess
|
the ability of the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear to help maintain standing balance. also asses intactness of the cerebellum and proprioception
|
|
why isn't the otoscopic examination not performed at birth
|
because it is filled w/ amniotic fluid and vernix caseosa
|
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normally the tympanic membrane is intact in children however a child being treated for chronic otitis media, you may note what?
|
the presence of a tympanostomy tube in the central part of the drum. this is inserted surgically to equalize pressure and drain secretions
|
|
what is the summary when inspecting the external ear?
|
-size and shape fo auricle
-position and alignment on head -note skin condition-color, lumps, lesions -ck mov't of auricle and targus for tenderness -evaluate external auditory meatus-note size, swelling, redness, discharge, cerumen, lesions, froeign bodies |
|
what is the summary when doing the otoscopic examination?
|
-external canal
-cerumen, discharge, foreign bodies, lesions -redness or swelling of canal wall |
|
what is the summary when inspecting the tympanic membrane?
|
-color and characteristics
-note position (flat, bulging, retracted) -integrity fo membrane |
|
what is the summary when testing the hearing acuity?
|
-note behavioral response to conversational speech
-voice test -tuning fork test-weber and rinne |
|
normally the tympanic membrane is intact in children however a child being treated for chronic otitis media, you may note what?
|
the presence of a tympanostomy tube in the central part of the drum. this is inserted surgically to equalize pressure and drain secretions
|
|
what is the summary when inspecting the external ear?
|
-size and shape fo auricle
-position and alignment on head -note skin condition-color, lumps, lesions -ck mov't of auricle and targus for tenderness -evaluate external auditory meatus-note size, swelling, redness, discharge, cerumen, lesions, froeign bodies |
|
what is the summary when doing the otoscopic examination?
|
-external canal
-cerumen, discharge, foreign bodies, lesions -redness or swelling of canal wall |
|
what is the summary when inspecting the tympanic membrane?
|
-color and characteristics
-note position (flat, bulging, retracted) -integrity fo membrane |
|
what is the summary when testing the hearing acuity?
|
-note behavioral response to conversational speech
-voice test -tuning fork test-weber and rinne |
|
otitis externa is also known as what?
|
swimmer's ear it is an infection of the outer ear, w/ severe painful mov't of the pinna and tragus, redness and swelling of pinna and canl, scanty purulent discharge, scaling, itching, fever, and enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
|
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these are small painless nodule at the helix. It is a congenital variation and is not sifnificant.
|
darwin's tubercle
|
|
these are small whitish-yellow, hard, nontender nodules in or near helix or antihelix;p contain greasy, chalky material of uric acid crystals and are a sign of gout
|
tophi
|
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this is an ulcerated crusted nodule w/ indurated base that fails to heal.
|
carcinoma
|
|
overgrowth of scar tissue, which invades original site of trauma
|
keloid
|
|
location is commonly behind lobule, in the postauricular fold.
|
sebaceous cyst,
|
|
define otitis externa
|
severe swelling of canal, inflammation, ternderness
|
|
define osteoma,
|
single, stony hard, rounded nodule that obscures the drum, nontender; overlying skin appears normal.
|
|
define furuncle
|
exquisitely painful, reddened, infected hair follicle.
|
|
define exotosis
|
more comon than osteoma. small, bony hard, rounded nodules of hypertrophic bone, covered w/ normal epithelium
|
|
this arises in canl from granulomatous or mucosal tissue; redder than surrounding skin and bleeds easily; bathed in foul purulent discharge; indicates chronic ear disease.
