Medical Microbiology review

True/False as pathogens became more complex so did the immune system.

What type of immunity is described? Slow response (days to weeks), variable, numerous highly selective specificities, improve during response.

List the four major components of the adaptive immune response.

What type of immunity is termed the first line defense?

What type of immunity is described? Rapid response (hours); invariant; limited number of specificities; constant during response.

Whih type of immunity is considered constitutive?

Which type of immunity is considered inducible?

Induction and control (in the form of tolerance/homeostasis) refer to what immunity?

What are the three components of induction (in the adaptive immunity)?

True/False all cells in the immune system are white blood cells (leukocytes) and derive from the hematopoietic stem cell pool.

Cell types associated with innate immunity are mostly from the _____________ lineage.

Cell types associated with adaptive immunity are mostly from the ___________ lineage.

What are the two arms of the adaptive immunity?

Which type of cell mediates the humoral adaptive response?

Which type of cell mediates the cell-mediated adaptive response?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deal with extracellular pathogens?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deals with intracellular pathogens?

Differentiate between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

List four secondary lymphoid organs.

How are the secondary lymphoid organs further divided?

Describe the function of mucosal secondary lymphoid organs.

List the four 'eyes' of pathogens (multiple routes of entry).

Waldeyer's ring (lymph nodes, tonsils and adenoids), bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue, lamina propria, peyer's patch and urogenital lymphoid tissue are all examples of which division of the secondary lymphoid tissue?

Lymph nodes, spleen, amd mesenteric lymph nodes are all examples of what division of the secondary lymph nodes?

The _______________ lymphoid organs serve as filters across the blood, lymph & intestines.

Granulocytes are from what lineage?

True/False: T cells form germinal centers inside the lymph node.

Are the T cell areas deeper (toward the medulla) of the lymph node than the lymphoid follicle?

List the five classes of infectious agents.

What infectious agent? Smallest infectious particle; DNA or RNA based (only one class has both); components enclosed in a protein coat with or without lipid membrane; true parasites; require host cells for replication.

What infectious agent? Univellular prokaryotes; 1-20 microns; different shapes; divide by binary fission (assexual); Gram +/-.

What infectious agent? Eukaryotic organisms; two forms asexual and sexual; dimorphic (asexual/sexual)

What does dimorphic mean?

What infectious agent? Complex eukaryotes; some unicellular, others multicellular; can range in size from tiny protozoa to 10 meter tapeworms.

What infectious agent? Small proteinacious infectious particles; mutant form of a host protein; classified as slow virusues but they have no virion structrue or genome; resistant to chemicals, heat and ionizing radiation.

Define: Includes all members of microbial communities at individual body sites.

What is the primary causative agent of gastroenteritis in the US?

What is the primary cause of kidney failure in 1-4 year old in Canada & US?

Define: any substance tha may be specifically bound by an antibody molecule or a B or T cell receptor.

How do you know that your antigen is a 'good' antigen?

What is the difference between a primary response and secondary response to an antigen?

Why do we want to test antigens for their ability to induce an immune response?

What sort of molecules make a good antigens?

What are the five variables that affect the immunogenicity of an antigen?

What percent of pathogens are cleared from the body via the innate immune system?

______________ enhance the immune responses by delaying the release of antigen.

Give an example of one approved adjuvant.

Give another term for an antigenic determinant.

Define: Having multiple antigenic determinants on the surface of an antigen.

Give two forms of multivalent antigens.

Define: Small changes in cell surface antigens ie hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens.

Define: Segmented influenza genome among species; or major reassortment of the genome.

True/False: All antibodies are immunoglobulins.

Antibodies are composed of how many chain molecules?

Describe the composition of the 4 antibody chain molecules?

Define: A malignant disease in which one specific B cell clone multiplies repeatedly.

Describe the differences between the five structures of the immunoglobulin.

What are the two kinds of light chains?

True/False: Antibodies can contain both kappa or lambda light chains.

Define: Substances that is able to provoke an adaptive immune response if injected on its own.

What are the four ways in which antibodies work?

Define: Conserved molecular structures on the surface of pathogens

How many classes of antibodies are there?

True/False: Both L chains and H chains have variable & constant regions.

Each V region and C subregion of an antibody constitutes a __________.

Distinguish between hypervariable regions and framework residues.

List the regions of the antibody that make it a useful reagent for immunological assay.

ELISA, Radio-immunoassay (RIA), FACS , immunofluoresence, western blot, and coombs test are all what type of immunological methods?

List two types of clelular assays.

List two nucleic acid-based assays.

Pathogens, pathogen products, or serum antibodies are examples of antigens detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

When target is in low concentration, such as hormones, what is the preferred antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface proteins (markers of activation state, cell type) and internal proteins (e.g. cytokines, cytoplasmic signaling molecules) are examples of antigens which are detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

In addition to FACS analysis what other antibody-based immunoassay could be used to detect cell surface proteins and internal cellular proteins?

Cellular proteinsor pathogen proteins, typically in a denatured form, are antigens detected by what antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface antigens (RBCs) are detected via what type of antibody based immunoassay?

What does ELISA stand for?

What test: an unknown amount of antigen is affixed to a surface, and then a specific antibody is washed over the surface so that it can bind to the antigen. This antibody is linked to an enzyme, and in the final step a substance is added that the enzyme can convert to some detectable signal. Thus in the case of fluorescence test name, when light of the appropriate wavelength is shone upon the sample, any antigen/antibody complexes will fluoresce so that the amount of antigen in the sample can be inferred through the magnitude of the fluorescence

What is the criteria for protective immunity to a particular antigen?

In RIA, the amount of radioactivity is _________ proportional to the concentration of hormone in the positive sample when compared with a negative sample.

What does FACS stand for?

List the three optical properties of particles (cells).

