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402 Cards in this Set

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bending a limb at a joint
flexion
straightening a limb at a joint
extension
moving a limb away from the midline of the body
abduction
moving a limb toward the midline of the body
adduction
turning the forearm so that the palm is down
pronation
turning the forearm so that the palm is up
supination
moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
circumduction
moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle
inversion
moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle
eversion
moving the head around a central axis
rotation
moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground
protraction
moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground
retraction
raising a body part
elevation
lowering a body part
depression
these joints are freely movable because they have bones that are separted from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity
synovial joints
this is an enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid, much like a joint located in areas of potential friction and help muscles and tendons glide smmothly over bone
bursa
this is composed of bundles of muscle fibers, or fasiculi Is attached to bone by a tendon.
skeletal muscle
also known as growth plates
epiphyses
at what age does the closure of the epipyses
20
The most characteristic change in posture of a pregnant female is know as what?
lordosis
what is referred to as the loss of bone density
osteoporosis
what is the aging adults decreased height due to?
shortening of the vertebral column. caused by loss of water content and thining of the intervetebral disks, which occurs more in the middle years, and a decrease in height of individual vertebrae, which occurs in later yrs. from osteoporosis
In reference to the musculoskeletal system what is some subjective data?
1. joints
pain, stiffniess, swelling, heat, redness, limitation
2. muscles
pain (cramps), weakness
3. Bones
pain, deformity, trauma (fractures, sprains, dislocations)
4. Functional assessment (ADL)
5. Self-care behaviors
what is the most common musculoskeletal concerns that prompt a person to seek care?
joint pain and loss of function
what are some questions the examiner would ask for joints?
any problems w/ jts. pain?
loc. which jts. 1 side, both side,
quality, severity, onset, timing, how often, is the pain aggravated by movement, rest, position, weather? pain relieved by rest, med., application of heat or ice, is thepain assoc. w/ chills, fever, recent sore throat, trauma, repititive activity, any stiffness, swelling, heat, redness, limitaion, which activities give you problems
What time of day is rheumatoid arthritis worse?
morning
What time of day is osteoarthritis worse?
Later on the day
What time of day is tendinitis worse?
morning, improves during the day
Joint injury occurs from?
trauma, repetitive motion
Rheumatoid arthritis stiffness occurs when?
morning and after rest periods
what is muscle pain usually felt like
cramping or aching
what does the examiner ask in ref. to muscles?
any problems in the muscles, such as pain, cramping?, if in calf is the pain when walking, does it go away w/ rest?, are your muscle aches assoc. w/ fever, chills, the "flu", any weakness in muscles., location where is the weakness, how long have you noticed weakness, do the muscles look smaller there?
What does the examiner ask in ref to bones?
any bone pain, affected by movmt., any deformity of any bone or jt. due to injury trauma, does it affect the ROM, any accidents or trauma,:fractures, jt. strain, sprain, dislocation, which ones?when did this occur? at treatment was given? any problems or limitations now? any back pain, in which part, is it felt anywhere else like shooting down leg?, any numbness, tingling, limping
What does the examiner ask in ref. to functional assessment? (ADL)
Do your jt. problems create any limits on your usual activities of daily living? which one? if the person answers yes ask specifically about each activity, bathing, toileting, dressing, grooming, eating, mbility, communicating
Why is it important to screen for functional assessment
Funcional assessment is important to screen the safety of independent living, the need for home health care services, and quality of life. Assess any self care deficit
what are some examples of questions the examiner would ask in ref. to self care behaviors
any occupational hazards that could affect eh muscles and jts.? does your work invlove heavy lifting or any repetitive motion or chronic stres to jts. any efforts to alleviate these? thell me about your exercise program, any pain, how do you treat it, have you had any recent wt. gain, please describe your daily diet. taking any med. for musc system: aspirin,..., ifperson has chronic disability or crippling illness: how was your illness affected (interfered w/ family, friends, the way you view yourself)
What is some additional history for infants and children?
were you told about any trauma to inant during labor and delivery? did the baby come head first? was there a need for forceps
did the baby needd resuscitation
were the baby's motor milestones achieved at about the same time as siblings or age mates
has your child ever broken any bones,
have you ever noticed any bone deformity? spinal curvature?
what is some additional history for adolescents
involved in any sports how frequently,
do you use any special equip, what is the nature of your daily warm up,
what do you do if you get hurt,
how does your sport fit in w/ other shool demands and other activities
what is some additional history for the aging adult
use the functional assessment history quest. to elicit any loss of function, self care deficit, or safety risk that may occur as a process of aging or musculoskeletal,
any change in weakness over the past mo. or yr.
any increase in falls or stumbling over the past. mo or yr
do you use any mobility aids to help you get around
when is a complete musculoskeleatl examination appropriate
when the person has articular disease, a history of musculoskeletal symptoms, or any problems w/ ADL
how is the normal screening musculoskeletal examination
done
inspection and palpation of jt. integrated w/ each body region
observation of ROM as person proceeds through motions, age specific screening measures, such as ortolani's sign for infants, or scoliosis screening for adolescents
what is the order of the examination
inspect, palpate, ROM, Muscle testing
what would you inspect in ref to musculoskeletal
the size and contour of the jt. inspect the skin and tissues over the jts. for color, swelling, and any masses or deformity. presence of swelling is significant and signals jt. irritation.
when palpating what things would you look for
palpate each jt., for skin temp., muscles, bony articulations, and are of jt. capsule,
notice any heat, tenderness, swelling, or masses.
if you see a limitation, in active rom you would attempt
passive rom
what would you use to measur joint angles
geniometer
is palpable fluid normal or abnormal
abnormal, because fluid is contained in an enclosed sac, if you push on one side of the sac, the fluid will shift and cause a visible bulging on another side.
deformities in the joints include?
dislocation, subluxation, contracture, ankylosis
this term is one or more bones in a jt. being out of position
dislocation
what is term to describe a shortening of a muscle leading to limited ROM of joint
contracture
this term is defined as stiffness or fixation of a jt.
ankylosis
is palpable fluid considered to be normal or abnormal
abnormal, because fluid is contained in an enclosed sac, if you push on one side of the sac, the fluid will shift and cause a visible bulging on another side
what would you use to determine the angle of greatest flexion
goniometer
this term is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement. it occurs when the articular surfaces in the jts. are roughened
crepitation
describe subcutaneous nodules
are raised, firm, and nontender, and overlying skin moves freely. common sites are in the olecranon bursa and along extensor surface of the ulna, occur w/ RA
how would you perform the phanlen's test
ask the person to hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrist 90 deg. acute flexion of the wrist for 60 sec. produces no symptoms in the normal hand
what would the abnormal findings be in a phalen's test
reproduces numbness and burning in a person w/ carpal tunnel syndrome
how would you perform the tinel's test
direct percussion of the location of the median nerve at the wrist produces no symptoms in the normal hand
how would you perform the bulge sign
firmly stroke up on the medial aspect of the knee 2-3 times to displace any fluid watch the medial side in the hollow for a distinct bulge from a fluid wave. normally none is present
describe the abnormal bulge sign
occurs w/ very small amts of effusion, 4-8mm from fluid flowing across the jt
what is the ballottement of the patella test?