|
polyp
|
|
describe a performation
|
if an acute otitis media is not treated, the drum may rupture from increased pressure. perforation also occur from trauma. usually appears as a round or oval darkened area on the drum,
|
|
this is an amber-yellow drum suggests serum in the middle ear that transudates to relieve negative pressure from the blocked eustachian tube
|
serous otitis media
|
|
this indicates blood in the middle ear, as in trauma resulting in skull fracure
|
blue drum (hemotympanum)
|
|
this is a colony of black or white dots on drum or canal wall
|
suggests a yeast or fungal infection
*fungal infection (otomycosis) |
|
OS aka
|
oculus sinister, or left eye
|
|
OD aka
|
orulus dexter, or right eye
|
|
OU aka
|
both eyes
|
|
what is the subjective data related to eyes (hx:cc)
|
*acuity change's
*blurring *clouding? cataract *floaters? myompia, retinal detachment *blind spots (scotoma)? glaucoma, migraine, neuro *night blindness? glaucoma, decreased Vit A *halso? glaucoma |
|
What is the subjective data RT eyes (hx:pi)
|
Pallative: provactive: tried
Quality: burn/itch/pressure/stabbing Region/Radiation: uni/bilateral Severity/scale: intensity Timing: onset, duration Understanding? what the pt. fears the most |
|
what might be some other SX
|
tearing, photosensitivity/ phopia, vision changes, eye discharge (color,amt.,dry eyes (xeropthalmia), crusting/matting), redness or swelling, seasonal allergies, trauma or FB (foreign bodies)
Contact lens? |
|
Patient history that is subjective data:
|
*strabismus (eso/exotropia)
*diplopia *glaucoma *corrective lens *surgery *medications *self care behaviors (vision exams, occupational hazards) |
|
what are some objective tools for an eye exam?
|
snellen chart, handheld vision screener, opaque card/occluder, penlight, ophthalmoscope, ishihara's test, gloves, OD, OS, OU
|
|
in the aging population the most common causes of decreased visual functioning are:
|
1. cataract formation, or lens opacity
2. glaucoma, or increased ocular pressure 3. macular degeneration. |
|
pupillary light reflex is the normal constriction of the pupils when?
|
bright light shines on the retina
|
|
what is fixation in ref. to visual reflexes?
|
this is a reflex direction of the eye toward an object attracting a person's attention
|
|
this is adaptation of the eye for near vision.
|
accomodation
|
|
at what age does the eyeball reach adult size
|
by 8
|
|
what is the subjective data for eyes?
|
1. vision difficulty (decreased, acuity, blurring, blind spots), 2. pain, 3. strabismus, diplopia 4. redness, swelling, 5. watering, discharge 6. past history of ocular problems 7. glaucoma, 8. use of glasses or contact lenses, 9. self-care behaviors
|
|
these are common w/ myopia or after middle age due to condensed vitreous fibers. Usually not significant but acute onset ("shade" or cobwebs") may occur w/ retinal detachment
|
floaters
|
|
halos around light occur w/
|
acute narrow angle glaucoma
|
|
this is a blind spot in the visual field surrounded by an area of normal or decreased vision, occurs w/ glaucoma, w/ optic nerve and visual pathway disorders
|
scotoma
|
|
night blindness occurs w/
|
optic atrophy, glaucoma, or vit. a deficiency
|
|
this is an inability to tolerate light
|
photophobia
|
|
this is a deviation in the anteroposterior axis of the eye
|
strabismus
|
|
this is the perception of two images of a single object
|
diplopia
|
|
also known as tearing
|
lacrimation due to irritants or obstrucion in drainage of tears
|
|
also known as excessive tearing
|
epiphora due to irritants or obstruction in drainage of tears
|
|
this is an eye disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure
|
glaucoma
|
|
this test is most commonly used and accurately measures of visual acuity
|
snellen alphabet chart
|
|
normal vision acuity is 20/20, what does the top number mean? bottom?
|
top indicates the distance the person is standing from the chart while the denominator gives teh distance at which a normal eye could have read that particular line
|
|
for people over 40 or for those who report increasing difficulty reading, test near vision using?
|
a handheld vision screener
|
|
this is the decrease in power of accomodation w/ aging is suggested when the person moves the card farther away
|
presbyopia
|
|
what is the confrontation test
|
this is a gross measure of peripheral vision, it compare's the person's peripheral vision w/ your own, assuming yours is normal
|
|
how would you perform the confrontation test
|
position yourself at eye level w/ the person, about 2 ft. away. direct the person to cover one eye w/ an opaque card, and w/ the other eye to look straight at you. cover your own eye opposite to the person's covered one. hold a pencil or your flicking finger as a target midline and slowly advance it in from the periphery in several directions
|
|
what is the range of peripheral vision
|
50 deg. superiorly, 60 deg. nasally, 70 deg. inferiorly, 90 deg. temporally,
|
|
what tests would you use upon inspecting extraocular muscle function
|
corneal light reflex (the hirschberg test), cover test, diagnostic position test
|
|
ptosis?
