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176 Cards in this Set

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What drug is indicated for alpha-1-anti-trysin def?
Prostatin,
How is mild forms of asthma treated?
use inhaled albuterol, terbutaline, or metaproterenol before exposure
How is moderate forms of asthma treated?
inhaled glucocorticoids, cromoyln sodium. Possible use oral theophylline and beta2 agonist.
How is severe forms of asthma treated?
oral glucocorticoids
How are receptors affected by prednisone?
there is up regulation and sensitivity of beta-receptors
What are the potential AE of prednisone?
Can be given up to 2 weeks systemically before cushingoid features.
What are some inhalation corticosteroids that are used to tx asthma? AE?
Beclomethasone, fluticasone, and triamcinolone. AE include cough, dysphonia, oral thrust and infection
What drug is used for long term prevention of bronchial hyperresponsiveness? MOA?
Cromolyn and Nedocromil, both interfer w/ Cl- channels
What is used to rapidly reverse bronchoconstriction? MOA? AE?
Beta2 agonist, works by increasing cAMP causing vasodilation (5 min will achieve 75% max effect). Members include albuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol, and salmeterol. AE include tremor, anxiety, restlessness, tachycardia
What beta agonist is used for exercise-induced bronchospasms
salmeterol
What agent is often combined w/ beta2 agonist for pts unresponsible to just b2 agonst alone?
Anticholinergic (Ipratropium and Tiotropium)
What anticholinergic is good for COPD pts?
Tiotropium, requires just 1/day
What drug is known as potent form of caffeine? MOA?
Theophylline, phoshodiesterase inhibitor, has very low TI
What leukotriene modifier is LT D4 and E4 inhibitor?
Zafirlukast and Montelukast
What special consideration must be used w/ Zafirlukast?
use 1-2 hrs after meal b/c food affects absorption
What leukotriene modifier is lipoxygenase NZM inhibitor?
Zileuton, used for noctural asthma, effects liver NZM's so not used much
What drug has an AE of reversible hepatitis?
Zileuton
What drug is an anti-IgE antibody used for allergies?
omalizumab, given every 2-4 weeks subcut
Name quick asthma relief agents.
inhaled beta2 agonist, ACh antagonist, corticosteroids systemically
What are long term asthma controllers?
inhaled corticosteroids, histamine release inhibitors, LT modifiers, long acting b-agonist, systemic corticosteroids, theophylline, and anti-IgE tx
What is only proven agent that improves survival in pts w/ asthma?
oxygen
What apoproteins can be found on following: cylomicrons, VLDL, LDL, and HDL?
Cylomicrons (A-I, A-II, B-48, C, E); VLDL (B-100, C, E); LDL (B-100); HDL (A-I, A-II, C, E)
What is cause of Familial Hypercholesterolemia?
Mutation of LDL receptor
What is cause of Familial Hypertriglyceridemia?
Defect in Apo E
What effect do statins have on lipid levels?
↓total, ↓↓LDL, ↑HDL, ↓Triglycerides
What is statins contraindicated for?
Prego's and kids under < 8 y.o.
Name the statins.
Lova, Simva, Prava, Fluva, Atorva, Rosuva-statin.
What statin has little drug interactions?
Pravastin
What staton can cause severe rhabdomyolysis?
Rosuvastatin, metabolized by CYP2C9
What drugs are takin w/ meals to control lipid levels?
Cholestipol, Colestipol, Colesevelam. They bind to bile-acid and stop there reabsorption. Can effect lipid-soluble drugs
What drug prevents cholseterol transport at brush border?
Ezetimibe, given w/ statin, can cause liver failure
What drug reduces VLDL secretion? AE?
Niacin, flushing due to increase liver NZMs in blood
What drug is good for tx hypercholesterolemia?
Niacin, increases HDL levels
What drugs increase LPLase activity? Tx? AE?
Fibric acid derivatives (Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrate) are used to tx hypertriglyceridemia. AE: increase Liver NZMs, myositis, and Rhabdomyolysis, Gall stones
What is O-3-FA good for?
anti-thrombotic, vasodilatory, anti-inflammatory -> No CHF, CHD, high triglycerides
Where is urine pH controlled at?
