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119 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
define antiglobulin
|
antibody that reacts with immunoglobulin from another species
ex: dog Ig-->given to rabbit-->rabbit's antibodies against dog's IG are antiglobulins) |
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______ is the study of serum
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serology
|
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4 uses for immnuodiagnostic tests
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1. detection of antigens
2. detection of antibodies 3. diagnosis of immunological disease 4. measure blood concentration of hormones, etc |
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______ are antibodies derived from a single clone of B lymphocytes.
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monoclonal antibodies
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monoclonal antibodies are derived from ___ lymphocytes
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B
|
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2 results of cells made from monoclonal antibodies
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1. cells are able to grow forever
2. cell make a single type of antibody |
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3 benefits of using monoclonal antibodies
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1. recognize a single epitope
2. can be prepared with greater consistency 3. random reaction due to other antibodies don't occur |
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4 steps/requirements for Ab:Ag reaction tests
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1. source of Ab
2. source of Ag 3. mix 4. check for reaction |
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(T/F) Agglutination tests is normally used to detect antibodies
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true
|
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hemagglutination inhibition is used to detect ____ (Ab/Ag)
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antibodies
|
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complement fixation is used to detect ________ (Ab/Ag)
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antibodies
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serum neutralization is used to detect ______ (Ab/Ag)
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antobodies
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agar gel immunodiffusion (agid) is used to detect ________ (Ab/Ag)
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antibodies
|
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Which florescent antibody test is used to detect antibodies?
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indirect FA test
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Which florescent antibody test is used to detect antigens?
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direct FA test
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enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (elisa) is used to detect _____ (Ab/Ag)
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both
|
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Immunoblot is used to detect ______ (Ab/Ag)
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antibodies
|
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In the immunoblot/western blot test, antigens are separated according to ________.
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molecular weight
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immunohistochemistry is used to detect _____ (Ab/Ag)
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usually antigens
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immunochromatography is used to detect ______ (Ab/Ag)
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usually antigens
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______ would likely be used to test for viruses
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hemagglutination test
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Which cells respond to tuberculosis antigens in delayed hypersensitivity testing?
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CD4 and macrophages
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How long does reaction take when testing for tuberculosis?
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48-72 hours
|
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How long does reaction take wen testing for immediate hypersensitivity?
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10-15 minutes
|
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List 3 substances that activated mast cells release.
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histamine
prostaglandins leukotrienes |
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Which antibody does immediate hypersensitivity testing activate?
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IgE
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Pos or Neg are examples of _________ test results.
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qualitative
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Serum concentration is an example of ________ test results.
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quantitative
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_______ is performed when serum is diluted until no positive reaction occurs.
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titration
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define titer
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highest dilution of serum that gives a positive reaction
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(T/F) An infected animal would have low titers
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false
|
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3 reasons for error in diagnostic test
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1. technical. test performed incorrectly
2. inadequate or contaminated specimen 3. biological reasons |
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What is the most common biological cause for diagnostic test error?
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cross-reactivity
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Why would early or late testing lead to false negatives when testing for antigens?
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too early = pathogen hasn't replicated enough to be detected.
too late = tissue damage, etc |
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(T/F) Vaccination can lead to false-negative when testing for antibodies?
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False
|
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(T/F) Primary immunodeficiencies are rare in veterinary medicine.
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true
|
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(T/F) SCID is an autosomal recessive trait.
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true
|
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list 2 examples of primary immunodeficiencies.
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SCID in Arabian foals
IgG deficiency in german shepards |
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What is the role of DNA-dependent protein kinase in SCID?
|
it is required for repairing the nicks in the chromosome during immunoglobulin and TCR gene rearrangement.
|
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What is the primary clinical problem in foals with SCID?
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lymphopenia = very low antibody levels.
foals become infected by opportunists when maternal antibody levels decline. |
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4 causes of secondary immunodeficiency.
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viral infection
nutritional deficiency toxicosis pharmacologic treatment |
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Infectious causes of immunodeficiency are most commonly _______.
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viral
|
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Where doe viruses that cause secondary immunodeficiency replicate?
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lymphatic tissues and bone marrow
|
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List at least 3 examples of viruses that cause immunodeficiency.