|
drooping of upper lid
|
|
exophthalmos?
|
protruding eyes
|
|
enophthalmos
|
sunken eyes
|
|
pallor near the outer canthus of the lower lid may indicate
|
anemia
|
|
this is an even yellowing of the sclera extending up to the corne, indicating jaundice
|
scleral icterus
|
|
how would you perform the hirschberg test
|
assess the parallel alignment of the eye axes by shining a light toward the person's eye. direct the person to stare straight ahead as you hold the light about 30cm (12 inch) note the reflection of the light on the corneas; it should be in exactly the same spot on each eye
|
|
what does the cover test detect?
|
small degrees fo deviated alignment by interrupting the fusion reflex that normally keeps the two eyes paralles.
|
|
what is a phoria?
|
a mild weakness noted only when fusion is blocked
|
|
what is tropia
|
is more severe than phoria it is a constant malalignment of the eyes
|
|
how would you perform the diagnostic positions test
|
ask the person to hold the head steady and to follow the mov't of your finger, pen or penlight only w/ the eyes. hold the target back 12inc. so thte person can focus on it comfortable and move it to each of the six cardinal positions of gaze
|
|
if eye mov't is not parallel or failure to follow in a certain direction for the diagnostic position test this indicates?
|
weakness of an extraocular muscle or dysfunction of cranial nerve innervating it
|
|
the ophtalmoscope enlarges your view of the eye so that you can inspect the?
|
media (anterior chamber, lens, vitreoous), and the ocular fundus(the internal surface of the retina)
|
|
how would you perform a fundiscopic exam
|
match sides w/ the person. hold the ophthalmoscope in your rt. hand up to your rt. eye to view teh person's rt. eye. you must do this to avoid bumping noses. place your free hand on the person's shoulder or forehead. begin 10inc away from the person at an angle about 15 deg. lateral to the person's line of vision. note the red glow filling the person's pupil. this is the red reflex, and steadily move closer to the eye. if you lose the red reflex, the light has wandered off the pupil and onto the iris or sclera. adjust your angle to find it again, note any opacities in the media. these appear as dark shadwos or black dots interrupting the red reflex normally none are present.
moving in on the 15 deg. lateral line should bring your view just to the optic dis, systmatically inspect the structures in the ocular fundus, optic disc, retinal vessels, general background, and macula |
|
the most prominent landmark is the optic disc, located ont eh nasal side of the retina. explore these characteristics by?
|
color-creamy yellow oange to pink
shape-round or oval margins-distinct and sharply demarcated, although the nasal edge may be slightly fuzzy cup disc ratio-distinctness varies. when visible, physiologic cup is a brighter yellow white than rest of the disc. its width is not more than one half the disc diameter |
|
define a scleral crescent
|
it is a gray white new mon shape it occurs when pigment is absent in the choroid layer and you are looking directly at the sclera
|
|
what is a pigment crescent
|
is black due to accumulation of pigment in the choroid
|
|
when following a paired artery and vein out to the periphery inthe four quadrants what points would you note?
|
number, color, a:v ratio, caliber, a-v (arteriovenous)crossing, tortuosity, pulsations
|
|
what is the ratio comparing the artery to vein width
|
2:3 or 4:5
|
|
the macula is 1DD in size and located where?
|
2DD temporal to the disc
|
|
when would you inspect the macula?
|
last in the fundoscopic exam. a bright light on this area fo central vision causes some watering and discomfort and pupillary constriction
|
|
as you introduce an object to the infant's line of vision what would be the normal behavior for
Birth to 2 wk. by 2-4wk by 1mo. by 3-4 mo by 6-10 mo |
birth to 2 wk-refusal to reopen eyes after exposure to bright light; increasing alertness to object; infant may fixate on an object
by 2-4wk- infant can fixate on an object by 1mo.- infant can fixate and follow a light or bright toy by 3-4mo-infant can fixate, follow, and reach for the toy by 6-10mo. infant can fixate and follow the toy in all directions |
|
what is the allen test
|
picture cards screens children from 2.5 yr-2yr.and11mo of age and is even reliable w/ cooperative toddlers as young as 2 yr.
