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178 Cards in this Set

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Branches of support personnel in the hospital organizational system
1. Fiscal
2. Support
3. Nursing
4. Professional services
2 areas of laboratory:
Identify which area the phlebotomist works in
1. Anatomic
2. Clinical
*Works in the clinical area
The specialty of the physician who oversees the lab
Pathologist
2 common lab tests performed in the coagulation department and which therapy does each test monitor
1. PT- Coumadin therapy
2. INR- Coumadin therapy
3. APTT - Heparin therapy
The test that the immunology department forms
tests to monitor the immune response through the direction of antibodies
Characterized by genetic and biochemical techniques used to diagnose genetic disorders, analyze forensic evidence, and track disease
Molecular Diagnostics
5 liver function tests:
1. ALT
2. AST
3. GGT
4. ALP
5. Enzymes
6. Bilirubin
What is the importance of CLIA '88
Mandates that facilities that perform pt testing meet performance standards to ensure the quality of procedures
What is CLIA '88?
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988
2 organizations that accredit clinical labs?
1. Joint Commission (TJC)
2. College of American Pathologists
Joint Commission Fun Facts!
-every 2 yrs
-pt safety goals
-Medicare/ Medicaid reimbursement
Organizations that set lab standards or guidelines
Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (*old name: NCCLS)
4 healthcare settings other than the hospital in which a phlebotomist may be employed
1. HMOs
2. PPOs
3. POLs
4. Nursing Homes
5. Urgent Care
6. References Labs
Name the lab that has a special specimen or pt identification system. What might be the outcome of mislabeling and mishandling specimens w/in this lab?
The blood bank or immunohematology.
*May result in pt's death.
Define professional services and provide 2 examples of them:
Services that are provided at the request of the physician to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the pt.
*ie: physical, occupational, or respiratory therapy
Fiscal services is responsible for:
Admitting medical records and billing
In addition to the laboratory the following department may draw arterial blood gases:
Respiratory Therapy
The following department use radioisotopes:
Nuclear Medicine
The clinical lab is under the direction of a:
Pathologist
A sample of blood from a pt with HIV is likely to be analyzed using:
A flow cytometer
A CBC is performed in the __________ department:
Hematology department
APPTT testing monitors ________:
Heperin therapy
The type of chemistry test associated with drug analysis is known as:
toxicology
A C&S test is analyzed in the _____ department.
Microbiology
Occult blood testing is performed on:
feces
When pts donate their blood for use during their own surgery:
autologous donation
Independent labs that analyze samples from other healthcare facilities are known as:
reference labs
Ch.3:
Name 6 types of safety hazards in the workplace with an example
1.Biological- bacteria viruses
2. Sharps- needles, lancets, broken glass
3. Electrical- high voltage equipment
4. Chemical- lab reagents and preservatives
5. Latex Sensitivity- gloves
6. Physical- wet floors, lifting heavy objects
7. Fire & Explosives- O2 & chemicals
8. Radioactive, X-Ray- equipment & reagents
List 5 safety precautions that can reduce the risk of injury in the workplace:
1. Wearing PPEs
2. Never storing food w/ biohazard substances
3. Protecting feet from spills, slips, and falling
4. Avoiding putting things in ur mouth in the work area
5. Avoid eye to hand contact in the work area
6. Not wearing loose clothing, hair, jewelry that can be contaminated or caught in equipment
What should you never do after performing a venipuncture bcuz needlesticks are a major risk:
Never recap the needle after collection
List the 4 identifying features that all hazardous material labels must display:
1. Warning to alert the hazard
2. Explanation of the hazard
3. List of precautions to reduce risk
4. First Aid measures to take incase of exposure
A hazardous material has an _______ to provide personnel with information on the chemical, its hazards, the procedure for its clean up, and first aid incase of exposure
MSDS
What does MSDS stand for?
Material Safety Data Sheet
What is the purpose of a chemical hygiene plan?
It describes all safety procedures, special precautions, and emergency procedures when working with chemicals
In the event on chemical spills on your arm, what steps should be taken?
Proceed to the safety shower, flush the area for 15 minutes, and go to the emergency room for treatment
Describe the steps to the emergency response to electric shock:
1. Turn off the equipment/ break contact btwn the equipment & victim using a nonconductive material
2. Do not touch victim until risk of shock is further removed
3. Call 911
4. Start CPR if indicated, and keep the victim warm
Name the organization that regulates workplace safety and define its purpose:
OSHA regulates all work environments to prevent accidents. It provides guidelines for accident prevention
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety & Health Administration
Explain the process that should be followed in controlling a bleeding emergency:
To control a bleeding emergency you must apply pressure to the area or wound, elevate limb (unless fractured) and maintain pressure until medical help arrives.
List the signs of shock and the steps to take to prevent further complications:
Early signs of shock include: pale, cold, clammy skin, tachycardia (rapid pulse), shallow breathing, weakness, and nausea or vomiting or both. Incase of shock: keep the victim warm, and laying down, with the airway open, and call for professional assistance
When mixing acids and water, you should:
Add acid to water.
*Reversing this order an be dangerous
NFPA label does not include which:
Protective Equipment
First thing you do when giving breathing aid to a victim is:
determine whether the victim is conscious
Safety equipment in the lab may include:
PPEs, Emergency Shower, Eyewash Station
The yellow diamond in the NFPA label indicates:

