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99 Cards in this Set

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What is the purpose and significance of RPR?
RPR is a non-troponemal test for the antibody reagin for infection of syphilis caused by treponema pallidum
What is a Reagin?
It is a phospholipid which is produced in pts infected with treponema pallidum.
What is the causative agent of syphilis?
Treponema pallidium
Where would you find the reagin in Pts?
in the serum or plasma
What is the vehicle or antigen used to see RPR results macroscopically?
Carbon Charcoal Particles
For RPR testing, what supplies are needed for the test?
RPR card antigen suspension
disposable bottle
20 guage galvanized blunt tip needle
Test card pipettes or stirrer
RPR test Control Cards
What type of water is used for this QC of blunt needle and used to reconstitute dried serum in test card?
Distilled water
How long should RPR specimen cards be placed on rotator? How many RPM's?
8 Minutes at
100 RPM
What shows a reactive sample?
Flocculation ranging from slight but definate
Minimum to moderate
Marked and intense
Reactive RPR must be confirmed using what method?
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorbtion Test
FTA-ABS
How long do you mix the antigen suspension for RPR testing prior to opening ampule
10-15 sec
What shows no Flocculation?
Non-reactive RPR test
Why do we perform QA?
to ensure the accuracy and reliability of test results
QCing the antigen needle, how do you ensure it is calibrated?
Make sure that 1ml of fluid equals 60 gtts +/- 2
How do we test for Epstein Bar Virus?
Monospot for mononucleosis
Mono is typically seen in which age group?
Children under 5 years of age and young adults
How will mono present?
Maliase
lethargy
sore throat
ENLARGED LYMPH NODES on neck
Enlarged spleen
What would you see on a blood smear for mono?
Atypical lymphocytes and monocytes, they occumulate in the lymph nodes causing the formation of heterophil antibodies
How long do we have to test the blood for monospot?
24 hours and stored at 2-8 degrees celcius
How do you report results of monospot
Pos or Neg.
You will see the presence of agglutination or a smooth homogenius solution which is neg for agglutination
How long do you rotate slide for monospot?
3 minutes between 60 to 100rpms
For monospot how should control reagents be treated
As patients and run every time an unknown sample is run
What are the clinical reasons for performing urinalysis testing
a. Indicator of health
b. Cost-effective diagnostic test
c. Non-invasive
d. Simple to perform
What does urinalysis Test to detect and assess
1. Renal function/disorder
2. Endocrine or Metabolic function/disorder
3. Urinary tract infection
4. Systemic diseases
How long do you have to analyze a fresh urine specimen
1-2 hrs
What will happen to a urine specimen if held too long at room temperature
It will begin to decompose due to bacteria in the sample and decomposition will cause delivery of inaccurate results.
During decomposition of urine what causes an increase in urine pH
Ammonia
During decomposition of urine what will disolve any present casts
High pH
In decomposition of urine what causes results in false negative glycosuria
If glucose is present, the bacteria may use it as a source of energy resulting in false negative glycosuria