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canine parvovirus
feline leukemia virus feline immunodeficiency virus canine distemper bovine diarrhea virus feline panleukopenia virus |
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What is the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency?
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primary = present at birth
secondary = triggered by some other cause |
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Explain 2 ways nutritional deficiency can lead to immunodeficiency.
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Protein/calorie malnutrition has a major affect on T-cell function.
Vitamins and trace minerals also affect the immune system. |
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List 2 types of drugs that have immunosuppressant qualities.
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glucocorticoids
cytotoxic agents |
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Cyotoxic agents act on _____ cells
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replicating
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Cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, and methotrexate are examples of _______.
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cytotoxic agents used to suppress the immune system
|
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Explain for mycotoxins can lead to immunodeficiency.
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affect neutrophil or lymphocyte function
|
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2 ways to evaluate the immune status of an animal
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CBC
lymph node biopsy |
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_____ is the 1st lymphoid tissue to develop in gestation
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thymus
|
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Which antibody may be the fetus release during late gestation?
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IgM
|
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2 routes of transfer for maternal antibodies
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placental
colostral |
|
Which antibodies are involved in placental/colostral transfer of maternal antibodies?
|
placental = IgG
colostral = IgG, IgA, some IgM |
|
define colostrum
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the 1st milk
produced in the 1st 24 hours after parturition has high concentrations of all antibodies, esp IgG |
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2 species that get 90% of transfer of maternal antibodies via placental transfer.
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primates
rodents |
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2 species that get 10% of transfer of maternal antibodies via placental transfer.,
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dogs
cats |
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(T/F) Horses and ruminants get 10% transfer of maternal antibodies via placental transfer.
|
false
get 0% |
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Which species get 100% transfer of maternal antibodies via colostrum?
|
horses
ruminants |
|
2 species that get 90% transfer of maternal antibodies via colostral transfer.
|
dogs
cats |
|
2 species that get 10% transfer of maternal antibodies via colostral transfer.
|
primates
rodents |
|
(T/F) Absorption of colostrum is negligible after 24 hours.
|
true
|
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How does a newborn absorb colostrum? How is it not destroyed?
|
absorbed by intestinal epithelium
newborns have low levels of protease. colostrum contains protease inhibitors. |
|
___ is the major antibody class found in colostrum.
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IgG
|
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When do levels of maternal antibodies peak in offspring that drink colostrum?
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24 hours after ingestion?
|
|
2 causes of failure of passive transfer related to the dam
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1. inadequate colostrum produced
2. mother does not allow suckling |
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2 causes of failure of passive transfer related to the neonate
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1. inadequate intake
2. inadequate absorption (often due to delayed intake) |
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2 clinical signs of failure of passive transfer in the neonate
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1. failure to thrive
2. infectious diseases early in life. |
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treatment for failure of passive transfer if neonate is less than 12 hours old
|
oral colostrum
|
|
treatment for failure of passive transfer if neonate is more than 12 hours old
|
plasma transfusion
(intestinal absorption is only optimal for the 1st 12 hours) |
|
Milk is high in Ig___ while colostrum is high in Ig__.
|
milk = IgA
colostrum IgG |
|
(T/F) Super-antigens bind to normal site of MHC class II molecules.
|
false
|
|
Super-antigens bind to both ____and ____.
|
MHC class 2 molecule
CD4 T-cell |
|
What type of T-cells do super-antigens bind to?
|
CD4
|
|
When do levels of maternal antibodies peak in offspring that drink colostrum?
|
24 hours after ingestion?
|
|
2 causes of failure of passive transfer related to the dam
|
1. inadequate colostrum produced
2. mother does not allow suckling |
|
2 causes of failure of passive transfer related to the neonate
|
1. inadequate intake
2. inadequate absorption (often due to delayed intake) |
|
2 clinical signs of failure of passive transfer in the neonate
|
1. failure to thrive
2. infectious diseases early in life. |
|
treatment for failure of passive transfer if neonate is less than 12 hours old
|
oral colostrum
|
|
(T/F) Super-antigens bind to normal site on MHC class II molecule
|
false
|
|
Super-antigens bind to both ____ and _____.