is reliable when larger amts. of fluid are present.
how would you perform the ballottement of the patella test
use your left hand to compress the suprapatellar pouch to move any fluid into the knee jt. w/ you rt. hand, push the patella sharply against the femur, if no fluid is present the patella is already snug against the femur
pronounced crepitus is significant and it occurs w/ what
degenerative diseases of the knee
what is the test for meniscal tears
mcmurray's test
how would you perform the mcmurray's test
perform this test when the person has reported a history of trauma followed by locking, giving way, or local pain in the knee. position the person supine as you stand on the affected side. hold the heel and flex the knee and hip. place your other hand on the knee w/ fingers on the medial side. rotate the leg in and out to loosen the jt. externally rotate the leg and push a valgus (inward) stress on the knee . normally the leg extends smoothly w/ no pain
what is the abnormal finding of the mcmurray's test
if you hear or feel a click mcmurray's test is positive for torn meniscus
where would you start the examinatin in infants
start w/ feet and work your way up the extremeties
what is referred to as the twisting of the tibia
tibial torsion
place both feet flat on the table and push to flex up the knees. w/ the patella and the tibial tubercle in a straight line, place your fingers on the malleoli. in an infant, note that a line connecting the four malleoli is parallel to the table
the hindfoot is in alignment w/ the lower leg and just the forefoot angles inward. this forefoot adduction is?
metartarsus adductus. it is usually present at birth and usually resolves spontaneously by age 3
this is referred to as the adduction and invesion of the foot?
metatarsus varus
what is the most reliable method in checking the infants hips for congenital dislocation
ortolani's maneuver,
when should the ortolani's maneuver be done
at every professinal visit until the infant is 1.
what is the allis test used for
also used to check for hip dislocation by comparing leg lengths
what would be an abnormal finding of a allis test
one knee significantly lower than the other is a positive indication of allis' sign and suggest dislocation
how would you perform the allis test
place the baby's feet flat on the table and flex the knees up. scan the tops fo the knees; normally they are at the same elevation
a tuft of hair over a dimple in the midline of the infant may indicate what
spina bifida
what is the term to describe extra fingers or toes
polydactyly
what is the term to describe webbing between adjacent fingers or toes
syndactyl
this is a single palmar crease that occurs w/ down syndrome accompanied by short broad fingers, incurving of little fingers, and low set thumbs
simian cease
a small dimple in the midline anywhere fromthe head to the coccys-suggests what
dermoid sinus
a baby who starts to "slip" between your hands shows what?
a weakness of the shoulder muscles
this term is referred to as a "bowlegged" stance
genu varum
this is a lateral bowing of the legs.
genu varum (knees apart)
this is known as "knock knees"
genu valgum (knees together)
this is present when there is more than 2.5 cm between the medial malleoli when the knees are together it occurs between 2 &3.5 yr. treatment is not indicated
genu valgum
also known as flat foot
pes planus
when would you scree for scoliosis and how would you test it
is common during adolescence because of chronic poor posture. screen w/ the forward bend test starting at age 10-12,
pain or tenderness in extremeties is usually caused by?
trauma or infection
what is the expected postural changes in pregnancy
include progressive lordosis and toward the third trimester, anterior cervical flexion, kyphosis, and slumped shoulder
what is the postural changes in the aging adult
include a decrease in ht., more apparent in the 8th and 9th decades also slight flexion of hips and knees, kyphosis is also common
what are some contour changes in the aging adult
include a decrease of fat in the body periphery and fat deposition over the abdomen and hips. the bony prominences become more marked.
For the aging adult you need to determine adequate and safe performance of functions essential for independent home life what would instruct the person
walk (w/ shoes on), climb up stairs, walk down stairs, pick up object from floor, rise up from sitting in chair, rise up from lying in bed
this is swelling from excess fluid in the jt. capsule, best observed anteriorly. fluctuant to palpation.
joint effusion
wrist in extreme flexion, due to severe rheumatoid arthritis.
ankylosis
what is the term to describe flexion contracture.
it occurs w/ chronic rheumatoid arthritis and is often accompanied by ulnar drift of the fingers
swan neck often resembles curve of swan's neck
this term is relatively common deformity and includes flexion of proximal interphalangeal jt. w/ compensatory hyperextension of distal interphalangeal jt
boutonniere deformity the knuckle looks as if it is being pushed through a buttonhole.
this is characterized by hard, nontender nodules, 2-3mm or more.
osteoarthritis
Osteophytes (bony over growth) of the distal interphalangeal jts are called
Heberden's nodes
the osteophytes of the proximal jts are called
bouchard's nodes
this is painful swelling and stiffness of jts. w/ fusiform or spindle shape swelling of the soft tissue of proximal intephalangeal jts. fusiform swelling is usually symmetric, the hands are warm and the veins are engorged. the inflamed jt. have range of motion
acute rheumatoid arthritis
inflammation of a tendon sheath near the ankle produces a superficial linear swelling and a localized tenderness along the route of the sheath. mov't of the involved tendon usually causes pain
achilles tenosynovitis
this is the term to describe the lateral curvature of thoracic and lumbar segments of the spine, usually w/ some involved vertebral bodies
scoliosis
describe functional scoliosis
is flexible; it is apparent w/ standing and disappears w/ forward bending. it may be compensatory for other abnormalities such as leg length discrepency
describe structural scoliosis
is fixed; the curvature shows both on standing and on bending forward.
this is a congenital, rigid, and fixed malposion of foot including 1. inversion, 2. forefoot adducion and 3. foot pointing downward (equinus). a common birth defect, w/ an incidence of 1:1000, to 3:1000 live births males are affected twice as frequently as females
talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
where does the stensen's duct run?
forward to open on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar
where does the wharton's duct run?
up and forward to the floor of the mouth and opens at either side of the frenulum
how many teeth do adults normally have
32 permanent teeth 16 in each arch
how many teeth do children have
20 deciduos, or temporary teeth, all should appear by 2 1/2 yr. of age
nasal stuffiness and epistaxis may occur during pregnancy due to increased what?
