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125 Cards in this Set

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What kind of virus is EBV?
gammaherpesvirus
What kind of virus is CMV?
betaherpesvirus
What kind of genetic material doe EBV have?
linear dsDNA
What gives a definitive diagnosis with EBV?
Heterophile antibodies!!!

(also will see Downy cells in circulation)
How does the MonoSpot test work?
Agglutination of horse RBCs will be positive if heterophile antibodies are present
What antibiotic do you NOT want to give mono patients? Why?
Ampicillin
A rash will develop
What kind of virus is Mumps?
Paramyxovirus
What kind of genetic material does the mumps virus have?
linear ssRNA (-)sense
What kind of mumps virus does the MMR contain/protect against?
Jeryl Lynn attenuated virus strain
What is a complication of mumps?
Orchitis in men (30%)
Oophoritis in post-pubertal females (3%)
What does the gag gene of HIV do?
encodes a precursor (p53/55) that is cleaved into 4 functional nucleocapsid proteins (p7,9,17,24/25)
What does the pol gene of HIV do?
encodes a precursor that is cleaved into viral enzymes: RT (p51,p64), integrase (p31/32) and protease (p10)
What does the env gene of HIV do?
encodes a precursor (gp160) that is cleaved into 2 envelope glycoproteins gp120 and gp41
What doe the HIV chemokine receptors do? (CXCR4 or CCR5)
allows the HIV envelope to fuse with the PM of the host cell and insert the viral nucleocapsid into the host cell
What are the symptoms resulting from in acute HIV infection?
cytokine release
What doe the infections correlate with in early symptomatic HIV infection?
T cell counts - these are not AIDS-defining infections
How is AIDS defined?
patient is HIV+ and is either...
1. presenting with one of the 26 opportunistic infections/cancers (AIDS defining) OR
2. has a CD4+ T cell count <200 OR
3. Has a CD4+ T cell count <14% of lymphocytes
How does a person develop AIDS-related dementia?
macrophages can deliver HIV to microglia and neurons
What age group is mostly affected by AIDS?
15-24 years
What defines a positive Western Blot?
2 bands!
a bands at p31 or p24
a band at gp160/120 or gp41
What is a normal CD4:CD8 ratio?
between 1 and 6
What are the 3 nucleoside RT inhibitors?
Zidovudine
Didanosine
Lamivudine
What are the 3 non-nucleoside RT inhibitors?
Delavirdine
Neveriapine
Efavirenz
What are the 3 Protease inhibitors?
Saquinavir
Indinavir
Rotinavir
What are the 4 Entry/Fusion Inhibitors?
Enfuvirtide
Maraviroc
PRO 140 (not FDA approved)
Ibalizumab (not FDA approved)
What are the 2 Integrase inhibitors?
Raltegravir
Elvitegravir
What are the 3 nucleoside RT inhibitors?
Zidovudine
Didanosine
Lamivudine
What are the 3 non-nucleoside RT inhibitors?
Delavirdine
Neveriapine
Efavirenz
What are the 3 Protease inhibitors?
Saquinavir
Indinavir
Rotinavir
What are the 4 Entry/Fusion Inhibitors?
Enfuvirtide
Maraviroc
PRO 140 (not FDA approved)
Ibalizumab (not FDA approved)
What are the 2 Integrase inhibitors?
Raltegravir
Elvitegravir
What are the 2 Maturation Inhibitors?
Bevirimat
Vivecon
(neither approved yet)
What is the 1 Antisense drug?
HGTV43 (no approved yet)
Where is HIV-2 generally found?
West Africa
Where is HIV-1 generally found?
Worldwide
What additional gene does HTLV-1 have that HIV doesn't?
tax - transactivates the genes for IL-2 and IL-2R
What do IL-2 and IL-2R have to do with HTLV?
needed for T cell proliferation and production of IL-2 and IL-2R without antigen stimulation results in uncontrolled clonal proliferation
What family of viruses does HAV belong to?
Picornaviridae
What family of viruses does HEV belong to?
Hepeviridae
What family of viruses does HBV belong to?
Hepadnaviridae
What family of viruses does HCV belong to?
Flaviviridae
What is another name for HBV?
Dane particle
What does the genome of HBV code for?
DNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase and other viral proteins
Which viral hemorrhagic fevers are flaviviridae?
Dengue and yellow fever viruses
Which cells are infected initially in viral hemorrhagic fevers?
tissue macrophages and dendritic cells
What do the infected dendritic cells do in viral hemorrhagic fevers?
they reduce expression of costimulatory molecules (B7) leading to decreased immune responses
What is the vector for Dengue fever?
Mosquito = Aedes aegypti
What is the vector for Yellow Fever?
Mosquito = Aedes sp. or Haemagogus sp
In what disease do you see councilman bodies?
Yellow fever
To which strain of yellow fever is there a vaccine?
17D
Which viral hemorraghic fevers are caused by bunynaviruses?
Rift Valley Fever
Hantaan Virus
Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
What is the vector for Rift Valley Fever?
Mosquitoes = Aedes, Culex, Erethmapodites
What is the big problem with Rift Valley Fever?
livestock! not so much human
What is the vector of Hantaan Virus?
rodent borne virus! = striped field mouse (Apodemous agrarius)
What does Hantaan Virus cause?
Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
What is the vector for Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever?
Tick = Hyalomma marginatum
What is the red flag of Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic fever
bioterrorism threat!
What kind of virus is Lassa Virus?
Arenavirus
Which hemorrhagic fevers are caused by filoviridae?
ebola
marburg
What does "Arena" translate to in Greek?
sandy
What is the vector for Lassa Virus?
robovirus! = multimammate rat = Mastomys natalensis
What is a major complication of Lassa virus?
deafness
What is a complication of Hantaan virus?
blindness
What is the reservoir for Marburg Virus?
fruit bats
What is a major complication of Rift Valley Fever?
blindness in 20%
What is the vector for malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
What do the gametocytes look like in malaria?
bananas!
What is the pathogenicity of malaria?
it consumes hemoglobin - converts hemoglobin to globin + hematin - hematin is modified into the characteristic malarial pigment - globin is split by proteolytic enzymes and digested
Which type of malaria does sickle cell anemia protect against?
falciparum malaria
Which type of malaria does a lack of the Duffy antigen protect against?
Plasmodium vivax
Is there a vaccine for malaria?
NO!
When does the Anopheline mosquito feed?
night
What are the fever & chills associated with in malaria?
rupture of RBC schizonts
What is diagnostic of vivax malaria?
Schuffner's dots
What is diagnostic of falciparum malaria?
maurer's clefts
What is the vector of Babesiosis?
deer tick = Ixodes scapularis
What is diagnostic of babesiosis?
Maltese cross that forms in the RBCs
What is the vector for African sleeping sickness?
Tsetse flies
What is diagnostic for African Sleeping Sickness?
Trypomastigote in blood
What is the infective stage of T. cruzi (Chagas disease)?
metacyclic trypomastigote
What is the vector for Chagas disease?
Reduviid bug (kissing)
What is diagnostic for acute Chaga's disease?
trypomastigote in blood
What is diagnostic for chronic Chaga's disease?
amastigote in psuedocyts in tissue
What is the infective stage of Leishmaniasis?
promastigote
What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?
sand flies = Lutzomyia, Phlebotomus
What is the active form in acute toxoplasmosis infection?
tachyzoite
What is the active for in chronic toxoplasmosis infection?
bradyzoite
What is significant/special about Schistosoma haematobium?
assocated with bladder carcinoma.
Pain on urination with bloody urine
What are the sx of S. japonicum and S. mansoni?
granulomata in various sites; asymptomatic or w/ chronic, mild bloody diarrhea
Chronic bacteremia with what bacteria is associated with all species of Schistosomiasis?
Salmonella
What is the DOC for Schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
Where are the lesions usually found in Swimmer's Itch?
on the legs
What is the DOC for Dracunculus medinensis?
metronidazole
What is Wuchereria bancrofti?
Elephantiasis
What is the infective form in Wuchereria bancrofti?
filariform juvenile
What is the diagnostic stage for elephantiasis (wuchereria bancrofti)?
Microfilaria in the blood
What is the DOC for wuchereria bancrofti?
diethylcarbamazine
What is the common name for onchocerca volvulus?
River Blindness
What is the vector for Onchocerca volvulus?
Simulium sp = black fly
What is the infective stage of Onchocerca volvulus?
filariform larvae
What is the DOC for Onchocerciasis?
Ivermectin
What is the infective form of Loa loa?
filariform larvae
What is the DOC for Loa loa?
diethylcarbamazine
What is the vector for Loa loa?
deer fly
What does Bartonella bacilliformis cause?
bartonellosis, Oroya fever --> verruga
What does Bartonella quintana cause?
trench fever
bacillary angiomatosis
SBE
What does Bartonella henselae cause?
cat scratch disease
What does Bartonella elizabethae and Bartonella clarridgeiae cause?
endocarditis
What is the vector for B. bacilliformis?
sandfly
What is the vector for B. quintana?
body louse
What is the vector for B. henselae?
cat flea
What is the acute phase of B. bacilliformis?
oroya fever
What is the chronic phase of B. bacilliformis?
verruga
What is the tx for Cat Scratch disease?
azithromycin
What is the tx for bartonellosis?
doxy or chloramphenicol
What is the tx for bacillary angiomatosis?
macrolides or doxy
(doxy + rifampin for serious disease)
What is the tx for Trench Fever?
doxy
What are janeway lesions?
flat, painless, red-to-bluish red macules/nodules on the palms and soles. Pathognomonic for infective endocarditis
What are splinter petechiae?
linear hemorrhages in middle of nail bed
What are Osler's nodes?
red, painful intradermal transient nodules on pads of fingers and toes. small (size of split peas) (infective endocarditis)
What are Roth Spots?
white area in the retina, lymphocytes, edema, and hemorrhage (infective endocarditis)
What is recrudescent typhus also called?
Brill-Zinsser diease - can occur years after initial disease - similar but milder symptoms
What is the vector of Ehrlichiosis?
lone-star tick
What is the vector of Anaplasmosis?
blacklegged or deer tick and the Western blacklegged tick
What is the vector of Q fever?
can be ticks but does not require a vector for transmission - considered a zoonotic disease