What type of immunoassay is being described here? It provides a method for sorting a heterogeneous mixture of biological cells into two or more containers, one cell at a time, based upon the specific light scattering and fluorescence characteristics of each cell. It is a useful scientific instrument, as it provides fast, objective and quantitative recording of fluorescent signals from individual cells as well as physical separation of cells of particular interest.

What type of immunoassay separates proteins via electrophoresis then detects specific proteins via antibody-enzyme color?

T/F: Western Blot requires the separated proteins be transferred from a polyacrylamide gel to a different membrane for further evaulation?

What test: Used for detection of anti-RBC antibodies bound to RBCs in an individual patient.

What est would you order for a patient which you suspect has an autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Differentiate between a direct Coombs test and an indirect Coombs test.

What type of Coombs test? a blood sample is taken and the RBCs are washed (removing the patient's own plasma) and then incubated with antihuman globulin (also known as "Coombs reagent"). If this produces agglutination of RBCs, the ______ Coombs test is positive, a visual indication that antibodies (and/or complement proteins) are bound to the surface of RBCs

Define: Antihuman globulin used in the direct Coombs test.

List three ways antibodies for clinical assays are obtained.

Blood draw is associated with what source of antibodies?

Polyclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

Monoclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

What source of antibody should be used? Used when the patien response to an antigen needs to be assessed.

What source of antibody should be used? Typically used when an antigen needs to be detected with maximal signal (e.g. anti-human antibodies for ELISA detection)

What source of antibody is described? Typically used when antigen needs to be detected with exquisite specificity.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using monoclonal antibodies.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using polyclonal antibodies.

Give a specific example where monoclonal antibodies are used in treatment.

Why is molecular biology required to produce mAbs for humans?

What type of immunoassay? Used to measure the ability of B cells or T cells to proliferate in response to mitogenic stimuli.

Where are polyclonal antibodies isolated from?

What type of immunoassay is described? B or T cells are placed in tissue culture with radiolabeled nucleic acids and a mitogenic stimulation. After several hours of growth, excess label is washed out, and cells are harvested. Measurement of incorporation of radiolabel allows the proliferative response to be quantified.

What test would be ordered? Various tests have failed to indicate a pathogen infection (AIDS has been ruled out); FACS shos the patient has normal numbers of T cells.

CD3, CD28, IL2 are all examples of what type of signal for B or T cells?

In a cytotoxicity assay (chromium release assay); what is being measured?

What type of immunoassay? Target cells are loaded with radioactive chromium, effector cells are added into the solution; incubation; media removed and percent of radioactive chromium in the media is calculated to determine % specific lysis.

What type of test would you order when you suspected T cell numbers are good and proliferating but they are failing to activate?

What test is used in clinical immunology specifically for the detection of specific chromosomal rearragnements, partciularly in lymphocyte tumors.

Which immunoassay is being described? 1. Separation of endonuclease-digested DNA fragments 2. Transfer of DNA to a nylon membrane 3. Hybridaization to a specific radiolabeled DNA probe. 4. Exposure to X-ray film to visualize specific DNA fragments.

When you suspect DNA or want to characterize a tumor better what method of immunoassay would you perform?

What immunoassay provides simultaneous analysis of expression of thousands of genes concurrently?

What test is being described? Glass slide is prepared with DNA sequences from individual genes; two samples (normal and patient) are put through reverse transcriptase to form mRNA; Patient and control are fluorscently dyed differently; Patient and Control differently dyed mRNA is competitively hybridized with the DNA prepared glass slide; data is collected on fluorescent status of each spot.

What assay should be used? Desire for unique genetic information, determination of carrier status for cystic fibrosis; snapshot of cancer's expression of different genes.

List the four major groups of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs).

Which family of CAMs? ICAM-1, ICAM-2, CD2, CD4, CD8. Structures based on immunoglobulin fold.

Which family of CAMs? LFA-1; heterodimers of alpha and beta chains; subfamilies named after shared beta chain.

Which family of CAMs? Extracellular portion of molecule terminates in a lectin domain; binds to carbohydrate ligands, facilitating interactions between leukocytes and endothelial cells; L-selectin

Which family of CAMs? Molecules bearing the carbohydrate ligands that are recognized by L-Selectin; such as CD34, GlyCAM-1

What is it? The antigen receptor on b cells which is a membrane bound immunoglobulin molecule.

What is it? The highly variable antigen receptor of T lymphocytes composed of a variable alpha chain and a variable beta chain; known as the alph:Beta t-cell receptor.

What molecule? Complex of signaling proteins that associates with T-cell receptors. Consists of CD3γ, δ, ε, and ζ chains

What molecule? Adhesion molecule on T cells that binds to the LFA-3 adhesion molecule on antigen-presenting cells.

What molecule? Cell-surface glycoprotein that distinguishes a subset of t cells that recognize antigens present by MHC class II molecules.

What binds to MHC class II molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts a s a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? Cell surface glycoprotein that distginsuiches a subset of t cells that recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.

What binds to MHC class I molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts as a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? The low-affinity receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules to promote T-cell activation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin that is expressed on high endothelial venules in lymph nodes and is involved in the extravasation of white blood cells?

What molecule? Cell -surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction with CD40 ligand on helper T cells triggers B-cell proliferation.

What molecule? T cell Ligand protein which interacts with CD40 cell-surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction triggers B cell proliferation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin present on the high enothelial venules of secondary lymphoid tissue. It is an important ligand for the L-selectin adhesion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissues.

What is an important ligand for the L-selectin adehsion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissue?

What molecule? Co stimulatory molecules present on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells; examples B7.1 and B7.2 proteins.

What molecule? High-affinity inhibitory receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules.

What two molecules (a high and low affinity) interact with B7 co-stimulatory molecules on professional antigen presenting cells.

Give names for three different types of intercellular adhesion molecules.

What molecule? Cytokine produced by activated T cells that is essential for the proliferation of activated T cells and the development of and adaptive immune response.

