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151 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What is suspension
|
must be resuspended by shaking to provide an accurate dosage of drug and the degree of resuspension varies among preparations and patients
|
|
What is CFU?
|
Colony forming unit
A measure of viable bacteria numbers |
|
mechanism for prostaglandins/analogs?
dosing? |
reduce IOP by increasing uveoscleral outflow
QD HS (once at night) excellent IOP reduction at night |
|
what is a Solution?
|
MOST COMMONLY used mode of delivery for topical ocular medications , more easily instilled, interfere less with vision, and have fewer potential complications
|
|
What is MIC?
|
Minimum inhibitory concentration
the lowest conc of a drug that produces no apparent bacterial growth |
|
what is the drug of choice for glaucoma secondary to...
1. idiopathic elevated venous pressure 2. carotid cavernous fistula 3. dural arteriovenous shunt in cavernous sinus |
prostaglandins
|
|
Where are ophthalamic ointments usually applied?
|
inferior conjunctival sac
|
|
Common Pathogens for ADULTS?
|
1. Staphylococcus (gram +)
2. Streptococcus (gram +) 3 Pseudomonas (gram -) 4 Enterobacteria (gram -) |
|
adverse effect of prostaglandins
|
1. HYPEREMIA
2. PERIORBITAL SKIN DARKENING 3. punctate keratopathy 4. INCREASED EYELASH GROWTH 5. blurred vision 6. dry eye 7. iris pigmentation 8. A/C reaction |
|
what are 3 advantages of using subconjunctival injection over topical drops?
|
a. High local concentrations of drug can be obtained with the use of small quantities of medication, so that adverse systemic effects are avoided.
b. High tissue concentrations can be obtained with drugs that poorly penetrate the epithelial layer of the cornea or conjunctiva. This method is useful in patients who do not reliably use topical medication. c. Drugs can be injected at the conclusion of surgery to avoid the necessity of topical or systemic drug therapy. |
|
Common Pathogens for KIDS?
|
1.H. Flu (82%)
2.Strep pneumonia 3.Staph Aureus |
|
when should you not use prostaglandins
|
1. secondary inflammatory glaucoma
2. anterior segment inflammation (uveitis) use cautiously in patients with previous outbreaks of HSV keratitis |
|
what are the main indications for sub-tenons injection?
|
a. anterior sub-tenon’s injections: (of corticosteroids) used in the treatment of severe uveitis
b. posterior sub-tenon’s injections: treatment of chronic equatorial and mid zone posterior uveitis including macular inflammation |
|
In the Ocular TRUST study, what was the only antibiotic that was effective against MRSA?
|
Trimethoprim
|
|
how long should you want for each prostaglandin to take full effect
|
1. Xalatan: 3-5 weeks
2. Travatan Z: 2 weeks 3. Lumigan: few days |
|
What is the difference between retrobulbar and peribulbar injections?
|
a. Retrobulbar: directly into the muscle
b. Peribulbar: the needle avoids the intraconal space! Placing one or two injections of local anesthetic around the globe but NOT directly into the muscle cone (the anesthetic injected around the globe eventually infiltrates to provide the anaethesia) |
|
What is the advantage of a liposome or microsphere in drug delivery?
|
Liposomes:
1. bioerodible and biocompatible systems consisting of microscopic vesicles composed of lipid bilayers surrounding aqueous compartments. 2. demonstrated prolonged drug effect at the site of action but with reduced toxicity. |
|
this medication is not a true prostaglandin
|
Lumigan
-different receptors -synthetic prostamide -occurs naturally in ocular tissues |
|
What’s the primary use for intracameral injection? (aka delivering the drug directly into the AC of the eye)
|
a. injection of viscoelastic substances into the AC chamber during a cataract extraction and glaucoma filtering surgeries to protect against loss of endothelial cells and flat AC
|
|
Why are sulfa drugs inactivated by mucopurulent d/C?
|
Sulfa and PABA are very similar structurally. Pus contains PABA. therefore, if there is pus present (mucopurulent d/c), there is a lot of PABA around, and the PABA competes with sulfa so the sulfa can't get to the appropriate receptors and inhibit the bacteria's growth.
