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48 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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replisome
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group of proteins that govern DNA replication
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replication is a bidirectional process in (eukaryotes/prokaryotes)
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prokaryotes
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starting from the origin of replication |
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Does DNA replication require a primer? What kind?
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Yes, RNA
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What is the first step of transcription?
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Initiation
- initiation factors find a promoter on DNA and assemble a transcription initiation complex, which includes RNA polymerase |
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What recognizes a promotor?
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RNA polymerase
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After initiation, what are the second and third steps of transcription?
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2) elongation
3) termination |
termination has a special termination sequence and requires special proteins |
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Most genetic regulation occurs at what level?
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transcription level
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occurs via activators and repressors, which are allosterically regulated by small molecules such as cAMP |
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What does it mean that prokaryotic mRNA is typically polycistronic?
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several genes in a single transcript
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operon
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operator + promoter + genes that contribute to a single prokaryotic mRNA
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explain the lac operon
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- codes for enzymes that metabolize lactose
- low glucose --> high cAMP - cAMP activates CAP protein which beinds upstream to the promoter on lac operon. - promoter is now activated - if lactose is present, the lac repressor protein is inactivated. - it then does not bind to the operator which is located downstream of the operon. |
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What are three ways in which the primary transcript (pre-mRNA) can be processed?
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1) addition of nucleotides
2) deletion of nucleotides 3) modification of nitrogenous bases |
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snRNPs
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small nucleor ribonucleoproteins that recognize nucleotide sequences at the ends of introns. They associate with proteins and loop the introns to bring the exons together.
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nucleic acid hybridization
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a technique that allows scientists to identify nucleotide sequences by binding a known sequence with an unknown sequence.
- denature first and then allow separated strands to spontaneously associate with any other complementary nucleotide sequence. |
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recombinant DNA
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artificially recombined DNA
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restriction enzymes digest nucleic acid at _____ sites. These sites have a _____ sequence.
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restriction
palindromic |
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How can recombinant DNA be used to produce a DNA library?
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- recombinant DNA is placed in bacteria using a vector. The vector contains a gene for resistance to a certain antibiotic.
- The bacteria are then reproduced and an antibiotic is added to remove clones without the vector. - also, the DNA is usually placed with an endonuclease that cuts the lacZ gene. When the lacZ gene is cleaved, the gene does not turn blue. If the lacZ gene is active it turns blue, meaning the DNA is not in that vector. |
look at diagram on page 34 |
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How is cDNA made?
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mRNA is reverse transcribed to form DNA
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What is the difference between DNA and cDNA?
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cDNA does not contain the introns that DNA contains.
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Explain PCR
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- DNA is placed with primers (forward and reverse), heat resistant DNA polymerase, and nucleotides.
- Mixture is heated to denature DNA. - Mixture is cooled to allow primers to anneal to complementary DNA strands. - Mixture is heated to activate polymerase. - Repeated many times to produce an exponential increase in DNA |
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Southern blotting vs Northern blotting?
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same techniques. southern blot identifies specific sequences of DNA, northern blot identifies specific sequences of RNA.
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Explain southern blotting
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- used to identify target fragments of known DNA sequence in a large population of DNA
1) DNA is chopped up into restriction fragments 2) fragments are separated through gel electrophoresis. 3) DNA is denatured into single strands. 4) Membrane blots the gel causing the DNA fragments to be transferred to membrane. 5) A probe is added, which marks the target fragment. 6) the membrane is exposed to radiographic film which reveals the location of the target fragment. |
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Explain Western blot briefly.
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It detects a protein using antibodies.
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What is RFLP analysis
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identifies individuals instead of specific genes. They are the DNA fingerprints used to identify criminals in court cases.
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degenerative genetic code
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more than one series of three nucleotides may code for any amino acid
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unambiguous genetic code
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any series of three nucleotides will only code for one single amino acid
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A polypeptide contains 200 amino acids. How many possible amino acid sequences are there for this polypeptide?
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20^200
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there are 20 possible amino acids and 200 possible positions for each |
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What is the initiation complex?
What is initiation? |
- The large subunit + mRNA + small subunit
- Initiation is when methionine attaches at the P-site and signals the large subunit to join and form the initiation complex |
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What occurs in post translational modification?
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sugars, lipids, or phosphate groups may be added to amino acids
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signal-recognition particle (SRP)
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this protein-RNA structure recognizes the signal peptide on the growing amino acid sequence and directs the ribosome complex to a receptor protein on the ER.
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What type of mutations result in a frameshift mutation?
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insertion or deletion in multiples other than 3
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explain transposons
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transposons are DNA segments that can excise themselves from a chromosome and reinsert themselves at another location
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- flanked by identical nucleotide sequences - a portion of the flanking sequence is part of the transposon |
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forward mutation, backward mutation
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mutation that changes the organism even more, mutation that tends to revert the organism back to its original state
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nucleosome
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eight histones wrapped in DNA
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any cell that contains homologous pairs of chromosomes is said to be ______. if not, it is ________
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diploid, haploid
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What happens at the G1 stage in the life cycle of a cell?
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cell begins to grow in size and produce new organelles and proteins.
passes G1 check point. If conditions are favorable for division, cells moves into S phase. |
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What happens in the G0 phase of a cell's life cycle?
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non growing state
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S phase?
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replication of DNA
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G2 phase of cell's life cycle?
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cell prepares to divide. organelles continue to duplicate. G2 checkpoint checks for MPFF (mitosis promoting factor). When it is high enough, mitosis is triggered.
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Prophase
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chromosomes form, centrioles move to opposite ends, nucleolus and nucleus disappear, spindle apparatus begins to form
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spindle apparatus
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consists of aster (microtubules radiating from centrioles), microtubules growing from centromeres, and spindle microtubules connecting the two centrioles
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kinetochore
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structure of protein and DNA located at centromere of chromosomes
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metaphase
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chromosomes align along equator
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anaphase
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sister chromatids split, cytokinesis may start
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telophase
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nuclear membrane reforms, nucleolus reforms, chromosomes decondense, cytokinesis continues
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primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte
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spermatogonium or oogonium cell dafter replication occurs at the S phase of interphase
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Which stage of meiosis is most similar to mitosis?
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Meiosis II
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What happens in meiosis I?
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Prophase I - homologous chromosomes pair up, crossing over may occur
metaphase I - line up as tetrads anaphase I - separation of homolgues telophase I - nuc membrane may or may not reform, cytokinesis may or may not occur |
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nondisjunction
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when the centromere of any chromosome does not split during anaphase I or II
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