What molecule? Cytokine receptor for Interleukin-2 on T cells

What molecule? One of the leukocyte integrins that mediate the adhesion of lymphocytes, expecially T cells, to endothelial cells and antigen-presenting cells.

What molecule? An adhesion molecule of the selectin family found on lymphocytes. It binds to CD34 and GlyCAM-1 on High Endothelial venules to initiate the migration of naïve lymphocytes into secondary lymphoid tissue.

What do CD28, CTLA-4 and CD40 have in common?

What is the difference between CD28 and CTLA-4?

What is in common between CD28 and CD40?

Define: a lack of reaction by the body's defense mechanisms to foreign substances, and consists of a direct induction of peripheral lymphocyte tolerance.

Helper T lymphocyte interacts with which class of MHC-expressing APC?

MHC I class expressing APC interacts with which T cell subtype?

List the six molecules bound to a CD4 T cell.

List the six molecules bound to a CD8 T cell.

What is the main difference in signaling molecules between a helper T cell and a cytotoxic t cell?

What molecule interacts with LFA-1?

What molecules interacts with CD4 (helper), CD3, ζ chain, and TCR?

What molecules interacts with CD8 (cytotoxic), TCR, ζ chain, and CD3?

List the four molecules which compose the interaction with MHC class I or class II.

What molecule interacts with C2 on T cells?

What molecule interacts with CD28 on T cells?

What molecule serves for specific recognition of antigen?

What 5/6 molecules serves for signal transduction of the specific recognition of the antigen?

What three molecules serve as adhesion points?

Define: Describes any signal that is required for the activation of a naïve lymphocyte in addition ot eh signal delivered via the antigen receptor.

What are the two T cell "costimulatory" molecules?

What functions as the the signal transducing subunit of the TCR?

When a cell signals to itself and increase the affinity of LFA-1 for ICAM-1 what process has occurred?

Helper T lymphocyte interacts with which class of MHC-expressing APC?

What functions as an efficient means of information transfer from the APC to the T cell?

What is the costimulatory molecule for B cells?

What is the basic function of helper T cells?

Describe the organziation of the immunological synapse.

Define: Proteins made by cells that affect the behavior of other cells.

Define: Describes a cytokine or other secreted molecule that acts on the same type of cell as the one that secreted it.

What three cell signals are associated with c-SMAC?

What two cell signals are associated with p-SMAC?

Define: Cytokine acts systemically in distant cells.

Define: Cytokine acts on neighbroing cells.

IL-2 secretion during T cell activation is an example of what type of cytokine?

Chemokine recruitment of leukocytes to sites of inflammation is an example of what type of cytokine?

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α are examples of what type of cytokine?

True/False: Interleukin 2 is synthesized and secreted by the activated T cell itself.

What is the signficance of the 3 chain structure of the IL-2 receptor?

What is required for the production of IL-2?

What is one of the functions of the co-stimulatory signal of T cell's activation?

What is the end result of IL-2 binding to its high affinity receptor?

Describe the effects of rapamycin suppressing the immune response.

Define: Chemoattractant cytokines

Describe the general features of cellular response to chemokines?

What viruses use CD4, ICAM-1 and CD155 as receptors to enter the host cell?

What are the four stages of neutrophil extravasation?

P-selectin, E-selectin on the endothelial wall and Carbohydrate side chain known as sialyl Lewisx are all cell interaction molecules associated with what part of neutrophil extravasation?

Integrins LFA-1 and CR3 on the neutrophil and adhesion molecules on endothelium such as ICAM-1 (in the presence of CXCL8, chemokine) are important in what part of neutrophil extravasation?

LFA-1 (integrin), CR3 (integrins), CD31 on neutrophils and CD31 on the endothelium are present in which part of neutrophil extravasation?

What are the four effects of antibodies?

CXCL8 is the cytokine (or chemokine) which mediates in what part of neutrophil extravasation?

What is the molecular bases for leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)?

What are the two important functions of Innate immunity?

Define: Microbrial substances that stiulate innate immunity which are generally conserved and universal for microbes.

Define: Host receptors that bind to PAMPs.

T/F: PRRs are only expressed on the cell-surface

What does activation of PRRs lead to?

Toll-like receptors, n-formyl-mehtionyl receptor, mannose receptors and scavenger receptors are all examples of?

List five cellular expression product types of Toll-like Receptors (TLRs).

TNF, IL-1, IL-12 are all examples of what?

IL-8, MCP-1, and RANTES are all examples of what?

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? Specificity for structures shared by classes of microbes (PAMPs).

Does this statement describe the adapative immunity or the innate immunity? Receptors are encoded by genes produced by somatic recombination of gene segments: greater diversity.

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? The distribution of receptors is non-clonal: identical receptors on all cells of the same lineage.

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? Specificity for structrual detail of microbial molecules (antigens); may recognize non-microbial antigens.

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? Self/Non-self; Host cells are not recognized or they may express molecules that prevent this type of immunity.

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? Receptors are encoded in germinlin; limited diversity (PRRs).

Does this statement describe the adaptive immunity or the innate immunity? Self/Non-self; Based on selection against self-reactive lymphocytes; maybe imperfect.

Which immunity has a limited repertoire of receptors?

What is the majore cellular response of innate immunity?

Define: Changes in the host in response to an antigen that allows movement of serum proteins & leukocytes to move from the circulation into the tissues.

List the four characteristics (in Latin) of inflammation.

T/F: The skin produces chemicals which act as barriers to pathogens.

What is an extension of the skina nd lines the digestive track from mouth to anus; Is composed of epithelial cells and forms a physical barrier?

How is the epithelial cells in the small & largintestines organized?

Give an example of follicle-associated epithelium.

What cell uptakes antigens from the gut lumen and releases them to an APC?

FITB: The early stages of inflammation are characterized by a release in __________ inflammatory mediators in secretory granules, such as histamine, serotonin, platelet activating factor, and lysosomal enzymes from local cells.

List four preformed inflammatory mediators released from secretory granules in local cells during early stages of inflammation.

