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293 Cards in this Set

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Name of NMB w/ very short DOA?
Succinylcholine
Which NMBs are eliminated by plasma cholinesterase?
Succinylcholine
Mivacurium
Which NMBs are eliminated by biliary route?
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Which NMBs are metabolized by Hoffman elimination?
Cisatracurium
Atracurium
Which NMBs elicit the release of histamine?
Metocurine
Mivacurium
Atracurium
Succinylcholine
dTubocurarine
Which NMBs produce bradycardia and why?
Succinylcholine
Mimicks Ach, directly stimulates muscarinic receptors of SA node
Which NMBs produce Tachycardia? Why?
metocurine
dTubocurarine
Atracurium =reflex tachycardia

Pancuronium
gallamine =direct vagolytic
Which NMBs produce significant HTN?
gallamine
pancuronium
SEs of Succ include?
Hypotension
bradycardia
histamine release
SEs of mivacurium include?
histamine release
Which muscle relaxants produce autonomic blockade?
dTubocurarine
metocurine
SEs of dTubocurarine include?
histamine release
autonomic ganglia blockade
reflex tachycardia
hypotension
SEs of metocurine include?
histamine release
autonomic ganglia blockade
reflex tachycardia
hypotension
What 2 NMBs cause: autonomic blockade, histamine release, reflex tachycardia, and hypotension?
d-tubocurarine
metocurine
SEs of pancuronium include?
tachycardia-direct vagolytic
HTN
SEs of Gallamine include?
tachycardia-direct vagolytic
HTN
What 2 NMBs cause tachycardia and HTN?
Pancuronium
Gallamine
How much may Succ raise plasma K+ levels?
0.5 mEq/L in normal pt.
5-10mEq/L in burn, trauma or head injury pts.
In which pts are you concerned w/ Hyperkalemia after Succ admin?
Burns
Paraplegia or hemiplegia
Skeletal muscle trauma
upper motor neuron injury (head injury, CVA, Parkinsons)
NDNMB is unchanged by?
Cephalasporins
PCN
Chloramphenicol
IV corticosteroids
Where are muscarinic receptors located?
tissues innervated by the PNS

exception: sweat gland=postganglionic sympathetic nerves release Ach.
Where are adrenergic receptors located?
tissues innervated by the SNS

