• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

image

PLAY BUTTON

image

PLAY BUTTON

image

Progress

1/142

Click to flip

Card Range To Study

through

142 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What DON directive establishes Antiterrorism (AT) policy and procedures?
OPNAVINST 3300.53 series
What is the definition of Antiterrorism (AT)?
DEFENSIVE measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts, to include limited response and containtment by local military forces.
What is Counterterrorism (CT)?
OFFENSIVE measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism.
What is meant by Domestic Terrorism?
Terrorism perpetrated by the citizens of one country against fellow countrymen.
When does the CNO's Antiterrorism High-Risk Billet Evaluation Committee meet (to review high risk billets)?
During April each year.
What activity was formed to provide indications and warnings of current operational intelligence on potential terrorist activities that are threats to DON personnel, property or assests worldwide?
The Navy Antiterrorism Alert Center (NAVATAC).
What are armed, combat-trained Marines task-organized and equipped to perform specified security missions?
FASTs-Fleet Antiterrorism Security Teams.
What should be used to search a pier (prior to a ship's arrival) if the port is operated under THREATCON BRAVO or a threat to a specific ship is received?
Military Working Dogs and Divers.
How should picket boat crews be armed?
With rifles, one M60 with 200 rounds of ammunition and then concussions grenades.
Who is responsible for developing Force Protection strategy, policy and procedures for the Navy Force Protection Program?
The director, Antiterrorism and Force Protection (CNO N-34).
Who operates the 24 hour-a-day Naval Antiterrorism Alert Center (NAVATAC)?
Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (DIRNAVCRIMSERV).
Per OPNAVINST 3300.55 series how often must echelon TWO commanders review AT/FP Programs under their congnizance.
At least once every three years.
How often must the CNO N-34 ensure that an Integrated Vulnerability Assesment (IVA) is conducted at each activity?
Every three years.
Who conducts Integrated Vulnerability Assesments (IVAs) at commands with 300 or more personnel?
The Joint Staff Integrated Vulnerability Assesment (JSIVA) teams or the CNO IVA Teams.
How often must COs exercise all elements of the installation Antiterrorism and Force Protection (AT/FP) plan?
At a minimum, once annually.
What is a set of standardized terms used to quantify the level of terrorism threat on a country-by-country basis?
The DOD Terrorism Threat Level classification system.
How do threat levels relate to threat conditions?
Threat levels are estimates with no direct relationship to specific Threat conditions (ThreaCons).
What factors MUST be present for the CRITICAL terrorist threat level?
Existence
Capability
Targeting
How is the CRITICAL terrorist threat level differentiated from all other terrorist threat levels?
It is only one in which credible information identifying specific DOD personnel, facilities, assets, or interest as potential targets of attack is present.
What factors must be present for the MEDIUM terrorist threat level?
Existence
Capability
History
What terrorist threat level must Existence and Capability be present, but history may or may not be present?
LOW
What factors may or may not be present at the NEGLIGIBLE terrorist threat level?
NEGLIGIBLE
What messages disseminate imminent terrorist threat warnings and outlines commander's responsabilities?
Navy "Blue Dart" messages.
What must commanders use to decide on appropiate levels of terrorist attack protection?
Risk management techniques.
How do local commander notify the FBI concerning threat incidents ocurring at Navy installations?
Through the local NAVCRIMINVSERV Resident Agency
How does the NAVATAC disseminate as much early warning as possible concerning terrorist threats?
Through the Blue Dart Program
What is the principal means a commander has to apply an operational decision on how to guard against a terrorist threat?
THREATCON
When may subordinate commanders establish a higher THREATCON than that establish by higher commanders?
When local conditions warrant doing so.
How often must COs conduct a physical security assesment of their command?
At least once every three years.
What is the foundation for successful antiterrorism efforts?
Effective daily command procedures and security operations.
When must units/ships certify AT/FP readiness for deployment to their Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC)?
Prior to each deployment that could involve a visit to a foreign port or site.
Who must assign a Force Protection Officer (FPO) in WRITTING?
Each commander that owns a perimeter or could be responsible for a perimeter when deployed.
Who may be designated as a Antiterrorism Training Officer (ATTO)?
An E6 or higher or equivalent civilian (GS-7) who has completed the minimum required training to conduct Level I AT training.
What is the general requirement for Antiterrorism Awareness Training?
Personnel, military/DON civilian and adult family members must receive the appropiate LEVEL I AT/FP training within six months prior to deploying, transferring overseas or traveling outside the US, its territories and possesions.
Where is all individual AT/FP training certified?
On a service record Page 13 entry, or civilian equivalent.