Besides inflammatory mediators what other two class of compounds are released as part of the early inflammatory response?

What are the two types of defensins?

What type of defensin? Secreted by Neutrophils, and Paneth cells; naïve T cell chemoattractant; attracts immature dendritic cells and activates complement system.

What type of defensin? Secreted by epithelial cells; upregulated by LPS or TNF-alpha; Memory cell chemoattractant; attracts immature dendritic cells.

Define: A set of plasma proteins that act together to help eliminate extracellular forms of pathogens.

What are the two major functions of the complement cascade?

What is the ultimate convergance of the three pathways (Classical, MB-lectin, and alternative)?

What are the four results of C3 convertase synthesis? I.E. What does C3 Convertase do?

C5b, C6-C9 are all involved in what terminal reactions in the complement cascade?

C3b accomplishes what terminal reactions in the complement cascade?

C3a and C5a accomplishes what terminal actions in the complement cascade?

C1INH, C4BP, Factors H & I, DAF, MCP, CS59, and Factor P play what role in complement cascade?

List the four major cell types of the innate immune response.

In addition to neutrophils, monocytes (macrophages), mast cells and natural killer cells what other two additional cell types are part of the innate immune response?

FITB: Mast cells, like ___________ are also sentinel cells.

What are the first lymphocytes of the host to encounter pathogens after oral infection?

True/False as pathogens became more complex so did the immune system.

What type of immunity is described? Slow response (days to weeks), variable, numerous highly selective specificities, improve during response.

List the four major components of the adaptive immune response.

What type of immunity is termed the first line defense?

What type of immunity is described? Rapid response (hours); invariant; limited number of specificities; constant during response.

Whih type of immunity is considered constitutive?

Which type of immunity is considered inducible?

Induction and control (in the form of tolerance/homeostasis) refer to what immunity?

What are the three components of induction (in the adaptive immunity)?

True/False all cells in the immune system are white blood cells (leukocytes) and derive from the hematopoietic stem cell pool.

Cell types associated with innate immunity are mostly from the _____________ lineage.

Cell types associated with adaptive immunity are mostly from the ___________ lineage.

What are the two arms of the adaptive immunity?

Which type of cell mediates the humoral adaptive response?

Which type of cell mediates the cell-mediated adaptive response?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deal with extracellular pathogens?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deals with intracellular pathogens?

Differentiate between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

List four secondary lymphoid organs.

How are the secondary lymphoid organs further divided?

Describe the function of mucosal secondary lymphoid organs.

List the four 'eyes' of pathogens (multiple routes of entry).

Waldeyer's ring (lymph nodes, tonsils and adenoids), bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue, lamina propria, peyer's patch and urogenital lymphoid tissue are all examples of which division of the secondary lymphoid tissue?

Lymph nodes, spleen, amd mesenteric lymph nodes are all examples of what division of the secondary lymph nodes?

The _______________ lymphoid organs serve as filters across the blood, lymph & intestines.

Granulocytes are from what lineage?

True/False: T cells form germinal centers inside the lymph node.

Are the T cell areas deeper (toward the medulla) of the lymph node than the lymphoid follicle?

List the five classes of infectious agents.

What infectious agent? Smallest infectious particle; DNA or RNA based (only one class has both); components enclosed in a protein coat with or without lipid membrane; true parasites; require host cells for replication.

What infectious agent? Univellular prokaryotes; 1-20 microns; different shapes; divide by binary fission (assexual); Gram +/-.

What infectious agent? Eukaryotic organisms; two forms asexual and sexual; dimorphic (asexual/sexual)

What does dimorphic mean?

What infectious agent? Complex eukaryotes; some unicellular, others multicellular; can range in size from tiny protozoa to 10 meter tapeworms.

What infectious agent? Small proteinacious infectious particles; mutant form of a host protein; classified as slow virusues but they have no virion structrue or genome; resistant to chemicals, heat and ionizing radiation.

Define: Includes all members of microbial communities at individual body sites.

What is the primary causative agent of gastroenteritis in the US?

What is the primary cause of kidney failure in 1-4 year old in Canada & US?

Define: any substance tha may be specifically bound by an antibody molecule or a B or T cell receptor.

How do you know that your antigen is a 'good' antigen?

What is the difference between a primary response and secondary response to an antigen?

Why do we want to test antigens for their ability to induce an immune response?

What sort of molecules make a good antigens?

What are the five variables that affect the immunogenicity of an antigen?

What percent of pathogens are cleared from the body via the innate immune system?

______________ enhance the immune responses by delaying the release of antigen.

Give an example of one approved adjuvant.

Give another term for an antigenic determinant.

Define: Having multiple antigenic determinants on the surface of an antigen.

Give two forms of multivalent antigens.

Define: Small changes in cell surface antigens ie hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens.

Define: Segmented influenza genome among species; or major reassortment of the genome.

True/False: All antibodies are immunoglobulins.

Antibodies are composed of how many chain molecules?

Describe the composition of the 4 antibody chain molecules?

Define: A malignant disease in which one specific B cell clone multiplies repeatedly.

Describe the differences between the five structures of the immunoglobulin.

What are the two kinds of light chains?

True/False: Antibodies can contain both kappa or lambda light chains.

Define: Substances that is able to provoke an adaptive immune response if injected on its own.

What are the four ways in which antibodies work?

Define: Conserved molecular structures on the surface of pathogens

How many classes of antibodies are there?

True/False: Both L chains and H chains have variable & constant regions.

Each V region and C subregion of an antibody constitutes a __________.

Distinguish between hypervariable regions and framework residues.

List the regions of the antibody that make it a useful reagent for immunological assay.

ELISA, Radio-immunoassay (RIA), FACS , immunofluoresence, western blot, and coombs test are all what type of immunological methods?

List two types of clelular assays.

List two nucleic acid-based assays.