except sweat gland=postganglionic sympathetic nerves release Ach, has muscarinic receptors
Sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are what type of fiber?
B fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic neurons are what fiber type?
C fibers
S/S of Horners Syndrome (due to stellate ganglion blockade) are?
Ipsilateral: miosis
ptosis
enopthalamos
flushing
increased skin temp
anhydrosis
nasal congestion
List the steps in the synthesis of norepi.
tyrosine -->dopa
dopa-->dopamine
dopamine-->norepi
Which electrolyte concentrations are higher in the cell?
K
Mag
Phosphate
What electrolyte abnormalities cause increased neurotransmitter release?
Hypercalcemia
Hypo mag
Which drugs are Beta agonists?
Tertbutaline
Albuteral
Metoproterenol
Isoethrine
Dobutamine (B1)
Ritodrine
Isoproterenol (B1, B2)
Salmeterol
What effect does stimulation of Beta 1 receptors lead to?
Increased contractility and HR--> increased CO and BP
What effect does stimulation of Beta 2 receptors lead to?
Dilates skeletal muscle blood vessels --> decreased SVR
Promotes bronchodilation
relaxes pregnant uterus
stimulates the NaK pump
Which drugs are alpha and beta agonists?
Epi (adrenaline)
Norepi (Levophed)-no B2 action
Which drugs work at Dopa receptors?
Fenoldapam
Metoclopramide
Dopamine
What drug has some action at Alpha, Beta and dopaminergic receptors?
Dopamine
Phenylephrine primarily stimulates _____ receptors.
A1
Alpha 1 receptor stimulation leads to?
arterial and venous constriction-->increased BP
Clonidine primarily stimulates ____ receptors.
A2
Stimulation of alpha 2 receptors leads to?
Decreased synthesis and release of norepi (negative feedback)
in brainstem-inhibits outflow of SNS
in substantia gelatinosa-promotes analgesia
Isoproterenol primarily stimulates _____ receptors.
B1 and B2
Dobutamine primarily stimulates ______ receptors.
B1
Ritodrine (Yutopar) primarily works at ____ receptors.
B2 with minimal B1
Ephedrine primarily stimulates _______ receptors.
A1 A2 B1 B2 (indirect agent)
Isoproterenol is used to?
tx complete heart block-chemical pacemaker
1-5mcg/kg/min infusion
(B1 B2)
Dobutamine is used to?
Increase CO secondary to increased contractility in CHF, especially if HR and SVR are increased
Name of NMB w/ short DOA?
Mivacurium
SEs of Atracurium include?
histamine release
reflex tachycardia
Terbutaline primarily affects _____ receptors.
B2 w/ minimal B1
Yohimbine is _____. Is used to _____.
selective alpha 2 antagonist
used to tx impotence
Which adrenergic receptor antagonist should generally be avoided in pt. w/ irritable airway?
non-selective Beta2 blocker like propanolol
Opiod agonist drug names include?
Morphine
Fentanyl
Sufentanil
Alfentanil
Remifentanil
Codiene
Meperidine
Hydromorphone
Which opiod is metabolized by plasma esterase?
Remifentanil (Ultiva)
Drug names of competitive opiod antagonists include?
Naloxone
Naltrexone
Nalmefene
In which NMB will you see hypotension and reflex tachycardia w/ rapid admin of high doses?
Mivacurium
What does Cromolyn Sodium do and what is it used for?
Used prophylactically to prevent histamine release and bronchoconstriction
What are some physiologic properties of NMBs?
100% ionized at physiologic pH
Highly protein bound
do not cross BBB or placenta
Trapped in renal tubule bc of high degree of ionization
NDNMB is decreased by?
Chronic anticonvulsants
thermal burn injury
A alpha EFFERENT fibers do what?
adjust skeletal muscle force and length
SEs of Beta2 agonists include?
hypokalemia
hyperglycemia
hypomag
lactic acidosis
tremor
tachycardia
transient decrease in arterial oxygenation
Adenosine is what? Is used for? Dose?
endogenous neucleotide occurring in all cells.
admin to:
1. slow conduction through AV node
2. interrupt reentry pathways through AV node
3. restore NSR in PSVT with WPW
Dose is: 6-12mg IV rapid injection.
Dopamine is used to?
Simultaneously increases CO, RBF, GFR, UOP, and Na excretion.
Phenoxybenzamine is ____. Used to?
long acting nonselective alpha antagonist
used to control BP in pts w/ pheochromocytoma
Cholinesterase inhibitor drugs include?
Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Physostigmine
Ecothiophate
Edrophonium
What is Bethanechol and what is it used for?
cholinergic agonist/parasympahtomimetic

used to tx adynamic ileius and urinary retention
Alpha agonist drugs include?
Phenylephrine
Methoxamine
Clonidine
Antimuscarinic/anticholinergic drug names include?
Atropine
Scopolamine
Glycopyrrolate
What is Doxapram and what is it used for?
general CNS stimulant

used to increase alveolar ventilation; reverse respiratory depression
Which drugs are indirect acting agents?
Ephedrine
Metarminol
Mephentermine
SVR=
80(MAP-CVP)/CO

900-1500 dynes/sec/cm-5
CCBs drug names include?
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Nifedipine (reflex increase HR)

all are arterial dilators
Which NMBs produce significant hypotension?
Succ
dTubocurarine
metocurine
SV=
SV=CO/HR