|
|
what would you use for the preschooler from 3-6yr of age for visual acuity
|
use a picture chart or the snellen e chart
|
|
the national society for prevention of blindness states these criteria for referral:
|
1. age 3-vision 20/50 or less in either eye
2. age 4 and over-20/40 or less in either eye 3. difference between two eyes is one line or more 4. child shows other signs of vision impairment, regardless of acuity |
|
in infants and children you would inpect what for eyes?
|
visual acuity, color vision, extraocular muscle function, external eye structures, eyelids and lashes, conjunctiva and sclera, iris and pupils, the occular fundus
|
|
what test would you test only boys for between the ages of 4-8?
|
using ishihara's test a series of polychromatic cards. each card has a pattern of dots printed against a background of many colors
|
|
when testing the extraocular muscle function on children you would test for?
|
strabismus, corneal light reflex, perform the cover test,
|
|
what test would you perform on all children
|
cover test
|
|
what is strabimus
|
squint,crossed eye, causes disconjugate vision because one eye deviates off the fixation pt.
|
|
Ishihara's test for what?
|
color vision *primary colors-red, yellow, green, blue,
male predominance x-linked recessive trait |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect eyebrows?
|
present bilaterally,
move symmetrically |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the eyelids and lashes?
|
upper lids overlap superior past of iris,
meet (approximate)lower lids when closed palpabral fissure horizontal in non-asian |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the eyeballs?
|
aligned normally in socket w/out protrusion or sunken appearance
|
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the conjunctiva and sclera?
|
-ask pt. to look up as you pull down lower lids, conjunctiva is transparent
-color should show structure below white over sclera, pink over lower lids |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the lacrimal apparatus
|
-slide fingers along bony orbit to check for swelling of lacrimal duct
-press into the nasolacrimal duct |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the cornea/lens
|
clarity- shine a light-scratches(going in sideways to see scratches on cornea)
|
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some obfective data when you inspect the iris/pupil?
|
-size (3-5mm)
-shape |
|
during the physical examination of eyes what is some obfective data when you inspect the pupillary light reflex
|
direct light reflex,
consensual light reflex perrla (pupils, equal, round, reactive to light, accomodation, confrontation) |
|
during the physical examination of eyes of the aging adult what is glaucoma?
|
increased pressure in teh anterior chamber
|
|
what are some other objective information on the aging adult related to the eyes?
|
arcus senilis, ectropion, entropion
|
|
how would you test for glaucoma?
|
a puff of air measures the pressure of the eyeball and how much fluid is in the vitrous
|
|
define pingueculae
|
commonly show on the sclera, these yellowish elevated nodules are due to a thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva from prolonged exposure to sun, wind, and dust
|
|
this is a gray white arc or circle around the limbus it is due to deposition of lipid material
|
arcus senilis
|
|
explain the positioning of normal ear alignment in the child?
|
the infant's and the young child's external auditory canal is shorter and has a slope opposite to that of the adult's
|
|
refractive error of vision due to differences in curvature in refractive surgaces of the eye (cornea and lens)
|
Astigmatism
|
|
blowing, swooshing sound heard through the stethoscope over an are of abnormal blood flow
|
bruit
|
|
increase in size of thyroid gland that occurs w/ hyperthyroidism
|
goiter
|
|
abnormally large head
|
macrocephalic
|
|
abnomally small head
|
microcephallic
|
|
round symmetric skull that is appropriately related to body size
|
normocephalic
|
|
head tilt due to shortening or spasm of one sternomastoid muscle
|
toriticollis
|
|
what do you want to know when examining the head and neck?
|
PI (PQRSTU)
PHx allergies medications FHx SHX ROS-general, eyes, cv, gu, neuro, endocrine, resp., gi, skin, breasts allergy immuno, eent, psych |
|
what is the objective information during the physical examination of head and neck?
|
*size/shape-normocephali/ atramatic (NC/AT)
*HC-hydro, macro, micro, anen-cephaly *tenderness *lesions *temporal regions-temporal arteries,TMJ *facial structures-symmetry (palsy), edema *general *periorbital-exophthalmos *sinus problems |
|
what is the objective information during the physical examination of the neck?