|
|
what is the active ingredient in
1. Xalatan 2. Travatan Z 3. Lumigan |
1. Xalatan
Latanoprost 0.005% 2. Travatan Z Travoprost 0.004% 3. Lumigan Bimatoprost 0.03% and 0.01% |
|
How does photodynamic therapy work?
|
1. selectively eradicate neovascuar membranes while producing minimal damage to normal retinal and choroidal tissues (good for choroidal neovascularization associated with ARMD that is difficult to treat with traditional laser because the normal retinal tissues will be destroyed, destroying central vision)
2. IV administration of veteporfin for 10 minutes (a potent photosensitizing eye) 3. 5 minutes after, nonthermal light at 689nm applied to abnormal tissues for 83 seconds 4. When activated by light, verteporfin causes the production of singlet oxygen and free radicals that produce cell death and occlusion of abnormal vessels |
|
What is the advantage of having BAK in an antibiotic?
|
BAK alone, bactericidal activity starts with in 5 mins
-reduces the tear break up time by 1/2 zymar has BAK |
|
in respect to preservatives what is the difference between
1. Xalatan 2. Travatan Z 3. Lumigan |
1. Xalatan
NO PRESERVATIVES 2. Travatan Z Sofzia- more gentle than BAK 3. Lumigan BAK roughs up epithelium to enhance corneal penetration |
|
Schedule 1 drug
|
NOT commercially available
-No approved indication, could be investigational use -None commonly used! |
|
why does moxeza, zymaxid, besivance, and azasite have less dosing requirements?
|
they have durasite or xanthum gum which increases contact time of drug
|
|
what is the most likely prostaglandin to cause hyperemia
|
Lumigan
|
|
Schedule 2 drug
|
-Accepted for medical use
-strict limitations due to recognized high abuse and dependency potential -Rx should be signed by practitioners and cannot be refilled - Cocaine, Oxycodon with Acteaminaphen |
|
Why would one antibiotic have a higher concentration in the AC than another antibiotic, if they were equal in concentration at the ocular surface?
|
the drugs have different solubility properties
|
|
how does Xalatan interact with the receptors to yield a response
|
short term:
PF-2 receptor stimulation long term: changing the ground substance in the cellular matrix of the ciliary meshwork |
|
Schedule 3 drugs
|
-Significant but less abuse and dependency potential than that of schedule 1 and 2
-these may contain limited quantities of certain narcotics -Example: Tylenol III, aspirin with codein |
|
what medication is considered the best for reducing IOP during the diurnal sleep cycle when patients are supine
|
prostaglandin analogs
|
|
Cell wall inhibitors abx?
|
Penicillans
Cephalosporin bacitracin vancomycin |
|
Schedule 4 drugs
|
-Relatively low abuse potential and limited dependency potential
-Whereas schedule 2 RXs must be written, RXs for schedule 3 and 4 drugs may be verbal and may be refilled up to 5X in 6 months if authorized by the prescriber -Example:Propoxyphen with acetaminaphen |
|
what are the ocular parasympathetic receptors
|
1. iris: miosis
2. ciliary body: accommodation and TM opening 3. trabecular meshwork: aqueous outflow increase 4. ciliary meshwork: aqueous outflow decrease |
|
bacterial cell membrane disruption abx?
|
Polymixin B
Gramicidin |
|
Schedule 5 drugs
|
these have lower abuse potential
-cough suppressants and anti-diarrheals |
|
what is the main parasympathetic agent we use for glaucoma
mechanism? |
Pilocarpine
1. direct acting cholinergic agonst 2. increase trabecular meshwork outflow |
|
Protein synthesis inhibitors abx?
|
Tetracycline 30s
Macrolide 50s aminoglycosides 30s Chlororamphenicol |
|
What year was the first “drug” law enacted for diagnostic drugs in optometry? Which state?
