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126 Cards in this Set

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Andrew Taylor still founded osteopathic medicine in what year?
1874
Date of first osteopathic medical school?
1892
Dr Andrew Taylor Still (MD AND DO) had what position in the military?
Medical Officer in Union Army during Civil War
What are four pieces to osteopathic philosophy?
1. The person is a unit of body, mind, and spirit. 2. The body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance. 3. Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated. 4. Rational treatment is based upon an understanding of these Fryette's Principles.
in what year did the AMA tried to swallow the osteopathic profession ?
1960's
LECOM Erie was founded in what year?
1993
What is TART?
T - Tissue Texture changes. A - Asymmetry R - Restriction of Motion . T - Tenderness
In the thoracic and lumbar areas, a hypertympanic reaction to percussion appears to be associated with what?
the side of the rotational component.
Temperature is increased in Acute or Chronic SD?
acute
Texture is Boggy/Rough in Acute or Chronic SD?
acute
Moisture is increased in Acute or Chronic SD?
acute
Tenderness is acute or chronic SD?
both
Edema is in acute or chronic SD?
acute
Blood vessels have venous congestion in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
acute
Redness fades quickly or blanching occurs in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
chronic
redness lasts in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
acute
Smooth/Thin, Ropy/stringy characterizes ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
chronic
Neovascularization occurs with blood vessels in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
chronic
increased muscle tone, contraction and spasm occurs in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
acute
muscle is not as tone, flaccid, and with limited ROM in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
chronic
somatovisceral effects are common in ACUTE or CHRONIC SD?
chronic
of the different types of Vertebrae, which are recognizable by bifid spinous processes and large transverse foramina?
cervical
of the different types of vertebrae, which are recognizable by long sloping spinous processes and costal facets for ribs
thoracic
of the dif types of Vertebrae, which are recognizable by short, broad, blunt spinous processes.
lumbar
Herniation of the IV disc Typically occurs in a ____ direction (no longitudinal ligament support).
posteriolateral
How are Zygapophysial Joints oriented in cervical vertebrae?
C-spine (greatest mobility) – oriented in a 45⁰ angle from transverse plane.
How are Zygapophysial Joints oriented in Thoracic vertebrae?
T-spine – oriented in a 60⁰ angle from the transverse plane.
How are Zygapophysial Joints oriented in lumbar vertebrae?
L-spine – oriented in a 90⁰ angle from the transverse plane.
Uncovertebral Joints (aka joints of Luschka) are found in what region of the spine?
Located in the uncinate processes of the symphasis joints of C-spine vertebrae.
While the cervical spine accounts for 90% of flexion and extension of the spine- what joint accounts for half of this?
Occipitoatlanto Joint (OA)
Atlantoaxial Joint (AA) Exists between what two vertebrae?
C1-C2
While the cervical spine accounts for 90% of rotation of the spine - what joint accounts for half of this?
Atlantoaxial Joint (AA)
what joint permits approximately 50% of the C-spine’s rotation?
Atlantoaxial Joint (AA)
What joint Pivots around the dens of the Axis (rotation is the only motion possible here).
Atlantoaxial Joint (AA)
what joint's Movement is checked by alar ligaments and the transverse ligament of the atlas.
Atlantoaxial Joint (AA)
What joint Exists between the occiput and C1 (the atlas)?
Occipitoatlanto Joint (OA)
Slight nodding of the head (up-and-down) occurs at this joint.
Occipitoatlanto Joint (OA)
Occipital condyles on the occiput on this joint articulate with superior articular facets on the atlas.
Occipitoatlanto Joint (OA)
what ligament of the vert column connects adjacent laminae?
Ligamentum flavum (“yellow ligament”)
what ligament of the vert column Consists primarily of elastic tissue to aid in extension.
Ligamentum flavum (“yellow ligament”)
where are alar ligaments located?
Located between the dens of the axis and the margins of the foramen magnum.
what do alar ligaments do?
Function to limit the roation of the atlantoaxial joint.
Where is the Transverse ligament of the atlas located?