Prox tubules by absorption of HCO3
What is affected by aldosterone in urine contents?
Increase aldosterone causes less Na and more K and H contents.
What is function of AT1 receptor?
promotes the increase in volume, pressure, and Na retention
What is function of AT2 receptor?
promotes the opposing effects to Renin
Describe renin effects.
It increases thirst, levels of NE in synapse, aldosterone release, vasoconstriction, Na/H exchange
Describe ANP effects.
Excrete Na+, inhibits renin, vasodilation, and increase renal blood flow
What eliminates ANP?
metalloproteinase
What ANP derivative is used to tx acute heart failure?
Neseritide, IV, do not give to dehydrated pts
Describe effects of aldosterone.
Stimulate Na reabsorption, Na/K exchange in DCT, H secretion in prox tubule
What drug is used to acutely decrease CSF or tx poisoning?
Mannitol given IV, acts as urine osmo agent. Can cause fluid overload (CHF, Pulm Edema) if decreased GFR
What drug is used to tx glaucoma by reducing aqueous humor formation, and alkalinize urine?
Acetylzolamide, needs to be 90% inhibitory to be effective. Can cause sulfonamide allergy.
What diuretic is used to tx CHF, edema, and HTN? MOA? AE?
Loop Diuretics (furosemide and torsemide), inhibits reabsorption of Cl in ascending loop. Toxicity includes allergic rxns, hypokalemia, hyponaturemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, and GI upset (sulfonamide)
What are first line diuretic drugs?
Thiazide Duiretics (Chlorothiazide, Hydrochlorothiazide, Indapamide, and Chlorthalidone) Often used w/ loop diuretics
What is the AE of thiazide diuretics?
Renal failure (decreased GFR), hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercholesteremia
Which thiazide works better for kidney deficient pts?
Indapamide
Which thiazide works better for DM pts?
Hydrochlorothiazide
What diuretics are aldosterone receptor inhibitors? Uses?
Spironolactone and Eplerenone. CHF w/ hypokalemia, also reverse DM nephritis. Can cause hyperkalemia.
What diuretics block Na reuptake in DCT?
Amiloride and Triamterine. Can lead to hyperkalemia.
What diuretic has AE of estrogen/testosterone?
Spironolactone
Name ATII receptor antagonists. Uses? Contraindicated?
Losartan and Valsartan. Used for HTN, K-retention, and reverse DM neph. Pregos.
Name ACE inhibitors.
Captopril, Lisinopril, Enalapril, Ramipril, and Quinapril
What is key AEs of ACE inhibitors?
Dry cough and kills fetus
What is first line drug for HTN w/ CHF, Heart Attack, or Chronic Kidney?
ACE inhibitors
What OTC compound mildly inhibits Na reabsorption?
Caffeine
What triggers the release of vasopressin?
Hypotension, Hyperosmolality, TCA, Morphine, and Nicotine
What inhibits vasopressin release? Increases?
EtOH and phenytoin.
What are effects of vasopressin?
Causes vasoconstriction (V1), Glcogenolysis (V1), Antidiuresis (V2), and release of ACTH (V3).
What signals are used for V1 and V2 receptors?
V1 receptor is PLC. V2 receptors is cAMP.
What drug is used for diabetics to induce vasopressin?
Desmopressin
What are some causes for secondary HTN emergency?
Pheochromocytoma and Renal Disease
What is clinical presentation for HTN emergency early and late?
Early is often asymptomatic, can have dizziness, tiredness, tachycardia. End organ damage by stroke in cerebral vessels, MI, Renal failure, and Pailledema
What drug is used for severe chronic renal disease along w/ refractory HTN? MOA? AE?
Minoxidil, opens K channel stabilizing membrane resting potential, which decrease excitability and contractility. Is long lasting and causes Na/Water retention. Causes hypertrichosis (hair growth).
What HTN drug can cause SLE like condition w/ chronic use? MOA?
