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87 Cards in this Set

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Name the three most common species of enterobacteriacae that are detected in the hospital setting.
E. coli, Klebsiella pneumonia, Proteus mirabilis
What is THE most common medium used to grow enterobacteriacae in the lab? What color are the colonies on that medium if the bacterium ferments lactose?
MacConkey Agar, LF = pink; NLF = gray/white (not pink) lactose is for pussies
Name the 5 diseases associated with enterobacteraciae
UTI, Gastroenteritis/colitis, meningitis, bacteremia, pneumonia, wounds and abscesses
Which species of the enterobacteriacea produces a mucoid capsule?
Klebsiella pneumonia
Which species of the enterobacteriacea swarms on the agar medium on which it grows?
Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris
Name 5 bacterial organisms that cause BLOODY diarrhea
EIEC, STEC, Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella
Which organism is the most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea?
E. coli (ETEC, EAEC)
Which organism(s) has been associated with the hemolytic uremic syndrome?
STEC (Shiga Toxin-producing E. Coli), Shigella
How does one get exposed to STEC?
Eating bad meat or the poo of a bad-meat-eater, Contaminated food (beef, beef jerky, apple cider, lunch meat, milk, yogurt), Contaminated water, Person to person spread in daycares/wading pools
Name 2 Gram (-) rods that require a small inoculums to cause diarrhea? What is the public health significance of that?
Shigella, Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
How does one detect STEC in the lab?
Get poo, find shiga toxin, Recovery of organisms in stool (reliably detects only sterotype O157:H7 – most common serotype associated with disease), Detection of toxin in stool samples , Cell culture using Vera cells, Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) methods, PCR to detect toxin genes
Which species of Shigella is most frequently encountered in the US? Worldwide?
US – Shigella sonnei (D); Worldwide – Shigella dysenteriae (A)
Why are antibiotics used to treat Shigella diarrhea? What are the downsides of using antibiotics?
Antibiotics are used to prevent disease transmission (high infectivity rate -- <200 organisms needed to cause disease), Downsides are that run risk of bacteria developing antibiotic resistance – ampicillin resistance is common, so already have to treat a self-limiting disease with TMP/SXT, quinolones, third generation cephalospirins
What are risk factors for acquiring non-typhoidal salmonella diarrhea? What are the two most common species of salmonella that cause non-typhoidal diarrhea?
Risk factors – improper food handling; age (children<5 YO, adults>70YO most commonly infected), Samlonella typhimurium and Salmonella enteriditis serotypes = major causes of disease
What are the two species that cause typhoid fever?
Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi
A patient presents with bloody diarrhea. Blood cultures are sent and stool cultures are also sent. The lab calls you about 24 hours later to tell you that the BLOOD cultures are growing a Gram (-) rod. Which is the most likely organism?
Salmonella typhimurium or Salmonella enteriditis – diarrhea, non typhoidal
What are two major pathophysiological mechanisms for diarrhea?
1. Decreased absorption of fluid, Inhibited/defective absorption from villous cells, Luminal presence of osmotically active agents, Decreased contact time (rapid transit time), 2. Increased secretion of fluid, Stimulated anion secretion from crypt cells
What is the principle behind oral rehydration therapy?
Correction and prevention of dehydration due to GI fluid loss by increasing absorption of sodium and water from small intestine via glucose/NA symport – it does not stop diarrhea
How does one get exposed to Vibrio parahaemolyticus? What is the most likely clinical syndrome associated with this bacterium?
Eating undercooked shellfish (since it grown well in sea-water and normally inhabits coastal waters), Mild diarrhea beginning 24 hours after consuming contaminated food; potentially accompanied by nausea, vomiting, low-grade fever., Usually self-limiting in 2-3 days
How does one get exposed to Vibrio vulnificus? What is the most likely clinical syndrome associated with this bacterium? What is a risk factor for having a severe infection?
Ingestion of seafood or through wounds following exposure to salt water, Blood stream infection. Underlying severe liver disease predisposes patient to severe infection
Name 2 gram (-) bacteria that cause diarrhea and are associated with ingestion of poultry
Campylobacter jejuni, Campylobacter coli CLUCK CLUCK!
