***Pharm Final - Test from 2006 Flash Cards

Play Memory | Create Card File | Append to Card File
Title: ***Pharm Final - Test from 2006
Description: pharm final
Number of Cards: 74
Save Count: 0
Author: cb1913
Created: 2011-12-20
Tags: final pharm
Private No

Save Count represents the number of people who have saved this card set to their flashcard list. Consider this an endorsement!

    • Question
    • Answer
    • Side 3
    • 14. The antifungal mechanism of Amphotericin B is?

      a) Inhibition of squalene 2,3-epoxidase
      b) Binding to lanosterol
      c) Inhibition of sterol 14 -demethylase
      d) Binding to ergosterol
      e) Inhibition of cytochrome P450 2A4
    • d erosterol
    • Significant fungal resistance to azoles can occur by which of the following mechanisms

      a) Mutations in lansterol 14- demethylase.
      b) Mutations in CYP3A4.
      c) Active efflux of the drug from the fungal cell.
      d) Both a and c above are correct
      e) Both b and c above are correct
    • d - a and c
    • Which of the following are considered advantages of combination therapy with Amphotericin B and Flucytosine?

      a) A synergistic response to a combination of the drugs than with either alone.
      b) Reduced toxicity due to a lower dose of Amphotericin B.
      c) The lower rate of resistance emergence in prolonged treatment.
      d) All of the above are correct
      e) Both a and b above are correct
    • d - all of the above
    • 18. All of the following in regard to rifampin are correct EXCEPT:

      a) Rifampin is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
      b) Rifampin is bactericidal at very low concentration
      c) Rifampin is often used in combination with isoniazid in the treatment of TB
      d) Rifampin is a semi-synthetic derivative of rifamycin B
    • a - its RNA synthesis
    • 20. Which of the following drugs would be an alternative prophylactic in the case of a chloroquine-resistant malaria region?

      a) Mefloquine
      b) Primaquine phosphate
      c) Doxycycline
      d) Both a or b above could be the choice
      e) Both a or c above could be the choice
    • e - a or c
    • 21. The HIV protease inhibitors act by inhibiting which stage of viral replication?

      a) Transcription of the viral genome
      b) Recognition attachment and fusion.
      c) Maturation and budding of the virion particle.
      d) Integration of the cDNA into the host chromosome.
    • c
    • 22. All of the following statements with regard to Enfuviritude (Fuzeon) are correct EXCEPT:

      a) Enfuviritude inhibits by preventing HIV entry into the cell
      b) Enfuviritude is a peptide based drug
      c) Enfuviritude is given orally as a suspension
      d) Enfuviritude is restricted to combination use with other classes of HIV inhibitors
    • c - oral suspsnsion
    • 23. All of the following statements in regard to Valacyclovir are correct EXCEPT:

      a) Valacyclovir is is the pro-drug of acyclovir
      b) Reverse transcriptase of HIV is the target of Valacyclovir
      c) Valacyclovir has selectivity for cells infected with HSV as it requires viral thymidine kinase for phosphorylation and activation
      d) Valacyclovir is an acyclic nucleoside inhibitor
    • b - RT of HIV is NOT the taget
    • 24. Each of the following statements with regard to reverse transcriptase inhibitors are correct EXCEPT:

      a) They are all structurally related to deoxynucleosides
      b) Resistance to the reverse transcriptase inhibitors always gives rise to cross resistance to the protease inhibitors
      c) They often require phosphorylation by the cellular kinases for their activity
      d) Viral resistance to the reverse transcriptase inhibitors is the main cause of therapy failure
    • b - not always gives rise to P inhibitors
    • 25. All of the following statements in regard to amantadine are correct EXCEPT?

      a) It selectively inhibits both influenza A and B
      b) It is an inhibitor of the M2 matrix protein
      c) Amantadine is a soluble amine given orally
      d) Resistance to amantadine develops rapidly.
    • a - doesn't do both A and B
    • 26. A first-choice drug used in patients with rheumatoid arthritis that is also an antineoplastic agent when used in higher doses is:

      a. etanercept (Enbrel)
      b. infliximab (Remicade)
      c. methotrexate
      d. abatacept (Orencia)
      e. adalimumab (Humira)
    • c - methotrexate
    • 27. The following drug inhibits the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF):

      a. etanercept (Enbrel)
      b. infliximab (Remicade)
      c. adalimumab (Humira)
      d. a and c
      e. all of the above
    • e - all of the above
    • 29. The following is true of the drug prazosin (Minipress):

      a. its primary effect is to block alpha1 receptors
      b. it produces less reflex tachycardia than non-selective alpha blockers
      c. it does not produce orthostatic hypotension as an adverse reaction
      d. a and b
      e. all of the above
    • d - a and b
    • 31. An alpha1 adrenergic agonist can decrease heart rate by increasing blood pressure that activates baroreceptors to reflexly decrease sympathetic outflow and increase parasympathetic outflow to the heart.