Hydralazine, release NO which increases guanylate cyclase which relaxes VSM. Other AE include reflex tachy and increased renin
What drug is used to tx HTN emergencies that causes hyperglycemia?
Diazoxide, which is similar to thiazide (opens K channels) but no diuretic activity
What drug is first line for HTN emergency?
Sodium Nitroprusside, releases NO in VSM
What drug is used to decrease afterload w/ little cardio-depression?
Nifedipine, L-type VSM selective. Can cause edema and HA
What drug is used to decrease heart's oxygen demand and is safe w/ b-blockers? AE?
Diltazem, may accelerate ventricular rate in presence of rapid arterial rate and AV-bypass
What drug is used to decrease heart's oxygen demand and is NOT safe to use w/ b-blocker?
Verapamil, has greatest cardio-selection among Ca blockers (heart block). Avoid if pt is on b-blockers, WPW, aortic stenosis, or CHF.
What drug is 3rd line anti-anginal/anti-arrhymic that blocks Na, K, and Ca? AE?
Bepridil, used if b-blockers or Ca-blockers don't work. Can cause Torsades de Pointes.
What are biochemical findings of acute MI?
Loss of K, Acidosis, Adenosine release, depletion of high energy phosphates
What percent stenosis must be present before pts notices it during exertion?
50%
What percent stenosis must be present before pt unable to meet needs at rest?
80%
Ischemia of heart occurs where first?
First in subendocardium then moves out to the epicardium
What is the primary treatment goal of anginal drugs?
To restore oxygen supply and demand balance, not the relief of anginal pain
What drugs can increase coronary blood flow by dilation of coronary vessels?
Dipyridamole and Adenosine, effect known as coronary steal
What are the cardiac effects of NO release?
Venous pooling, reduces preload, decrease CO and myocardial oxygen consumption, and relieves ischemia
What is DOC from relief of acute angina?
Nitroglycerine, sublingual
Where does the sublingual and transdermal form of nitroglycerine act at, in low doses? What form of nitrate is this?
Venodilation, This is the isosorbide dinitrate form.
Where does the inhalation form of nitroglycerine act at, in low doses? What form of nitrate is this?
Amyl Nitrate
What are some important AE of nitrates?
Tolerance can develop thus causing rebound ischemia and avoid if pt is on PDE-5 inhibitors
What changes occur w/ reduced cardiac output seen w/ CHF?
Increased preload, increased afterload, sinus/AV tachycardia, reduced contractility
Describe Digoxin MOA
It inhibits Na/K pump, which increase Na cytosolic, which decrease Na-Ca exchange, which increase Ca cytosolic, thus increase contraction force, increase para reflex, thus decrease AV node conduction and increase PR segment.
When is digoxin used?
To tx CHF and AF. It increases force of contraction independent of preload and afterload
What ECG changes occur w/ digoxin?
Slurring of ST segment and Prolongation of PR segment
What are the signs of severe digoxin toxicity?
Look for changes in elctrolyte balance (K low and Ca high)
What antidote do you give to tx digoxin OD?
Lidocaine and replace electrolytes
What drug is used to acutely tx CHF and is known as caffeine for the heart?
Amrinone and Milrinone, they are positive inotropic agent that inhibit PDE-3.
What are some AE for amrinone?
Thrombocytopenia (reversible), GI idsturbances, vent arrhymias
What calcium blocker has no cardiac effects?
Nifedipine
What conditions will cause oxygen demand?
Increase HR, size, vasoconstriction, contractility, sympathetic tone, HTN, and HF.
When does coronary artery spasm occur? Describe injury pattern. Treatment plan.
Occurs at rest. ST elevation(transmural ischemia). Tx by prevent spasm.
When does fixed, narrowed lumen occur? Describe injury pattern. Treatment plan.
Occurs w/ exertion or emotion. ST depression(subendocardial ischemia). Tx by reduced oxygen demand.
How long is dermal nitrates good to use before tolerance develops?
Should not extend for more than 12-16 hrs of any 24 hr period
What is a clear sign of coronary artery disease?