vascularity in the upper respiratory tract
at what age does the decrease in the sensation of smell begin
after age 60, and it continues progresively w/ age
what are some things that may be lossed in the aging adult in ref. to the mouth?
the oral cavity the soft tissues atrophy and the epi. thins, especially in the cheek and tongue. a decrease in salivary secretion and the presence of dentures that cover secondary taste sites. tooth surface is abraded, gums begin to recede and the teeth begin to erode at the gum line.
what are some things that may start to happen during later middle adult years?
a gradual loss of subcutaneous fat starts during later middle adult years, making the nose appear more prominent in some people. the nose hairs grow coarser and stiffer and may not filter the air as well. the hairs protrude and may cuase itching and sneezing.also the sense of smell may diminish because of a decrease in the olfactory nerve fibers
this is a condition in which the uvula is split either completely or partially
bifid uvula
if tooth loss occurs, the remaining teeth drift, causing what?
malocclusion
what would be some subjective data in the nose?
discharge, frequent colds, sinus pain, trauma, epistaxis, allergies, altered smell
what would be some subjective data in the mouth and throat?
sores or lesions, sore throat, bleeding gums, toothache, hoarseness dysphagia, altered taste, smoking, alcohol consumption, self care behaviors, dental pattern dentures or appliances
the stress of chewing w/ maloccluding teeth causes further problems what are they?
1.excessive bone resorption w/ further tooth loss occurs; 2. muscle imbalance results form a mandible and maxilla now out of alignment,which produces muscle spasms, tenderness of muscles of mastification and chronic headaches; and 3. the temporomandibular jt. is stressed, leading to osteoarthritis, pain and inablility fully open mouth.
this occurs w/ trauma, vigorous nose blowing, foreigh body
epistaxis
what should a person do if epistaxis occurs
sit up w/ head tilted forward, pinch nose between thumb and forefinger for 5 to 15 min.
this occurs w/ many conditions, including gastroesophageal reflux disease, pharyngitis, stroke and other neurologic diseases, esophageal cancer
dysphagia
what is some additional (subjective info) history for infants and children in ref. to self care behaviors
does the child have any mouth inf. or sores, such as thrush or canker sores, does the child have frequent sore throat, did the child's teeth erupt about on time?, are the teeth straight to you, using a bottle etc.,
what is some additional history for the aging adult
any dryness in the mouth, are you taking any med., have you had any loss of teeth, can you chew all types of food, are you able ot care for your own teeth, noticed a change in your sense of taste or smell
what term is used when the nasal mucosa is swollen and bright red w/ an upper respiratory infection
rhinitis, discharge is common w/ this, varying from watery and copious to thick, purulent, and green yellow
with chronic allergy mucosa looks like what?
swollen, boggy, pale, and gray
what is the objective data in ref to nose?
inspect and palpate the nose external nose, nasal cavity,
palpate the sinus areas (transillumination),
a deviated septum looks like a what?
hump or shelf in the nasal cavity
this is seen as a spot of light form penlight shining in other naris
perforation
sinus areas are tender to palpation in persons w/?
chronic allergies and acute infection (sinusitis)
you may use this technique when you suspect sinus inflammation, although it is of limited usefulness
transillumination
When inspecting the mouth what things are considered to be objective?
lips-color, moisture, cracking or lesions
teeth and gums-note any diseased, absent, loose, or abnormally positioned teeth, compare the number of teeth to what is expected; gums look pink o rcoral w/ a stippled (dotted) surface;
tongue- check fo rcolor, surface characteristics, and moisture
buccal mucosa- for color, nodules, or lesions,
palate-the more anterior hard palate is white w/ irregular transverse rugae. the soft palate is pinker smooth, and upwardly movable
this is cracking at the corners of the lips
cheilitis (perleche)
an expected finding upon inspecting a buccal mucosa is a stensen's duct which is what
the opening of the parotid salivary gland.
what does the abnormal orifice of stenson's duct look like?
red w/ mumps
this is a prodromal sign of measles found in the buccal mucosa
koplik's spots
this is a benign grayish opague area, more common in blacks and east indians found in the buccal mucosa
leudoedema
these are small isolated white or yellow papules on the mucosa of cheek, tongue, and lips
little sebaceous cysts are painless and not significant
fordyce's granules
what is an abnormal hard palate appear to be?
yellow w/ jaundice. in blacks w jaundice, it may llk yellow, muddy yellow, or green brown
this is the most common early lesion in people w/aids on the palate
oral kaposi's sarcoma
some objective info. in inspecting the throat would include?
observe the oval, rough surfaced tonsils behind the anterior tonsillar pillar. the color is the same pink as the oral mucosa and their surfae is peppered w/ indentations, or crypts. in some crypts collect small plugs of whitish cellular debris.
tonsils are graded in size as the following?
1+ visible
2+ halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
3+ touching the uvula
4+ touching each other
with an acute infection, tonsils appear to be what?
bright red, swollen and may have exudate or large white spots
nasal flaring in the infant indicates?
respiratory distress
a transverse ridge across the nose of a child occurs w/ ?
chronic allergy from wiping the nose upward w/ palm.
summary checklist for the nose?
1. inspect and external nose for symmetry, and deformity, or lesions 2. palpation-test patency of each nostril 3. inspect using nasal speculum: color and integrity of nasal mucosa, septum-note any deviation, perforation or bleeding turbinates-note color, any exudate, swelling, or polyps
4. palpate teh sinus areas-note any tenderness
summary checklist for mouth and throat?
1. inspect using penlight: lips, teeth and gums, tongue, buccal mucosa-note color; if structures are intact, any lesions
palate and uvula-note integrity and mobility as person phonates
grade tonsils,
pharyngeal wall-note colro, any exudate, or lesions
2. palpation: when indicated in adults, bimanual palpation of mouth
w/ the neonate, palpate for integrity of palate and to assess sucking reflex
this is a small boil located in the skin or mucous membrane appears red and swollen and is quite painful. avoid any manipulation or trauma that may spread the infection
furuncle
these cold sores are groups of clear vesicles w/ a surrounding indurated erythematous base. evolve into pustules, which rupture, weep, and crust and heal in 4-10 days
herpes simplex 1
chalky white, thick, raised patch w/ well defined borders. the lesion is firmly attached and does not scrape off.
it may occur on the lateral edges of tongue. it is due to chronic irritation and occurs more frequently w/ heavy smoking and heavy alcohol use. lesions are precancerous, and the person should be referred
leukoplakia
a white cheesy, curdlike patch on the buccal mucosa and tongue. it scrapes off, leaving raw, red surface that bleeds easild
candidiasis or monilial, termed "thrush"
the surface is slick and shiny; the mucosa thins and looks red from decreased papillae. accompanied by dryness of tongue and burning
smooth, glossy tongue (atrophic glossitis)
pattern of normal coating interspersedw/ bright red, shiny, circular bald areas, having raised pearly borders. pattern resembles a map, and changes in a few days
geographic tongue (migratory glossitis)
also known as tongue tie
ankloglossia
the elongation of filiform papillae and painless overgrowth of mcelial threads of fungus infection on the tongue.