When must naval personnel and dependents assigned to Medium or Higher Threat areas be given guidance on appropiate conduct in the event they are taken hostage or kidnaped?
At least annually.
What is the parking stand-off distance for all high-density buildings during THREATCON ALPHA?
50 ft or more
What is the vehicle stand-off distance (from high density targets) for all high-density buildings during THREATCON BRAVO?
100 ft or more
Where possible, what is the minimum standoff distances for unofficial vehicles/containers on piers?
100 ft in CONUS and 400 ft OCONUS
What causes the majority of fatalities and injuries during bombing attacks?
Flying shards of glass.
Who is the approving authority for all deviations to Navy Prescriptive Force Protection Standards?
CNO N-34
How do terrorist groups generally structure themselves?
In a manner similar to military organizations?
What is the objective in most sabotage incidents?
To demonstrate how vulnerable society is to the terrorists' actions.
What is the contemporary terrorist's tactic of choice?
The improvised explosive device (IED).
Although trains, buses, and ships have been highjacked, why are aircraft the preferred target?
Because of their greater mobility and vulnerability.
What is the lead Federal agency for containing and resolving terrorist incidents ocurring off the military installation?
The FBI
Who is often identified as a VIP when traveling in expensive limousines or luxury cars?
Persons sitting in the right rear seat.
When may terrorist threat warnings be issued exclusively within government channels ONLY?
When the threat is to GOVERNMENT TARGETS ONLY.
Who is the sole approving authority for releasing international terrorist threat information to the public?
The Department of State (DoS)
Within the layered physical security concept, where is the outer security zone located?
In the outer security zone.
Within the layered physical security concept, where are surveillance systems positioned to monitor activities within the zone and beyond the perimeter?
In the outer security zone.
What is the first challenge to the physical security system?
Its ability to detect the presence of hostile intruders.
When does the physical security system classify and assess the threat?
After the presence of a threat has been detected and threat assessment personnel notified.
How is the effectiveness of a barrier system measured?
By the minimum total delay time it provides on any path into the protected area.
What are the two primary groups that Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensors are divided into, depending upon their environmental capability?
Exterior Sensors
Interior Sensors
What is the mandatory emergency backup power requirement for an intrusion detection system (IDS) sensor?
8-hour battery backup
What number of lighting units are required for all active vehicle entrances to facilitate complete inspection of passenger cars, trucks, and freight cars as well as their contents and passengers?
TWO
What may be installed over lights to prevent destruction by stones, air rifles, etc.?
High Impact plastic shields.
What are the three interrelated, but very different functions, performed by guards and other security personnel?
They serve as barriers
They are essential element in the intrusion detection system
They are usually the initial response force, therefore responsible for initial control and containtment in the event of a terrorist incident.
What is probably the most frustating aspect of being a guard?
Not knowing what you should be looking for.
What determines the effectiveness of a physical security system?
Must provide early detection of an intrusion
Must provide a layered system of a barriers that delay the intruder
Must provide an effective, timely, and practiced response force.
What physical characteristics are required for an exterior wall to prevent forced entry?
Must be smooth shell, sturdy, and protected to a height of 16 feet.
What minimum setback must be provided between the building exterior of principal structures and the perimeter from mail throughfares?
100 ft minimum
What is the maximum height for vegetation on both sides of the permanent physical perimeter barriers?
8 inches
Generally, what penetration resistance is provided by walls and fences?
Very minimal delay of 15 seconds or less
What are the characteristics of a well constructed external security wall?
Smooth face, 9-foot height (minimum) and 3-foot footer depth (minimum)
When is a barrier considered active?
If it requires action by personnel or equipment to permit entry.
When is a barrier considered passive?
It its effectivenes relies on its bulk or mass and it has no moving parts.
What can be done to maximize traffic flow and security at vehicular entry-exit points?
Only TWO regularly used points should be used.
What should be inserted in large storm sewer culverts or tunnels as part of a physical security plan?
A large sleeve composed of multiple sections of pipe each no more than 10 inches in diameter.
What action should be taken when a guard or security force cannot open a lock?
The lock should be removed immediately and replaced with a DOD lock.
Where should observations posts be established when considering beyond-the-perimeter surveillance for airfields?
In off-base areas beneath or adjacent to flight paths for landing and takeoffs.
What is the security zone for external surveillance to monitor traffic on the surface of the water adjacent to a waterside facility?
