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31 Cards in this Set

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Name the lobes of the liver. What divides the two lobes on the anterior surface?
Right, left, quadrate (superior) and caudate (inferior) lobe. The right and left lobe is separated by the interlobar fissure which is an invisible line running from the gallbladder to the IVC.
How is the liver secured in its position in the thorax?
The liver is secured in its anatomic location by the attachment of the hepatic veins to the IVC.
The liver lies in the right hypochondrium under the rib cage and extends from the _______ intercostal space at the ______ line to just below the costal margin.
5th intercostal space
midclavicular
The liver receives approximately 25% of total cardiac output. What vasculature supplies the liver?
Both enter via the hilum.
Portal vein (60-70% of the blood to the liver): formed by the union of the splenic vein (IMV joins splenic) and SMV

Hepatic artery (30-40%): is a branch off the common hepatic artery which arise from the celiac trunk (T12).
What portal-IVC anastomosis becomes clinically relevant when portal hypertension occurs and what are the clinical signs?
Portal hypertension will cause blood within the portal vein to reverse its flow and enter the IVC to return to the heart. The three main sites are:
Esophageal varices: left gastric vein-esophageal vein.
Caput medusa: paraumbilical vein-superficial and inferior epigastric veins.
Hemorrhoids (rectum): superior rectal vein - middle and inferior rectal veins
What are the three divisions of the gall bladder?
What is the blood supply to the gallbladder?
What nerve innervates the gallbladder?
Fundus (anterior portion), body, neck (posterior).
The cystic artery (a branch of the right hepatic artery) supplies the gallbladder.
Sensory: the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve (T7-T10).
Motor: vagus (CNX).
The common hepatic duct is joined by the cystic duct to from the common bile duct. Where does the common bile duct continue to?
The common bile duct passes posterior to the pancreas and ends at the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vader), where it joins the pancreatic duct. The sphincter of Oddi controls bile flow into the 2nd portion of the duodenum.
What hormone causes contraction of the gallbladder? What hormone inhibits contraction?
CCK
Somatostatin
What is the classical microarchitecture of the liver?
The liver is classically divided into hexagonal lobules oriented around a central vein (terminal veins). Portal tracts (artery, vein, bile duct) are arranged at the periphery. The hepatocytes are arranged in plates around the central vein and are separated by vascular sinusoids (blood drains to central vein). Bile canaliculi are channels between hepatocytes that drain towards the portal triad.
Describe a liver acinus. Which hepatocytes in the acinus are most susceptible to ischemic injury?
A liver acinus is divided into zone 1 (periportal - closest to portal triad), zone 2 (midzonal), and zone 3 (centrilobular -closest to central vein). The centrilobular hepatocytes are most remote from blood supply.
What are ito cells and where do they reside in the liver?
Ito cells are fat-storing cells found in the space of Disse. Sinusoids are lined by fenestrated endothelial cells. The space between these endothelial cells and the hepatocytes make up the space of Disse. Ito (stellate) cells play a role in storage of vit A and they form collagen producing myofibroblasts in inflammation.
What are Kupffer cells?
Kupffer cells are resident macrophages found in the liver sinusoids. They secrete proinflammatory cytokines:
TNF-a: cause cholestasis.
IL-6: cause synthesis of proteins by hepatocytes.
TFG-b: cause stellate cells to secrete type I collagen.
What are the main components of bile?
Cholesterol, bilirubin glucuronide, bile salts (cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid conjugated to tuarine or glycine), phospholipids (lecithin), electrolytes, water, IgA.
Explain the metabolism of senescent RBCs.
Splenic macrophages degrade heme to unconjugated bilirubin (UCB). UCB-albumin complex travels to hepatocytes. UCB is conjugated by UDP glucuronyl transferase to form bilirubin-glucuronide (conjugated,CB and is water soluble). CB is converted to urobilinogen (UBG) by bacteria in the intestines. UBG is oxidized to urobilin.
During fasting, liver glycogen stores are used up. Gluconeogenesis (90% in liver) can help maintain BGL. Name the gluconeogenic precursors that can be used to produce a glucose.
Most important: glycerol (from TGs), lactate (during exercise), and glucogenic amino acids.
Additionally, all the intermediates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
Where does glycerol enter gluconeogensis?
Glycerol is converted by glycerol kinase to glycerol phosphate which is oxidized (by dehydrogenase) to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP).
What is the Cori cycle?
Bloob-borne glucose is converted by exercising muscle to lactate. Lactate is taken up by the liver and reconverted to glucose (lactate to pyruvate)
Glucogenic amino acids are those whose catabolism yields pyruvate or one of the intermediates of the citric acid cyle. What two amino acids are ketogenic and do not participate in gluconeogenesis?
Leucine and lysine, which are both essential amino acids (obtained from diet). Tyrosine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan are ketogenic and glucogenic.
Gluconeogensis has three irreversible reactions that must be circumvented. Name the four reactions that accomplish this.
1) Pyruvate (via p. carboxylase, biotin, CO2, ATP) to oxaloacetate. (Note: oxaloacetate is transported across mitochondrial membrane as malate).
2) Oxaloacetate (via PEP carboxykinase, loss of CO2, GTP) to PEP.
3) F-1,6-P (via F-1,6-Pase) to F-6-P.
4) G-6-P (via G-6-Pase) to glucose.
How does glucagon regulate gluconeogenesis?
Glucagon binds to adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP, thus activating protein kinase A. Protein kinase A favors the phosphorylation of PFK-2/FBP complex which activates fructose bisphosphatase (FBP). Insulin favors dephosphorylation of the complex and activated phosphofructokinase (PFK).
Glucagon also inactivates pyruvate kinsae and activates PEP carboxykinase.
What effect does the follow molecules have on gluconeogenesis?
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
Acetyl CoA
AMP
Glucagon
F-2,6-BP: activates phosphofructokinase (glycolysis).
Acetyl CoA: activates pyruvate carboxylase (gluconeogenesis).
AMP: inhibits F-1,6-BPase (inhibits gluconeogenesis)
Glucagon: increases gluconeogenesis.
Where are the main stores of glycogen in the body and what are they used for?
Skeletal muscle: serve as a fuel reserve for the synthesis of ATP during muscle contraction.