60-90ml
PVR=
80(PAP-PCWP)/CO

50-150 dynes/sec/cm-5
Ace Inhibitor drugs include?
Captopril
Enalapril

Are arterial dilators
What drugs are predominantly centrally acting sympathomimetics?
Alpha Methyldopa
Clonidine
Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
Prazosin is ______
works by ______
Prazosin is an A1 antagonist

decreases BP without increasing release of norepi
Which drugs are alpha antagonists (blkrs)?
Phentolamine (non selective)
Phenoxybenzamine (non selective)
Yohimbine
Prazosin
Cholinergic agonists/parasympathomimetics include what drugs?
Chloramphenicol
Arecoline
Methacholine
Pilocarpine
Bethanechol
Muscarine
Xanthine drugs are?
Used for?
Aminophylline
Theophylline

used to produce bronchodilation
Aminophylline is used to tx neonatal apnea
Direct acting vasodilators are?
Nitroprusside-arterial & venous
Nitroglycerin -venous
Hydralazine-arterial
Diazoxide-arterial
Pilocarpine and Carbachol are used to tx?
Narrow angle glaucoma

parasympathomimetics mimic activation of PNS->miosis which facilitates drainage of aqueous humor-> decreased IOP
Adrenergic Agonists used in respiratory pharmacology include?
Epi >
Isoproterenol >non selective
Ephedrine >

Metaproterenol -
Isoethrine - selective
Albuterol - B2
Terbutaline - agonists
SI=
SI=SV/BSA

40-60ml/m2
murmur heard with AR?
diastolic
L sternal border
murmur heard with MR?
holosystolic
apex->axilla
murmur heard with AS?
systolic
2nd ICS ->neck
murmur heard with MS?
diastolic
apex or in axilla
Adhesion of PLTs to damaged vascular wall requires?
Von Willebrands Factor (VIII, VWF)
Activation of PLTs requries?
Thrombin (factor IIa)
Aggregation of PLTs requries?
Thromboxane A2 and ADP

(are mediators released by the activated PLT) when thrombine IIa combines w/ the thrombin receptor on PLT and activates the PLT.
Cryoprecipitate containes?
factor VIII
factor XIII
factor I fibrinogen
Coagulation factors of the extrinsic pathway are?
3, 7

You can purchase the extrinsic pathway for 37 cents.
Coagulation factors of the intrinsic pathway are?
11, 12, 9, 8

If you cannot purchase the intrinsic pathway for $12, you can get it for $11.98.
Coagulation factors of the final common pathway are?
5, 10, 1, 2, 13

You can purchase the final common pathway at the five and dime for 1 or $2 on the 13th.
Opiod agonist/antagonist drug names are?
Nalbuphine
Nalorphine
Butorphanol
Buprenorphine
Dezocine
Pentazocine
Phosphodiasterase Inhibitors include?

What do they do?
Inamrinone
Milrinone

Phosphodiasterase inhibitors block the breakdown of cAMP, Increase contractility and decrease SVR (relaxes vascular smooth muscle).
What drugs should be avoided with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Nitrates
diuretics
digoxin
will worsen LV outflow obstruction
want to keep full and forward (maintain NSR, increase preload and afterload, decrease contractility to reduce obstruction)
What drugs cause abnormal PLT aggregation
ASA
NSAIDs (Ketorolac, ibuprofen)
Plavix
Ticlopidine
Dipyridamole
GP IIB/IIIa (tirofiban, eptifibatide, abciximab)
What are GPIIB/IIIa drugs and what do they do?
Tirofiban
eptifibatide
abciximab

prevent PLT aggregation
FFP contains?
All coag and anticoag factors produced by the liver including antithrombin

does not contain PLTs
Normal PT value?

Assesses?
8-14 seconds

assesses extrinsic and final common pathway (Coumadin)
Normal PTT value?

Assesses?
25-35 sec

Assesses the intrinsic and final common pathway (Heparin)
Normal bleeding time?
3-10 min
Which coag factors are not made in the liver?
3, 4, 8

factors 3, 4, and 8, the liver does not make.
The clotting factor responsible for cross linking fibrin is?
factor XIII
What substance converts fibrin to fibrin split products?
Plasmin

Plasmin breaks down fibrin
Major motor nerve of the larynx?
Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

