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164 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the roles of inflammation?
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it isia protective response, it attempts to eliminate the initial cause of cellular injury and necrotic cells, it is involved in the process of repair, and it has the potential to cause further harm. It has two components, Vascular and Cellular.
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What are the components of vascular inflammation?
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vasodilation and structural changes that result in increased permiablility
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what are the components of cellular inflammation?
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emigration of leukocytes to from the circulation to the point of injury.
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What are the stimuli and the characteristics of acute inflammation?
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stimuli - infectious, physical, chemical, immunologic, and necrotic agents. characteristics - short, exudation of fluids and protiens, emigration of WBC's, stereotypic pattern and platelets.
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what is the difference between edema and purulent exudate?
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edema is excess interstitial or serous cavity fluid, and the other is fluid rich in leukocytes and cellular debris.
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what is the difference between exudate and transudate
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protein content. exudate has SG higher than 1.015
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In vascular leakage, what causes the endothelial contraction to occur to open up the gaps?
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(it occurs in the venules) histamine, leukotrienes, etc.
(toxins, burns, chemicals in all vessels) |
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What causes the Gaps to undergo cytoskeletal reorganization in vascular leakage?
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(in venules and capillaries) cytokines, IL-1, TNF, hypoxia
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Waht is margination and rolling?
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Leukocytes are swept against the vascular wall in post-cappilary venules due to flow dynamics and stick as they roll along. (because of selectins)
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What are selectins?
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receptors on leukocytes (L-selectins) and endothelium (E-selectins)Histamine causes E-selectins to go to surface of cell so when a leukocyte rolls by, it binds to the L-selectins to slow it down so it can come out of circulation. They have a very low affinity
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What are integrins?
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cell surface receptors that bind to the ECM & mediate intracellular signals. Define cell shape, motility, and cycle. Also aid in cell to cell attachments. They also transduce signals
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What is transmigration
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migration of a leukocyte through a vessel wall at an intercellular junction.Mediated by PECAM-1
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What is Chemotaxis?
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Locomotion along a chemical gradient. Can be endogenous or exogenous.
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What do chemotactic agents do?
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they cause the migration of WBC's and the activation of leukocytes. The leukocytes produce arachadonic acid metabolites. It also causes them to degranulate, secrete lysosomal enzymes and cause the modulation of adhesion molecules
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What activate Leukocytes?
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Microbes, products of necrotic cells, and mediators.
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What are the steps of phagocytosis?
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recognition( by opsonins, or microbes or dead cells) and attachment, engulfment (triggered by binding of the Fc part of IgG with the opsonin), and degradation
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What are the two forms of degradation in phagocytosis?
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oxygen dependant-dependent on NADPH and reactive oxygen species such as hydrogen peroxide.
oxygen independant- granule release |
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What is Leukocyte-induced tissue injury?
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the products of the phagolysosome are released into the extracellular space and cause damage.
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What defects can be found in Leukocyte function?
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Neutropenia (low WBC count), adhesion, phagocytosis, migration, chemotaxis, and microbial activity
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What are the chemical mediators of inflammation used for?
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amplification, they are short lived, they are from the plasma and are produced locally, and they may target one or many types of cells
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How is the Acute inflammatory response terminated?
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short half-lives. Inflammation triggers stop signals - switch from pro leukotrienes to anti lipoxins, TGF-beta is released from macrophages, Neural impulses that inhibit the production of TNF from macrophages
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what role does Histamine play in inflammation?
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released by mast cells, basophils and platelets. Causes dilation of arterioles and increases vascular permiability (Gap formation)
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What causes Histamine to be released from mast cells?
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IgE reactions (asthma), Anaphylactoxins (C3a and C3b) leukocyte proteins, cytokines IL-1 and IL-8
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Where does serotonin come from?
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released from platelets when they aggregate
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What are the important parts of the classical complement system?
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classical starts with an activated IgM or IgG molecule. C3a, C5a, and C4a become an anaphalactic toxin. C3b becomes opsoinin and is responsible for splitting C5.
C5a also becomes a chemotactic factor for granulocytes and monocytes, and activates the lipoxygenase pathway. C5b contiunes on the pathway |
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What parts of the classical complement system become opsonins?