Systolic hypotension
How long can MI occur before myocardial stunning occurs?
~ 20 mins
How long can MI occur before irreversible necrosis?
20 - 30 mins
What is responsible for > 90 % causes of angina?
Reduction of myocardial blood flow
ST depression is a/w/ what type of ischemia?
subendocardial ischemia
ST elevation is a/w/ what type of ischemia?
Transmural ischemia
What type of inward current is seen at SA and AV node?
NA+ and Ca++
Describe Atrial Flutter.
Rapid and regular rhythm; ventricular HR is regular but is too rapid to allow ventricular filling
Describe Atrial Fibrillation.
Rapid and irregular; ventricular HR is also rapid and irregular but vent rate is slower than w/ atrial flutter this both CO and exercise tolerance are reduced. Conduction through AV node is slower and more likely to block.
What are palpitations?
Ventricular Prematures
What is MOA of class I antiarrhythmic drugs?
Na+ pump inhibitors, voltage dep block
What antiarrhythmic drugs prolong AP duration and have quick onset?
Quinidine and Procainamide, they have mild depression of conduction w/ fast HR by directly depressing AV node
What antiarrhythmic drugs shorten AP and have instant onset?
Lidocaine and Mexiletine, there is no change in conduction except at high HR
What are uses of Lidocaine?
V-fib acute, Digitoxin OD, post MI V-fib. Give IV, quick metabolism.
What antiarrhythmic drugs have effect on AP rather is an equal opportunity depressent?
Propafenone and Flecainide, they markedly slow conduction and prolong QRS interval at all HRs
What antiarrhythmics should not be used alone for a flutter or fibrillation?
Class Ia, they may increase HR and decrease CO tus worsen HF
What antiarrhythmic has AE of cinchonism?
Quinidine
What antiarrhythmic has AE of acute lupus eythematous and arthralgia?
Procainamide
What antiarrhythmic has AE of agranulocytosis?
Tocainide
What is action of class II antiarrhythmic drugs?
Beta1 blockers
What is uses of propanolol for cardiac pts?
Used for depression AV nodal conduction in pts w/ AF and/or prevent Vfib during 2 yrs following myocardial.
What is action of class III antiarrhthmic drugs?
Blocks K channels
Name class III antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong AP by only blocking K.
Ibutelide and Dofetilide
Name class III antiarrhythmic drug that blocks all ion channels.
Amiodarone, used for VF pts then lidocaine. It increase PR, QRS, and QT duration.
What antiarrhythmic has AE of photosensitivity and peripheral neuropathy and pulmonary toxicity?
Amiodarone
What antiarrhythmic causes torsades de points?
Class Ia and III agents
What drug increases PR and QT intervals w/out QRS prolongation?
Sotalol, has little CNS effects
What is action of class IV antiarrhythmic agents?
Ca++ L-type channels, rate and voltage dep blockade. Thus they decrease membrane potential.
When is L-type Ca++ channels activated?
Only during systole
What used for tx of atrial flutter/fibrillation and acute termination of AV nodal reentry?
Verapamil and diltrazem
What combination of drugs can cause complete AV blockade?
Verapamil and B-blockers
What drug for acute termination of AV nodal reentry?
Adenosine, given as bolus and last just seconds
What are the AE of adenosine?
transient dyspnea and flushing
What is the difference between digoxin and digitoxin?
Digoxin (more polar, given orally or IV, fast onset, renal excretion) Digitoxin (more lipid, given orally, slow onset, liver metabolism)
What are the signs of digoxin toxicity?
Disorientation, delerium, visual yellow halos, and rarely convulsions. Gynecomastia and hypersensitivity can occur.
What is difference between dopamine and dobutamine?
Dopamine (low doses increase myocardial contractility, given IV, useful in acute severe failure for its positive inotropic action, also increases RBF). Dobutamine (stim alpha and beta in both heart and blood vessels but selectively stims cardiac B receptors to produce inotropic action, given IV, causes fewer arrhythmias)
What anticoag drug acts by activation of ATIII?