|
a. Beginning 1971, optometry laws began to permit the use of drugs for diagnosis & tx
- rhode island |
|
pilocarpine can simulate blinding effect of glaucoma due to...
|
MIOSIS
|
|
Folic acid synthesis inhibitors abx?
|
Pyrimethamine
Sulfonamide Trimethoprim |
|
Professional Community Standard (In Florida)
|
-the practitioner is held to the same standard that a reasonable practitioner would have acted under the same or similar circumstance
-uses expert witness testimony and “body of evidence” set by the professional community |
|
what is the most common concentration of pilocarpine?
dosing? color cap? |
1%, 2%, 4%
QID (BID if a part of poly therapy) GREEN CAP |
|
DNA synthesis inhibitors abx
|
Fluoroquinolones
Inhibits topoisomerase II and IV |
|
Reasonable Patient Standard?
|
-based on what a reasonable patient must know rather than what the practicioner must divulge
-what would a prudent person in the patient’s position have done if they had sufficient information to make a decision -does NOT require an expert testimony -it is CHEAPER to defend yourself in this standard |
|
what are the contraindications of pilocarpine
|
1. UVEITIC GLAUCOMA (INFLAMMATORY)
2. neovascular glaucoma 3. aphakia 4. retinal detach 5. posterior subcapsular cataract present 6. pre-presbyopia |
|
Mechanism for oral anti-herpetic drugs?
|
inhibits DNA synthesis
|
|
What does "indication" mean?
|
a. The indication is why you would use a drug; you can find it on the drug or company website, FDA.gov, etc
b. The indication is determined by FDA trials following animal and lab studies (Phase 3 is VERY focused and leads to labeling a drug!) |
|
how is pilocarpine mainly used today
|
1. any patient with primary angle closure glaucoma prior to laser surgery
2. acute pupil block angle closure |
|
Why do some viruses survive on inanimate surfaces while others don’t?
|
Those viruses do NOT have lipid envelopes (ex – Adenovirus)
|
|
What does using the drug "off-label" mean?
|
a. Using a prescription drug for a purpose NOT stated specifically in its indication
|
|
what is the active ingredient in Alphagan?
dosing? cap color? |
1. Brimonidine tartrate (P is the Purite preservative)
2. TID 3. PURPLE |
|
Dosing for Acyclovir?
|
HSV: 400mg, 5x a day for 7-10 days
HZV: 800mg, 5x a day for 7-10 days |
|
Phases of FDA trials
|
Look over in notes
|
|
what is the mechanism for Alphagan
|
1. decreases aqueous production (possibly increasing uveoscleral outflow)
2. reduces the production of norepinephrine and decreasing sympathetic tone |
|
Dosing for Valtrex?
|
HSV: 1 g PO BID
HZV: 1 g PO TID |
|
what does "expanded" use mean?
|
Some patients may have access to drugs in phase 3 trials even if they are not “in” the trial
|
|
what are the most significant side effects of alphagan
|
1. drowsiness
2. fatigue 3. dry mouth *no effect on BP, pulse or pulmonary function *most significant in smaller people and kids |
|
Acyclovir
Mechanism and structure |
• Purine analogue to guanine that is specific to viral cells
• Inhibit DNA synthesis • Short half life bc of poor GI absorption • Common side effects mostly GI |
|
what is the contraindication of alphagan?
when is alphagan not effective |
DO NOT USE WITH MAO INHIBITOR
does not appear to have IOP lowering effects at night/during sleep |
|
What drugs carry risk for cardiovascular disease?
|
1. beta blockers--->except topical bb ok with cardiac pacemakers
2. Alpha agonists |
|
Valacyclovir
Mechanism and function |
• Prodrug of acyclovir
• Hydrolized by esterases in GI tract, converting valacyclovir to acyclovir, therefore making more bioavailable |
|
contraindications for beta blockers
|
1. bradycardia
2. COPD/Asthma/Emphysema 3. Myasthenia gravis 4. Cerebrovascular insufficiency 5. Greater than first degree heart block |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks or dangers for renal disease?