What is Guillain Barre Syndrome and with what bacterium has it been associated?
Demyelinating autoimmune, ascending paralysis, campylobacter, “An acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP), an autoimmune disorder affecting the peripheral nervous system, usually triggered by an acute infectious process. It is frequently severe and usually exhibits as an ascending paralysis noted by weakness in the legs that spreads to the upper limbs and the face along with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes.” (from Wikipedia), Associated with O19 serotype of Campylobacter
Name two Gram + rods that cause diarrhea.
Listeria, Clostridium difficile
What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactams?
1. Inhibit the cross linking of peptidoglycan strands catalyzed by a transpeptidase, They bind covalently with the enzyme forming an acylated enzyme that’s inactivated, Penicillin is a structural analogue of D-Ala-D-Ala, The beta lactam ring is in the same position as the peptide bond., 2. Autolysins play a role through continued dissolution of cell wall in absence of synthesis
What is the spectrum of activity of Penicillin G? Is it STATIC or CIDAL? Does it exhibit PAE? Does it exhibit concentration-dependent or time-dependent killing? Name 6 side effects of penicillin
Gram positive, (Strep), Anaerobes (Oral (“above the belt”).)
Is Penicillin G STATIC or CIDAL? Does it exhibit PAE? Does it exhibit concentration-dependent or time-dependent killing? Name 6 side effects of penicillin
Bactericidal, PAE for Gram + only, Time dependent
Name 6 side effects of penicillin
Side effects – GI symptoms, sodium overload, bone marrow depression, hepatitis, platelet aggregation, seizures, hypersensitivity (acute allergic) reaction
What are beta-lactamase inhibitors?
Drugs that compete with penicillin for access to beta lactamase (which cleaves and inactivates penicillin) active site. Beta lactamase irreversibly hydrolyzes beta lactam ring of beta lactamase inhibitor rather than penicillin
What are some of the limitations of beta-lactamase inhibitors?
Primarily only active against Class A serine hydrolases (except Tazobactam, which has substantial Class C and D reactivity), Degraded by Beta lactamase after binding, Clavanulate induces Beta lactamase expression, Inhibitor resistant Class A enzymes have emerged, One given organism produces multiple classes of Beta lactamases, Multiple organism infection produce different Beta latamases
What is the utility of penicillin skin testing?
Avoid anaphylactic shock from acute allergy, To identify whether or not a patient is allergic to penicillin in an attempt to avoid administering the drug to an individual who is ACUTELY ALLERGIC to it and would go into anaphylactic shock if given penicillin
What are the advantages of aminopenicillins?
Aminopenecillins increase spectrum of activity of penicillins +enterococc, dumb GNR, Like PCN, pneumococcus and streptococcus, but also enterococcus, and some gram negatives including H influenza, E coli, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella
What advantages does adding a beta lactamase inhibitor to ampicillin provide?
Adding beta lactamase increases spectrum to include beta lactamase producing strains of Staph aureus, H influenza, M catarrhalis, many GNRs
A patient grows Pseudomonas aeruginosa from their blood. What drug(s) from the penicillin family would you use?
Piperacillin = GNR + more GNR + Pseudomonas
The lab informs you that Staph aureus growing in your patient’s blood is a penicillinase-producing strain. What drug would you use to treat it?
Methicillin (or similar penicillinase-resistant penicillin) oxicillin is PCNase resistant
What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins? PAE? Time or concentration dependent killing?
Prevents cell wall synthesis by binding to enzymes called penicillin binding proteins (PBPs). These enzymes are essential for the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall., PAE versus Gram + organisms, Time dependent killing
What percent cross-reactivity is there between penicillins and cephalosporins with respect to anaphylaxis?
Up to 33%
A patient has a non-MRSA, penicillinase-producing strain of Staph aureus growing in his blood. He is treated with methicillin while in the hospital (q4H). He has been doing well. He is going to need 4 weeks of IV antibiotics. He is going home today. The health care team tells you that they can only give the patient an antibiotic dosed once a day! What beta-lactam would you choose?