black hairy tongue
enlarged tongue may protude from mouth what is it also referred to as
macroglossia
an ucer w/ rolled edges; indurated. occurs particularly at sides, base, adn under the tongue
carcinoma
what term is referred to as decay in teeth
caries
cheilitis
red scaling, shallow, painful fissures at corners of mouth
closure of nasal cavity due ot congenital septum between ansal cavity and pharynx
choanal atresia
nosebleed, usually from anterior septum
epistaxis
"canker sores" small painful round ulcers in the oral mucosa of unknown cause
aphthous ulcers
this separates the external ear and middle ear and is translucent membrane w/ a pearly gray color
typmanic memebrane or eardrum
the middle ear has three functions what are they:
1. it conducts sound vibration form the outer ear to the central hearing apparatus in the inner ear
2. it protects the inner ear by reducing the amplitude of loud sounds
3. its eustachian tube allows equalization of air proessure on each side of the tympanic membrane so that the membrane does not rupture
concerning the fuction of hearing, the auditory system can be divided into three levels?
peripheral, brainstem, and cerebral cortex.
what is the term to describe the middle ear infection
ottitis media, or OM
what is some subjective data in ref. to ears
1. earaches, 2. infections, 3. discharge 4. hearing loss
5. environmental noise 6. tinnitus 7. vertigo 8. selfcare behaviors
what is the term to describe an outer ear infection
ottitis externa
what would the examiner ask on the focused patient history when reviewing the system?
Hx frequent ear infection (OM, OE)
Discharge? (ottorhea, rhinorrhea)
Hearing deficits
Speech or language problems
Immunization history
discharge in the ear is also known as what?
otorrhea and suggests infection; it may come from canal or may indicate a perforated eardurm
what would the examiner ask of the past health when examining the ears?
*chilhood illnesses- history of frequent URI's, history of frequent ear infections, external and middle
*history of accidents, illnesses, no serious or chronic illnesses, no ear or other surgery
*immunizations-of significance is pertussis, HIB, phneumoccal (PCV-7)
*Developmental history speech and language
*adaptive device, hearing aids
*environmental noise, use of ear jacks
*newborn hearing screen last exam date, hearing test results
*allergies
*current medications
What would the examiner ask of the family history when examining the ears?
Family social history
*history of ear infection
*smoking
*child care
*self care-bottle feeding, pacifier use, ear canal cleansing
*swimming-ottitis externa?
Objective data:
when palpating the ears what are you looking for?
*tenderness or deformity:
tragus, pinna, mastoiditis
Objective data:
when inspecting the external ear what are you looking for?
*alignment, size, shape, symmetry
*skin: eczema, seborrhea, SCC, decubiti
*masses, nodes, nodules, furuncles
*drainage (otorrhea)
*hygiene
Objective data:
when using the otoscope what are you looking for?
The external canal,the tympanic membrane,
how would you use the otoscope?
tilt the person's head slightly away from you toward the opposite shoulder. pull the pinna up and back on an adult or older child; this helps straighten the S-shape of the canal; pull the pinna down on an infant and a child under 3 yr. of age hold the pinna gently but firmly. hold the otoscope upside down. lastly perform the otoscopic examination before you test hearing; ear canals w/ impacted cerumen give the erroneous impression of pathologic hearing loss
Frank blood or clear, watery drainage (cerebrospinal fluid) following trauma suggests what?
basal skull fracture and warrents immediate referral. CSF fees oily and is positive for glucose on TesTape.
When inpecting the external canal w/ the otoscope what are you looking for?
*canal-note any redness and swelling, lesions, foreign bodies, or discharge.
(color, lesions, masses, discharge/cerumen/, foreign bodies/irritation from hearing aid, otitis externa (OE)).
what is the normal eardrum look like?
shiny and translucent, w/ a pearl-gray color. the coneshaped light reflex is prominent in the anteroinferior quadrant (5o'clock in the rt. ear drum, 7o'clock in the left drum)
what sections are visible through the translucentdrum:
the umbo, manubrium, and short process
when inspecting the tympanic membrane what are some of the objectives information you will be looking for?
coor and characteristics, position, integrity of membrane
what does the scarring look like on the membrane of the tympanic?
is a dense white patch on the drum this is a sequele of repeated ear infections
a perforation in the ear drum appears to be what?
as a dark oval area or as a larger opening on the drum
what are the tests you would perform in testing hearing acuity
voice test, tuning fork tests which includes the weber test, and rinne test
how is the voice test done
by placing one finger on the tragus and rapidly pushing it in and out of the auditory meatus. shild your lips so the person cannot compensate for a hearing loss w/ your head 30-60cm from the person's ear exhale and whisper slowly some two syllable words, normally the person repeats each word correctly after you say it.
what kind of sound is a whisper
high frequency sound and is used to detect high tone loss
what do tuning fork tests measure?
hearing by air conduction (AC) or by bone conduction (BC), in which the sound vibrates through the cranial bones to the inner ear.
how would you activate the tuning fork,
hold it by the stem and strike the tines softly on the back of your hand. a hard strike makes the tone too loud, and it takes a long time to fade out.
when is the weber test valuable
when a person reports hearing better w/ one ear than the other.
how would you perform the weber test
place a vibrating tuning fork in the midline of the person's skull and ask if the tone sounds the same in both ears or better in one. the person should hear the tone by bone conduction through the skull, and it should sound equally loud in both ears
what does the rinne test compare?
air conduction and bone conduction sound
how do you perform the rinne test
place the stem of the vibrating tuning fork on the person's mastoid process and ask him or her to signal when the sound goes away
normally the sound is heard twice as long by air conduction (next to ear) as by bone conduciton (through the mastoid process)
what is a normal respone in for the rinne test?
AC>BC
what does the romberg test assess
the ability of the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear to help maintain standing balance. also asses intactness of the cerebellum and proprioception
why isn't the otoscopic examination not performed at birth
because it is filled w/ amniotic fluid and vernix caseosa
normally the tympanic membrane is intact in children however a child being treated for chronic otitis media, you may note what?
the presence of a tympanostomy tube in the central part of the drum. this is inserted surgically to equalize pressure and drain secretions
what is the summary when inspecting the external ear?