Pathogens, pathogen products, or serum antibodies are examples of antigens detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

When target is in low concentration, such as hormones, what is the preferred antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface proteins (markers of activation state, cell type) and internal proteins (e.g. cytokines, cytoplasmic signaling molecules) are examples of antigens which are detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

In addition to FACS analysis what other antibody-based immunoassay could be used to detect cell surface proteins and internal cellular proteins?

Cellular proteinsor pathogen proteins, typically in a denatured form, are antigens detected by what antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface antigens (RBCs) are detected via what type of antibody based immunoassay?

What does ELISA stand for?

What test: an unknown amount of antigen is affixed to a surface, and then a specific antibody is washed over the surface so that it can bind to the antigen. This antibody is linked to an enzyme, and in the final step a substance is added that the enzyme can convert to some detectable signal. Thus in the case of fluorescence test name, when light of the appropriate wavelength is shone upon the sample, any antigen/antibody complexes will fluoresce so that the amount of antigen in the sample can be inferred through the magnitude of the fluorescence

What is the criteria for protective immunity to a particular antigen?

In RIA, the amount of radioactivity is _________ proportional to the concentration of hormone in the positive sample when compared with a negative sample.

What does FACS stand for?

List the three optical properties of particles (cells).

What type of immunoassay is being described here? It provides a method for sorting a heterogeneous mixture of biological cells into two or more containers, one cell at a time, based upon the specific light scattering and fluorescence characteristics of each cell. It is a useful scientific instrument, as it provides fast, objective and quantitative recording of fluorescent signals from individual cells as well as physical separation of cells of particular interest.

What type of immunoassay separates proteins via electrophoresis then detects specific proteins via antibody-enzyme color?

T/F: Western Blot requires the separated proteins be transferred from a polyacrylamide gel to a different membrane for further evaulation?

What test: Used for detection of anti-RBC antibodies bound to RBCs in an individual patient.

What est would you order for a patient which you suspect has an autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Differentiate between a direct Coombs test and an indirect Coombs test.

What type of Coombs test? a blood sample is taken and the RBCs are washed (removing the patient's own plasma) and then incubated with antihuman globulin (also known as "Coombs reagent"). If this produces agglutination of RBCs, the ______ Coombs test is positive, a visual indication that antibodies (and/or complement proteins) are bound to the surface of RBCs

Define: Antihuman globulin used in the direct Coombs test.

List three ways antibodies for clinical assays are obtained.

Blood draw is associated with what source of antibodies?

Polyclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

Monoclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

What source of antibody should be used? Used when the patien response to an antigen needs to be assessed.

What source of antibody should be used? Typically used when an antigen needs to be detected with maximal signal (e.g. anti-human antibodies for ELISA detection)

What source of antibody is described? Typically used when antigen needs to be detected with exquisite specificity.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using monoclonal antibodies.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using polyclonal antibodies.

Give a specific example where monoclonal antibodies are used in treatment.

Why is molecular biology required to produce mAbs for humans?

What type of immunoassay? Used to measure the ability of B cells or T cells to proliferate in response to mitogenic stimuli.

Where are polyclonal antibodies isolated from?

What type of immunoassay is described? B or T cells are placed in tissue culture with radiolabeled nucleic acids and a mitogenic stimulation. After several hours of growth, excess label is washed out, and cells are harvested. Measurement of incorporation of radiolabel allows the proliferative response to be quantified.

What test would be ordered? Various tests have failed to indicate a pathogen infection (AIDS has been ruled out); FACS shos the patient has normal numbers of T cells.

CD3, CD28, IL2 are all examples of what type of signal for B or T cells?

In a cytotoxicity assay (chromium release assay); what is being measured?

What type of immunoassay? Target cells are loaded with radioactive chromium, effector cells are added into the solution; incubation; media removed and percent of radioactive chromium in the media is calculated to determine % specific lysis.

What type of test would you order when you suspected T cell numbers are good and proliferating but they are failing to activate?

What test is used in clinical immunology specifically for the detection of specific chromosomal rearragnements, partciularly in lymphocyte tumors.

Which immunoassay is being described? 1. Separation of endonuclease-digested DNA fragments 2. Transfer of DNA to a nylon membrane 3. Hybridaization to a specific radiolabeled DNA probe. 4. Exposure to X-ray film to visualize specific DNA fragments.

When you suspect DNA or want to characterize a tumor better what method of immunoassay would you perform?

What immunoassay provides simultaneous analysis of expression of thousands of genes concurrently?

What test is being described? Glass slide is prepared with DNA sequences from individual genes; two samples (normal and patient) are put through reverse transcriptase to form mRNA; Patient and control are fluorscently dyed differently; Patient and Control differently dyed mRNA is competitively hybridized with the DNA prepared glass slide; data is collected on fluorescent status of each spot.

What assay should be used? Desire for unique genetic information, determination of carrier status for cystic fibrosis; snapshot of cancer's expression of different genes.

List the four major groups of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs).

Which family of CAMs? ICAM-1, ICAM-2, CD2, CD4, CD8. Structures based on immunoglobulin fold.

Which family of CAMs? LFA-1; heterodimers of alpha and beta chains; subfamilies named after shared beta chain.

Which family of CAMs? Extracellular portion of molecule terminates in a lectin domain; binds to carbohydrate ligands, facilitating interactions between leukocytes and endothelial cells; L-selectin

Which family of CAMs? Molecules bearing the carbohydrate ligands that are recognized by L-Selectin; such as CD34, GlyCAM-1

What is it? The antigen receptor on b cells which is a membrane bound immunoglobulin molecule.

What is it? The highly variable antigen receptor of T lymphocytes composed of a variable alpha chain and a variable beta chain; known as the alph:Beta t-cell receptor.

What molecule? Complex of signaling proteins that associates with T-cell receptors. Consists of CD3γ, δ, ε, and ζ chains

What molecule? Adhesion molecule on T cells that binds to the LFA-3 adhesion molecule on antigen-presenting cells.