Supplies all muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid
Cricothyroid muscle is innervated by?
External superior laryngeal nerve
Which nerve is the major sensory nerve of the larynx?
Internal superior laryngeal nerve

supplies sensation from the vocal cords up
External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates?
cricothyroid muscle
Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates?
major sensory nerve of the larynx.
sensory from vocal cords up
What muscle relaxes the vocal cords?
thyroarytenoid
Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies motor innervation to?
sensory innervation to?
all the muscles of the larynx except the cricothryoid.
sensory below the vocal cords
How do you calculate the amount of O2 dissolved in blood?
.003 X PaO2
Whose law allows the amount of dissolved O2 in blood to be calculated?
Henrys law
How do you calculate the amount of CO2 dissolved in blood?
.067 x PCO2
Which nerve carries sensory impulses form the carotid bodies?
glossopharyngeal
Which muscles tense the vocal cords?
cricothyroid
Which nerve carries sensory impulses from aortic bodies and stretch receptors in lung parenchyma?
Vagus nerve
What nerve supplies sensory innervation to laryngeal mucosa inferior to the vocal cords?
Recurrenl Laryngeal Nerve
Antithrombin III inhibits what clotting factors?
2, 9, 10, 11, 12

strongly inhibits 2a and 10a of the final common pathway
partially inhibits factors 9a, 11a, 12a of intrinsic pathway
Formula for total amount of Hgb bound and dissolved O2 in blood is?
(1.34*Hgb*Sat)+(.003*PaO2)
Short cut to figure out PaO2 and PAO2.
PaO2=
PAO2=
PaO2=%*5
PAO2=%*6
Normal ACT value?
Assesses?
80-150 sec
Assesses adequacy of heparinization
Hirudin, Ximelagatran, and Argatroban are what kind of drugs?
direct thrombin inhibitors
What is mannitol and how does it work?
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic

Is freely filtered into bowmans capsule and remains trapped in the renal tubule exerting an osmotic force that hinders the reabsorption of H2O->diuresis
What is the urine volume and osmolality when ADH release is inhibited?
Decreased ADH=low osmolality and large volume of urine.

In absence of ADH, distal tubule and collecting duct are impermeable to H2O, a large volume of dilute urine is formed.
(increased ADH=reabsorption of H2O)
What hormone controls extracellular fluid volume?
volume=aldosterone

Aldosterone is the most important hormone for regulating extracellular fluid volume
What hormone controls extracellular sodium concentration?
sodium conc=ADH

Increased ADH=Increased H2O reabsorption (dilutes extracellular Na)
Potassium sparing diurtec drug names include?
Spironolactone (aldactone)
Trieamterine
Amiloride
Where is ADH synthesized and what stimulates its release?
ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus
stored in the posterior pituitary
released by:
increased osmolality
hypotension
stress
pain
CPAP, PEEP, volatile agents
Metoclopramide does what?
Increases LES tone
speeds gastric emptying
decreases pyloric sphincter tone
relaxes deodenum
no effect on gastric pH
What drugs should be avoided in Parkinson's disease?
Dopaminergic antagonists
metoclopramide (Reglan)
prochlorperazine (compazine)
droperidol (Inapsine)
The formula for calculating volume of distribution is?
Vd-quantity/concentration

Vd=Q/Cpt=0
Tissues ranked from highest to lowest blood flows are?
IV
Tracheal
Intercostal
Caudal
Paracervical
Epidural
Brachial plexus
Subarachnoid, Sciatic, Femoral
SubQ
With age, PAO2-PaO2=
0.21 * (age +2.5)
Types of phase I reactions include?
Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Methylation
Reduction
Where are nicotinic receptors located?
autonomic ganglia
adrenal medulla
motor end plate of skeletal muscle
Name of NMBs with intermediate DOA?
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Atracurium
Cisatracurium
Dopamine primarily stimualtes ______ receptors?
A1, A2, B1, D1
A alpha and A beta SENSORY fibers are responsible for?
proprioception (position sense)
dC fibers carry sensations of?
throbbing pain and temp
A delta fibers carry sensations of?
sharp, prickling pain and temp
What are leukotriene antagonist drug names?
What do these drugs do?
Zafirlukast
Montelukast
Zileuton

Decrease bronchospasm, vasoconstriction and eosinophil recruitment promoted by leukotrienes
Loop diuretics are?
pneumonic To BFE

Torsemide
Bumetanide
Furosemide
Ethacrynic acid
Thiazide diuretic drug names include?
Chlorothiazide
Chlorthalidone
Hydrochlorothiazide
Metolazone
Carbonic anyhdrase inhibitor drug name?
Used for?
Acetazolamide