      a. true
      b. false
    • true
    • 42. Correctly select the drug that is the most useful to prevent or stop the nausea and vomiting associated with the use of chemotherapeutic drugs to treat a malignancy (CINV), probably because the drug antagonizes a serotonin (5-HT) receptor in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) or the vomiting center.

      a. Dolasetron (Azemet)
      b. Dimenhydinate (Dramamine)
      c. Cyclizine (Marezine)
      d. Scopolamine HBr (Transderm-Scop)
      e. Promethazine HCl (Phenergan)
    • a - dolasetron
    • 43. Correctly select the chemical or drug that probably “acts” on irritant receptors in the gastrointestinal tract to decrease the amount of sensory activity going to the nucleus tractus solitarius in the brain; It is sometimes used for “morning sickness” of pregnancy.

      a. Aprepitant (Emend)
      b. Bismuth subsalicylate
      c. Ondansetron (Zofran)
      d. Meclizine (Antivert)
      e. Benzquinamide (Quantril)
    • b - bismuth
    • 46. In treatment of Parkinson’s Disease, inhibition of the following enzymes is therapeutic:

      a. Catechol-O-methyl-transferase
      b. Dopa decarboxylase
      c. Monoamine oxidase type B
      d. a and b
      e. All of the above
    • all
    • 47. Aside from enhancing dopaminergic activity, currently the next most efficacious treatment of PD is:

      a. Blockade of glutaminergic neurotransmission
      b. Blockade of cholinergic neurotransmission
      c. Blockade of gabaergic neurotransmission transmission
      d. Blockade of BDNF
      e. Enhancement of noradrenergic neurotransmission
    • b - cholinergic
    • 48. Generally, prophylactic treatment of migraine with ligands for the 5HT receptor relies upon the:

      a. Prevention of vasoconstriction produced by serotonin
      b. Vasodilation of large cerebral vessels
      c. Vasoconstriction of large cerebral arteries
      d. A and B
    • a - prevent vasoconstriction (stop serotonin)
    • 49. Galantamine has weak ACHEI activity but is one of the most efficacious of the ACHEI class of drugs for treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease because it:

      a. Binds irreversibly to ACHE
      b. Is a dual muscarinic and nicotinic receptor agonist
      c. Is a nicotinic receptor agonist and ACHEI
      d. Is an ACEI and nicotinic receptor positive allosteric modulator
      e. Is an NMDA receptor antagonist and ACHEI
    • d - ACEI and nicotinic receptor
    • 50. Identify the irreversible acetylcholine esterase inhibitor (ACHEI):

      a. Physostigmine
      b. Edrophonium
      c. Isoflurophate
      d. 2-PAM
      e. Pyridostigmine
    • c - isoflurophate
    • 51. Sildenafil (Viagra) is effective in treatment of erectile dysfunction because it:

      a. Causes release of NO
      b. Prevents metabolism of NO
      c. Prevents metabolism of cGMP
      d. All of the above
      e. a and b
    • c - prevents cGMP metab
    • 52. The drug of choice for treatment of organophosphate poisoning is:

      a. Atropine
      b. Pralidoxime
      c. Physostigmine
      d. Tubocurarine
      e. a plus b
    • e - atropine AND pralidoxime
    • In the list below the drug of choice for decreasing secretions and relaxing bronchial smooth muscle of an asthmatic patient is:
      a. Metaproterenol
      b. Ipratropium
      c. Isoproterenol
      d. Phentolamine
      e. Scopolamine
    • b - ipratropium
    • The drug administered to Mr. Smith in the ER was:

      a. Pyridostigmine
      b. Atropine
      c. Edrophonium
      d. Tubocurarine
      e. Botulinum toxin
    • endrophonium (c)
    • 55. The rational follow-up treatment for Mr. Smith should be to:

      a. Decrease the daily dose of his generic medication
      b. Increase the daily dose of his generic medication
      c. Add a small daily dose of atropine to his generic medication
      d. Administer Botulinum toxin
      e. Replace his prescribed medication with physostigmine
    • b - increase dose
    • 57. Methadone is an acceptable pharmacotherapy for heroin addiction because it:

      a. Does not produce organ damage (brain, liver, GI)
      b. Is not associated with birth defects from in utero exposure
      c. Is not metabolized and therefore drug-drug interactions are not an issue
      d. a and b
      e. All of the above
    • d - a and b
    • 59. Baltimore City has recently initiated a new, and admirable initiative in the treatment of heroin addiction which includes offering:

      a. The patient the option of taking either methadone or heroin
      b. Buprenorphine maintenance as an alternative to methadone maintenance
      c. An orally effective, pure, naloxone-like opioid antagonist (Naltrexone) instead of methadone
      d. a and b
      e. b and c
    • b - buprenorphine
    • 68. Characteristics of “small molecule” drugs EXCEPT:

      A. most are inorganic salts
      B. relatively low molecular weight
      C. usually are heterocyclic
      D. ionized at physiological pH
      E. source is usually chemical synthesis
    • a - they are NOT inorganic salts
    • 79. Which enzyme below is involved in the phase II of drug metabolism?

      a. NADPH-cytochrome C reductase
      b. Glucuronyl transferase
      c. Plasma esterase
      d. None of the above
    • b - glucuronyl transferase
    • 89. This antibiotic has a unique mechanism in that it binds to the 70s ribosomal subunit in the bacterial cell.

      a. vancomycin
      b. bacitracin
      c. linezolid (Zyvox)
      d. metronidazole (Flagyl)
      e. quinupristine/dalopridtin (Synercid)
    • c - linezolid
    • 98. Which antineoplastic agent below is an inhibitor of the enzyme known as steroidal aromatase?

      a. vinblastine
      b. cyclophosphamide
      c. letrozole (Femara)
      d. imatinib (Gleevec)
      e. sunitinib (Sutent)
    • letrozole
    • Which of the antineoplastics below is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

      a. imatinib (Gleevec)
      b. vincristine
      c. cisplatin
      d. cyclophosphamide
      e. paclitaxel (Taxol)
    • imatinib
    • 100. This antineoplastic agent has been approved by the FDA treat metastatic colorectal cancer.

      a. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
      b. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      c. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      d. rituximab (Rituxan)
    • cetumixab
    • 102. Used for the topical treatment of atopic dermatitis

      a. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      b. rituximab (Rituxan)
      c. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      d. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
    • pimecrolimus (Elidel)
    • 89. This antibiotic has a unique mechanism in that it binds to the 70s ribosomal subunit in the bacterial cell.

      a. vancomycin
      b. bacitracin
      c. linezolid (Zyvox)
      d. metronidazole (Flagyl)
      e. quinupristine/dalopridtin (Synercid)
    • c - linezolid
    • 103. This immunosuppressant agent works by inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation and proliferation in response to antigenic and cytokine stimulation.

      a. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      b. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
      c. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      d. rituximab (Rituxan)
    • sirolimus (rapamune)
    • 98. Which antineoplastic agent below is an inhibitor of the enzyme known as steroidal aromatase?

      a. vinblastine
      b. cyclophosphamide
      c. letrozole (Femara)
      d. imatinib (Gleevec)
      e. sunitinib (Sutent)
    • letrozole
    • 107. This drug, used to prevent osteoporosis in the menopausal female is associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw bone.

      a. raloxifene (Evista)
      b. conjugated equine estrogens (Premarin)
      c. estrogen/progesterone combination (Prempro)
      d. alendronate (Fosamax)
      e. vitamin D
    • alendronate or zoledronic acid
    • Which of the antineoplastics below is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

      a. imatinib (Gleevec)
      b. vincristine
      c. cisplatin
      d. cyclophosphamide
      e. paclitaxel (Taxol)
    • imatinib
    • 113. The depressant effects of this intravenous agent are mediated through the mu opioid receptor within the CNS.