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Fc portion of IgG and C3b, opsonins are binding enhancers for phagocytosis
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How is the complement system regulated?
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short half life, proteolytic inactivation, binding of active components, and cell membrane associated molecules
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What is the Kinin system
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increases vascular permiability by releasing bradykinins, causes smooth muscle contraction and blood vessel dilation and PAIN.
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What is the difference between the alternate and the classical pathway systems?
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alternate binds to a cell starting at C3. Classical starts at C1 with an activated IgG or IgM.
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What activates the Kinin system?
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Factor 12a from the clotting system
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What role does Factor 10a from the clotting system play in the inflammation?
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it increases vascular permiability.
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What are the roles of prostiglandin PGI2 in inflammation?
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causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregagation
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what are the roles of prostiglandin TXA2 in inflammation?
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causes vaso constriction and promotes platelet aggregagation
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What are the roles of leukotriene B4 in inflammation?
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causes vasoconstriction, bronchspasm (asthma) and vascular permiability
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what are leukotrienes and prostaglandins derived from?
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arachadonic acid
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What are Platelet Activating Factors?
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produced by mast cells and causes platelet aggregagation and release and bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permiability, much more potent than histamine
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What are the systemic effects of IL-1 and TNF?
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fever, sleepy, less appetite, shock, neutrophilia
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what are the local effects of IL-1 and TNF?
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increased leukocyte adherance by stimulstting endothelial cells to produce adhesion molecules, PG1 synthesis, procoagulant activity, and decreased anticoagulent activity, and induces repair of damaged area
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What does Nitric Oxide do in inflammation?
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produced by endothelial cells, macrophages, and neurons. Causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregagation. It is toxic for microbes!
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What causes chronic inflammation?
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prolonged acute inflammation, fungi, TB, foreign bodies, persistent infections, autoimmune diseases
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What is the main characteristic seen in chronic inflammation?
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tissue destruction and attempted healing by connective tissue (Scar formation), angiogenesis, and fibrosis
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What is the primary cell of chronic inflammation?
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monocyte/macrophage (also see B and T cells, mast cells, eosinophils, and neutrophils)
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Where does macrophage proliferation occur?
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at the sight of injury or inflammation
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what is granulomatous inflammation?
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chronic infection where giant cells are formed. Can occur because of foriegn diesease or can happen spontaneously
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What is a serous inflammation?
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thin fluid with few cells (blister)
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What is a fibrinous inflammation?
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large ammount of fibrin, leads to a scar
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What is purulent inflammation?
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has dead cells and debris and WBC in the fluid (pus)
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What are the systemic effects of chronic inflammation?
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fever and leukocytosis (and a little bit of leukopenia as well)
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What are the differences between Labile Quiescent and nondividing cells?
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labile - proliferating throughout life
quiescent - normally don't replicate, but can if needed to nondividing - no proliferation after birth |
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what is asymemetric replicsation?
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stem cell division. Doesn't lead to the same thing can become something different with each replication
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what does transdifferentiation mean?
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a change in stem cell differentiation from one cell type to another
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What are polypeptide growth factors used for?
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cell replication, migration, differentiation, and synthesis if specialized proteins. (have pleiotropci effects) they target the function of protooncogenes
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What are the mechanisms of action for the soluble chemical mediators of cell growth?
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autocrine - stimulates same cell
paracrine - stimulates cells nearby endocrine - into vessels to go elsewhere |
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What are the 3 types of cell surface receptors?
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receptors with (causes dimerization of the receptor and autophosphorylation) and without (recruit cytosolic kinases or activate other plathways to generate a 2nd messenger) intrinsic kinase activity, and G protein-linked receptors
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Where can cell receptors found?
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cell surface, cytoplasm, in the nucleus
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What transfers information to the nucleus in cell growth regulation?
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Ras activation and MAP-kinases. (also IP3 and PI3 pathways and phopholipase C)
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What are cyclins and cyclin dependant kinases used for?
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control the entry and progression of the cell through the cell cycle. Cylcins also form complexes with the cyclin dependant kinases so they can perfom their function too.
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What are cyclins responsible for?
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DNA replication, Depolymerization of nuclear lamina, and formation of mitotic spindles
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What are the checkpoint in cell growth used for?