An area extended from the high water mark to a distance at least 1000 meters from shore, if possible.
What is the weakest part of a door system?
The latching component of the lock or locking device.
What is the typical delay times for defeat of locking devices?
From 9 seconds to 3 minutes
What is "acrylic glazing" material?
Lighweight, heat treated or "tampered" plastic that is 17 times more impact resistant than a comparable thickness piece of conventional glass.
As a general rule, utility openings should be hardened to provide what amount of penetration resistance?
At least 15 minutes.
Which utility openings should be equipped with IDS sensors incorporated into the facility's IDS system?
Utility openings greater than 10 times in diameter.
What are duress alarms?
Devices that can be activated manually in the event of an unauthorized penetration attempt.
Who should be granted admission to very high security areas (Level Three Restricted Access Area, formerly termed exclusion areas)?
Only those who are POSITIVELY identified.
Where is the exchange pass system (of personnel identification) particularly useful?
Where visitors must gain access to a high security facility.
What is the major objective in escorting visitors around a facility?
To ensure that all material brought into the facility by the visitor is left with someone who can open and examine contents, and that visitors leave no packages or other materials behind upon their departure.
What is the term for the innermost layer of protection within a physical security system?
Safeheaven
What amount of hardening is required for the walls of a safeheaven?
An amount that provides a penetration delay of 15 minutes.
What is the preferable way to provide potable water inside a safeheaven?
In sealed cans
Why is it best not to select a residence located on a dead-end or one-way street?
Because these locations provide terrorists ideal opportunities for ambushes which would be almost impossible to avoid.
In most cases, what type of dwellings are generally preferred when security is a primary consideration?
Apartments rather than single family dwellings.
What distance can a trained dog detect an intruder's scent?
In excess of 250 yards
What will determine the overall effectiveness of an antiterrorism program?
Self-protection and effective crime prevention procedures.
What is the conerstone of personnel security program?
Crime prevention.
What three intelligence collection methods are used by terrorists against their potential targets?
Human Intelligence (HUMINT)
Photographic Intelligence (PHOTINT)
Signals Intelligence (SIGNT)
What is one of the most important habit to break to reduce the probability of becoming a kidnapping or killing target?
Vary the route to and from work, and the time you arrive and leave.
Why is it important to have a special arrangement for office interior?
So that strange or foreign objects left in the room will be immediately recognized.
Why should you avoid carrying attache cases, brief cases, or other courier bags unless absolutely necessary?
Because they become symbols of power and prominence in many cultures.
What should be your demeanor when receiving a threatening call, including a bomb threat, extortion threat, or from a mentally disturbed individual?
Remain calm and listen carefully.
In most instances, what is the safest, most reliable, and least risky mode of transportation from the perspective of terrorist attack?
Air
What is the least secure means of commercial travel possible?
Travel by rail
How can you increase the threat delay time between perimeter and executive office buildings?
Install vehicle barriers and realign roadways to eliminate straight, level streches of road in excess of 50 meters in length.
What action should you take while driving if a roadblock is encountered?
Use shoulder or curb (hit at a 30 to 45 degree angle) to go around or ram the terrorist or criminal blocking vehicle.
How should a terrorist or criminal blocking vehicle be rammed, to knock it out of the way.
In a non-engine area, at a 45 degrees, in low gear, at a constant moderate speed.
When are the most dangerous moments to victims of kidnapping or hostage taking?
At the very onset of the episode.
What is a good general response to all press inquires after being released from kidnapping or hostage taking?
Note the simple joys of freedom and that given a choice between being free and being a hostage, being free is far superior.
What format should be used to prepare the "after action" report of a terrorist incident?
One that is compatible with the Joint Universal Lessons Learned System (JULLS) operated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
Why are homemade explosives devices (IED) ideal weapons for terrorists?
Because they can be designed to give terrorists opportunity to escape from the scene of their crimes.
Who should be notified immediately upon receiving an anonymous warning or threat?
The Provost Marshall's Office
(PMO)
Security Police
Security Forces
Other Law Enforcement/Security Offices
Where should an assembly area be located, if at all possible, in the event of a bomb threat?
At least 200 meters and not less than 100 meters, from the likely target or building.
What are the two types of roadblocks?
Deliberate
Hasty
What are deliberate roadblocks?
Permanent or semi-permanent roadblocks used on borders, outskirts of cities, or the edge of controlled areas.
What is the only documented use of a biological agent in the US?
Oregon in 1984
What is the incubation period of most biological agents?