|
Systemic anti-inflammatory drugs
|
|
Famvir
|
-prodrug of penicyclovir
-Inhibits DNA synthesis • Well-absorbed orally • Active against HSV 1 & 2 and HZV |
|
Timoptic:
active ingredient? cap color? dosing? |
Timolol (non selective)
0.25% (BLUE) 0.50% (YELLOW) BID |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks or dangers for respiratory disorders?
|
topical Beta blockers
|
|
What would be reason(s) for initiating prophylactic treatment in an ocular herpes simplex patient?
|
Prophylaxis against secondary bacterial infection of conj and cornea
|
|
what is the only beta 1 selective blocker that we've learned about
|
1. Betaxolol
2. may still exacerbate asthma 3. weaker (BID) 4. may increase nerve perfusion |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks or dangers for thyroid disease?
|
phenylephrine
|
|
how do Polyenes work?
|
-Bind to ergosterol
increase cell membrane permeability -fungistatic in low doses |
|
which beta blocker is least likely to cause bradycardia?
what demographic is it used on? |
1. Carteolol 1% (Ocupress)
2. intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and transient agonist activity 3. can be used on atheletes |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks or dangers for diabetes mellitus?
|
i. hyperosmotic agents (ex – glycerine)
ii. systemic corticosteroid therapy iii. topical beta blockers |
|
How do Pyrimidines work?
|
• aka antimetabolites
• Block thymidine synthesis in some fungi • Impairs DNA synthesis • Fungistatic – Flucytosine |
|
what type of glaucoma does beta blockers have MINIMAL affect on
|
uveitic glaucoma
|
|
Drugs that carry potential risks and dangers with CNS disorders?
|
1. Cyclopentolate
2. Topical beta blockers |
|
How do Azoles work?
|
• Impair ergosterol in cell membrane, increasing cell membrane permeability
• Fungistatic • Resistance is increasing • More interactions with other systemic drugs in this category |
|
what are the two reasons why beta blockers cant be given at night
|
1. nocturnal hypotension
2. aqueous formation decreases in the evening so beta blockers have less effect |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks and dangers with affective/mental disorders?
|
i. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
ii. Tricyclic antidepressants |
|
How do Echinocandins work?
|
• Inhibit glucan synthesis, weaken cell wall of some fungi
• Newer class of drugs including capsofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin |
|
what is the mechanism for CAI
|
1. bicarbonate make the eye hypertonic and drawing in fluid into the eye
2. by blocking bicarbonate production, it blocks osmosis into posterior chamber 3. blocks aqueous formation |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks and dangers with Pregnant patients
|
Systemic drugs
only 2 safe ones are E-mycin and penicillans |
|
Which azole drug has been reasonably good against yeast and can be used topically?
|
1. Fluconazole: mainly effective against yeasts
2. Miconazole: relatively good activity against yeast |
|
systemic contraindications for CAI
|
1. sulfa allergies
2. sickle cell disease 3. hypokalemia 4. renal disease (kidney stones) 5. liver disease |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks and dangers with MG
|
Topical Timolol
|
|
Diamox:
active ingredient? dosing? indicated? |
Acetazolamide
125, 250, 500 SR 1000mg QD p.o. indicated post surgically and for acute angle closure (250mg) |
|
Drugs that carry potential risks and dangers with Stevens-johnsons syndrome
|
i. Topical ocular sulfonamides
ii. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|
Naptazane
active ingredient? dosing? |
Methazolamide
range: 25mg BID-50mg TID much better tolerated than diamox |
|
What category of systemic medications carries the most risk for drug-drug interactions for patients taking topical beta blockers?