Ceftriaxone QD!
Which cephalospirin(s) have anti-pseudomonal activity?
4th generation (i.e. cefeprime)
Which generation of cephalosporins has anaerobic activity?
2nd Generation (i.e. cefoxitin)
What is the spectrum of activity of carbapenems? PAE against Gram +? Gram -?
Very broad, nosocomial infections, Gram positive – (Except Enterococcus faecium and MRSA), Gram negative including pseudomonas, Anaerobes including bacteroides, Note – Ertapenem – narrower GNR spectrium, community acquired infections, PAE for BOTH GRAM + AND GRAM –
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing MRSA from blood?
NO
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing MSSA from blood
Yes
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing Enterococcus faecium from blood?
NO
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing E coli from urine?
YES
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing Pseudomonas from a wound?
YES
Would you use a carbapenem in a patient growing anaerobic bacterium from blood?
YES
A patient presents with a gram (-) blood infection. The patient has an anaphylactic reaction to penicillins and cephalosporins. What cell-wall acting agent can you use to treat them?
Aztreonam (no cross-allergenicity with penicillins)
What is the ONLY infection for which ORAL vancomycin is used?
C difficile colitis
Does vancomycin have ANY gram negative activity?
NO
The nurse calls you to tell you that a patient getting vancomycin to treat MRSA in his blood developed shaking chills and redness all over. Should she stop the drug infusion?
No. The is “red man” syndrome that results from rapid IV vancomycin dosing. She should only temporarily stop the infusion or slow it down, not cease completely.
What are some side effects of vancomycin?
Allergenicity (skin rash, eosinophilia, drug fever), Phlebitis, “Red man” – flushing with rapid IV dosing, Doubtful ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
What is the mechanism of action of daptomycin and what infections is it used for?
Calcium dependent cytoplasmic membrane binding, Oligomerizes disrupting membrane, Release of intracellular ions and rapid cell death, Uses – resistant gram positive infections, skin and soft tissue infections
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides? Time or concentration dependent killing? PAE against Gram +? Gram -?
Mechanism of Actions: Inhibition of protein synthesis, Bind to bacterial 30S ribosomal A site rRNA, Misreading of genetic code, “Freezes” the initiation complex and stops process, Active transport into bacteria with accumulation and retention, Illicit use of polyamine transported, Inhibited by chloramphenicol, calcium, anaerobic environment, acidic environment, genetic changes, Concentration dependent killing, PAE against Gram + AND Gram -
With which antibiotics do AGs exhibit synergism? Antagonism?
Synergy – Beta lactams, Antagonism -- chloramphenicol
Do we use AGs for synergy in Gram + or Gram – infections?
Gram Positive
What are the side effects of AGs?
1. Nephrotoxicity: 10-20%, Proximal tubular changes in all, Glomerular changes in a few, Reversible; 2. Ototoxicity: Uncommon, Cochlear (3-14%) Can’t hear, Vestibular (4-6%) Lucille 2, Irreversible 3. Neuromuscular paralysis, VERY RARE
What is the rationale for using once daily dosing of AGs?
Take advantage of concentration dependent killing, PAE, fact that renal tubular/inner ear cell uptake saturated at low concentrations while minimizing total time of drug exposure to limit adaptive post-exposure resistance and side effects Also limit tox
What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
Binds to smaller 30S A site rRNA, Inhibits shift from A/T to A/A
What is the spectrum of activity of tetracyclines? What are the feared side effects?
Spectrum of Activity All the weird ones: Chlamydial Infections, Borella budorferi, H. pylori (in conjunction with other Abs, bismuth subsalicylate), Borrelia recurrentis (relapsing fever), Brucellosis (with Gentamicin in very ill patients), Calymmatobacterium granulomatis (granuloma inguinale), Chelation with calcium, deposition with calcium in teeth/bones, Upon exposure to sunlight, darkened bands appear on teeth, Important from last few days of pregnancy through about 6 years
What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?
Binds to larger (50S ribosomal site rRNA) hits 50S, Inhibits peptide bond formation, catalyzed by peptidyl transferase , Binding site overlaps with Linezolid, Clindamycin, and Macrolide
What is the spectrum of activity of chloramphenicol?