      A. midazolam (Versed)
      B. ketamine
      C. fentanyl
      D. propofol (Diprivan)
      E. thiopental
    • fentanyl
    • 100. This antineoplastic agent has been approved by the FDA treat metastatic colorectal cancer.

      a. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
      b. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      c. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      d. rituximab (Rituxan)
    • cetumixab
    • 115. The mechanism of this intravenous agent is antagonism at the NMDA receptor.

      a. diazepam (Valium)
      b. methohexital (Brevital)
      c. fentanyl
      d. ketamine (Ketalar)
      e. droperidol (Inapsine)
    • ketamine
    • 102. Used for the topical treatment of atopic dermatitis

      a. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      b. rituximab (Rituxan)
      c. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      d. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
    • pimecrolimus (Elidel)
    • 116. Best describes the historical contributions of Dr. James Y. Simpson to general anesthesia

      a. He inhaled nitrous oxide, had his own tooth extracted and felt no pain.
      b. Used chloroform to anesthetize patients undergoing obstetrics and surgery
      c. Used ether for the first demonstration of general anesthesia at Harvard medical school.
      d. First introduced nitrous oxide to the chemical community in the 1700’s.
      e. A Georgia doctor who first used ether to produce anesthesia for surgery
    • b - chloroform for ob surgery
    • 103. This immunosuppressant agent works by inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation and proliferation in response to antigenic and cytokine stimulation.

      a. sirolimus (Rapamune)
      b. pimecrolimus (Elidel)
      c. cetuximab (Erbitux)
      d. rituximab (Rituxan)
    • sirolimus (rapamune)
    • 107. This drug, used to prevent osteoporosis in the menopausal female is associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw bone.

      a. raloxifene (Evista)
      b. conjugated equine estrogens (Premarin)
      c. estrogen/progesterone combination (Prempro)
      d. alendronate (Fosamax)
      e. vitamin D
    • alendronate or zoledronic acid
    • 113. The depressant effects of this intravenous agent are mediated through the mu opioid receptor within the CNS.

      A. midazolam (Versed)
      B. ketamine
      C. fentanyl
      D. propofol (Diprivan)
      E. thiopental
    • fentanyl
    • 115. The mechanism of this intravenous agent is antagonism at the NMDA receptor.

      a. diazepam (Valium)
      b. methohexital (Brevital)
      c. fentanyl
      d. ketamine (Ketalar)
      e. droperidol (Inapsine)
    • ketamine
    • 116. Best describes the historical contributions of Dr. James Y. Simpson to general anesthesia

      a. He inhaled nitrous oxide, had his own tooth extracted and felt no pain.
      b. Used chloroform to anesthetize patients undergoing obstetrics and surgery
      c. Used ether for the first demonstration of general anesthesia at Harvard medical school.
      d. First introduced nitrous oxide to the chemical community in the 1700’s.
      e. A Georgia doctor who first used ether to produce anesthesia for surgery
    • b - chloroform for ob surgery
    • 118. Of the agents below used in the general anesthetic syndrome, this is administered by inhalation

      a. midazolam (Versed)
      b. glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
      c. droperidol (Inapsine)
      d. sevoflurane
      e. naloxone (Narcan)
    • d- sevoflurane
    • 120. The mechanism of this agent is to dissolve in the axonal membrane to cause reversible loss of the axonal action potentials.

      a. sevoflurane
      b. glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
      c. droperidol (Inapsine)
      d. lorazepam (Ativan)
      e. naloxone (Narcan)
    • sevoflurane
    • 125. A pharmacologic action of benzodiazepines.

      a. CNS sedation
      b. analgesia
      c. antipyretic
      d. anti-inflammatory
      e. cyclo-oxygenase type-2 (COX-2) inhibition
    • a - CNS sedation
    • 129. Norepinephrine (and to lesser extent serotonin) reuptake inhibitor.

      A. amitriptyline (Elavil)
      B. nortriptyline (Pamelor)
      C. fluoxetine (Prozac)
      D. nefazodone (Serzone)
      E. buproprion (Wellbutrin)
    • nortiptyline
    • 130. Serotonin/norepinephrine (dual action) reuptake inhibitor.

      A. amitriptyline (Elavil)
      B. nortriptyline (Pamelor)
      C. fluoxetine (Prozac)
      D. nefazodone (Serzone)
      E. buproprion (Wellbutrin)
    • amitriptyline
    • 131. An antipsychotic drug indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia.

      A. haloperidol (Haldol)
      B. olanzepine (Zyprexa)
      C. risperidone (Risperdol)
      D. all the above
      E. A and B only
    • d - all
      haloperidol
      olanzepine
      risperidone
    • 132. Best describes the mechanism of antipsychotic drugs such as chlorpromazine (CPZ).

      A. disrupts dopaminergic neurotransmission
      B. selectively blocks serotonin reuptake
      C. antagonists at H1 histamine receptors
      D. central nervous system GABAmimetic actions
      E. elevation of central nervous system dopamine levels
    • a - disrupt dopamine transmission
    • 133. Which drug below is not an anti-epileptic agent?

      a. diazepam (Valium)
      b. clonazepam (Klonopin)
      c. gabapentin (Neurontin)
      d. buspirone (Buspar)
      e. ethosuximide (Zarontin)
    • d - buspirone
    • 135. This drug acts by inhibiting the parietal cell H +/K + - ATP pump?