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surveillance. If a critical transition occurs, the cell will stop proliferation and fix the problem, if the problem can't be fixed, the cell will undergo apoptosis
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What is the important thing to remember about Epidermal growth factor?
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Uses the same receptor as Transforming Growth factor-alpha.
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What is the important role of platelet-derived growth factor?
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causes migration and proliferation of fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells, and monocytes
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What is the important thing to remember about Fibroblast growth factor?
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the basic (FGF-2) one induces angiogenesis (new blood vessel formation). It also plays a role in wound repair, development, and hematopoeisis
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What is the important thing to remember about Transforming growth factor-beta?
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in lowel concentrations, it promotes growth by inducing the synthesis and secretion of PDGF. In high concentrations, it inhibits PDGF receptors, inhibiting growth.
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What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor?
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angiogenesis
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what is the role of IL-1 and TNF cytokines
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induces fibroblast chemotaxis and proliferation, that stimulates the synthesis of collagen and collagenase
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What does congenital mean?
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disease present at birth, does not mean it is genetic (not all genetic diseases are congenital as well)
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What is the difference between genome and chromosomal mutations
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genome is the loss or gain of chromosomes, chromosomal is the rearrangement of genetic material
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What is point mutation and what is the difference between conservative and non-conservative point mutations?
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change in a single nucleotide thay may lead to achange in an amino acid.
conservsative- little or no change in function nonconservative- big change in function |
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what is a nonsense point mutation?
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creates a stop codon
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what are frameshift mutations?
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leads to an alteration in the reading frame of the DNA strand. (deletion or insertion of 1,2,etc, not 3)
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What happens in a trinucleotide repeat mutation?
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amplification of a sequence of 3 nucleotides. The degree of amplification increases in gametogenesis
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what does euploid mean?
what does aneuploidy mean? |
exact mutiple of 23 chromosomes.
not exact multiple of 23 |
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penetrance?
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% of individuals with an autosomal dominant gene that express the trait.
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pleiotrophy?
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a single gene mutation may lead to many phenotrophic effects in one patient
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variable expressivity?
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variety of different problems from patient to patient with the same autosomal dominant disease
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Autosomal dominant disorders
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manifested in heterozygous state. one parent affected. Both sexes effected equally and both can transmit. Each child has 50% chance of getting it if one parent is effected. Onset can be delayed
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What are the two major non-enzyme proteins effeced in autosomal dominant disorders?
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proteins involved in the regulation of complex metabolic pathways (membrane receptors and transport proteins), and key structural proteins.
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what are autosomal recessive disorders?
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usually homozygous. both parents posess gene, but don't demonstrate disorder. Child has 25% chance. Onset usually early in life. Usually effects enzymes
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X-linked disorders
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usually recessive. transmitted by heterozygous female, usually only seen in sons. Father doesn't pass to sons, but all daughters will be carriers.
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where is the interstitial matrix found in the body?
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spaces between cells and connective tissue, and between epithelia and supporting vascular and smooth muscle.
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Where is the basement membrane found?
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around eepithelial cells, edothelial cells, and smooth muscle cells. It is synthesized by epithelium and mesenchymal cells. Type 4 collagen.
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What are the roles of the extracellular matrix?
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mechanical support, the polarity of the cell,
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What are the components of the extracelllular matrix
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fibrous structural protiens, adhesive glycoproteins, proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid
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What is the structure of collagen and what are the 4 common types?
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triple helix of 3 polypeptide alpha chains.
I- everywhere II- articular cartilage III- early scar formation IV- basement membrane |
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What role does elastin fibrillin and elastic play?
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provides the ability to stretch and recoil.
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What are the adhesive glycoproteins and integrins?
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fibronectin, lamininm and integrins
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what is fibronectin?
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associated with cell surfaces, basement membranes, and pericellular matrices. It binds ECM components and to cells, and regulates the sensetivity of cells to growth factors.
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What is the most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and what else is it used for?
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Laminin - (cross) binds to cell receptors on one side, and to matrix components on the other (connects cells to connective tissue). It alters growth, survival, morphology.
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what adhesive glycoprotein mediates cell-cell interactions and takes a signal across the membrane into the cell?
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integrins
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What is cancer cachexia?