Inhibits reabsorption of bicarb and Na-> diuresis (hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis) and decreased formation of aqueous humor (decreased IOP)
H2 antagonists include?
Cimetidine
Ranitidine
Famotidine (pepcid)
What do H2 antagonists do?
Inhibit HCL acid production
raises gastric pH
decreases gastric volume
Antiemetic drugs include?
Droperidol > dopamine
Prochlorperazine> antagonists
Metoclopramide >
Scopolamine (antimuscarinic)
Ondansetron (5HT3 antagonist)
LAs with short DOA include?
Procaine
Prilocaine
Chloroprocaine
LAs with a moderate DOA?
Lidocaine
Mepivicaine
LAs with a long DOA?
Bupivicaine
Etidocaine
Ropivicaine
Tetracaine
Short acting Barbituates include?
Thiopental
Methohexital
Thiamylal
Thiopental should not be given to which pts?
Porphyria
Severe Asthma
Hypoalbuminemia (drug is highly protein bound, hyopalbuminemia->increased free durg=increased drug effects.
Which barbituate has prominent excitatory effects?
Methohexital (hiccups, myoclonus)
Short acting Benzos are?
Midazolam
Lorazepam
Diazepam
Effects of Benzodiazepines include?
antianxiety
amnesia
sedation
hypnotic
anticonvulsant
muscle rlxn
poor analgesic
decrease CBF and CMRO2
little effect on CV system unless volume depleted
What IV anesthetic directly depresses cortisol output from the adrenal cortex and depresses the immune system?
Etomidate
Vapor pressure of the volatile agents at 20C?
Des 669
Sevo 170
Iso 240
Enflurane 172
Halothane 244
1mmHg= _____cmH2O
1mmHg=1.36cmH2O
1atm=___mmHg=____psi=____kpa= ____bar
1atm=760mmHg=14.7psi=101kpa=1 bar
1psi=____mmHg
1psi=54mmHg
*A blood vessel that is anuerysmal has greater wall tension
*With greater ventricular filling during diastole, there is greater tension in the wall at end diastole
*In ARDs, smaller alveoli empty into larger alveoli (atelectasis)
Law of Laplace
For IV admin, fluid flow is increased by:
increased diameter of needle
decreased length of needle
raising IV bag

polycythemic pts has decreased flow
anemic pt has increased flow
Poiseulles' law
*Explains teh release into the atmosphere of a large amount of gas from a compressed cylinder
*Squeezing the ambu bag increases pressure and decreases volume
Boyles Law
The inflatable cuff on an ETT or LMA expands during sterilization in an autoclave.
Charles Law
As a cylinder of compresed gas empties, the pressure in the cylinder falls
Ideal gas law
*Permits calculation of the % concentration of a gas
* Permits calculation of the partial pressure of a gas
Daltons Law
Concentration effect
Second gas effect
Diffusional hypoxia
Expansion of gas spaces
Ficks Law of Diffusion
Calculation of SVR
Calculation of resistance of flow through a tube
Ohms Law
The solubility of a gas increases with decreased temp.
Le Chateliers Principle
Explains why smaller substances diffuse in greater quantities
Grahams Law
Which LAs have short onset and very short DOA?
Prilocaine
Chloroprocaine
Which LAs have an intermediate onset and DOA?
Lidocaine
Mepivicaine
Which LAs have a slow onset & long DOA?
Bupivicaine
Ropivicaine
The order in which nerves are blocked following epidural administration of LA are?
B fibers
C and A delta (pain, temp, touch)
A gamma
A beta
A alpha
Dosage for caudal in children is?
0.5-1 mg/kg of 0.125% to 0.25% bupivicaine
Dosage for caudal in a premie?
Chloroprocaine 1ml/kg bolus then 0.3ml/kg to desired level
Dosage for caudal in an Adult?
S5-L2=15-25ml
S5-T10=35ml
An ankle block consists of anesthetizing what 5 nerves?
Saphenous
Sural
Superficial peroneal
Deep peroneal
Posterior tibial
Which nerve of the ankle is the most difficult to block?
Posterior tibial
Which nerves of the ankle are superficial?
Sural
Saphenous
Superficial peroneal
Which nerve is frequently missed with and interscalene block?
Ulnar
Extension of the elbow
Supination of the forearm
Extension of wrist and fingers
is accomplished by what nerve?
Radial nerve
Pronation of forearm
Flexion of wrist
Opposition of middle, forefinger and thumb
Flexion of lateral 3 fingers
is due to what nerve?
Median nerve
What nerve is responsible for flexion at the elbow?
Musculocutaneous nerve
Injury to the ulnar nerve leads to?
Inability to abduct or oppose the 5th finger
decreased sensation over ring and pinky fingers
eventually claw hand
Injury to what nerve causes an inability to abduct or oppose the 5th finger, decreased sensation over rink and pinky fingers, and eventually to claw hand?
Ulnar nerve
Injury to the radial nerve results in?
wrist drop
Injury to the median nerve results in?
Inability to oppose thumb (1st and 5th digits)
The sciatic nerve divides into?
Common peroneal (further divides into superficial and deep peroneal nerves)