      A. ranitidine (Zantac)
      B. famotidine (Pepcid)
      C. esomeprazole (Nexium))
      D. atropine
      E. cimetidine (Tagamet)
    • esomerprazole
    • 138. The mechanism of antimicrobial action of iodine.

      A. precipitates proteins and oxidizes enzymes within microbial cell
      B. releases hydroxyl radicals to attack microbial membrane lipids
      C. has a detergent-like effect on microbial membrane proteins
      D. binds to the bacterial cell surface to change the integrity of the microbial cell membrane
    • a - precip
    • 140. This antihistamine is an antagonist at the H1 histamine receptor and belongs to the so-called class of non-sedating antihistamines.

      A. cromolyn (Intal; Nasalcrom)
      B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
      C. chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
      D. loratidine (Claritin)
    • claritin
    • 143 Opiate receptor function is associated with the opening of chloride channels in the neuronal membrane.

      a. above statement is true
      b. above statement is false
    • F
    • 144 Hydrocodone is a pure agonist at what receptor or receptors below?

      a. kappa only
      b. mu only
      c. both kappa and mu
      d. kappa, mu and sigma
    • c - mu and cappa
    • 145 Effects of morphine EXCEPT:

      a. stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
      b. cough suppression
      c. increases GI tract motility
      d. stimulates ADH to cause urinary retention
      e. sedation
    • c - doesn't do GI
    • 155 Which drug below has a dental use of treating the pain from “burning mouth syndrome”?

      a. carbamazepine (Tegretol)
      b. nortriptyline
      c. pregabalin (Lyrical)
      d. all the above
      e. none of the above
    • b - nortriptyline
    • 156 Which drug below has a dental use of treating the pain from trigeminal neuralgia?

      a. pregabalin (Lyrica)
      b. carbamazepine (Tegretol)
      c. gabapentin (Neurontin)
      d. none of the above
    • b - carbamazepine
    • 159 Inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol at the brush border of the small intestine.

      a. simvastatin (Zocor)
      b. niacin
      c. clofibrate (Atromid-S)
      d. ezetimibe (Zetia)
      e. cholestyramine resin (Questran)
    • ezetimibe (D)
    • 160. Acts by inhibiting the enzyme which controls the formation of cholesterol in liver. This enzyme is called hydroxyl-methylglutaryl Co-enzyme A reductase (HMG-CoA Reductase for short).

      a. simvastatin (Zocor)
      b. niacin
      c. clofibrate (Atromid-S)
      d. ezetimibe (Zetia)
      e. cholestyramine resin (Questran)
    • a - simvastatin
    • 161 This “blood thinner” is classified as an anticoagulant drug rather than an antiplatelet drug.

      a. enoxaparin (Lovenox)
      b. warfarin (Coumadin)
      c. heparin
      d. all the above
      e. both a and c but not b.
    • d - all
    • 169 If your patient were taking this drug, they would be taking a loop diuretic.

      a. hydrochorothiazide (HCTZ)
      b. spironolactone (Aldactone)
      c. furosemide (Lasix)
      d. propranolol (Inderal)
      e. triamterene (Dyrenium)
    • c - furosemide
    • 167 This class of antiarrhythmic drugs is also known as beta-adrenergic receptor blockers.

      a. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs
      b. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs
      c. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs
      d. Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs
    • 2 - beta adrenergic
    • 166 If you saw this drug on your patient’s history, it would probably be used to treat congestive heart failure.

      a. ibuprofen
      b. fluoxetine (Prozac)
      c. celecoxib (Celebrex)
      d. ramipril (Altace)
      e. pregabalin (Lyrica)
    • ramipril (altace)
    • 165 This drug, used to treat coronary artery disease (CAD), is a member of the class of drugs called calcium channel blockers?

      a. amlodipine (Norvasc)
      b. ramipril (Altace)
      c. propranolol (Inderal)
      d. warfarin (Coumadin)
      e. clopidogrel (Plavix)
    • a - amlodipine
    • 164 Beta blocker drugs are used in the treatment of angina. Which drug below would be favored due to its cardioselectivity?

      a. propranolol (Inderal)
      b. acebutolol (Sectral)
      c. nadolol (Corgard)
      d. timolol (Blocadren)
    • b - acebutolol