What molecule? Cell-surface glycoprotein that distinguishes a subset of t cells that recognize antigens present by MHC class II molecules.

What binds to MHC class II molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts a s a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? Cell surface glycoprotein that distginsuiches a subset of t cells that recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.

What binds to MHC class I molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts as a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? The low-affinity receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules to promote T-cell activation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin that is expressed on high endothelial venules in lymph nodes and is involved in the extravasation of white blood cells?

What molecule? Cell -surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction with CD40 ligand on helper T cells triggers B-cell proliferation.

What molecule? T cell Ligand protein which interacts with CD40 cell-surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction triggers B cell proliferation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin present on the high enothelial venules of secondary lymphoid tissue. It is an important ligand for the L-selectin adhesion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissues.

What is an important ligand for the L-selectin adehsion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissue?

What molecule? Co stimulatory molecules present on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells; examples B7.1 and B7.2 proteins.

What molecule? High-affinity inhibitory receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules.

What two molecules (a high and low affinity) interact with B7 co-stimulatory molecules on professional antigen presenting cells.

Give names for three different types of intercellular adhesion molecules.

What molecule? Cytokine produced by activated T cells that is essential for the proliferation of activated T cells and the development of and adaptive immune response.

What molecule? Cytokine receptor for Interleukin-2 on T cells

What molecule? One of the leukocyte integrins that mediate the adhesion of lymphocytes, expecially T cells, to endothelial cells and antigen-presenting cells.

What molecule? An adhesion molecule of the selectin family found on lymphocytes. It binds to CD34 and GlyCAM-1 on High Endothelial venules to initiate the migration of naïve lymphocytes into secondary lymphoid tissue.

What do CD28, CTLA-4 and CD40 have in common?

What is the difference between CD28 and CTLA-4?

What is in common between CD28 and CD40?

Define: a lack of reaction by the body's defense mechanisms to foreign substances, and consists of a direct induction of peripheral lymphocyte tolerance.

Helper T lymphocyte interacts with which class of MHC-expressing APC?

MHC I class expressing APC interacts with which T cell subtype?

List the six molecules bound to a CD4 T cell.

List the six molecules bound to a CD8 T cell.

What is the main difference in signaling molecules between a helper T cell and a cytotoxic t cell?

What molecule interacts with LFA-1?

What molecules interacts with CD4 (helper), CD3, ζ chain, and TCR?

What molecules interacts with CD8 (cytotoxic), TCR, ζ chain, and CD3?

List the four molecules which compose the interaction with MHC class I or class II.

What molecule interacts with C2 on T cells?

What molecule interacts with CD28 on T cells?

What molecule serves for specific recognition of antigen?

What 5/6 molecules serves for signal transduction of the specific recognition of the antigen?

What three molecules serve as adhesion points?

Define: Describes any signal that is required for the activation of a naïve lymphocyte in addition ot eh signal delivered via the antigen receptor.

What are the two T cell "costimulatory" molecules?

What functions as the the signal transducing subunit of the TCR?

When a cell signals to itself and increase the affinity of LFA-1 for ICAM-1 what process has occurred?

Helper T lymphocyte interacts with which class of MHC-expressing APC?

What functions as an efficient means of information transfer from the APC to the T cell?

What is the costimulatory molecule for B cells?

What is the basic function of helper T cells?

Describe the organziation of the immunological synapse.

Define: Proteins made by cells that affect the behavior of other cells.

Define: Describes a cytokine or other secreted molecule that acts on the same type of cell as the one that secreted it.

What three cell signals are associated with c-SMAC?

What two cell signals are associated with p-SMAC?

Define: Cytokine acts systemically in distant cells.

Define: Cytokine acts on neighbroing cells.

IL-2 secretion during T cell activation is an example of what type of cytokine?

Chemokine recruitment of leukocytes to sites of inflammation is an example of what type of cytokine?

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α are examples of what type of cytokine?

True/False: Interleukin 2 is synthesized and secreted by the activated T cell itself.

What is the signficance of the 3 chain structure of the IL-2 receptor?

What is required for the production of IL-2?

What is one of the functions of the co-stimulatory signal of T cell's activation?

What is the end result of IL-2 binding to its high affinity receptor?

Describe the effects of rapamycin suppressing the immune response.

Define: Chemoattractant cytokines

Describe the general features of cellular response to chemokines?

What viruses use CD4, ICAM-1 and CD155 as receptors to enter the host cell?

What are the four stages of neutrophil extravasation?

P-selectin, E-selectin on the endothelial wall and Carbohydrate side chain known as sialyl Lewisx are all cell interaction molecules associated with what part of neutrophil extravasation?

Integrins LFA-1 and CR3 on the neutrophil and adhesion molecules on endothelium such as ICAM-1 (in the presence of CXCL8, chemokine) are important in what part of neutrophil extravasation?

LFA-1 (integrin), CR3 (integrins), CD31 on neutrophils and CD31 on the endothelium are present in which part of neutrophil extravasation?

What are the four effects of antibodies?

CXCL8 is the cytokine (or chemokine) which mediates in what part of neutrophil extravasation?

What is the molecular bases for leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)?

What are the two important functions of Innate immunity?

Define: Microbrial substances that stiulate innate immunity which are generally conserved and universal for microbes.

Define: Host receptors that bind to PAMPs.

T/F: PRRs are only expressed on the cell-surface

What does activation of PRRs lead to?

Toll-like receptors, n-formyl-mehtionyl receptor, mannose receptors and scavenger receptors are all examples of?

List five cellular expression product types of Toll-like Receptors (TLRs).

TNF, IL-1, IL-12 are all examples of what?

True/False as pathogens became more complex so did the immune system.

What type of immunity is described? Slow response (days to weeks), variable, numerous highly selective specificities, improve during response.

List the four major components of the adaptive immune response.

What type of immunity is termed the first line defense?

What type of immunity is described? Rapid response (hours); invariant; limited number of specificities; constant during response.