-size and shape fo auricle
-position and alignment on head
-note skin condition-color, lumps, lesions
-ck mov't of auricle and targus for tenderness
-evaluate external auditory meatus-note size, swelling, redness, discharge, cerumen, lesions, froeign bodies
what is the summary when doing the otoscopic examination?
-external canal
-cerumen, discharge, foreign bodies, lesions
-redness or swelling of canal wall
what is the summary when inspecting the tympanic membrane?
-color and characteristics
-note position (flat, bulging, retracted)
-integrity fo membrane
what is the summary when testing the hearing acuity?
-note behavioral response to conversational speech
-voice test
-tuning fork test-weber and rinne
normally the tympanic membrane is intact in children however a child being treated for chronic otitis media, you may note what?
the presence of a tympanostomy tube in the central part of the drum. this is inserted surgically to equalize pressure and drain secretions
what is the summary when inspecting the external ear?
-size and shape fo auricle
-position and alignment on head
-note skin condition-color, lumps, lesions
-ck mov't of auricle and targus for tenderness
-evaluate external auditory meatus-note size, swelling, redness, discharge, cerumen, lesions, froeign bodies
what is the summary when doing the otoscopic examination?
-external canal
-cerumen, discharge, foreign bodies, lesions
-redness or swelling of canal wall
what is the summary when inspecting the tympanic membrane?
-color and characteristics
-note position (flat, bulging, retracted)
-integrity fo membrane
what is the summary when testing the hearing acuity?
-note behavioral response to conversational speech
-voice test
-tuning fork test-weber and rinne
otitis externa is also known as what?
swimmer's ear it is an infection of the outer ear, w/ severe painful mov't of the pinna and tragus, redness and swelling of pinna and canl, scanty purulent discharge, scaling, itching, fever, and enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
these are small painless nodule at the helix. It is a congenital variation and is not sifnificant.
darwin's tubercle
these are small whitish-yellow, hard, nontender nodules in or near helix or antihelix;p contain greasy, chalky material of uric acid crystals and are a sign of gout
tophi
this is an ulcerated crusted nodule w/ indurated base that fails to heal.
carcinoma
overgrowth of scar tissue, which invades original site of trauma
keloid
location is commonly behind lobule, in the postauricular fold.
sebaceous cyst,
define otitis externa
severe swelling of canal, inflammation, ternderness
define osteoma,
single, stony hard, rounded nodule that obscures the drum, nontender; overlying skin appears normal.
define furuncle
exquisitely painful, reddened, infected hair follicle.
define exotosis
more comon than osteoma. small, bony hard, rounded nodules of hypertrophic bone, covered w/ normal epithelium
this arises in canl from granulomatous or mucosal tissue; redder than surrounding skin and bleeds easily; bathed in foul purulent discharge; indicates chronic ear disease.
polyp
describe a performation
if an acute otitis media is not treated, the drum may rupture from increased pressure. perforation also occur from trauma. usually appears as a round or oval darkened area on the drum,
this is an amber-yellow drum suggests serum in the middle ear that transudates to relieve negative pressure from the blocked eustachian tube
serous otitis media
this indicates blood in the middle ear, as in trauma resulting in skull fracure
blue drum (hemotympanum)
this is a colony of black or white dots on drum or canal wall
suggests a yeast or fungal infection
*fungal infection (otomycosis)
OS aka
oculus sinister, or left eye
OD aka
orulus dexter, or right eye
OU aka
both eyes
what is the subjective data related to eyes (hx:cc)
*acuity change's
*blurring
*clouding? cataract
*floaters? myompia, retinal detachment
*blind spots (scotoma)? glaucoma, migraine, neuro
*night blindness? glaucoma, decreased Vit A
*halso? glaucoma
What is the subjective data RT eyes (hx:pi)
Pallative: provactive: tried
Quality: burn/itch/pressure/stabbing
Region/Radiation: uni/bilateral
Severity/scale: intensity
Timing: onset, duration
Understanding? what the pt. fears the most
what might be some other SX
tearing, photosensitivity/ phopia, vision changes, eye discharge (color,amt.,dry eyes (xeropthalmia), crusting/matting), redness or swelling, seasonal allergies, trauma or FB (foreign bodies)
Contact lens?
Patient history that is subjective data:
*strabismus (eso/exotropia)
*diplopia
*glaucoma
*corrective lens
*surgery
*medications
*self care behaviors (vision exams, occupational hazards)
what are some objective tools for an eye exam?
snellen chart, handheld vision screener, opaque card/occluder, penlight, ophthalmoscope, ishihara's test, gloves, OD, OS, OU
in the aging population the most common causes of decreased visual functioning are:
1. cataract formation, or lens opacity
2. glaucoma, or increased ocular pressure
3. macular degeneration.
pupillary light reflex is the normal constriction of the pupils when?
bright light shines on the retina
what is fixation in ref. to visual reflexes?
this is a reflex direction of the eye toward an object attracting a person's attention
this is adaptation of the eye for near vision.
accomodation
at what age does the eyeball reach adult size
by 8
what is the subjective data for eyes?
1. vision difficulty (decreased, acuity, blurring, blind spots), 2. pain, 3. strabismus, diplopia 4. redness, swelling, 5. watering, discharge 6. past history of ocular problems 7. glaucoma, 8. use of glasses or contact lenses, 9. self-care behaviors
these are common w/ myopia or after middle age due to condensed vitreous fibers. Usually not significant but acute onset ("shade" or cobwebs") may occur w/ retinal detachment
floaters
halos around light occur w/
acute narrow angle glaucoma
this is a blind spot in the visual field surrounded by an area of normal or decreased vision, occurs w/ glaucoma, w/ optic nerve and visual pathway disorders
scotoma
night blindness occurs w/
optic atrophy, glaucoma, or vit. a deficiency
this is an inability to tolerate light
photophobia
this is a deviation in the anteroposterior axis of the eye
strabismus
this is the perception of two images of a single object
diplopia
also known as tearing
lacrimation due to irritants or obstrucion in drainage of tears
also known as excessive tearing
epiphora due to irritants or obstruction in drainage of tears
this is an eye disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure
glaucoma
this test is most commonly used and accurately measures of visual acuity
snellen alphabet chart
normal vision acuity is 20/20, what does the top number mean? bottom?
top indicates the distance the person is standing from the chart while the denominator gives teh distance at which a normal eye could have read that particular line
for people over 40 or for those who report increasing difficulty reading, test near vision using?