From one to seven days before the onset of symptoms.
What are the two key factors that help mitigate the effects of a potential biological agent attack?
A comprehensive vaccination policy and the active medical support program.
What DOD form is provided to stimulate local thinking with respect to physical security and antiterrorism measures?
DD Form 2637, Physical Security Survey Instrument.
What is the principal problem in protecting DOD assests from terrorist attacks from the water?
Detecting
Classifying
Responding to the Threat
What is probably the most effective means of isolating a waterside DOD activity and discouraging uninvited visits from benign or curious intruders?
Patrol boats
What is a security zone in water side security?
The area extended from the mean high water mark to the outer edge of a zone of control.
What is the size of a security zone at a waterside DOD activity?
Usually extends at least 1000 meters from the nearest DOD asset.
What force is responsible for engaging intruders and terminating incidents before intruders reach the "keep-out" zone of a waterside DOD activity?
A Tactical Response Boat (TRB) Force.
Who may NOT conduct boarding of intruders at a waterside DOD activity?
Patrolling small boats or any other vessels assigned to the security zone.
Where should boardings of intruders be made at a waterside DOD activity?
In ALL cases, outside the security zone at a secure location.
What position is maintained in one-boat security zone enforcement?
The security boat maintains a position near the centerline of the zone at the outer boundary.
What are the maneuvering requirements in a one-boat security zone, if practical and safe?
All turns should be made to the outside of the zone so that the boat crew never has its back toward the outer boundary of the zone and can maintain surveillance of the zone boundaries.
In a two-boat security enforcement, what action is taken if either boat must leave its assigned position?
The second security boat should move to the center line of the whole zone at the outer boundary as in one-boat enforcement.
What is the minimum number of boats recommended in a moving security zone.
Two boats
What positions are taken by security vessels in a moving security zone?
The first boat (preferably the largest assigned), maintains a position directly forward of the protected asset, while the second boat (preferably the fastest assigned) takes the position directly aft.
What action is taken, during a boat intrusion response, if the incoming vessel is determined to be hostile?
The screen vessel will "clear" the "field of fire" by turning at a 90 degree angle to the course of the incoming vessel.
How should a screen vessel approach an inbound intrusion vessel?
Initially should be "head on" using siren, blue light, radio and/or loud hailer, and flood and/or spotlight into the cabin.
What is the Tactical Reaction Boat (TRB) response to an intrusion vessel?
While the screen vessel is maneuvering, the TRB patrolling the reaction zone is stationed directly on a line between the aggresor and the asset at the outer boundary of the reaction zone.
What is the nominal speed for a swimmer?
Depending on distance and equipment carried, normally one knot.
Why should drifting debris be investigated immediately?
Because it is often used to camouflage a swimmer or mine.
What action should be taken by waterside patrols assigned to swimmer defense, if the threat is high and belived to be from accomplished divers?
Should drag heavy lines with attached grapple hooks or large fishing hooks.
Who may authorized the use of concussion grenades for swimmer defense within US territorial waters?
The US Coast Guard district commander.
What is the "kill range" of a standard concussion grenade?
Approximately 5 feet.
What is the stunt range of a standard concussion grenade?
It reaches out of 25 to 30 feet in diameter from the concussion blast.
To be an effective deterrent, what is the maximum discharge interval for standard concussion grenades?
Should not exceed 10 minutes in a random pattern.
What is the purpose of DD Form 2638, Waterside Security Evaluation Guide?
To stimulate security awareness and assessment of physical security measures necessary to protect DOD assests and personnel located on installations and/or within facilities adjacent to bodies of water.
What legal protection is provided for DOD security locks?
It is unlawful for any person to knowingly duplicate a key or keyway used in a DOD security lock.
What is the best aircraft seating, from a security standpoint?
In the non-conspicuous "Grey Area" in the center portion of the aircraft, from approximately the fourth row from the front to the fourth row from the back and whenever possible, get seating next to a window.
Which type of body armor is generally suitable for full-time wear?
Type I
Which type of body armor provides the highest level of protection available as soft body armor and is generally considered to be unsuitable for routine wear?
Type III-A
Which type of body armor is clearly intended for use only in tactical situations when the threat warrants such protection?
Types III and IV
What type of door should be used for a safeheaven?
One solid wood door clad with 16-gauge galvanized steel and 12-gauge steel on the interior with high security boltworks and drop bolts.
How should any window in a safe heaven be hardened?
Should be grilled or barred and should be hardened to resist 7.62 NATO ammunition.