*Blue:
*Red:
*White:
Text book page 26 - look over pictures/ symbols
Reactivity Warning

*Health Hazards
*Flamability
*Other
Ch.4:
Define INFECTION
The invasion and growth of disease-causing microorganisms in the human body
Name 4 classes of pathogens:
1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Fungi
4. Protists
What are the healthcare associated infections and how are they typically caused:
Contracted by a pt during a hospital stay due to direct contact with other pt's, or by failure of personnel to follow infection control protocols.
What 5 main elements make up the chain of infection:
Reservoir Host, Portal of Exit, Method of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible Host
List 3 ways in which u can break the chain of infection:
Preventing transmission by:
hand-washing, using PPEs, isolating pt's at risk of spreading or contracting infections, & using standard precautions
Difference btwn. direct and indirect contact:
Direct: transfer of microorganisms from an infected person to susceptible host by body contact
Indirect: contact btwn. a susceptible host & a contaminated object
Most important & effective way of preventing the spread of infection:
handwashing
Some examples of PPE items:
Fluid-resistant gowns, masks, respirators, face shields, gloves, shoe covers
Explain what standard precautions are and why are they used:
An infection-controlled method that uses barrier protection and work control practices to prevent direct skin contact w/ biohazardous materials
Name 3 BBPs:
1. HIV
2. Hep A-E
3. Syphilis
4. Malaria
5.
What does BBP stand for:
Bloodborne pathogens
Hep B may be stable in dry blood for at least ____ days.
7
Bleach should be in contact with contaminated area for _________ minutes for complete disinfection.
20
Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Vectors
D. Vectors
Varicella-zoster is the cause of _________.
Chicken-pox
HIV is the causative agent of _______.
AIDS
Vectors include:
Insects
Some types of E.Coli are normal flora of the _________.
colon
In putting on PPEs the first article that is put on is the:
Pair of gloves
Which of the following is not an OSHA standard:
A. All biohazard material must be labeled
B. Employees must practice standard precautions
C. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace
D. Employers must provide immunization of Hep B Virus free of charge
C. Employers must have a written airborne pathogen exposure control plan in the workplace.
10% bleach used as a cleaning agent should be made fresh how often?
Every day.
The purpose of a PE (protective environment) for highly immunosuppressed pt's is to _________.
Prevent transmission of infection to the patient.
Ch. 8:
A _________ prevents venous flow out of the arm.
tourniquet
What does the gauge of the needle indicate?
Indicates the diameter or the needle's lumen.
Describe the consequences of using a needle with a large gauge number:
Collection is slower and blood cells may be hemolyzed (destroyed) as they past thru the narrow opening.
What is the purpose of the rubber sleeve on the multi-sample needle?
Keeps the needle from becoming contaminated or injuring you or the patient and keeps blood from leaking onto or into the adapter or tube holder, especially when changing tubes.
Advantages and disadvantages of syringe-method of drawing blood vs. the evacuated tube system (ETS- what we used) :
Advantage: blood appears in the hub when the vein has been entered.
Disadvantage: potential for needle stick when depositing blood into the collection tube
What does it mean when blood tubes are evacuated?
A vacuum is created w/in the tube so that a measured amount of blood will flow in easily.
Why must unused blood tubes be discarded when expired?
Out-of-date tubes may have decreased vacuum preventing a proper fill, or additives have degraded overtime.
What is a SPS?
Anticoagulant additive
What must be done immediately after collecting a specimen in a tube w/ an anticoagulant?
Must be mixed thoroughly after collection by gently, repeatedly inverting tube (4-8)
Cellular reaction used to harvest energy from glucose
Glycolysis
3 types of blood specimens used for analysis:
1. Whole blood
2. Serum
3. Plasma
Red:
Blood bank

*(only tube with NO additives)
Light blue:
coagulation
Lavender:

(EDTA)
CBC
Gray:
glucose tolerance test
Gold, Marble, Tiger:
Chemistry and serum separators
Green:
ABGs, Heperin
Yellow:
Sterile
List the Order of color top tube draws (using ETS):
1. Yellow
2. Lt. Blue
3. Red
4. Gold
5. Green
6. Lavender
7. Gray
Which of the following is not an anticoagulant:
A. polymer gel
B. sodium heparin
C. sodium citrate
D. EDTA
A. polymer gel
Most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture:
Isopropyl alcohol
How many times may a needle be used before discarding it:
ONE!!!
The ________ the gauge number, the smaller the lumen.
larger
Complete clotting of a blood sample in a SST (gold or red/gray) tube takes _________ minutes at room temperature.
30
What is a SST?
Serum separator tube
EDTA prevents coagulation by:
binding calcium.
Green tube tops may contain:
sodium heparin
Why is the syringe method of draw useful?
Allows for control of blood flow and shoes appearance of blood at the hub.
*better for small, fragile veins
The additive sodium citrate is used in blood collections for what test:
Prothrombin Time (Pro Time)
Why is the syringe method of draw useful?
Allows for control of blood flow and shoes appearance of blood at the hub.
*better for small, fragile veins
The additive sodium citrate is used in blood collections for what test:
Prothrombin Time (Pro Time)
List the Order of color top tube draws (using ETS):
1. Yellow
2. Lt. Blue
3. Red
4. Gold
5. Green
6. Lavender
7. Gray
Which of the following is not an anticoagulant:
A. polymer gel
B. sodium heparin
C. sodium citrate
D. EDTA
A. polymer gel
Most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture:
Isopropyl alcohol
How many times may a needle be used before discarding it:
ONE!!!
The ________ the gauge number, the smaller the lumen.
larger
Complete clotting of a blood sample in a SST (gold or red/gray) tube takes _________ minutes at room temperature.
30
What is a SST?
Serum separator tube
EDTA prevents coagulation by:
binding calcium.
Green tube tops may contain:
sodium heparin
Most common gauge used for routine venipuncture is:
21 gauge
Blood banks use a ______ gauge needle to collect blood from donors for transfusion.
16-18 gauge
Blood collection tubes containing an anticoagulant should be :
inverted gently repeatedly after blood collection
Tubes containing the SPS anticoagulant are used for:
Blood culture analysis
FBS (fasting blood sugar) is collected in a _________ top tube.
gray
CH. 9:
Most important aspect of any phlebotomy procedure?
Correctly and positively identify the pt
Describe how to properly identify a pt:
Inpatients: compare info on requisition against pt's identification band
Outpatients: Information provided by pt (1st, Last name, spelling, DOB)
List the steps you should perform when requisitions are received:
Examine them for necessary information, check for duplicates or errors, group together for same pt, prioritize them, & gather all necessary equipment for collections
What is the name for the increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving the tourniquet on too long.
Hemoconcentration
3 veins in the antecubital area suitable for venipuncture:
1. Median
2. Cephalic
3. Basilic
Why is the median cubital vein the first choice for draw?
Large and well-anchored and does not move when needle's inserted
How do veins, arteries, and tendons feel when palpating them:
Veins- spongey, bouncey, firm
Arteries- pulsate
Tendons- rugged
Techniques for locating the vein:
Tap the arm, have pt make fist, warm site w/ warm towel or hot pack
Reddened, swollen area in which blood collects under skin
*(can form when extra pressure from tourniquet forces blood out thru puncture)
Hematoma
Correct position of pt's arm after w/drawing the venipuncture needle:
straight, or slightly bent.... but not bent back over the puncture site
Correct procedure for labeling blood tubes:
At bedside w/ pen or perm. marker:
-pts name
-id number
-date & time
-collector's initials/ id number
-Dr's name
Phlebotomist must look for what info on the requisition slip?
Patient's ID or chart #, last and first names, DOB, physicians name, and tests ordered
Which vein is often the only vein that can be palpated in obese pts?
Cephalic
Upon entering a pt's room you should first:
Identify yourself
Which veins lies closest to the brachial artery:
Basilic
What angle should venipuncture needle puncture the skin :
15-30 degrees
Tourniquet should be placed _________ inches above the venipuncture site:
3-4
What can occur if the tourniquet is left in too long:
Hemoconcentration
Removing the tourniquet AFTER removing the needle can cause:
Hematoma
Increase in ratio of formed elements to plasma is called:
Hemoconcentration
Small red spots on the skin are referred to as:
Petechaie
List as many blood thinners as possible:
*aspirin
*advil
*ibuprofen
*tylenol
*NSAIDS
*heparin
Whats the longest amount of time a tourniquet can be kept on during a venipuncture procedure?
No longer than 1 minute
CH.7
Veins carry blood _________.
Arteries carry blood ________.
*toward the heart
*away from the heart
contraction of heart is:
relaxation of heart is:
systole
diastole
List systemic circulation order beginning with blood flow away from the heart:
Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
Yellow liquid portion of whole blood, contains fibrinogen:
plasma
Formed elements constitute _____% of blood volume
45%
What is serum?
Plasma without clotting factors
RBC's make up ___% of the formed elements in the blood
99%?
WBCs and platelets make up __% of the formed elements of blood
1%
A mature red blood cell:
erythrocyte
Another name for WBC's
Leukocytes
*fight off infection
Platelets are also known as:
(side note- platelets are not an actual "cell")
thrombocytes (critical for coagulation)
Phagoctye's role?
attack and digest bacteria
In the circulatory system, gas exchange occurs in the ________.
capillaries
Circulatory system: circulation occurs in two large loops: _______ & _________
Pulmonary circulation
Systemic circulation
Which blood vessels are a single cell in thickness?
capillaries
An average adult has ____L of blood.
5-6L
Plasma constitutes ___% of total blood volume:
55%
Plasma samples are collected in tubes containing _______, and then centrifuged.... the tube is called a _______---.
anticoagulant; plasma separator tube
Plasma samples are used for ____________ tests:
STAT chemistry
True of False?
Serum separator tubes have no additives?
True.
Group of inherited disorders marked by increased bleeding times is known as:
hemophilias
Helper T cells are needed to make _______.
antibodies
Tubes with anticoagulant should be inverted ___to___ times immediately after sample draw.
5-10 times
How soon after collection should cells be separated from plasma or serum?
No more than 2 hrs should pass btwn collection and separation of cells
True or False?
It is not necessary that a centrifuge carry a balanced load?
False. It IS necessary that it be balanced.
True or False?
Immediate separation of cells from plasma or serum can minimize hemolysis.
True
Once a cap is removed from a tube, the pH may _______.
increase
Complete blood clotting may take _____ minutes at room temperature.
30-45
(PAGES 43-45 - small part of ch.4 REQUIRED TO REVIEW)
What is the separation of an infection source from susceptible hosts that breaks the chain of infections?
Isolation
An immunocompromised patient may have their own isolation unit, known as a ___________.
Protective environment (PE)
(HEPA-filtered air)