|
MHC class 2 molecules
CD4 t-cells |
|
Which T-cells do super-antigens bind to?
|
CD4
|
|
2 consequences of superantigens
|
1. cytokine storm
2. systemic inflammatory response (sirs) |
|
Treatment for failure of passive transfer if neonate is more than 12 hours old.
|
plasma transfusion
(cannot take orally because intestinal absorption is best before 12 hours of age) |
|
Milk is rich in Ig___ while colostrum is rich in IG___.
|
milk = IgA
colostrum = IgG |
|
(T/F) Super-antigens are innate while hypersensitivity in adaptive.
|
true
|
|
(T/F) hypersensitivity is excessive reaction to harmful antigens.
|
false
(reaction to harmless antigens) |
|
2 steps commonly needed for hypersensitivity reaction to occur
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sensitization ----> re-exposure to elicit response
|
|
2 ways allergens are introduced into the body to elicit Type I reaction
|
1. across mucosal surface (food, pollen)
2. through skin (bee sting) |
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In Type I reaction, Ig__ sensitized ___ cells and ____.
|
IgE
mast cells basophils |
|
3 substances that mast cells release during Type I reaction
|
histamine
prostaglandin leukotrienes |
|
Rapid onset, increased blood flow, increased mucus secretion, and smooth muscles contractions are characteristic of Type __ reaction
|
type I
|
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_____ is a systemic form of Type I reaction
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anaphylaxis
|
|
Describe immunotherapy for Type I hypersensitivity
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desensitization.
Administer increasing doses of the allergen over a period of time. |
|
2 types of antigens that cause Type 2 reaction
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intrinsic (blood groups, autoantigens)
extrinsic (microbes, drugs) |
|
3 mechanisms of damage in Type 2 reaction
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1. complement
2. opsinozation/cell destruction 3. agglutination |
|
IMHA, ITP and myasthenia gravis are examples of Type ___ reactions
|
type 2
|
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_____ are "natural" antibodies to blood group antigens
|
isoantibodies
|
|
___ is the most important antigen for canine transfusion reactions
|
DEA 1
|
|
(T/F) Dogs have naturally occurring antibodies to blood group antigens, while cats may make antigens for future transfusions
|
false
cats = naturally occurring dogs = make future antigens |
|
Which canine blood group antigen can be tested for in-house?
|
DEA 1.1
|
|
(T/F) Reactions are usually observed in DEA 1.1-neg dogs that are given DEA 1.1-pos blood
|
true
|
|
2 ways to prevent transfusion reactions in dogs,
|
1. type and cross-match first
2. give DEA 1.1 -negative blood |
|
3 blood group antigens in cats
|
A, B, AB
|
|
Most cats in the US have blood type ___.
|
A
|
|
(T/F) A severe reaction to type A may occur in type B cats, while a mild reaction to type B may occur in type A cats.
|
true
|
|
_____ or ____ is hemolysis caused by maternal antibodies to blood group antigens of the newborn.
|
neonate isoerythrolysis or hemolytic disease of the newborn
|
|
2 species affected by neonatal isoerythrolysis.
|
cats and horses
|
|
(T/F) Type III reactions are induced by soluble immune complexes.
|
true
|
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Most Type III immune complexes deposit in _______
|
renal glomerulus
|
|
Type __ hypersensitivity is also caled delayed-type hypersensitivity.
|
type 4
|
|
3 types of antigens in Type IV reactions
|
1. intracellular parasites
2. haptens 3. foreign MHC molecules (in transplants) |
|
____ are small highly reactive molecules that covalently bind to host proteins to create new antigens.
|
haptens
|
|
Describe extravascular hemolysis
|
most common
removal of RBCs via macrophages. RBCs not completely destroyed. Bile, etc is metabolized and used (nothing is lost) |
|
Is hemoglobin released in extravascular hemolysis?
|
No
|
|
Describe intravascular hemolysis.
|
attachment of IgG or IgM to RBCs. results in hemolysis, agglutination and icterus.
|
|
Is bile released in intravascular hemolysis?
|
yes
|
|
What are spherocytes?
How are they formed? |
RBCs with no central pallor.
macrophages in spleen take bites out. cell gets smaller. |