Which urine preservative
1. Preserves acetone, diacetic acid and proteins by floating on top of urine (airtight seal)
2. Flammable, difficult to separate from specimen
Toluene
Which urine preservative
1. Inhibits bacteria/fungus
2. usually causes false positive for protein
Thymol
Which urine preservative
1. Preserves urine aldosterone levels
2. Settles to bottom of containers
Chloroform
Which urine preservative method
1. Is For specimen transport
2. May destroy formed elements
Freezing
What urine preservative
1. Preserves urinary sediment/cells.
2. Interferes with glucose elevation
Formaldehyde
Which urine preservative
1. Stabilizes steroids
2. Hazardous liquid & fumes. Formed elements are destroyed
Hydrogen Chloride (HCL)
Which urine preservative
1. Preserves chemical and formed elements
2. Uric acid may precipitate
Boric acid
Which urine preservative
1. Preserves urine for dipstick chemical analysis and sediment evaluation, if transport is necessary
2. Unsuitable for sodium, potassium and hormone analysis
Preservation tablet
What are 4 types of non-instrumented urine collection
a. First-morning void
b. Random urine specimen 
c. Clean catch urine specimen 
d. 24-hour urine specimen
What type of urine collection is the Recommended specimen for chemical and microscopic examination
First morning void
Which urine collection specimen is Most convenient and most common
Random
How soon must a urine culture be preformed after collection
and what type of collection sample is best suited for cultures
within 12 hours after collection (refrigerated specimen) and clean catch
Which urine collection specimen gives quantitative results and May require preservative
24 hr urine
Which urine collection method is choice for markedly obese patients
Urethral Catheterization
Which urine collection method is not recommended for bateriologic examaninations but may be used if no other way to collect urine
Urethral catheterization
Which urine collection method is choice on infants and young children
Suprapubic Needle Catheterization
Which urine collection method yields optimum cellular sample of bladder epithelium
Catheterization and bladder irrigation
What is the regular urine volume in a 24 hr period
600-2000ml with an average of 1500ml
depending on:
a. fluid intake
b. temperature and climate
c. amount of perspiration
What is the normal color of urine and what is it due to.
Yellow - dark amber and is due to pigment (urochrome) concentration
What is blue green urine color indicative of?
Methylene blue. (used as dye or stain in diagnostic procedures)
What is dark orange urine color indicative of?
Pyridium (used in the tx of UTI's)
What is the milky white urine color indicative of?
Chyle
What is olive green to brown black urine color indicative of?
Phenols (poisionous compounds used for antimicrobial agent)
What is yellow to brown urine color that turn greenish with foam when shaken indicative of
Presence of bile
What is red or red brown (smokey appearance) urine color indicative of?
Presence of blood
This would be termed hematuria
What is turbid alkaline urine due to
1. Amorphous phosphate
2. Amorphous carbonate
What is turbic acidic urine due to
1. Amorphous urates
2. A pinkish turbidity frequently indicates the presence of urates
What is sweet or fruity smell in urine indicative of
Presence of keytones
What is a sweet or fruity odor in urine indicative of
Presence of keytones
What is a pungent smell of urine due to
Due to ammonia produced by bacteria
What is a maple syrup smell in urine indicative of
a congenital metabolic disorder
What is musty or mousy smell of urine indicative of
An infant with phenylketonuria
When urine smells like sweaty feet what is this indicative of
Isovaleric acidemia, presence of butyric or hexanoic acid in urine
What is the normal specific gravity of a random urine
1.003-1.035
What is the normal specific gravity of a 24hr urine
1.015-1.025
What is urine glucose dependent on
a. blood glucose level.
b. rate of glomerular filtration
c. degree of tubular reabsorption
When has Glucosuria occured
Once the threshhold level of 160-180 mg/dL in the blood is exceeded
What is Keytonuria a direct result of
incomplete fatty acid utilization.
It may indicate diabetes mellitus
Any condition that causes what will result in billirubin in the urine?
Jaundice
What is the normal concentration of Urobilinogen in the urine
1 EU or less
What does bilirubinuria indicate
a. Heptocellular disease
b. Intra or extra-hepatic biliary obstruction
What is the normal range of urine pH?