Whih type of immunity is considered constitutive?

Which type of immunity is considered inducible?

Induction and control (in the form of tolerance/homeostasis) refer to what immunity?

What are the three components of induction (in the adaptive immunity)?

True/False all cells in the immune system are white blood cells (leukocytes) and derive from the hematopoietic stem cell pool.

Cell types associated with innate immunity are mostly from the _____________ lineage.

Cell types associated with adaptive immunity are mostly from the ___________ lineage.

What are the two arms of the adaptive immunity?

Which type of cell mediates the humoral adaptive response?

Which type of cell mediates the cell-mediated adaptive response?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deal with extracellular pathogens?

Which arm of the adaptive immune response deals with intracellular pathogens?

Differentiate between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

List four secondary lymphoid organs.

How are the secondary lymphoid organs further divided?

Describe the function of mucosal secondary lymphoid organs.

List the four 'eyes' of pathogens (multiple routes of entry).

Waldeyer's ring (lymph nodes, tonsils and adenoids), bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue, lamina propria, peyer's patch and urogenital lymphoid tissue are all examples of which division of the secondary lymphoid tissue?

Lymph nodes, spleen, amd mesenteric lymph nodes are all examples of what division of the secondary lymph nodes?

The _______________ lymphoid organs serve as filters across the blood, lymph & intestines.

Granulocytes are from what lineage?

True/False: T cells form germinal centers inside the lymph node.

Are the T cell areas deeper (toward the medulla) of the lymph node than the lymphoid follicle?

List the five classes of infectious agents.

What infectious agent? Smallest infectious particle; DNA or RNA based (only one class has both); components enclosed in a protein coat with or without lipid membrane; true parasites; require host cells for replication.

What infectious agent? Univellular prokaryotes; 1-20 microns; different shapes; divide by binary fission (assexual); Gram +/-.

What infectious agent? Eukaryotic organisms; two forms asexual and sexual; dimorphic (asexual/sexual)

What does dimorphic mean?

What infectious agent? Complex eukaryotes; some unicellular, others multicellular; can range in size from tiny protozoa to 10 meter tapeworms.

What infectious agent? Small proteinacious infectious particles; mutant form of a host protein; classified as slow virusues but they have no virion structrue or genome; resistant to chemicals, heat and ionizing radiation.

Define: Includes all members of microbial communities at individual body sites.

What is the primary causative agent of gastroenteritis in the US?

What is the primary cause of kidney failure in 1-4 year old in Canada & US?

Define: any substance tha may be specifically bound by an antibody molecule or a B or T cell receptor.

How do you know that your antigen is a 'good' antigen?

What is the difference between a primary response and secondary response to an antigen?

Why do we want to test antigens for their ability to induce an immune response?

What sort of molecules make a good antigens?

What are the five variables that affect the immunogenicity of an antigen?

What percent of pathogens are cleared from the body via the innate immune system?

______________ enhance the immune responses by delaying the release of antigen.

Give an example of one approved adjuvant.

Give another term for an antigenic determinant.

Define: Having multiple antigenic determinants on the surface of an antigen.

Give two forms of multivalent antigens.

Define: Small changes in cell surface antigens ie hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens.

Define: Segmented influenza genome among species; or major reassortment of the genome.

True/False: All antibodies are immunoglobulins.

Antibodies are composed of how many chain molecules?

Describe the composition of the 4 antibody chain molecules?

Define: A malignant disease in which one specific B cell clone multiplies repeatedly.

Describe the differences between the five structures of the immunoglobulin.

What are the two kinds of light chains?

True/False: Antibodies can contain both kappa or lambda light chains.

Define: Substances that is able to provoke an adaptive immune response if injected on its own.

What are the four ways in which antibodies work?

Define: Conserved molecular structures on the surface of pathogens

How many classes of antibodies are there?

True/False: Both L chains and H chains have variable & constant regions.

Each V region and C subregion of an antibody constitutes a __________.

Distinguish between hypervariable regions and framework residues.

List the regions of the antibody that make it a useful reagent for immunological assay.

ELISA, Radio-immunoassay (RIA), FACS , immunofluoresence, western blot, and coombs test are all what type of immunological methods?

List two types of clelular assays.

List two nucleic acid-based assays.

Pathogens, pathogen products, or serum antibodies are examples of antigens detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

When target is in low concentration, such as hormones, what is the preferred antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface proteins (markers of activation state, cell type) and internal proteins (e.g. cytokines, cytoplasmic signaling molecules) are examples of antigens which are detected in what antibody-based immunoassay?

In addition to FACS analysis what other antibody-based immunoassay could be used to detect cell surface proteins and internal cellular proteins?

Cellular proteinsor pathogen proteins, typically in a denatured form, are antigens detected by what antibody-based immunoassay?

Cell surface antigens (RBCs) are detected via what type of antibody based immunoassay?

What does ELISA stand for?

What test: an unknown amount of antigen is affixed to a surface, and then a specific antibody is washed over the surface so that it can bind to the antigen. This antibody is linked to an enzyme, and in the final step a substance is added that the enzyme can convert to some detectable signal. Thus in the case of fluorescence test name, when light of the appropriate wavelength is shone upon the sample, any antigen/antibody complexes will fluoresce so that the amount of antigen in the sample can be inferred through the magnitude of the fluorescence

What is the criteria for protective immunity to a particular antigen?

In RIA, the amount of radioactivity is _________ proportional to the concentration of hormone in the positive sample when compared with a negative sample.

What does FACS stand for?

List the three optical properties of particles (cells).

What type of immunoassay is being described here? It provides a method for sorting a heterogeneous mixture of biological cells into two or more containers, one cell at a time, based upon the specific light scattering and fluorescence characteristics of each cell. It is a useful scientific instrument, as it provides fast, objective and quantitative recording of fluorescent signals from individual cells as well as physical separation of cells of particular interest.

What type of immunoassay separates proteins via electrophoresis then detects specific proteins via antibody-enzyme color?