|
a. Cardiac glycosides – Cardiac depression
b. Quinidine – Cardiac depression c. Beta adrenergic agonists – Cardiac depression & bronchospasm d. Xanthines - Bronchospasm |
|
Trusopt
active ingredient? dosing? cap color? |
1. Dorazolamide 2%
2. Orange Cap 3. TID 4. Hyperemia due to low pH of drug |
|
List six ways to decrease systemic effects of ocular medications
|
1. keep medications out of childrens reach
2. advise pt to wipe away excess drug from lids after instillation 3. Avoid overdosing 4.Confirm the dosage of infrequently used drugs before prescribing before administering them 5.Consider the potential adverse effects of a drug relative to its potential diagnostic or therapeutic benefit. Warn patients so that they can get an informed consent 6. consult with primary care physician 7.Recognize adverse drug reactions |
|
Azopt
active ingredient? dosing? cap color? |
1. Brinzolamide Suspension 1%
2. TID 3. ORANGE 4. significantly more comfortable and better tolerated than Trusopt |
|
Chloramphenicol: Clinical circumstance and systemic adverse effect?
|
Tx of ocular infxns
A/E= Bone marrow suppression and fatal aplastic anemia |
|
what type of glaucoma does CAI works very well in
|
uveitic glaucoma
|
|
Beta blockers: clinical circumstance under which adverse effect and systemic effect
|
clinical circumstance: Open angle glaucoma
A/E:Decrease cardiac rate, syncope, exercise intolerance, bronchospasm, emotional, psychiatric disorder |
|
avoid using in topical CAI's in patients with...(3)
|
1. compromised corneal endothelium
2. sulfa allergies 3. renal stones Hx |
|
Brimonidine:clinical circumstance under which adverse effect and systemic effect?
|
tx of open angle glaucoma
A/E:Dry mouth, CNS effect including fatigue and lethargy |
|
what glaucoma drugs are available generically
|
1. latanoprost
2. pilocarpine 3. timolol 4. betaxolol 5. carteolol 6. brimonidine (0.2% and 0.15%) 7. COSOPT |
|
Echothiophate:clinical circumstance under which adverse effect and systemic effect?
|
Treatment of open angle glaucoma when succinyl choline is used as skeletal muscle relaxant during surgery requiring general anesthesia
A/E: Prolonged apnea |
|
what are the pregnancy categories
|
A: SAFE for humans
B: SAFE for animals or fail to demonstrate risk in humans C: AE in animals or NO HUMAN TRIALS D: TRIALS SHOW HARM TO HUMANS X: CONTRAINDICATION!! |
|
Pilocarpine:clinical circumstance under which adverse effect and systemic effect?
|
Overdosage in treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma
A/E Nausea, vomiting, sweating, tremor, bradycardia |
|
excessive use of anti infectives can cause...
|
1. hypersensitivity or toxicity reactions
2. superinfections 3. facilitate resistance |
|
Cyclopentolate
|
Overdosing for cycloplegic rxn
A/E: Hallucinatory behavior |
|
Clark’s rule, given the weight of a child in kg and in lbs.
|
a. Pediatric dose = adult dose x (weight(kg)/70) or adult dose x (weight(lb)/150)
|
|
what are the side effects of oral antibiotics
|
1. rash, fever, itching anaphylaxis, bronchospasm
2. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea 3. disruption of normal flora 4. kidney, liver, and other drug interaction 5. OTOTOXICITY |
|
what is the normal volume of tear film?
|
8-10mcl
|
|
antibioitic resistance (3)
|
1. produce enzymes
2. change bind site 3. blocks entry or pump back out |
|
Normal capacity of the ocular surface and cul-de-sac?
|
30
|
|
NEVER USE ANTIBIOTICS BELOW THERAPEUTIC DOSE
|
NEVER USE ANTIBIOTICS BELOW THERAPEUTIC DOSE
|
|
Average size of and eye drop?
|
50mcl or .05ml
|
|
what is MIC?
what does it tell you? |
1. minimum inhibitory concentration
2. if MIC is higher than blood, bacteria is RESISTANT 3. if MIC is lower than blood, bacteria is SUSCEPTIBLE |
|
Normal rate of basal tear flow?
|
.5-2.2mcl/min
|
|
what are the FIVE main classes of Oral Antibiotics
|
1. Penicillins
2. Cephalosporins 3. Macrolides 4. Fluoroquinolones 5. Tetracyclines QD or BID |
|
5. What effect does dry eye syndrome (decreased tear volume) have on the rate of ocular absorption of topically applied drugs?
|
a. Increased ocular drug absorption
b. Because lacrimation is reduced, the drug is not rapidly diluted by the tears which prolongs the time next to the corneal surface i. This is where most of the absorption occurs c. The total tear film for these patients is less than normal, so the drop of a medication is not diluted as much as usual |
|
Augmentin
what is it? dosing? when is it used |
Amoxicillin and Clavulanate
500mg BID x 7 days kids active against H.flu |
|
What effect does reflex tearing have on the concentration of the drug at the ocular surface?