Liver: glycogen is used to maintain the blood glucose concentration (early on in fasting).
Glycogenesis is the conversion of glucose to glycogen. Glucose1-P is first conjugated to UDP (uridine diphosphate) then passed to a growing polysaccharide. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose-1-P. What are the regulated enzymes of these two pathways?
Glycogen synthase regulates glycogenesis.

Glycogen phosphorylase regulates glycogenolysis.
What factors control glycogen synthesis and degradations in the liver and in muscle?
In liver:
Glycogen synthase: activated by G-6-P
Glycogen phosphorylase: activated by glucagon and epinephrine and inhibited by G-6-P, ATP, glucose
Muscle:
Glycogen synthase: activated by G-6-P
Glycogen phosphorylase: activated by Ca, AMP, epinephrine and inhibited by ATP, G-6-P
What is Von Gierke disease?
A deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase, which is responsible for releasing free glucose that can be used to maintain blood glucose levels. Sever fasting hypoglycemia, fatty liver, hepatomegaly, renal disease, growth retardation, etc.
What are the irreversible reaction of glycolysis?
Glucose (via hexokinase) to G-1-P.
Fructose 6-P (via phosphofructokinase) to F-1,6,BP.
Phosphoenolpyruvate (via pyruvate kinase) pyruvate.
How is alcohol normally metabolized in the liver (hint: two oxidation reactions)? What drug inhibits the 2nd enzyme?
Ethanol is converted to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase. Acetaldehyde is oxidized to acetate by aldehyde dehydrogenase. It is also inhibited by disulfiram.
An alcoholic patient is started on disulfiram. What effects of this treatment can be expected?
This drug causes accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood which results in flushing, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and nausea.
How does alcohol ingestion cause hypoglycemia?
Ethanol metabolism results in a massive increase of NADH. NADH favors the conversion of pyruvate to lactate and oxaloacetate to malate, thus, shunting these intermediates away from gluconeogenesis..
How is chronic ethanol intake dealt with by the liver?
MEOS (microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system) metabolizes EtOH using NADPH and P450. This pathway is inducible which accounts for tolerance build up. Unfortunately, it produces excess oxygen free radicals (very dangerous).
Why does chronic alcohol intake result in a fatty liver?
Acetate is the final product of EtOH metabolism. Acetate is used to make fatty acids.