Heparin, it activates ATIII, which forms complex w/ serum protease
What is used for heparin OD antidote?
protamine
What are some AE of heparin?
Osteoporosis, thrombocytopenia, and reocclusion once withdrawn
What drug is know as a low m.w. fraction of heparin? Benefits?
Enoxapirin, it rarely produces thrombocytopenia as it does not bind to platelet factor 4, it also has less osteoporosis RF, and can be given to prego's.
What drug is a synthetic form of heparin subunits? MOA?
Fondaparinux, binds selectively to ATIII and inhibits only factor Xa. It is not inactivated by protamine. There is no binding to platelet factor 4.
What factors are effected by warfarin?
2, 7, 9, and 10. Protein C and S too.
What occurs early in neonate if protein C is activated?
Can be procoag and produce Venous thrombosis and necrosis of intestines an dbreasts tissue
What drug is used to tx heparin induced thrombocytopenia?
Lipirudin, a direct inhibitor of thrombin, it binds 1:1 to thrombin.
Monitor warfarin w/ what test?
INR (PT) for venous thrombosis(-1.5), AF (-2), and aortic valve replacement (-3)
Monitor heparin w/ what test?
aPTT
What drug acts by irreversible COX inhibition?
Aspirin
Other can COX inhibition, a other actions does Aspirin carry out?
It prevents K-aggregation thus inhibits CF synthesis
What drug acts by irreversible damage to ADP-R on platelets?
Clopidogrel, prevents GP Iib/IIIa receptor activation by ADP
What drug is AB to GP IIb/IIIa receptor on platelets?
Abciximab
How much aspirin must be consumed to prevent platelet aggregation?
325 mg/2 days or 81 mg/day
What drugs binds to heptapeptide which binds GP IIb/IIIa on platelets?
Eptifabatide and Tirofiban, used for acute coronary syndrome in cath lab
What drug inhibits phosphodiesterase (III)
Cilostazol, which is used for intermittent claudication. Avoid if pt has CHF
What drugs are used to prevent MI?
Abciximab, eptifabatide, and tirofiban
What drugs are used to prevent TIA and stroke?
Clopidogrel
What drugs are used to prevent coronary artery stenosis following stent?
Acutely (Abciximib, eptifibitide, tirofiban) Chronic (clopidogel)
What drug is used for intermediattent claudication?
Cilostazol
What drug is used to accelerate proteolytic degradation of fibrin?
t-PA and streptokinase
What fibrinolytic drug is NZM of plasminogen conversion?
Streptokinase
What fibrinolytic drug has greater specificity for fibrin bound verses free plasminogen?
t-PA
Non-heme iron must undergo what transformation to be absorbed from GI tract?
Converted from ferric to ferrous iron, a process which requires ascorbic acid
Iron is formed in what 2 forms?
Ferritin and Hemosiderin (insoluble, ferritin w/ no shell)
What is the m.c. AE of oral iron repletion?
GI irritation
What is iron chelator?
desferoxamine
What drug is an inhibitor of renin?
Aliskiren
Describe ATII effects on renal
Constricts efferent arterioles in glomerulus, stims Na/H exchange, and causes vasoconstriction
What drug is an antagonist for V1 and V2, used to acutely tx CHF by hyponatremia?
Conivaptan
What diuretics increase calcium excretion?
thiazide
What diuretics decrease calcium excretion?
loop
Name shortest acting alpha-blocker.
Prazosin
Name longest acting alpha-blocker
Doxazosin
Name longest acting beta-blocker
Salmeterol
Term for decrease wall thickening during systole
hypokinesis
Antidote for cyanide poisoning?
Inhale amyl nitrate
If pt has aortic stenosis void what drugs?
verapamil and diltiazem
Coronary steal is seen w/ what drugs?
adenosine and dipyridamole, used to dx CAD.
What is cause of unstable angina?
Problem of blood coagulation/platelet aggregation on top of stenosis and artherosclerosis. Tx w/ anticoagulants
What agent can cause oral candidiasis?
Fluticasone