Located between the superior articular facets of the atlas, “hugging” the dens
what is the purpose of the Transverse ligament of the atlas?
Function to prevent posterior slippage between C1 and C2, protecting the spinal cord
what occurs in Spina Bifida ?
vertebral arches fail to fuse during development, resulting in an ‘open’ vert. canal
what occurs in spondylolisthesis?
anterior displacement of a vertebrae due to fracture of vertebral laminae.
what is the SD term for - narrowing of vertebral foramina; incr. odds of spinal compression?
Spinal Foraminal Stenosis
What SD involves a Barrel Chest and Increased A-P Diameter?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
What is Wolff's Law
bone is laid down along lines of stress
what does the lumbar spine do in response to short leg syndrome - in order to keep eyes level?
1. lumbar spine rotates toward short side. 2. lumbar spine side bends to long side
IN VS reflex - Visceral dysfunction can cause reflex ___ activity in the paravertebral musculature of associated spinal level
sympathetic
vert level of iliac crest?
L4
vert level of PSIS?
S2
Suprasternal Notch is at what vert level?
T2
vert level of Angle of Louis?
T4
Xiphoid Process is at what verrt level?
T9
vert level of Spine of Scapula
T3
Inferior angle of scapula is at what vert level?
spinous process of T7 and transverse processes of T8
Describe Physiologic motion
Physiologic: changes in position of body structures within the normal range
describe Inherent motion
Inherent: spontaneous motion of every cell, organ, system, component of the body
describe Translatory motion
Translatory: motion of a body part along an axis
which method involves: any osteopathic treatment strategy by which the restrictive barrier is engaged and a final activating force is applied to correct somatic dysfunction
DIRECT METHOD (D/DIR)
which method involves: a manipulative technique where the restrictive barrier is disengaged; the dysfunctional body part is moved away from the restrictive barrier until tissue tension is equal in one or all plane and directions.
Indirect method (I/IND)
what is the difference between a restrictive barrier and a pathological barrier?
Pathologic barrier: permanent restriction of joint motion associated with pathological change of tissue ( e.g. contracture, osteophytes) PERMANENT - wheras Restrictive barrier: a functional limit within the anatomic range of motion, which abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic range (NOT PERMANENT)
what is the CORRECT definition for SD?
Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic/ body framework system: skeletal, arthrodial, myofascial and the related vascular, lymphatic and related neural elements.
How does pain (subj., perception) differ from tenderness (subj, sense of the tissue)?
Tenderness is subjective with physician, requires asking patient. Pain is also subjective but not associated with palpatory stimulus
body builders who do not stretch causes build up of fibrous CT. This myofascial shortening causes what to the active and passive ranges of motion?
Increases passive range of motion, decreases active range of motion
Besides OMM, what else can change the physiological barrier?
Stretching
The pathology of MAJOR or MINOR motion loss involves Going through PROM and motion stops abruptly, with no end feel - no ligamentous resistance.
MINOR
Sternoclavicular (sternum and clavicle) – what type of joint?
saddle joint.
Acromioclavicular – what type of joint?
planar
of vert column - flexion/extension occurs in the sagittal plane about a ___ axis
transverse
of vert column - side bending occurs in the coronal plane about an ___ axis
anterior/posterior (AP)
of vert column - rotation occurs in the transverse plane about a ___ axis
vertical/longitudinal
of sternoclavicular movemnt, Elevation and depression of clavicle on sternum occurs about a ___ axis
AP axis
of sternoclavicular movemnt, Internal & external rotation of shoulder girdle occurs about a ___ axis
Transverse axis
of sternoclavicular movemnt, Protraction and retraction of shoulder girdle
occurs about a ___ axis
Longitudinal axis
tibiofibular joint is what type of joint?
planar
Sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?
planar
what joint connects the shoulder girdle with the trunk?
sternoclavicular
what joint Connects the clavicle with the acromion process of the scapulae
Acromioclavicular (AC) Joint
of gelnohumeral joint, flexion and extension of humerus occurs over which axis?
Transverse axis
of gelnohumeral joint, adduction and abduction of humerus occurs over which axis?