Strep pneumonia (CIDAL), Neisseria meningitides (CIDAL), H influenza (CIDAL), Many gram negatives (STATIC), Many anaerobes (STATIC), Clinically, used to treat CNS infections caused by above
Why is chloramphenicol no longer used routinely in the US?
CAN CAUSE APLASTIC ANEMIA, Not dose, plasma, or time related, Irreversible (>50%), Even though incidence is 1:40000 cases, often fatal, Proven causal relationship on epidemiological grounds
What is the mechanism of action of clindamycin?
Binds to larger (50s) ribosomal A and P sites 23S rRNA, Inhibits peptide bond formation catalyzed by peptidyl transferase, Binding site overlap with Linezolid, Chloramphenicol, and Macrolides
What is clindamycin’s spectrum of activity?
Gram positive cocci, S pneumonia, Group A strep, Staph aureus, Most anaerobes
What is one of the most feared complications of Clindamycin use?
Pseudomembranous Colitis C.diff colitis
Linezolid – what is its mechanism of action and what bugs does it cover?
Mechanism of Action: Binds to large 50S ribosomal P site rRNA, Inhitits formation of 70S initiation complex, Inhibits fMet-tRNA binding to P site, Inhibits EF-G mediated A to P translocation, Inhibit EF-P mediated peptidyl transfer, Overlaps Chloramphenicol and Clindamycin binding site, Spectrum of Coverage, “Worst of the worst” resistant from + organisms, Vancomycin resistant enterococcus 9VRE) E faecium, Methicillin resistant Staph aureus, PCN resistant Strep pneumoniae
What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Binds to larger (50S) ribosome rRNA near PTC, Blocks peptide exit tunnel, Allows 4-8 peptide bonds before peptide reaches tunnel, H-bonding via lactone ring and desosamine sugar, Overlaps binding site with Clindamycin and Chlorapmphenicol
What is macrolides’ spectrum of activity?
Atypical organisms + GPC, Mycoplasma pneumonia, Chlamdia pneumonia, Legionella pneumophila, Penicillin Allergy, Strep pneumonia, Group A Strep
What do we mean by non-fermenters? List the 4 MOST common organisms
Non-fermenters = bacteria that DO NOT FERMENT CARBOHYDRATES, May oxidatively metabolize selective sugars, Common Organisms, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumanii, Burkholderia cepacia complex, Burkholderia mallei and Buikholderia pseudomallei, Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
What is the oxidase reaction of the 4 organisms in Question 60?
Pseudomonas and Burkholderia ox pos, Acinetobacter and Stenotrophomonas ox neg
In what setting do we normally encounter the non-fermenting gram-negative rods?
EVERYWHERE, Soil, decaying organic matter, vegetation, water, Most relevantly, found throughout the hospital environment (moist reservoirs, food, cut flowers, sinks, toilets, floor mops, respiratory therapy, and dialysis equipment
Does Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce pyoverdin?
YES
List 8 diseases associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa – Blood, Brain, Bones, Resp, Ear Eye, UTI, Skin
Bacteremia, Pneumonia, Chronic respiratory tract colonization and infections, Bone and joint infections, UTIs, Skin and soft tissue infections, including burn wounds, CNS infections, Eye and ear infections
A 60 year old patient presents with pain and redness in the right ear. When trying to examine the ear, he has so much pain that he is crying. What is the most likely organism causing otitis externa?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa,
Name 5 antibiotics that can be used to treat pseudomonas infections
Antipseudomonal beta lactams, 4th generation cephalosporins, Carbapenms, Combos of any of the above with AG
A veteran is transferred to the burn unit with 40% total body areas burns. He develops a fever and blood cultures are drawn. The lab calls 30 hours later to inform you that the cultures are growing a gram-negative non-fermenter that is oxidase positive. What is the most likely organism? What if they had said oxidase negative?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter species
In what group of patients does Burkholderia cepacia cause the most problems?