|
*trachea
*ROM *strenth |
|
what is the objective information during the physical examination in the lymph nodes?
|
*drain top to bottom
*enlarge w/ inflammation/infection-d/t collection WBC's *location?pathognomonic to spc dz *tenderness? *mobility? *size -N1<cm.. nonpalpable most adults -kids:larger=n1variant (less SQ) -fibrous chronic enlargement |
|
what is the objective information during the physical examination of the tyroid?
|
*goiter,
*thyromegaly *multinodular *single nodule *vascular bruits |
|
at what age does the anterior fontanel close
|
between 9mo. and 2 yrs.
|
|
at what age does the triangleshaped posterior fontanel close?
|
1-2mo
|
|
the thyroid gland enlarges slightly during pregnancy due to?
|
hyperplasia of the tissue and increased vascularity
|
|
What is the subjective data for head and neck, including regional lymphatics
|
1. headache, 2. head injury
3. dizziness, 4. neck pain, limitation of motion 5. lumps or swelling 6. hisotry of head or neck surgery |
|
tense, rigid muscles may indicate what?
|
anxiety or pain; a flat affect may indicate depression; excessive smiling may be inappropriate
|
|
if any nodes are palpable note what?
|
their location, size, shape, delimitation (discrete or matted together), mobility, consistency and tenderness.
|
|
what do normal nodes feel like?
|
movable, discrete, soft, and nontender
|
|
when would you measure a child's head size?
|
visit up to age 2 then yearly up to age 6
|
|
what is the newborn's head measure?
|
about 32 to 38 cm.
|
|
summary for head and neck, including regional lymphatics exam
|
1. inspect and palpate the skull-general size contour, note any deformities, lumps, tenderness, palpate temporal artery, tempormandibular jt.,
2. Inspect the face-facial expression, symmetry of mov't (cranial nerve VII), any involuntary mov t edema, lesions. 3. inspect and palpate the neck-active ROM, enlargement of salivary glands, lymph nodes, thyroid gland, position of the trachea 4. auscultate the thyroid (if elarged)for bruit |
|
define acromegaly
|
this is an excessive secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary, after puberty, creates an enlarged skull and thickened carnial bones.
|
|
define cachectic appearance
|
accompanies chronic wasting diseases such as cancer, dehydration, and starvation. features include sunken eyes; hollow cheeks; and exhausted, defeated expression
|
|
define scleroderma
|
literally "hard skin" this collagen disease is characterized by chronic hardening and shrinking of connective tissue. can occur in any body organ
|
|
people w/ migraines differ from people w/ cluster headaches what makes them different on how they feel better
|
people w/ migraines lie down to feel better whereas people w/ cluster headaches they need to move even to pace the floor
|
|
hair conditions is significant in diagnosing and treating certain disease states. for ex.
|
hair texture becomes dry, brittle, and lusterless w/ inadequate nutrition
|
|
what is some subjective data for skin, hair, and nails
|
1. previous history of skin disease (allergies, hives, psoriasis, eczema) 2. change in pigmentation 3. change in mole (size or color) 4. excessive dryness or moisture 5. pruritus 6. excessive bruising 7. rash or lesion 8. medications 9. hair loss, 10. change in nails 11. environmental or occupational hazards 12. self care behaviors
|
|
alopecia
|
(baldness) hair loss
|
|
Annular
|
circular shape to skin lesion
|
|
bulla
|
elevated cavity containing free fluid larger than 1 cm diameter
|
|
confluent
|
skin lesions that run together
|
|
crust
|
thick, dried out exudate left on skin when vesicles/pustules burst or dry up
|
|
cyanosis
|
dusky blue color to skin or mucous membranes due to increased amt. of unoxygenated hemoglobin
|
|
erosion
|
scooped out, shallow depression in skin
|
|
erythema
|
intense redness of the skin due to ecess blood in dilated superficial capillaries, as in fever or inflammation
|
|
excoriation
|
self inflicted abrasion on skin due to scratching
|
|
linear crack in skin extending inot dermis
|
fissure
|
|
furuncle
|
(boil) suppurative inflammatory skin lesion due to infected hair follicle
|
|
jaundice
|
yellow color to skin, palate, and sclera due to excess bilirubin in the blood
|
|
keloid
|
hypertrophic scar, elevated beyond site of original inury
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lipoma
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benign fatty tumor
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macule
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flat skin lesion w/ only a color change <1cn
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nevus
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(mole) circumscribed skin lesion due to excess melanocytes
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nodule
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elevated skin lesions, > 1cm diameter
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pallor
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excessively pale, whitish-pink color to lightly pigmented skin
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papule
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palpable skin lesion of <1cm diameter
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pruritus
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itching
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pustule
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elevated cavity containing thick turbid fluid
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scale
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compact desiccated flakes of skin from shedding of dead skin cells
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ulcer
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sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue that causes a deep depression in skin, extending inot dermis
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vesicle
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elevated cavity containing free fluid up to 1 cm diameter
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wheal
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raised red skin lesion due to interstitial fluid
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zosterifrm
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linear shape of skin lesion along a nerve route
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danger signs: abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic?