If a drug is deliberately manufactured with the expectation of reflex tearing when the drop hits the ocular surface. what effect will occur if the patient is unable to tear properly? |
1. Reflex tearing prevents adequate absorption of the drug at the ocular surface
2. These drugs are formulated at high concentration to offset the dilution and washout that occur from tear flow. 3. Patients with dry eyes that do not tear readily can absorb greatly exaggerated doses of topically applied medications. |
|
Dicloxacillin
when is it used? dosing |
1. internal hordeolum, preseptal cellulitis, decryocystitis, orbital blow out
2. 250mg QID x 7days |
|
Identify if structure is lipophilic or hydrophilic
Corneal epithelium Corneal stroma Aqueous humor Iris epithelium pigment granules Anterior surface of the crystalline lens |
corneal epithelium-both
corneal stroma-both aqueous humor-hydrophillic Iris-lipophillic Lens-lipophillic |
|
what is a pro drug of ampicillin
|
Amoxicillin
|
|
Function of corneal endothelium
|
Look up
|
|
route of administration for penicillin
|
SYSTEMIC DRUG ONLY
combine with probenecid to decrease kidney elimination *topical yield high incidence of allergy |
|
Match the SPHINCTER with the right cholinergic or adrenergic system and proper neurotransmitter
|
miosis-->can be accomplished by endogenous or exogenous acetylcholine or by cholinergic stimulation
|
|
mechanism of penicillin?
pregnancy catagory? |
1. disrupt cross linking in cell wall, so it works well against gram POSITIVE
2. bactericidal 3. category B!! |
|
Cephalexin:
generation dosing |
1. FIRST GENERATION
2. 500mg BID x 7days |
|
Match the DILATOR with the right cholinergic or adrenergic system and proper neurotransmitter
|
b. Mydriasis can be accomplished by an adrenergic stimulant, such as epinephrine (which acts on the dilator musculature), or by an antagonist to acetylcholine (which allows relaxation of the sphincter
|
|
1. mechanism of macrolide
2. macrolide resistance |
1. binds to 50s
2. resistance developing by altering binding site on ribosome |
|
10. Where is the aqueous humor formed? Through what forces or mechanisms does the aqueous circulate in the anterior chamber?
|
a. Aqueous humor is formed by the CILIARY BODY and occupies the posterior and anterior chambers
b. It flows from the posterior chamber through the pupil and then slowly circles in the anterior chamber, circulated by the THERMAL DIFFERENTIAL between the cornea and the deeper ocular tissues |
|
what is the drug of choice of chlamydia in kids and pg/nursing women
|
erythromycin
QID (mg varies with adult/child) |
|
11. What percentage of aqueous humor is removed from the anterior chamber through nonconventional (uveoscleral) pathways?
|
20%
|
|
what are the pregnancy categories for macrolides (3)
|
1. B: azithromycin and erythromycin
2. C: clarithromycin (DO NOT USE IN PG WOMEN) |
|
Which ocular structure is primarily responsible for drug metabolism (breakdown)?
|
Ciliary body
|
|
what is dosing for Clarithromycin?
what is it used for mainly |
250-500mg BID x 7 days
used for respiratory tract infections and skin infections (gram + plus H.flu) |
|
What category of chemicals may prevent or delay the onset of diabetic-related cataract?
