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54 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What drug is used to close a PDA?
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indomethacin
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What drug is used to keep PDA open? Why is that useful?
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Patency is maintained by PGE synthesis
May be necessary to sustain life in conditions such as transposition of the great vessels |
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Antihypertensive therapy
1. Essential HTN 2. CHF 3. Diabetes mellitus |
1. diuretics, ACE-I, ARBs, CCBs
2. diuretics, ACE-I, ARBs, B-blockers (compensated CHF), K+ sparing diuretics 3. ACE-I, ARBs, CCBs, diuretics, B-blockers, a-blockers |
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What HTN drugs are protective against diabetic nephropathy?
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ACE inhibitors
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What drug is first-line therapy for HTN in pregnancy (in addition to methyldopa)?
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hydralazine
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What three drugs block voltage-dependent L-type Ca channels of cardiac and SM --> reducing muscle contractility
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Nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
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What drug vasodilates by releasing NO in SM, causing an increase in cGMP and SM relaxation?
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Nitroglycerin
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1. Which drug vasodilates aterioles > veins?
2. Which drug vasodilates veings >> arteries? |
1. hydralazine
2. nitroglycerin |
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Which CCB has the largest effect on cardiac muscle?
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verapamil
(Verapamil = Ventricle) |
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Which drug is frequently co-administered with a B-blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia?
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hydralazine
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Name the toxicities for each of these drugs:
1. Hydralazine 2. CCBs 3. Nitroglycerin/isosorbide dinitrate |
1. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, nausea, headache, angina; Lupus-like syndrome
2. Cardiac depression, AV block, peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, constipation 3. Reflex tachy, hypotension, flushing, headache |
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1. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, nausea, headache, angina; Lupus-like syndrome
2. Cardiac depression, AV block, peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, constipation 3. Reflex tachy, hypotension, flushing, headache |
Name the toxicities for each of these drugs:
1. Hydralazine 2. CCBs 3. Nitroglycerin/isosorbide dinitrate |
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What is "Monday disease?"
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From industrial exposure to nitroglycerin (e.g. munitions workers)
--developed tolerance for vasodilating action during the work week, but lost tolerance over the weekend --resulted in tachycardia, dizziness, headache on re-exposure on Monday |
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What drug is used for angina and pulmonary edema, but can also be used as an aphrodisiac and erection enhancer?
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Nitroglycerin
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What three drugs can be used to treat malignant HTN?
What is the mechanism for each one? |
1. Nitroprusside = short-acting, increases cGMP via direct release of NO
2. Fenoldopam = D1 receptor agonist (relaxes renal vascular SM) 3. Diazoxide = K+ channel opener, hyperpolarizes and relaxes vascular SM |
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Name the drug that can cause these side effects:
1. Cyanide toxicity from CN release 2. Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention 3. Hyperglycemia from reduction in insulin release 4. AV block |
1. Nitroprusside
2. Hydralazine 3. Diazoxide 4. CCBs |
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What is the goal/method of antianginal therapy? What 5 things are targeted?
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Reduce myocardial O2 consumption by decreasing...
1. End diastolic volume 2. Blood pressure 3. HR 4. Contractility 5. Ejection time |
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What two partial B-agonists are contraindicated in angina?
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Pindolol, acebutolol
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What agent is best at lowering LDL? How does that agent work? How does it affect HDL, TGs?
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Statins work by inhibiting mevalonate, a cholesterol precursor
HDL = slight increase TG = slight decrease |
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What agent is best for increasing HDL? How does it work? What are its effects on LDL, TGs?
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Niacin works by inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue, reducing hepatic VLDL secretion into circulation
LDL = moderate decrease TGs = slight decrease |
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What lipid-lowering agent tastes bad and causes GI discomfort? Why is it used? How does it work?
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Bile acid resins prevent intestinal absorption of bile acids, so the liver must use cholesterol to make more
LDL = moderate decrease HDL = slight increase TGs = slight increase |
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How does ezetimibe work? What is it used for?
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Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at SI brush border
LDL = moderate decrease HDL, TGs = no effect |
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What agent has the most potent effect on lowering TGs? How does it work? How does it affect LDL, HDL?
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"Fibrates" upregulate LPL --> increasing TG clearance
LDL = slight decrease HDL = slight increase |
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Side effects for each of these are...
1. Statins 2. Niacin 3. Bile acid resins 4. Ezetimibe 5. Fibrates |
Side effects of lipid-lowering drugs...
1. hepatotoxicity (increased LFTs), rhabdomyolysis 2. red, flushed face (which is decreased by aspirin or long-term use); hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia 3. Tastes bad, GI discomfort, less absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, cholesterol gallstones 4. Rare increase in LFTs 5. Myositis, hepatotoxicity, cholesterol gallstones |
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Side effects of lipid-lowering drugs...