a handheld vision screener
this is the decrease in power of accomodation w/ aging is suggested when the person moves the card farther away
presbyopia
what is the confrontation test
this is a gross measure of peripheral vision, it compare's the person's peripheral vision w/ your own, assuming yours is normal
how would you perform the confrontation test
position yourself at eye level w/ the person, about 2 ft. away. direct the person to cover one eye w/ an opaque card, and w/ the other eye to look straight at you. cover your own eye opposite to the person's covered one. hold a pencil or your flicking finger as a target midline and slowly advance it in from the periphery in several directions
what is the range of peripheral vision
50 deg. superiorly, 60 deg. nasally, 70 deg. inferiorly, 90 deg. temporally,
what tests would you use upon inspecting extraocular muscle function
corneal light reflex (the hirschberg test), cover test, diagnostic position test
ptosis?
drooping of upper lid
exophthalmos?
protruding eyes
enophthalmos
sunken eyes
pallor near the outer canthus of the lower lid may indicate
anemia
this is an even yellowing of the sclera extending up to the corne, indicating jaundice
scleral icterus
how would you perform the hirschberg test
assess the parallel alignment of the eye axes by shining a light toward the person's eye. direct the person to stare straight ahead as you hold the light about 30cm (12 inch) note the reflection of the light on the corneas; it should be in exactly the same spot on each eye
what does the cover test detect?
small degrees fo deviated alignment by interrupting the fusion reflex that normally keeps the two eyes paralles.
what is a phoria?
a mild weakness noted only when fusion is blocked
what is tropia
is more severe than phoria it is a constant malalignment of the eyes
how would you perform the diagnostic positions test
ask the person to hold the head steady and to follow the mov't of your finger, pen or penlight only w/ the eyes. hold the target back 12inc. so thte person can focus on it comfortable and move it to each of the six cardinal positions of gaze
if eye mov't is not parallel or failure to follow in a certain direction for the diagnostic position test this indicates?
weakness of an extraocular muscle or dysfunction of cranial nerve innervating it
the ophtalmoscope enlarges your view of the eye so that you can inspect the?
media (anterior chamber, lens, vitreoous), and the ocular fundus(the internal surface of the retina)
how would you perform a fundiscopic exam
match sides w/ the person. hold the ophthalmoscope in your rt. hand up to your rt. eye to view teh person's rt. eye. you must do this to avoid bumping noses. place your free hand on the person's shoulder or forehead. begin 10inc away from the person at an angle about 15 deg. lateral to the person's line of vision. note the red glow filling the person's pupil. this is the red reflex, and steadily move closer to the eye. if you lose the red reflex, the light has wandered off the pupil and onto the iris or sclera. adjust your angle to find it again, note any opacities in the media. these appear as dark shadwos or black dots interrupting the red reflex normally none are present.
moving in on the 15 deg. lateral line should bring your view just to the optic dis, systmatically inspect the structures in the ocular fundus, optic disc, retinal vessels, general background, and macula
the most prominent landmark is the optic disc, located ont eh nasal side of the retina. explore these characteristics by?
color-creamy yellow oange to pink
shape-round or oval
margins-distinct and sharply demarcated, although the nasal edge may be slightly fuzzy
cup disc ratio-distinctness varies. when visible, physiologic cup is a brighter yellow white than rest of the disc. its width is not more than one half the disc diameter
define a scleral crescent
it is a gray white new mon shape it occurs when pigment is absent in the choroid layer and you are looking directly at the sclera
what is a pigment crescent
is black due to accumulation of pigment in the choroid
when following a paired artery and vein out to the periphery inthe four quadrants what points would you note?
number, color, a:v ratio, caliber, a-v (arteriovenous)crossing, tortuosity, pulsations
what is the ratio comparing the artery to vein width
2:3 or 4:5
the macula is 1DD in size and located where?
2DD temporal to the disc
when would you inspect the macula?
last in the fundoscopic exam. a bright light on this area fo central vision causes some watering and discomfort and pupillary constriction
as you introduce an object to the infant's line of vision what would be the normal behavior for
Birth to 2 wk.
by 2-4wk
by 1mo.
by 3-4 mo
by 6-10 mo
birth to 2 wk-refusal to reopen eyes after exposure to bright light; increasing alertness to object; infant may fixate on an object
by 2-4wk- infant can fixate on an object
by 1mo.- infant can fixate and follow a light or bright toy
by 3-4mo-infant can fixate, follow, and reach for the toy
by 6-10mo. infant can fixate and follow the toy in all directions
what is the allen test
picture cards screens children from 2.5 yr-2yr.and11mo of age and is even reliable w/ cooperative toddlers as young as 2 yr.
what would you use for the preschooler from 3-6yr of age for visual acuity
use a picture chart or the snellen e chart
the national society for prevention of blindness states these criteria for referral:
1. age 3-vision 20/50 or less in either eye
2. age 4 and over-20/40 or less in either eye
3. difference between two eyes is one line or more
4. child shows other signs of vision impairment, regardless of acuity
in infants and children you would inpect what for eyes?
visual acuity, color vision, extraocular muscle function, external eye structures, eyelids and lashes, conjunctiva and sclera, iris and pupils, the occular fundus
what test would you test only boys for between the ages of 4-8?
using ishihara's test a series of polychromatic cards. each card has a pattern of dots printed against a background of many colors
when testing the extraocular muscle function on children you would test for?
strabismus, corneal light reflex, perform the cover test,
what test would you perform on all children
cover test
what is strabimus
squint,crossed eye, causes disconjugate vision because one eye deviates off the fixation pt.
Ishihara's test for what?
color vision *primary colors-red, yellow, green, blue,
male predominance x-linked recessive trait
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect eyebrows?
present bilaterally,
move symmetrically
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the eyelids and lashes?
upper lids overlap superior past of iris,
meet (approximate)lower lids when closed
palpabral fissure horizontal in non-asian
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the eyeballs?
aligned normally in socket w/out protrusion or sunken appearance
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the conjunctiva and sclera?
-ask pt. to look up as you pull down lower lids, conjunctiva is transparent
-color should show structure below white over sclera, pink over lower lids
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the lacrimal apparatus
-slide fingers along bony orbit to check for swelling of lacrimal duct
-press into the nasolacrimal duct
during the physical examination of eyes what is some objective data when you inspect the cornea/lens
clarity- shine a light-scratches(going in sideways to see scratches on cornea)
during the physical examination of eyes what is some obfective data when you inspect the iris/pupil?