Tibial (divides into sural nerve)
Injury to the common peroneal nerve results in?
foot drop
loss of dorsal extension of the toes
inability to evert the foot
Foot drop, loss of dorsal extension of the toes, and inability to evert the foot are caused by injury to what nerve?
common peroneal nerve
The most common postop peripheral neuropathy is?
Ulnar nerve
Injury to this nerve eventually leads to claw hand.
Ulnar nerve
Injury to this nerve prevents abduction and opposition of the 5th finger.
Ulnar nerve
Which nerve is compressed when pressure is applied to the spiral groove of the humerus?
Radial nerve
Injury to this nerve results in decreased sensation over the dorsal surface of the lateral 3 1/2 fingers.
Radial
This nerve may be damaged during IV starts.
Median nerve
When this nerve is injured, opposition of the 1st and 5th digits is precluded.
Median nerve
Dosage of intrathecal (spinal) and epidural opiods are?
Drug spinal epidural
Morphine 0.5-1mg 7.5-10mg
Meperidine 10-20mg 100mg
Fentanyl 10-25mcg 50-100mcg
Sufentanil 3-10mcg 10-30mcg
Intrathecal and epidural dose of morphine is?
0.5-1mg intrathecal
7.5-10mg epidural
Intrathecal and epidural dose of Meperidine is?
10-20mg intrathecal
100mg epidural
Intrathecal and epidural dose of Fentanyl is?
10-25mcg intrathecal
50-100mcg epidural
Intrathecal and epidural dose of Sufentanil is?
3-10 mcg intrathecal
10-30 mcg epidural
Early FHR decelerations are caused by?
head compression or stretching of the neck during contractions (vagal stimulation)
Late decelerations of FHR are due to?
uteroplacental insufficiency
fetal compromise w/ a decrease HR

classified as severe if FHR decreases by >45bpm
Variable decelerations of FHR are caused by?
cord compression

severe if FHR decreases by 60bpm, FHR decreases to <60bpm or decelerations last 60 sec or longer
Normal mag level is?
Mag level = 1.5-2 mEq/L
At what mag levels will you see:
ECG changes
Loss of DTR
SA & AV block
Respiratory paralysis
Cardiac arrest
Mag levels

ECG changes=5-10
loss of DTR=10
SA & AV node block=15
Resp paralysis=15
CV arrest=25
The blood gas partition coefficients for the inhalation agents are?
N2O .46.
Des .42
Sevo .65
Iso 1.4
Enflurane 1.91
Halothane 2.5
Blood solubility of a volatile agent determines?
speed of onset and offset
Mac of the volatile agents are?
N20 104
Des 6
Sevo 2
Iso 1.15
Enflurane 1.65
Halothane .74
The oil:gas partition coefficients for the volatile agents are?
N20 1.4
Des 18
Sevo 53
Iso 90.8
Enflurane 98.5
Halothane 224
How does aging affect spinal and epidural anesthesia?
With aging spinal has:
increased DOA
increased sensory block