1. hepatotoxicity (increased LFTs), rhabdomyolysis 2. red, flushed face (which is decreased by aspirin or long-term use); hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia 3. Tastes bad, GI discomfort, less absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, cholesterol gallstones 4. Rare increase in LFTs 5. Myositis, hepatotoxicity, cholesterol gallstones |
Side effects for each of these are...
1. Statins 2. Niacin 3. Bile acid resins 4. Ezetimibe 5. Fibrates |
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Which lipid-lowering agent exacerbates gout?
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Niacin
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Which two lipid-lowering agents can cause cholesterol gallstones?
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Niacin, Fibrates
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How does digoxin work?
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Directly inhibits Na/K ATPase
Leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger Increases intracellular Ca --> positive inotropy (increased contractility) |
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What is the clinical use of digoxin?
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CHF (increases contractility), a-fib (decreases conduction at AV node and depression at SA node)
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What is digoxin toxicity?
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Cholinergic = nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blurry yellow vision (think Van Gogh)
ECG = increased PR, decreased QT, scooping, T-wave inversion, arrhythmia, hyperkalemia |
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What worsenes digoxin toxicity?
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1. Renal failure (decreased excretion)
2. Hypokalemia (permissive for digoxin binding at K-binding site on Na/K ATPase 3. Quinidine (decreases clearance; displaces digoxin from tissue-binding sites) |
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What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
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Slowly normalize K+
lidocaine cardiac pacer anti-dig Fab fragments Mg++ |
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List the class I anti-arrhythmics. What is there general mechanism?
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Na+ channel blockers = slow or block conduction, decrease the slope of phase 0 depolarization and increase threshold for firing in abnormal pacemaker cells
Class IA = "The Queen Proclaims Diso's pyramid" = Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide Class IB = "I'd Buy Lidy's Mexican Tacos" = Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide Class IC = "Chipotle's Food has Excellent Produce" = Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone |
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What effect to each of the sub-classes of class I antiarrhythmics have on AP duration?
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Class IA = increased AP duration
Class IB = decreased AP duration Class IC = no effect on AP duration |
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Which class is useful for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, especially reentrant and ectopic supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia?
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Class IA
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Which class is useful for acute ventricular arrhythmias (esp. post-MI) and in digitalis-induced arrhythmias?
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Class IB
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What class is useful in V-tachs that progress to VF and in intractable SVT?
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Class IC
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Which class is best post-MI and which is contraindicated post-MI?
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IB is Best post-MI
IC is Contraindicated post-MI |
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Which ion abnormality causes increased toxicity for all class I drugs?
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hyperkalemia
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What are the toxicities of IA, IB, and IC antiarrhythmics?
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IA = quinidine (cinchonism--headache, tinnitus); thrombocytopenia; TdP due to increased QT interval; procainamide (reversible SLE-like syndrome)
IB = local anesthetic; CNS stimulation/depression, CV depression IC = proarrhythmic, esp post-MI (contraindicated). Significantly prolongs refractory period in AV node |
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How do class II antiarrhythmics work?
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B-blockers: decrease cAMP and Ca++ currents. Suppress abnormal pacemaker cells by decreasing the slope of phase 4
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What is particularly sensitive to class IIs?
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AV node
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Which B-blocker is very short acting?
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Esmolol
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When are class IIs used?
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V-tach, SVT, slowing V rate during a-fib/a-flutter
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What are the toxicities of class IIs?
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Impotence, exacerbation of asthma
CV (bradycardia, AV block, CHF) CNS (sedation, sleep alterations) May mask the signs of hypoglycemia |
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Which class II drug can cause dyslipidemia? How do you treat an overdose?
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Metoprolol
Treat overdoes with glucagon |
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How do class III antiarrhythmics work?
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K+ channel blockers = increase AP duration, increase ERP
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What are side effects for the major class IIIs?
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Sotalol = TdP, excessive B-block
Ibutilide = TdP Bretylium = new arrhythmias, hypotension Amiodarone = pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypo/hyper-thyroidism (also corneal/skin deposits leading to polydermatitis, neurologic effects, constipation, bradycardia, heart block, CHF) |
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What should you remember to check when using amiodarone?
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PFTs (pulmonary)
LFTs (liver) TFTs (thyroid) |
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How do class IVs work? Name 2.
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Verapamil, diltiazem decrease conduction velocity and increase both ERP and PR interval
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When are class IVs used?
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Prevention of nodal arrhythmias (e.g. SVT)
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What are the major toxicities of class IVs?
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Constipation, flushing, edema
CV (CHF, AV block, sinus node depression) |
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Other antiarrhythmics are...
1. adenosine 2. K+ 3. Mg++ ...what do they do? |
1. increase K+ flow out of cells --> hyperpolarization; decreases Ica (drug of choice for diagnosing/abolishing SVT). Very short acting (15sec). Toxicity includes flushing, hypotension, chest pain.
2. Depresses ectopic pacemakers in hypokalemia (e.g. digoxin toxicity) 3. Effect in TdP and digoxin toxicity |
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What blocks the effects of adenosine?
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theophylline
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