4.6 - 8.0 with an average of slightly acidic 6.0
What pathologic conditions may cause acidic urine
a. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
b. UTI by E. Coli
c. Uremia
d. Severe diarrhea
e. Starvation
What pathologic conditions may cause alkaline urine
a. UTI caused by proteus and pseudomonos species
b. Respiratory and metabolic alkalosis
What 2 mechanisms do protienuria mainly occur by
1. Glomerular damage
2. Defect in the reabsorption process of the tubules
What is the range for MINIMAL proteinuria and what are conditions that cause MINIMAL proteinuria
0.5 g/day
a. Polycystic kidneys
b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Inactive chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Benign orthostatic proteinuria
What is the range for MODERATE proteinuria and what are conditions that cause MODERATE proteinuria
0.5 - 3.5 g/day
a. Nephrosclerosis
b. Tubular interstitial disease
c. Preeclampsia
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Diabetes nephropathy
f. Malignant hypertension
g. Pylonephritis with hypertension
h. Toxic nephropathies
What is the range for SEVERE proteinuria and what are condition that causes SEVERE proteinuria
3.5 or greater
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Intercapillary glomerulosclerosis
c. Lupus nephritis
d. Lipoid nephrosis
e. Amyloid disease
f. severe venous congestion of the kidney
What is the lifecycle of plasmodium (malaria parasite)
1. Female anopheles bites man
2. Sporozoites inject into mans liver
3. Sporozoites become schizonts.
4. Schizonts replicate asexually into merozoites.
5. Schizonts rupture releasing merozoites to invade the RBC's
6. Inside RBC it enlarges and forms a ring-form-trophozoite
7. The nucleus divides and creates a schizont.
8. The schizonts replicate asexually into merozoites in the RBC and then rupture into the bloodstream
9. This causes the fever and chills.
10. Plasmodium enter a sexual phase when some merozoites in the RBCs develope into gametocytes.
11. They are extracted into the mosquito via the blood.
12. The male and female gameocytes form diploid zygotes which ultimately differintiate into Oocysts.
13. Within the Oocysts repeated mytotic divisions take place producing large numbers of sporozoites.
14. Sporozoites migrate to the salavary glands of the mosquito. Which is injected into the human upon bite starting the lifecycle of the malaria again.
What are the four types of Malaria found in humans
1. Plasmodium falciparum (most fatal)
2. Plasmodium vivax (most common)
3. Plasmodium malariae (quarantine 72hrs)
4. Plasmodium ovale (quarantine 48hrs)
What are the two methods of blood collection for a plasmodium specimen
Capillary collection into EDTA capillary tube or venous collection into purple top tube
If venous collection is obtained for plasmodium specimen 1.how long can you store the blood, 2. at what temp, 3. What must be done before performing test
1. up to 3 days
2. at 36-86 F or 2-30 C
3. must be at room temp before testing
What is reagent A in the malaria test kit
Tris buffer containing detergent and sodium azide
How many drops of reagent A do you prime the reagent pad with
2 drops. allowing each drop to absorb between drops. Place additional 4 drops just before the mix reaches top of the test strip.
On a malaria test kit what must appear in order to be valid
C the control line
On a malaria test kit what does T1 indicate
Pos for plasmodium falciparum
On a malaria test kit what does T2 indicate
Pos for plasmodium Vivax, Malariae, Ovale, or combination of any or all of the three
If only the control line appears on a Malaria specimen what is indicated
Neg for any malaria
For best results when should you collect a specimen for malaria testing
Imediately following a fever or before a fever spike
What does a malaria test kit detect and how is malaria confirmed
Detects the antigens only and for pos T1, T2, or both it must be confirmed with a thick and thin smear by NEMPU
What are some conditions that may cause false pos for malaria antigens
Rhumatoid arthritis
chronic viral infections (Hep C)
other blood parasite (babesia)
When is influenza best diagnosed
within 2-3 days
How is influenza transmitted
through aerosolized droplets. Coughing / sneezing
Rapid Influenza test must be read after how many min
15 min
How is a negative result for rapid influenza test read
Blue control line in the bottom third window turns pink-to purple color and no other line appears
How is a rapid infulenza test read for pos flu A
Blue control line turns pink and a second pink sample line appears above it in the middle third of the window
How is a rapid influenza test read for pos flu B
Blue control line turn pink and a second pink line appears above it in the top third line of the window.
What must be done if a rapid influenza sample is ran and the control line remains blue
Test is invalid and must run new test
What are the 3 controls for malaria
reactive
weak reactive
non-reactive
What is the antigen used for FTA-ABS
The dead bug of treponemum pallidum itself