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progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass accompanied by profound weakness and anemia. It can appear before the tumor is clinically evident.
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What is the pathophysiology of cancer cachexia?
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TNF - causes decreased appetite
IL-1 IFN-gamma |
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What is paraneoplastic syndrome?
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symptoms that cant be explained by local or distant spread of the tumor, or by the elaboration of hormones indiginous to the tissue from which the tumor arose.Can represent the earliest manifestation of a malignancy, and may mimic metastatic diseases, and occurs in 10-15% of people that are malignant.
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what is the most common endocrinopathy? What disease is also found in 50% of the patients? Why?
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Cushing's syndrome, lung disease. Because tumor in lung is producing ACTH w/o any inhibitors
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What are the two types of hypercalcemia?
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osteolysis caused by a tumor in the bone itself, releasing Ca into the blood.
paraneoplastic - tumor somewhere else producing PTH |
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What is migratory thrombophlebitis?
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thrombi appear in the veins and release thrombogenic factors
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what is edema?
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increased fluid in the interstitial tissues, abnormal accumulation of fluid within body cavities.
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what is anasarca?
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severe general edema
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what is ascites?
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collection of fluid in the abdominal cavity
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wat is pleural effusion, or hydrothorax
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collection of fluid in the pleural cavity
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what is pericardial effusion, or hydropericardium?
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fluid in the pericardial sac
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what symptoms can cause edema?
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increased hydrostatic pressure
reduced plasma oncotic pressure sodium retention lymphatic obstruction inflammation |
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what can cause a local increae in hydrostatic pressure?
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venous obstruction, caused by a thrombosis, external compression, or inactivity of the lower extremity
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what can cause systemic increased hydrostatic pressure?
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congestive heart failure, constrictive pericarditis, and cirrhosis
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how can you have a systemic decrease in plasma oncotic pressure?
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albumin loss because of renal disease-nephrotic syndrome or protein losing gastroenteropathy, and a decreased synthesis of albumin due to liver disease
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what can cause a lymphatic obstruction that can lead to a local edema
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neoplastic or inflammatory obstruction, surgery, radiation, or parasitic infection
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how can sodium retention lead to a generalized edema?
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excessive salt and renal insufficiency, decreased renal perfusion
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what is dependent edema?
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edema effected by gravity and body position
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what is hyperemia?
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blushing caused by increased blood flow and arteriole dilation (active)
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what is congestion?
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impaired outflow of venous blood (passive)
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what is hypovolemic shock?
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hemorrhagic shock, loss of more than 20% of blood volume
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what is shock?
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systemic hypoperfusionowing to a reduction in either cardiac output or in the effective circulating blood volume.
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what is cardiogenic shock?
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cardiac failure. - can happen because of myocardial damage, ventricular arrhythmias, extrinsic compression, outflow obstruction
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what is septic shock?
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systemic microbial infection (mostly gram negative, but can be positive or fungal too)
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what are the signs of shock?
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hypotension, tachycardia, cool clammy skin, oliguria, change in mental status
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what happens in the brain, kidneys, heart, and lungs when shock occurs?
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brain- encephalpathy
kidneys- acute tubular necrosis heart- contraction band necrosis lungs- respiratory distress syndrome |
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what are the potential risks of thrombosis?
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decreased vascular flow, embolize, obstruct blood flow
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what can cause thrombosis?
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endothelial injury, changes in laminar blood flow, hypercoagulability
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what is an emboli?
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A detached intravascular mass that is carried to a distant site from its point of origin
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where do most venous thrombosis occur?
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superficial or deep veins of the leg. deep are more likely to embolize at or above the knee
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where do most pulmonary embolisms occur?
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deep veins of the leg (95%)
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what is a saddle embolus?
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occludes the main pulmonary artery, and branches into the left and right pulmonary arteries
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how much of the lung must be obstructed to cause death?
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60%
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what is systemic thromboembolism?
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arterial emboli - come from the heart, from aortic aneurysms, plaques or vegetations on the valves
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where is the first and second preferred sight of arterial emboli?
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1st - lower extremity
2nd - brain |
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what is a fat embolism and when are they most commonly seen?
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microscopic fat globules that enter the blood stream after an injury or fracture to the long bones.
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what is dyspnea?