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ABCDE:
asymmetry of a pigmented lesion (one that is not regularly round or oval) Border irregularity (notching, scalloping ragged edges or poorly defined margins) Color variation(areas of brown, tan, black, blue, red, white, or combination therof) Diameter greater than 6mm (size of a pencil eraser) although early melanomas may be diagnosed at a smaller size Elevation and enlargement |
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this is the complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas of white or light skin on the face, neck, hands, feet, body folds, and around orifices
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vitiligo
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what are some external variables influencing skin color
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emotions (fear,anger, embarassement)
environment (hot room, chilly, cigarette smoking) physical (prolonged elevation, dependent position, immobilization) |
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where is general pigmentation darker?
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in sun exposed areas
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these are small, flat macules of brown melanin pigment that occur on sun exposed skin
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feckles (ephelides)
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this is a proliferation of melanocytes, tan to brown color, flat or raised. acquired neve are characterized by their symmetry, small size (6mm or less) smooth borders, and single uniform pigmentation
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mole (nevus)
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this is macular only and occurs in children and adolescents. it prgresses to the compound nevi in young adults that are macular and papular. the intradermal nevus mainly in older age
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junctional nevus
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what is diaphoresis,
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or profuse perspiration, accompanies an increased metabolic rate, such as occurs in heavy activity or fever
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what does normal skin feel like
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smooth and firm, w/ an even surface.
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how do you check for edema,
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imprint your thumbs firmly against the ankle mallelus or the tibia
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normally the skin surface stays smooth for edema. if your pressure leaves a dent in teh skin "pitting" edema is present how is it graded?
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1+ mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg
2+moderate pitting indentation subsides rapidly 3+deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen 4+ very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is very swollen |
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these are small (1-5mm), smooth slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults over 30
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cherry (senile) angiomas
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ecchymosis is also known as?
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bruising is should be consistent w/ the expected trauma of life. there are normally no venous dilations or varicosities
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if there are any lesions present on the skin what would you notate
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1. color, 2. elevation:flat, raised, or pedunculated 3. pattern or shape: the grouping or distinctness of each lesion, 4. sizein cm. use a ruler to measure 5. location and distribution on body: generalized or localized 6. any exudate. note its color and/ or odor
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what do you inspect and palpate in the hair?
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Color, texture, distribution, lesions
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When inspecting and palpating the nails what do you inspect?
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shape and contour, consistency, color
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what is the term to describe excess body hair. in females this forms a male pattern of hair distribution on the face and chest and indicates endocrine abnormalities
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hirsutism
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what is the normal degree of a nail base
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160 degrees
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this is a common variation of hyperpigmentaion in black, asian, native american ,and hispanic newborns
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mongolain spot
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how would you promote health and self care for the skin?
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teach skin self examination, using the abcde rule
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this is a large round or oval patch of light brown pigmentation
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cafe au lait spot
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6 or more cafe au lait macules each more than 1.5 cm in diameter are diagnostic of
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neurofibromatoi, an ingerited neurocutaneous disease
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these are tiny while papules on the cheeks, forehead, and across the nose and chin due ot sebum that occludes the opening of the follicles
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mili
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what is a stork bite?
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(salmon patch) is a flat, irregularly shaped red or pink patch found on the forehead, eyelid, or upper lip, but most commonly at the back of the neck (nuchal are) present at birth usually fades during the first year
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what is the most common skin problem of adolescence?