-size (3-5mm)
-shape
during the physical examination of eyes what is some obfective data when you inspect the pupillary light reflex
direct light reflex,
consensual light reflex
perrla (pupils, equal, round, reactive to light, accomodation, confrontation)
during the physical examination of eyes of the aging adult what is glaucoma?
increased pressure in teh anterior chamber
what are some other objective information on the aging adult related to the eyes?
arcus senilis, ectropion, entropion
how would you test for glaucoma?
a puff of air measures the pressure of the eyeball and how much fluid is in the vitrous
define pingueculae
commonly show on the sclera, these yellowish elevated nodules are due to a thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva from prolonged exposure to sun, wind, and dust
this is a gray white arc or circle around the limbus it is due to deposition of lipid material
arcus senilis
explain the positioning of normal ear alignment in the child?
the infant's and the young child's external auditory canal is shorter and has a slope opposite to that of the adult's
refractive error of vision due to differences in curvature in refractive surgaces of the eye (cornea and lens)
Astigmatism
blowing, swooshing sound heard through the stethoscope over an are of abnormal blood flow
bruit
increase in size of thyroid gland that occurs w/ hyperthyroidism
goiter
abnormally large head
macrocephalic
abnomally small head
microcephallic
round symmetric skull that is appropriately related to body size
normocephalic
head tilt due to shortening or spasm of one sternomastoid muscle
toriticollis
what do you want to know when examining the head and neck?
PI (PQRSTU)
PHx
allergies
medications
FHx
SHX
ROS-general, eyes, cv, gu, neuro, endocrine, resp., gi, skin, breasts allergy immuno, eent, psych
what is the objective information during the physical examination of head and neck?
*size/shape-normocephali/ atramatic (NC/AT)
*HC-hydro, macro, micro, anen-cephaly
*tenderness
*lesions
*temporal regions-temporal arteries,TMJ
*facial structures-symmetry (palsy), edema
*general
*periorbital-exophthalmos
*sinus problems
what is the objective information during the physical examination of the neck?
*trachea
*ROM
*strenth
what is the objective information during the physical examination in the lymph nodes?
*drain top to bottom
*enlarge w/ inflammation/infection-d/t collection WBC's
*location?pathognomonic to spc dz
*tenderness?
*mobility?
*size
-N1<cm.. nonpalpable most adults
-kids:larger=n1variant (less SQ)
-fibrous chronic enlargement
what is the objective information during the physical examination of the tyroid?
*goiter,
*thyromegaly
*multinodular
*single nodule
*vascular bruits
at what age does the anterior fontanel close
between 9mo. and 2 yrs.
at what age does the triangleshaped posterior fontanel close?
1-2mo
the thyroid gland enlarges slightly during pregnancy due to?
hyperplasia of the tissue and increased vascularity
What is the subjective data for head and neck, including regional lymphatics
1. headache, 2. head injury
3. dizziness, 4. neck pain, limitation of motion 5. lumps or swelling 6. hisotry of head or neck surgery
tense, rigid muscles may indicate what?
anxiety or pain; a flat affect may indicate depression; excessive smiling may be inappropriate
if any nodes are palpable note what?
their location, size, shape, delimitation (discrete or matted together), mobility, consistency and tenderness.
what do normal nodes feel like?
movable, discrete, soft, and nontender
when would you measure a child's head size?
visit up to age 2 then yearly up to age 6
what is the newborn's head measure?
about 32 to 38 cm.
summary for head and neck, including regional lymphatics exam
1. inspect and palpate the skull-general size contour, note any deformities, lumps, tenderness, palpate temporal artery, tempormandibular jt.,
2. Inspect the face-facial expression, symmetry of mov't (cranial nerve VII), any involuntary mov
t edema, lesions.
3. inspect and palpate the neck-active ROM, enlargement of salivary glands, lymph nodes, thyroid gland, position of the trachea 4. auscultate the thyroid (if elarged)for bruit
define acromegaly
this is an excessive secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary, after puberty, creates an enlarged skull and thickened carnial bones.
define cachectic appearance
accompanies chronic wasting diseases such as cancer, dehydration, and starvation. features include sunken eyes; hollow cheeks; and exhausted, defeated expression
define scleroderma
literally "hard skin" this collagen disease is characterized by chronic hardening and shrinking of connective tissue. can occur in any body organ
people w/ migraines differ from people w/ cluster headaches what makes them different on how they feel better
people w/ migraines lie down to feel better whereas people w/ cluster headaches they need to move even to pace the floor
hair conditions is significant in diagnosing and treating certain disease states. for ex.
hair texture becomes dry, brittle, and lusterless w/ inadequate nutrition
what is some subjective data for skin, hair, and nails
1. previous history of skin disease (allergies, hives, psoriasis, eczema) 2. change in pigmentation 3. change in mole (size or color) 4. excessive dryness or moisture 5. pruritus 6. excessive bruising 7. rash or lesion 8. medications 9. hair loss, 10. change in nails 11. environmental or occupational hazards 12. self care behaviors
alopecia
(baldness) hair loss
Annular
circular shape to skin lesion
bulla
elevated cavity containing free fluid larger than 1 cm diameter
confluent
skin lesions that run together
crust
thick, dried out exudate left on skin when vesicles/pustules burst or dry up
cyanosis
dusky blue color to skin or mucous membranes due to increased amt. of unoxygenated hemoglobin
erosion
scooped out, shallow depression in skin
erythema
intense redness of the skin due to ecess blood in dilated superficial capillaries, as in fever or inflammation
excoriation
self inflicted abrasion on skin due to scratching
linear crack in skin extending inot dermis
fissure
furuncle
(boil) suppurative inflammatory skin lesion due to infected hair follicle
jaundice
yellow color to skin, palate, and sclera due to excess bilirubin in the blood
keloid
hypertrophic scar, elevated beyond site of original inury
lipoma
benign fatty tumor
macule
flat skin lesion w/ only a color change <1cn
nevus
(mole) circumscribed skin lesion due to excess melanocytes
nodule
elevated skin lesions, > 1cm diameter
pallor
excessively pale, whitish-pink color to lightly pigmented skin
papule
palpable skin lesion of <1cm diameter
pruritus
itching
pustule
elevated cavity containing thick turbid fluid
scale
compact desiccated flakes of skin from shedding of dead skin cells
ulcer
sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue that causes a deep depression in skin, extending inot dermis
vesicle
elevated cavity containing free fluid up to 1 cm diameter
wheal
raised red skin lesion due to interstitial fluid
zosterifrm
linear shape of skin lesion along a nerve route
danger signs: abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic?