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shortness of breathe, difficulty breathing, or painful breathing
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what is tachypnea?
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fast breath rate
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what is fat embolism syndrome?
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starts 1-3 days after injury, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, irritable, coma, thrombocytopenia
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what causes an air embolism?
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obstectric procedures, chest wall injury, Iatrogenic, decompresion sickness
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how much air in the blood is considered clinically significant?
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100cc
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what is decompression sickness?
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air inhaled at high pressure is dissolved in tissues, when depressured, it bubbles out of solution into the blood
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what is the bends?
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acute decompression sickness, painful gas bubbles form in skeletal muscles and around joints. The bubbles can cause ischemia in other tissues
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what is chronic decompression sickness?
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Caisson Disease - persistence of gas emboli in the skeletal system
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what is Amniotic fluid embolus?
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amniotic fluid enters the vascular system of mother. develops sudden dyspnea, cyanosis, and hypotensive shock
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what is infarction?
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localized area od ischemic necrosiscaused by obstruction of arterial supply or venous drainage, most commonly caused by arterial thrombosis or emboli
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what are red infarcts?
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hemorrhagic - occurs in venous occlusions, in loose tissues (spleen), dual circulated organs, previously congested tissues, when flow is reestasblished to a site of previous occlusion and necrosis
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what are white infarcts?
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anemic, arterial occlusions in solid organs
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what is the morphology of an infarct?
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wedge shaped, has a rim of hyperemia, inflammation, and is usually replaced by a scar
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what determines an infarct?
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dual blood supply (anastamosis), rate of development (longer gives more time to create other vessels),
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what are some examples of acquired preneoplastic disorders?
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persistent regenerative cell replication, hyperplastic and dysplastic proliferation, chronic atrophic gastritus, leukoplakia of oral cavity, vulva, or penis, solar keratosis
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what are tumor antigens?
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products of mutated oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes, overexpressed proteins, tumor antigens from viral infection, oncofetal antigens,
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which cell can be removed and expanded in vitro and reinfused to help fight a tumor?
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cytotoxic T lymphocytes
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which cell can destroy tumor cells without prior sensitization?
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natural killer cells, activated by IL-2, can also be activated dependent
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how do macrophages kill tumors?
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secretion of reactive metabolites
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What is the humoral mechanism?
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activation of the complement system and induction of ADCC by natural killer cells
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How do tumors escape detection?
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selective outgrowth of antigen-negative variants, reduced expression of HLA antigens, lack of costimulation, immunosuppression, apoptosis of cytotoxic T-cell
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in lab tests, what does normal mean?
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people in nondiseased population
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in lab tests, what does prevelance mean?
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number of cases of a disease in a certain population at a certain time.
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in lab tests, what does incidence mean?
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number of NEW cases of a disease in a population during a specified time period
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what is sensitivity in lab testing?
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probability that a lab test is positive in the presence of disease
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what is specificity in lab testing?
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probability that a lab test will be negative in the absence of disease
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what is the differenc between true positive and false positive?
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true - # of diseased patients correctly classified by test
false- # of patients w/o a disease miscalssified by test |
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what is the difference between true negative and false negative?
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true- # of patients w/o disease correctly classified by test
false- # of patients w/ disease misclassified by test |
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predicted value?
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probability that a lab result accurately reflects the presence or absnece of a disease
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what is precision
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reproductability
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what is the reflection of the mean and the mode in a negative skewed graph?
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the mean is lower than the mode
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what is the difference between the mean and themode on a positive skewed graph?
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the mean is higher than the mode
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what is bimodal distribution?
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2 humps in the graph
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what are decision levels?
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threshold values for lab test results, when value is beyond decision level, the clinician should respond in some way.
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what is pathogenetic reasoning?
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disease explained in a cause and effect manner
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what is osler's rule?
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if patient is less than 60 years old, try to attribute all abnormal lab values to a single cause
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what is diagnostic sensitivity?
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test positive/ (true positive + false negatives)
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what is diagnostic specificity?
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true negative/ (true negative +false positives)
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what important roles does C5a from the complement system play in inflammation?
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1- activates lipoxygenase pathway for arachadonic aicd metabolism.
2- causes mast cells to degranulate histamine 3- is a chemotactic factor for WBC's |