Side notes:
*(Positive air pressure: air flows out, not in)
*(Negative air pressure: air flows in, not out. Ie: TB)
Isolation precautions are based on a 2-Tiered system:
Tier 1 involves:
Tier 2 involves:
1: precautions used for ALL pts in hospital, regardless of dx. STANDARD PRECAUTIONS; to prevent transmission of pathogens regardless of a pts dx or infection status

2: EXPANDED PRECAUTIONS: targeted at pts known to be or suspected of being infected with a highly transmissible pathogen. (is:MRSA, or VRE)
Infectious agents carried in the blood, certain body fluids, and unfixed (unpreserved) tissues.
BBPs (Bloodborne Pathogens)
US law mandates neonatal screening for which 2 disease:
1. hypothyroidism
2. PKU (phenylketonuria)
PKU samples are done via _______ on _______________________.
*capillary stick
*special filter paper (supplied in a kit [provided by the state agency responsible for PKU tests)
Physical changes of the elderly:
Less elastic and thinner skin; easier bruising; longer healing times; more fragile, less elastic, & narrower blood vessels; "loose skin"; loss of muscle tissue, allowing veins to move from their usual locations; arteries closer to the surface.
True or False?
For an elderly patient the tourniquet should be applied at its usual tightness.
False. It should be applied a little looser.
What is a VAD?
Vascular Access Device. ie: AV shunt
(administer fluids/ meds; monitor BP; draw blood)
What is the name of the substance produced by normal breakdown of RBCs?
Bilirubin.

*build up of bilirubin causes jaundice; & can lead to brain damage
True of False?
Newborns have a higher proportion of plasma compared with adults.
False. Newborns have a higher proportion RBCs than adult, and less plasma/ serum.
What gauge needle should be used on a child younger than 2 yrs?
23 gauge
Assay (verb)
determine the amount or quality of...
_________ during blood draws are more likely to occur as we grow older.
Hematomas
What is the definition of PHLEBOTOMY?
The practice of drawing blood samples for analysis.