T/F: Western Blot requires the separated proteins be transferred from a polyacrylamide gel to a different membrane for further evaulation?

What test: Used for detection of anti-RBC antibodies bound to RBCs in an individual patient.

What est would you order for a patient which you suspect has an autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Differentiate between a direct Coombs test and an indirect Coombs test.

What type of Coombs test? a blood sample is taken and the RBCs are washed (removing the patient's own plasma) and then incubated with antihuman globulin (also known as "Coombs reagent"). If this produces agglutination of RBCs, the ______ Coombs test is positive, a visual indication that antibodies (and/or complement proteins) are bound to the surface of RBCs

Define: Antihuman globulin used in the direct Coombs test.

List three ways antibodies for clinical assays are obtained.

Blood draw is associated with what source of antibodies?

Polyclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

Monoclonal antibodies are produced from what source?

What source of antibody should be used? Used when the patien response to an antigen needs to be assessed.

What source of antibody should be used? Typically used when an antigen needs to be detected with maximal signal (e.g. anti-human antibodies for ELISA detection)

What source of antibody is described? Typically used when antigen needs to be detected with exquisite specificity.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using monoclonal antibodies.

List an advantage and a disadvantage of using polyclonal antibodies.

Give a specific example where monoclonal antibodies are used in treatment.

Why is molecular biology required to produce mAbs for humans?

What type of immunoassay? Used to measure the ability of B cells or T cells to proliferate in response to mitogenic stimuli.

Where are polyclonal antibodies isolated from?

What type of immunoassay is described? B or T cells are placed in tissue culture with radiolabeled nucleic acids and a mitogenic stimulation. After several hours of growth, excess label is washed out, and cells are harvested. Measurement of incorporation of radiolabel allows the proliferative response to be quantified.

What test would be ordered? Various tests have failed to indicate a pathogen infection (AIDS has been ruled out); FACS shos the patient has normal numbers of T cells.

CD3, CD28, IL2 are all examples of what type of signal for B or T cells?

In a cytotoxicity assay (chromium release assay); what is being measured?

What type of immunoassay? Target cells are loaded with radioactive chromium, effector cells are added into the solution; incubation; media removed and percent of radioactive chromium in the media is calculated to determine % specific lysis.

What type of test would you order when you suspected T cell numbers are good and proliferating but they are failing to activate?

What test is used in clinical immunology specifically for the detection of specific chromosomal rearragnements, partciularly in lymphocyte tumors.

Which immunoassay is being described? 1. Separation of endonuclease-digested DNA fragments 2. Transfer of DNA to a nylon membrane 3. Hybridaization to a specific radiolabeled DNA probe. 4. Exposure to X-ray film to visualize specific DNA fragments.

When you suspect DNA or want to characterize a tumor better what method of immunoassay would you perform?

What immunoassay provides simultaneous analysis of expression of thousands of genes concurrently?

What test is being described? Glass slide is prepared with DNA sequences from individual genes; two samples (normal and patient) are put through reverse transcriptase to form mRNA; Patient and control are fluorscently dyed differently; Patient and Control differently dyed mRNA is competitively hybridized with the DNA prepared glass slide; data is collected on fluorescent status of each spot.

What assay should be used? Desire for unique genetic information, determination of carrier status for cystic fibrosis; snapshot of cancer's expression of different genes.

List the four major groups of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs).

Which family of CAMs? ICAM-1, ICAM-2, CD2, CD4, CD8. Structures based on immunoglobulin fold.

Which family of CAMs? LFA-1; heterodimers of alpha and beta chains; subfamilies named after shared beta chain.

Which family of CAMs? Extracellular portion of molecule terminates in a lectin domain; binds to carbohydrate ligands, facilitating interactions between leukocytes and endothelial cells; L-selectin

Which family of CAMs? Molecules bearing the carbohydrate ligands that are recognized by L-Selectin; such as CD34, GlyCAM-1

What is it? The antigen receptor on b cells which is a membrane bound immunoglobulin molecule.

What is it? The highly variable antigen receptor of T lymphocytes composed of a variable alpha chain and a variable beta chain; known as the alph:Beta t-cell receptor.

What molecule? Complex of signaling proteins that associates with T-cell receptors. Consists of CD3γ, δ, ε, and ζ chains

What molecule? Adhesion molecule on T cells that binds to the LFA-3 adhesion molecule on antigen-presenting cells.

What molecule? Cell-surface glycoprotein that distinguishes a subset of t cells that recognize antigens present by MHC class II molecules.

What binds to MHC class II molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts a s a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? Cell surface glycoprotein that distginsuiches a subset of t cells that recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.

What binds to MHC class I molecules on the antigen-presenting cell and acts as a co-receptor to augment the T cell's response to antigen?

What molecule? The low-affinity receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules to promote T-cell activation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin that is expressed on high endothelial venules in lymph nodes and is involved in the extravasation of white blood cells?

What molecule? Cell -surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction with CD40 ligand on helper T cells triggers B-cell proliferation.

What molecule? T cell Ligand protein which interacts with CD40 cell-surface glycoprotein on B cells whose interaction triggers B cell proliferation.

What molecule? Vascular addressin present on the high enothelial venules of secondary lymphoid tissue. It is an important ligand for the L-selectin adhesion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissues.

What is an important ligand for the L-selectin adehsion molecule on naïve lymphocytes and directs these cells to leave the blood and enter the lymphoid tissue?

What molecule? Co stimulatory molecules present on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells; examples B7.1 and B7.2 proteins.

What molecule? High-affinity inhibitory receptor on T cells that interacts with B7 co-stimulatory molecules.

What two molecules (a high and low affinity) interact with B7 co-stimulatory molecules on professional antigen presenting cells.

Give names for three different types of intercellular adhesion molecules.

What molecule? Cytokine produced by activated T cells that is essential for the proliferation of activated T cells and the development of and adaptive immune response.