with aging epidural has:
increased cephalad spread
Decreased DOA, motor blk, and dose
Formula for hourly fluid maintenance is?
4ml/kg for 1st 10 kg
2ml/kg for next 10kg
1ml/kg for ea kg >20

short cut: if > 20kg, add 40=maint
Estimated blood volume (ml/kg)
premature
infant (<6wks)
toddler (6wks-2yrs)
child (2-12)
adult M
adult F
EBV
premature=90ml/kg
infant (<6wks)=80
toddler (6wks-2yrs)=75
child (2-12yrs)=72
Adult M=70
Adult F=65
Formula for ETT length at mouth?
10+age/2
Formula for ETT ID?
4+ (age/4)
or
16+age/4
LMA sizes and cuff volume?
< or equal to 5kg=1 4cc
5-10kg=1.5 7cc
10-20kg=2 10cc
20-30kg=2.5 14cc
30-50kg=3 20cc
Adult=4 30cc
Adult=5 40cc
>100kg=6 50cc
Bilateral superior laryngeal nerve damage leads to?
Hoarseness
Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve damage leads to?
Hoarseness
Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve damage.
Acute=
Chroic=
Acute bilateral RLN damage=stridor
Chronic bilateral RLN damage=aphonia
Unilateral vagus nerve damage=
hoarseness
Which nerve when stimulated will cause laryngospasm?
superior laryngeal nerve
BIS ranges are?
100=awake
90-70=light/mod sedation
70-60=deep sedation
60-40=general anesthesia
40-10=deep hypnotic state
10-0=flat line EEG
Red light is absorbed?
by deoxyhgb at 660nm
Infrared light is absorbed?
by oxyhgb at 940nm
Normal CVP is?
0-8mmHg
The a wave on CVP is?
atrial contraction
the C wave on CVP is?
ventricular contraction
the x descent on CVP is?
pulling down of atrium by ventricular contraction
the v wave on CVP is?
pressure buildup from venous return before AV valve opens
the y descent on CVP is?
decline in atrial pressure as AV valve opens
Pulmonry artery Catheter measurements at
Subclavian
RIJ
LIJ
RAC
LAC
Femoral
RA (+10)RV(+15)PA
Subclavian 15 25 40
RIJ 20 30 45
LIJ 25 35 50
RAC 40 50 65
LAC 45 55 70
Femoral 50 60 75
Diastance of PA cath to RA at:
Subclavian
RIJ
LIJ
RAC
LAC
Femoral
Subclavian 15
RIJ 20
LIJ 25
RAC 40
LAC 45
Femoral 50

add 10 to find distance to RV and add another 15 to find distance to PA
RA pressure is?
1-8mmHg
RV pressure is?
15-25/1-8mmHg
PA pressure is?
15-25/8-15mmHg
(diastolic step up)
PCWP=
6-12mmHg
Addisons disease s/s include?
aldosterone deficiency=hyponatremia
hypovolemia
hypotension
Hyperkalemia
metabolic acidosis
Cortisol deficiency=weakenss
fatigue
hypoglycemia
hypotension
wt. loss
Addisons disease is?
adrenal gland destruction
Cushings disease is?
Excess corticosteroids
Cushings s/s include?
muscle wasting
weakness
osteoperosis
central obesity
abdominal striae
glucose intolerance
HTN
mental status changes
What is the dose and concentration of mannitol for decreasing intracranial volume?
where does mannitol work?
20% 1g/kg

works in the proximal tubule
A bilateral superior laryngeal nerve block is performed by?
injecting 3ml of 2% lido 1cm below the L and R greater cornu of the hyoid bone.
Provides anesthesia to the airway below the epiglottis
glossopharyngeal block is performed by?
pt. open mouth
inject 2ml of LA bilaterally at base of the palatoglossal arch (anterior tonsillar pillar)
Formula for ideal body weight is?
height in cm-100 for men
heigh in cm-105 for women

1 inch=2.54cm
1 inch=____cm or ____meters
1 inch =2.54 cm
1 inch=.0254meters
Which benzodiazepine has the longest elimination half life?
Diazepam (30hrs)