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acne
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these are jagged linear "stretch marks" of silver to pink color that appear during the second trimester on the abdomen, breasts, and sometimes thights
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striae
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what is senile lentigines
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these are commonly called liver spots and are small, flat, brown, macules. they are not malignant and require no treatment
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what is keratoses
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these lesions are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that look crusted, scaly, and warty
different types inc:seborrgeic keratosis, actinic (senile or solar) keratosis |
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this consists of raised yellow papules w/ a central depression. they are more common in men, occuring over teh foreheaad, nose or cheeks. they have a pebbly look
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sebaceous hyperplasia
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what is the summary for skin, hair, and nails exam?
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1.inspect the skin: color, general pigmentaion, areas of hypopigmentaion or hyperpigmentation, abnormal color changes
2. palpate the skin: temp, moisture, texture, thickness, edema, mobility and turgor, hygiene, vascularity or bruising 3. note any lesions-color, shape and configuration, size, location and distribution on body 4. inspect and palpate the hair: texture, distribution, any scalp lesion 5. inspect and palpate the nails: shape and contour, consistensy, color 6. teach skin self-examination |
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describe an annular lesion?
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or circular, begins in center and spreads to perphery
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describe a confluent lesions?
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lesions run together
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describe a discrete, lesion
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distinct, individual lesions that remain separate
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describe a grouped lesion
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clusters of lesions e.g. vesicles of contact dermatitis
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describe a gyrate lesion
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twisted, coiled spiral, snakelike
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describe a target lesion
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or iris, resembles iris of eye, concentric rings of color in the lesions e.g. erythema multiforme
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describe a linear lesion
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a scratch, streak, line, or stripe
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describe a polycylic lesion
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annular lesions grow together e.g. lichen planus, psoriasis
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describe a zosteriform lesion
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linear arrangement along a nerve route e.g. herpes zoster
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what are some common shapes and distribution in ref. to skin
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anular, discrete, grouped, confluent, serpiginous, gyrate, target, iris, linear, polycylic, zosteriform
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what are some risk factors for decubiti (bed sore)
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*nutrition
*comorbid Dz *immobility *inactivity *moisture *pressure *shearing |
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what is tinea pedis
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(ringworm of the foot), "athletes foot" a fungal infection, first appears as small vesicles between toes, sides of feet, soles
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these are scaly erythematous patch, w/ silvery scales on top. usually on scalp, outside of elbows and knees low back, and anogenital area
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psoriasis
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what is pediculosis capitis
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head lice,
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koilonychia
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spoon nails-thin depressed nails w/ lateral edges tilted up, forming a concave profile. may be congenital or a hereditary trait; if all nails are involved may be due to iron deficiency anemia
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beau's line
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transverse furrow or groove. a depression across the nail that extends down to the nail bed. occurs w/ any trauma that temporarily impairs nail formation, such as acute illness, toxic reactions, or local trauma
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splinter hemorrhages
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red-brown linear streaks, embolic lesions, occur w/ subacute bacterial endocarditis; also may occur w/ minor trauma
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late clubbing
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proximal edge of nail elevates; angle is greater than 180 deg. distal phalanx looks rounder and wider. seen w/ chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and congenital heart disease w/ cyanosis. occurs first in thumb and index finger
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what is onycholysis
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this ispersistent fungal infection of fingernails and more often, toenails, commonin older adults. fungus causes change in color texture, thickness, w/ nail crubling or breaking, and loosening of the nail plate, usually begining at the distal edge and progressing proximally
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what is pitting in ref. to nails
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sharply defined pitting and crumbling of the nails w/ distal detachemtn often occurs w/ psoriasis
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what is the function of the skin?
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protection, prevents penetration, perception, temperature regulation, identification, communication, wound repair, absorption and excretion, production of vit. D
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what is lanugo
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the fine downy hair of the newborn
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what factors place the aging person at risk for skin disease and breakdown?
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the thinning of the skin, the decrease in vascularity and nutrients, the loss of protective cushioning fo the subcutaneous layer, a lifetime of environmental trauma to skin, the social changes of aging, the increasingly sedetary lifestyle, and the chance of immobility
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