CF patients
A patient presents with signs and symptoms of pneumonia (cough, shortness of breath, fevers). The symptoms have been going on for 3 months! He was treated for 10 days with a macrolide but did not get better. The patient is from Thailand and visiting the US. You suspect TB. The gram stains on his sputum shows a Gram-negative rod. What is the most likely organism?
Burkholderia pseudomallei
What is the shape and Gram staining characteristics of the Neisseria species?
Gram negative diplococci
What is the epidemiology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and what are the clinical characteristics of gonococcal infection?
Epidemiology: Sexually transmitted disease, Humans are only host, 355,991 new cases reported in US in 2007, Incidence highest among sexually active young adults, Women and men can be asymptomatic and transmit infection, Clinical Characteristics, Women: Mucopurulent cervicitis, urethral syndrome, pelvic inflammatory disease, Neonates: Ophthalmia neonatorum, Gonococcal scalp abscesses, Systemic infections, Men: Urethritis, Epididymitis, Rectal infections
A 24 year old man presents to your office with pain and swelling in his right knee and left ankle, and about 10 skin lesions on his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis? How would you make a definitive diagnosis? What would he need to do to prevent this from happening again?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Gram stain of urethral sample, bacterial culture with selective media at 35-37C, 5% CO2 for 72 hours (organisms small, glistening, raised), nucleic acid amplification methods, Definitive ID requires demonstration of glucose utilization, hydrolysis of prolyl-hydroxyl aminopeptidase, immunologic methods (specific monoclonal Abs directed againstouter membrane proteins), Prevention – sex education, abstinence, use of condoms
What is the epidemiology of N meningitides?
Asymptomatic nasopharyngeal carriage ranging from 8-25%, Colonization increases in closed populations, , In USA, >98% of cases are sporadic, Case ratios about 1400-2800 per year (stable), Localized outbreaks due to serogroups C and Y have increased since 1991, Serogroups B, C, and Y are the major causes of disease, Case fatility rates ~ 10-14%, Infection occurs soon after colonization if it is going to happen, Groups B, C, Y are most severe, Recurrent and severe infections associated with deficiencies in C5-C9 in complement cascade
Describe the meningococcal syndromes FAST!
Bacteremia without sepsis, Meningitis – neurologic sequelae, Sudden onset of fever, chills, myalgias, arthralgias followed by signs of acute bacterial meningitis (headache, confusion, nuchal rigidity) flu sx then meningitis sx, Leukocyte count approximately 1200 cells/mL; low serum glucose, high serum protein (about 5X normal levels), Meningococcemia, Waterhouse-Frederishen Syndrome – adrenal insufficiency
What are the limitations of the various meningococcal vaccines? Weak and impermanent
Poorly immunogenic in children < 18 months, Does not confer long-lasting immunity, Does not cause a sustainable reduction in nasopharyngeal carriage
What are the recommendations for use of the meningococcal vaccines? MCV4 is better
For general population:Patients 11-19 YOs – single dose MCV4 at 11-12 years or high school entry, For groups at increased risk, 2-10 YOs – Single dose MCV4, 11-19 YOs – single dose MCV4 (preferred), 20-55 YOs – single dose of MCV4, >55 YOs – single dose of MPSV
What groups of patients are at particularly high-risk of acquiring meningococcal meningitis?
People with asplenia, complement deficiencies, Travelers to highly endemic areas, Closed populations, Clinical laboratory workers
A patient is brought to the ED by his wife. He is disoriented. He complained of a headache, visual pain elicited by exposure to bright lights, and fever. His wife found him earlier wandering in the house naked. A lumbar puncture is performed and the gram stain shows the following. What is the diagnosis? How would you treat the patient? Who else would you consider prophylaxing? Do you need to prophylax for all forms of meningitis?
Diagnosis – meningococcal meningitis (caused by Neisseria meningitides), Treatment – Penicillin (or ceftriaxone or chloramphenicol if allergic to penicillin), Prophylaxis – those in close contact with the patient – prescribe rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone, Prophylaxis for all forms of meningitis – NO – use Gram stain (Gram -) to determine necessary prophylaxis, Don’t have to worry about Listeria (Gram +), for example