Lorazepam (15hrs)
Midazolam (2hrs)
What fluid is considered isotonic?
D5 1/4 saline
Benzocaine is what type of LA?
Amide

Is the only amide LA that does not have two i's in its name.
A alpha, beta, gamma
B and C fibers do what?
A alpha=heavily myelinated=somatic motor impulses & proprioception
A beta=moderately myelinated=touch & pressure
A gamma=moderately myelinated=proprioception
B fibers=lightly myelinated=autonomic impulses
Cfibers=pain & temp impulses
What fibers are responsible for pain and temp?
C fibers
What fibers are responsible for autonomic impulses?
B fibers
What fibers are responsible for touch and pressure?
A beta
What fibers are responsible for proprioception?
A alpha
A gamma
Huntingtons Chorea is characterized by?
Choreiform movements that progress to weakness of pharyngeal muscles-> increased risk of aspiration pneumonia and increases sensitivity to both depolarizing and ND NMBs.
What is the response to NMBs seen in a pt with Huntingtons Chorea?
Increases sensitivity to both depolarizing and nondepolarizing NMBs.
Subarachnoid space extends from the foramen magnum to?
Adults=S2
children=S3
Spinal cord extends to?
Adults=L1
children=L3
Formula for SV=
SV=EDV-ESV
What LAs produce vasoconstriction?
Cocaine
Ropivicaine
What is nominal data?
Used to identify the data
ex. blood type
eye color
Ordinal data is?
ordered or ranked
ex. pain scores
ASA classification
Chi2 analysis?
evaluates difference between observed and expected frequencies from nominal (categories) or ordinal (ordered or ranked) data
ANOVA analysis?
tests the difference among the means of >2 independent groups or more than 1 independent variable given normally distributed interval or ratio data
student t-test?
given normally distributed interval or ratio data, evaluates the difference between dependent, paired sample outcomes.
ex. pretx and post tx
Which type of analysis evaluates the difference between pretx and post tx?
student t-test
Which type of analysis is used when more than 1 independent variable exists or there are more than 2 independent groups?
ANOVA
What type of analysis is used for nominal or ordinal data?
Chi2 analysis
Subendocardial injury on the ECG is manifested by?
ST segment depression
Subepicardial or transmural injury on the ECG is manifested by?
ST segment elevation
Inferior ECG leads are?
2, 3, AVF
Anterior ECG leads are?
V1-V4
Lateral ECG leads are?
I, AVL, V1, V2
Loop diuretics work in?
thick ascending loop of henle
K sparing diuretics work in?
collecting duct
Thiazide diuretics work in?
distal convuluted tubule
Carbonic anyhdrase inhibitors work/act on the?
proximal convuluted tubule
Formula for replacement of fluids in a burn pt?
%BSA*Kg*2-4ml
Formula for predicting the decline in PaO2 with age is?
PaO2=100-(0.4*age in years)
Von Willebrands disease will result in prolongation of what lab?
PTT
Cerebral blood flow is calculated as?
CBF=CPP/cerebral vascular resistance
Dose of flumazenil to antagonize a benzo in a pediatric pt?
.05-1mg/kg
1mg max IV
Acid base disorder seen in pyloric stenosis is?
Hypochloremic
hypokalemic
met alkalosis
Addisons disease is due to autoimmune destruction of adrenal gland causing decreased glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid production. S/S include?
hyperpigmentation
hyperkalemia
increased urinary Na excretion
decreased androgen production
Which muscle relaxants will precipitate when placed in an IV line with thiopental?
Vec
Roc
Atracurium
A nondepolarizing block is augmented by?
Hypocalcemia
Hypothermia
Hypokalemia
Hyper Mag
Myasthenia Gravis is?
Acquired autoimmune disorder in which antibodies attach Ach receptors
Which ND NMB does not underg any form of metabolism?
Rocuronium
Which ND NMB can prolong the effects of Succ?
Pancuronium

by inhibiting psuedocholinesterase & slowing metabolism of Succ.
What increase and decreases in the trendelenburg position?
In the trendelenburg position:

Increased MAP, PCWP, SVR
decreased CBF
No change in CI, O2 delivery, O2 consumption