AP axis
of gelnohumeral joint, internal and external rotation of humerus occurs over which axis?
Longitudinal axis
temperomandibular joint is what type of joint?
hinge
Femorotibial joint is what type of joint?
hinge
the humeroulnar joint has approx how many degrees of motion?
190
the femortibial joint has approx how many degrees of motion?
160
the radioulnar joint is what type of joint?
uniaxial
the radiocarpal joint is an example of what type of joint?
ellipsoid
Fryette's Fryette's Principle 1. neutral mechanix. When the spine is in neutral position and sidebending is introduced, the vertebrae rotate toward the _____
convexity
what is Fryette's Principle II-Non-Neutral Mechanics?
When flexion or extension is sufficient to localize force to a single segment, the vertebra rotates into the concavity
Fryette's Principle II-Non-Neutral Mechanics involves rotation (of vert bodies) and sidebending to the same OR opposite side?
same
What is Fryette's III Principle?
The motion of a vertebral segment in any plane will modify(restrict) movement of that segment in the other planes of motion.
A SD exhaled rib completes full ___ motion, but is restricted on _____.
exhalation ; inhalation
which vertebrae is in approximate center of load bearing with ideal posture?
L4 (posture and gait lecture says L3).
What is Fryette's III Principle?
The motion of a vertebral segment in any plane will modify(restrict) movement of that segment in the other planes of motion.
motion or somatic dysfunction of “C2” means the motion of Cx? on Cx?.
C2 on C3
rotation > flexion/extension > SB applies in which region of the spine?
thoracic
flexion/extension > SB > rotation applies in which region of the spine?
lumbar
What is the orientation of the superior facets in the different regions of the spine?
BUM, BUL, BM. Cervical Backward Upward Medial. Thoracic Lateral. And Lumbar Medial again with hardly any upward tilting component (allowing greater flexion)
"L TP approximate" indicated sidebent Left or Right?
Left (TP for transverse processes)
"R TP approximate" indicated sidebent Left or Right?
Right (TP for transverse processes)
what is the notation for "L3 in neutral position(resting lordosis), sidebent left and rotated right on L4"?
L3 NSLRR
what is the notation for "T2 on T3 is neutral (resting kyphosis), sidebent right and rotated left"?
T2 NSRRL
vertebral bodies determine Type 1 or Type 2 motions?
Type 1
articular facets determine Type 1 or Type 2 motions?
Type 2
Because of the 10-45 deg angle of the synovial facets in the cervical area, the uncinate processes, the joints of Luschka, and the shape and location of the disks, rotation and sidebending will occur together and to the ____ side.
same
sidebending precedes rotation in Type 1 or Type 2 mechanics?
Type 1
rotation precedes sidebending in Type 1 or Type 2 mechanics?
Type 2
the sympathetic nervous system travels symp chains from ___ to ___ bilaterally. Posterior to pluera.
T1 to L2
PNS has ganglia associated with what cranial nerves?
3,7,9,10
PNS has what sacral nerves?
S2- S4
dermatomal levels for heart pain?
heart - T1 to T5, chest, shoulder, neck, jaw
dermatomal level for asthma?
T2
dermatomal levels for prostate?
T12 - L2
dermatomal level for appendicitis?
T10-11
Facilitated segments are chronically ____ and ____
hyperirritable; hyperresponsive
dermatomal level for stomach?
T5 -T9 on the left
dermatomal level for gallbladder?
T5 -T9 on the right
dermatomal level for esophagus?
T4 - T5 right, T5 - T9 on left (lower esophagus and stomach) [ie. GERD]
what are three steps of palpation?
 The first step in the process of palpation is detection, the second step is amplification, and the third step must therefore be interpretation.
what are four qualities of motion?
smooth, racheting, restricted, moving but resitance to motion introduced.
What is end-feel?
essentially the elastic barrier.
“End feel”
between the physiologic barrier and the anatomic barrier tension increases far more rapidly.
as motion continues, a “springy resiliency or “end feel” indicates the endpoint of motion as you approach the anatomic barrier. (fights you as you approach the anatomic barrier)