ABCDE:
asymmetry of a pigmented lesion (one that is not regularly round or oval)
Border irregularity (notching, scalloping ragged edges or poorly defined margins)
Color variation(areas of brown, tan, black, blue, red, white, or combination therof)
Diameter greater than 6mm (size of a pencil eraser) although early melanomas may be diagnosed at a smaller size
Elevation and enlargement
this is the complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas of white or light skin on the face, neck, hands, feet, body folds, and around orifices
vitiligo
what are some external variables influencing skin color
emotions (fear,anger, embarassement)
environment (hot room, chilly, cigarette smoking)
physical (prolonged elevation, dependent position, immobilization)
where is general pigmentation darker?
in sun exposed areas
these are small, flat macules of brown melanin pigment that occur on sun exposed skin
feckles (ephelides)
this is a proliferation of melanocytes, tan to brown color, flat or raised. acquired neve are characterized by their symmetry, small size (6mm or less) smooth borders, and single uniform pigmentation
mole (nevus)
this is macular only and occurs in children and adolescents. it prgresses to the compound nevi in young adults that are macular and papular. the intradermal nevus mainly in older age
junctional nevus
what is diaphoresis,
or profuse perspiration, accompanies an increased metabolic rate, such as occurs in heavy activity or fever
what does normal skin feel like
smooth and firm, w/ an even surface.
how do you check for edema,
imprint your thumbs firmly against the ankle mallelus or the tibia
normally the skin surface stays smooth for edema. if your pressure leaves a dent in teh skin "pitting" edema is present how is it graded?
1+ mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg
2+moderate pitting indentation subsides rapidly
3+deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen
4+ very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is very swollen
these are small (1-5mm), smooth slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults over 30
cherry (senile) angiomas
ecchymosis is also known as?
bruising is should be consistent w/ the expected trauma of life. there are normally no venous dilations or varicosities
if there are any lesions present on the skin what would you notate
1. color, 2. elevation:flat, raised, or pedunculated 3. pattern or shape: the grouping or distinctness of each lesion, 4. sizein cm. use a ruler to measure 5. location and distribution on body: generalized or localized 6. any exudate. note its color and/ or odor
what do you inspect and palpate in the hair?
Color, texture, distribution, lesions
When inspecting and palpating the nails what do you inspect?
shape and contour, consistency, color
what is the term to describe excess body hair. in females this forms a male pattern of hair distribution on the face and chest and indicates endocrine abnormalities
hirsutism
what is the normal degree of a nail base
160 degrees
this is a common variation of hyperpigmentaion in black, asian, native american ,and hispanic newborns
mongolain spot
how would you promote health and self care for the skin?
teach skin self examination, using the abcde rule
this is a large round or oval patch of light brown pigmentation
cafe au lait spot
6 or more cafe au lait macules each more than 1.5 cm in diameter are diagnostic of
neurofibromatoi, an ingerited neurocutaneous disease
these are tiny while papules on the cheeks, forehead, and across the nose and chin due ot sebum that occludes the opening of the follicles
mili
what is a stork bite?
(salmon patch) is a flat, irregularly shaped red or pink patch found on the forehead, eyelid, or upper lip, but most commonly at the back of the neck (nuchal are) present at birth usually fades during the first year
what is the most common skin problem of adolescence?
acne
these are jagged linear "stretch marks" of silver to pink color that appear during the second trimester on the abdomen, breasts, and sometimes thights
striae
what is senile lentigines
these are commonly called liver spots and are small, flat, brown, macules. they are not malignant and require no treatment
what is keratoses
these lesions are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that look crusted, scaly, and warty
different types inc:seborrgeic keratosis, actinic (senile or solar) keratosis
this consists of raised yellow papules w/ a central depression. they are more common in men, occuring over teh foreheaad, nose or cheeks. they have a pebbly look
sebaceous hyperplasia
what is the summary for skin, hair, and nails exam?
1.inspect the skin: color, general pigmentaion, areas of hypopigmentaion or hyperpigmentation, abnormal color changes
2. palpate the skin: temp, moisture, texture, thickness, edema, mobility and turgor, hygiene, vascularity or bruising
3. note any lesions-color, shape and configuration, size, location and distribution on body
4. inspect and palpate the hair: texture, distribution, any scalp lesion 5. inspect and palpate the nails: shape and contour, consistensy, color
6. teach skin self-examination
describe an annular lesion?
or circular, begins in center and spreads to perphery
describe a confluent lesions?
lesions run together
describe a discrete, lesion
distinct, individual lesions that remain separate
describe a grouped lesion
clusters of lesions e.g. vesicles of contact dermatitis
describe a gyrate lesion
twisted, coiled spiral, snakelike
describe a target lesion
or iris, resembles iris of eye, concentric rings of color in the lesions e.g. erythema multiforme
describe a linear lesion
a scratch, streak, line, or stripe
describe a polycylic lesion
annular lesions grow together e.g. lichen planus, psoriasis
describe a zosteriform lesion
linear arrangement along a nerve route e.g. herpes zoster
what are some common shapes and distribution in ref. to skin
anular, discrete, grouped, confluent, serpiginous, gyrate, target, iris, linear, polycylic, zosteriform
what are some risk factors for decubiti (bed sore)
*nutrition
*comorbid Dz
*immobility
*inactivity
*moisture
*pressure
*shearing
what is tinea pedis
(ringworm of the foot), "athletes foot" a fungal infection, first appears as small vesicles between toes, sides of feet, soles
these are scaly erythematous patch, w/ silvery scales on top. usually on scalp, outside of elbows and knees low back, and anogenital area
psoriasis
what is pediculosis capitis
head lice,
koilonychia
spoon nails-thin depressed nails w/ lateral edges tilted up, forming a concave profile. may be congenital or a hereditary trait; if all nails are involved may be due to iron deficiency anemia
beau's line
transverse furrow or groove. a depression across the nail that extends down to the nail bed. occurs w/ any trauma that temporarily impairs nail formation, such as acute illness, toxic reactions, or local trauma
splinter hemorrhages
red-brown linear streaks, embolic lesions, occur w/ subacute bacterial endocarditis; also may occur w/ minor trauma
late clubbing
proximal edge of nail elevates; angle is greater than 180 deg. distal phalanx looks rounder and wider. seen w/ chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and congenital heart disease w/ cyanosis. occurs first in thumb and index finger
what is onycholysis
this ispersistent fungal infection of fingernails and more often, toenails, commonin older adults. fungus causes change in color texture, thickness, w/ nail crubling or breaking, and loosening of the nail plate, usually begining at the distal edge and progressing proximally
what is pitting in ref. to nails
sharply defined pitting and crumbling of the nails w/ distal detachemtn often occurs w/ psoriasis
what is the function of the skin?
protection, prevents penetration, perception, temperature regulation, identification, communication, wound repair, absorption and excretion, production of vit. D
what is lanugo
the fine downy hair of the newborn
what factors place the aging person at risk for skin disease and breakdown?
the thinning of the skin, the decrease in vascularity and nutrients, the loss of protective cushioning fo the subcutaneous layer, a lifetime of environmental trauma to skin, the social changes of aging, the increasingly sedetary lifestyle, and the chance of immobility