|
aldose-reductase inhibitors
|
|
what are the three dosings for azithromycin
|
Z PAC:
Two 250mg QD on day one then 250mg QD 2-5 days Zithromax Tripak: Three 500mg, one per day (ADULTS ONLY) Zmax: SINGLE 2g dose with extended release |
|
what would be the overall effect at the macula of topically applied drugs before and after cataract surgery? (compare)
|
a. Lens acts as a barrier b/w aqueous and vitreous, so this barrier is removed after cataract surgery.
b. Drug concentrations increase in retinal tissue after lens is removed, compared to before cataract surgery |
|
what is the dosing for Ciprofloxacin (p.o.)
|
500mg BID x 1 week
|
|
Describe the blood-retinal barrier and how it resembles the blood-brain barrier. What does this mean when considering retinal toxicity from systemic drugs?
|
a. The retina is a developmental derivative of the neural tube wall and can be viewed as a direct extension of the brain; it is not surprising that the blood–retinal barrier somewhat resembles the blood–brain barrier in form and function.
b. Histamine does not alter the vascular permeability of the retina but does affect that of all other ocular tissues. i. The retina closely resembles the brain with respect to this trait. c. The barrier protects against the entry of a wide variety of metabolites and toxins and is effective against most hydrophilic drugs, which do not cross the plasma membrane |
|
what is the dosing for Levofloxacin
|
500mg QD x 1 week
|
|
what is the mechanism for removal of drugs through the retinal vessels?
|
a. The retinal vessels can remove many drugs, metabolites, and such agents as prostaglandins from the vitreous humor and retina, apparently by ACTIVE TRANSPORT.
|
|
what is the dosing for Ofloxacin
|
400mg BID x 1 week
|
|
What is the mechanism of drug removal by the uveal vessels?
|
By the iris and ciliary body via bulk transport aka uveoscleral outflow
|
|
what are the adverse
|
1. nausea/vomiting/diarrhea/ab pain
2. phototoxicity 3. should not be used in kids under 18 yr, pregnant women, or in pts with CNS disorders |
|
what is a prodrug?
|
• When the metabolite of a drug is more active at the receptor site than is the parent form, the drug is often termed a prodrug
• A prodrug must metabolize predictably to the effective drug form before it reaches the receptor site |
|
Advantage of Prodrug?
|
• The greatest advantage of prodrugs is the potential to add groups that mask features of the drug molecule that prevent penetration or have other undesirable effects.
• Prodrug design can be a useful way of increasing penetration of a therapeutic |
|
Active Metabolite?
|
Placed in the eye and then becomes inactivated with less side effects
example: Loteprednol etabonate is an active metabolite of a prednisolone-related compound that predictably and rapidly undergoes transformation by enzymes in the eye to an inactive form associated with fewer side effects. |
|
List and briefly describe bioavailablity?
|
a. Bioavailability describes the amount of drug present at the desired receptor site.
a. A time sufficient to produce the desired action. The dose level producing a response that is 50% of maximum is termed the ED50 b. An effective dose level must be present for a time sufficient to produce the desired action. c. The requirements for concentration and time to achieve ED50 differ widely, depending on the mechanism of action of the drug and the desired response. |
|
4 things that contribute to bioavailability?
|
1. Stability
2. Osmolarity 3. Active Ingredients 4. Preservatives |
|
Describe BAC?
|
• The quaternary surfactants benzalkonium chloride (BAC) and benzethonium chloride are preferred by many manufacturers because of their stability, excellent antimicrobial properties in acid formulation, and long shelf life.
• They exhibit toxic effects on both the tear film and the corneal epithelium and have long been known to increase drug penetration |
|
Disadvantages of BAK?
|
-toxicity maybe increased with inc in acidity
-reduces tear breakup time by 1/2 - neither protects corneal epi or promotes oily stable tear surface |
|
21. What are two examples of topical drug release systems?
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b. The first is a device of low permeability filled with drug (Ocusert), which has been discontinued.
c. The second is a polymer that is completely soluble in lacrimal fluid, formulated with drug in its matrix (Lacrisert). d. Both systems can be made to approach zero-order kinetics. e. However, patient acceptance has been poor. |