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75 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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a series of DNA nucleotides that codes for the production of a polypeptide or RNA
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gene
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T or F: Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have more than 1 copy of some genes
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F Prokaryotes only have 1
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Actively transcribed regions of DNA are _____
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euchromatin
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Tightly packed regions of DNA
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heterochromatin
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Repetitive sequences are found mainly in _______
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heterochromatin
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Purines are two ring structures _ and _
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A and G
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T or F: A phosphodiester bond occurs between the 3rd C of one deoxyribose and the 5th C of the other
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T
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Replication starts at the ____ of the chromosome
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Middle
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Prokaryotic replication takes place at ______ origin(s)
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1
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T or F: DNA pol requires an RNA primer to get started
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T
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DNA is read in this direction and writes in this direction
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3 to 5; 5 to 3
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5 steps of replication:
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1. Helicase unzips dbl helix
2. RNA pol builds primer 3. DNA pol assembles leading and lagging strands 4. primers are removed 5. Okazakis are joined |
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T or F: DNA pol has exonuclease activity
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T: It is used to repair when it discovers mistakes
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Replication in a human cell takes about _ hours
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8
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______ are repeated six nucleotide units that protect from erosion through repeated rounds of replication
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Telomeres
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_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
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mRNA
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rRNA is synthesized in the _____
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nucleolus
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T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
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F: It is required.
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a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
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promoter
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______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
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RNA pol
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_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
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mRNA
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_RNA delivers the DNA code for aa to the cytosol where the proteins are made
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mRNA
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rRNA is synthesized in the _____
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nucleolus
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rRNA is synthesized in the _____
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nucleolus
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T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
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F: It is required.
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T or F: A promoter is not required in transcription
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F: It is required.
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a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
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promoter
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______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
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RNA pol
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a sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription
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promoter
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______ scans the DNA molecule for the promoter
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RNA pol
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T or F: Only the template strand is transcribed
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T
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The coding strand resembles the DNA or RNA sequence?
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RNA
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T or F: Coding strand is the same as sense strand.
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T
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T or F: Most regulation occurs at the translation level
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F. Transcription
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Genetic unit containing the operator promoter and genes for a single prokaryotic mRNA
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operon
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T or F: Post-transcriptional processing only occurs in eukaryotes
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F. It occurs in prokaryotes too
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What is the function of the 5' cap?
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an attachment site in protein synthesis and as protection against degradation by exonucleases
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T or F: The primary transcript of mRNA is shorter than the mRNA that will be translated into a protein
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F. It is much longer
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What do snRNPs do?
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recognize nucleotide sequences at the ends of introns and associate with proteins to make spliceosome
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T or F:Introns remain in the nucleus and the exons leave and are translated
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T
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The process of binding a known sequence to an unknown sequence in order to identify nucleotide sequences
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hybridization
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Methylation is associated with ____ genes
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inactivated
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How do you make a DNA library
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Take your DNA fragment insert it into a vector then insert it into a bacterium and reproduce the bacteria like crazy
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A northern blot identifies ___ fragments
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RNA
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_____ identifies DNA specific sequences of DNA using hybridization
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Southern blot
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complementary strands of DNA are held together by
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H bonds
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transcription from DNA in the nucleus is followed by post transcriptional processing in the _____
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nucleus
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T or F: Positively charged DNA fragments move toward he cathode
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F: Negatively charged DNA moves to cathode
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Homologues attached move to metaphase plate. Tetrads align What stage is this in Meiosis?
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Metaphase 1
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Homologues line up along each other. Crossing over can occur
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Prophase 1
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How many chromosomes does a 2ndary oocyte have?
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23
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How many chromosomes does a primary oocyte contain?
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46
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In this phase, the nuclear membrane reforms and chromosomes decondense
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Telophase
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In this phase, sister chromatids move to opposite ends if cell and cytokinesis occurs
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Anaphase
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Chromosomes align along equator
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Metaphase
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Chromatin condenses, centrioles move to opposite ends and the nucleus disappears. Spindle apparatus also forms
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Prophase
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What part of the life cycle does the cell prepare to divide and organelles are duplicated?
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G2
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This stage is a nongrowing state
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G0
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During this, the cell splits and begins to grow, heterochromatin unwinds and RNA and protein are synthesized
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G1
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Chromatin that can be uncoiled
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Euchromatin
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How many histones make a nucleosome?
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8
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A base pair mutation with no stop codon
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Missense
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An insertion/deletion mutation that results in a non multiple of 3
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frameshift
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A base pair mutation with a stop codon
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nonsense mutation
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When the orientation of a section of DNA is reversed on a chromosome
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inversion
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When a segment of 1 chromosome is inserted into another
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translocation
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What is the function of the SRP?
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It carries the ribosome complex to a receptor on the ER
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Translation can take place on a _____ in the _____ or attach to the _______.
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free floating ribosome in the cytosol or attach to rough ER
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T/F Translation doesnt require GTP
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F It requires 1.
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Which is not a stop codon?
AAU UAA UAG UGA |
AAU
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T/F In elongation, a tRNA with an aa attaches to the A site at the expense of 4 GTPs
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F. Two GTPs
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What is the signal for the lg subunit to join and form initiation complex?
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tRNA sequesters Met and settles in at P site.
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Ribosomes require the organelle _____ to manufacture them.
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nucleolus
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T/F Prokaryote ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic
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T. Prok have 30S and 50S while euk have 40S and 60S.
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mRNA carries the genetic code from the _____ to _______
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nucleus to cytosol
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