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215 Cards in this Set

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what are the precursor cells of oocytes?
primordial germ cells --> oogonia
when do oogonia begin to proliferate and by what mechanism do they do so?
oogonia proliferate by mitosis during the first 1/3rd to 1/2 of gestation
describe the transformation of oogonia into oocytes in the fetus and the genetics underlying the process.
in the late fetus, oogonia undergo mitosis to divide and then undergo meiosis in the first prophase diplotene (the "Dictyate") stage to form primary oocytes
describe the genetics of a primary oocyte in the fetus
the cell is arrested in the first diplotene ("dictyate") stage of meiosis
a primary ooctye surrounded by a single layer of squamous epithelium
primordial follicle
describe the transformation of primordial follicles to primary follicles
primordial follicles become a primary oocyte by formation of cuboidal granulosa cells, basement membrane and theca
describe the transformation primary follicles to secondary follicles
- glycoproteins secreted to form the zona pellucida
- the inner-most layer of granulosa becomes the corona radiata
- the rest of the granulosa cells become the cumulus oophorus
- during this time, the follicle starts to produce FSH receptors
- the oocyte and granulosa cells become surrounded by basement membrane: the blood-follicle barrier
- theca differentiates into the theca interna and the theca externa
- theca interna produces androgens which are transformed to estrogen by the granulosa
- estrogen stimulates LH receptor production in the theca; this causes more androgen --> estrogen production, leading to an LH spike
what is the fundamental difference between the pre-antral and the antral phase of follicular development?
pre-antral phase is hormone independent, whereas the antral phase is hormone dependent
the fluid-filled capsule in an ovarian follicle
antrum
histologically, how can you tell whether a follicle is in the pre-antral phase or the antral phase?
an antral follicle has an antrum, the fluid-filled capsule, whereas a pre-antral follicle is filled completely with granulosa cells and the oocyte
what stimulates a secondary follicle to develop into a tertiary follicle?
FSH
how does a tertiary follicle respond to an LH surge?
becomes a mature (late tertiary) follicle
- rapid increase in follicle size
- single large antrum
- resumption of metaphase I; half of the chromosomes are exocytosed as the first polar body and the other half are retained and arrested at Metaphase II to form the secondary oocyte
- cortical granules migrate to position just under the plasma membrane
what hormone triggers ovulation?
LH
what are the three main steps in ovulation after it has been triggered by an LH surge?
1. LH/FSH-induced "expansion" of cumulus granulosa via secretion of hyaluronic acid, which effectively loosens the oocyte connection from the CT wall
2. LH-induced proteases create a blister in the ovary wall
3. the release of intrafollicular pressure by outflow of antral fluid carries the cumulus-oocyte complex outside the ovary
in the secondary oocyte, what triggers meiosis II to resume, what happens next, and what are the products?
- fertilization triggers the resumption of meiosis II
- a haploid polar body is exocytosed
- the resulting 1N sperm and 1N nucleus in the oocyte form a zygote
what is the purpose of the migration of cortical granules to near the inner plasma membrane of the secondary oocyte?
so that they can be quickly released upon fertilization to prevent polyspermy
what is the basic pathway of spermatogenesis (name of cell, chromosomes, and type of division)
(note: N refers to chromosome count here, not DNA/sister chromatid count)
1. spermatogonia (2N) divide several times by meiosis -->
2. primary spermatocytes (1N) divide by mitosis I -->
3. secondary spermatocytes divide by mitosis II (this is the last cell division) -->
4. early spermatids undergo morphological change -->
5. late spermatids -->
6. spermatozoa (aka a sperm cell)
what is the structure and functions of Sertoli cells?
large amorphous cells with tight junctions that surround and separate spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatozoa as they undergo spermatogenesis.

- Acts as a blood-testis barrier
- provides nourishment to developing sperm cells
- influences spermatogenesis
- resorbs droplets exocytosed from developing sperm
- secrete testicular fluid
- provide metabolites to cells in the semeniferous tubule lumen
production of spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes via mitosis
spermatocytogenesis
morphological development from spermatid to final elongated spermatozoon
spermiogenesis
release of a spermatozoon from its surrounding Sertoli cell
spermiation
what is meant ly the "clonal" nature of spermatogenesis?
1. developing sperm from a single spermatogonia are identical genetically
2. they are connected via cytoplasmic bridges until released.
in spermiogenesis, what organelle forms the acrosome?
Golgi
in spermiogenesis, what organelle forms the axoneme?
axoneme = tail
the distal centriole
what is an axoneme?
tail of a sperm
from head-to-tail, what are the major parts of a mature sperm?
- acrosomal vesicle
- nucleus
- neck
- midpiece (mitochondrial sheath)
- annulus
- principal piece (flagellum)
what are the two major enzymes contained in the acrosome?
acrosin - a proteolytic lysin
hyaluronidase - breaks down hyaluronic acid
in a cross-sections in the testicular epithelium, the term representing a snapshot of spermatid changes and those in associated cells of subsequent generations
stages
how are the stages of spermatogenesis positioned along the length of the seminiferous tubule?
the stages are found in sequential order
true or false, along the length of a seminiferous tubule, you will find, in sequential order, sets of increasingly mature sperm at the end and immature sperm at the beginning?
false. The STAGES of the spermatogenic cycle are found in sequential order, which comprise sperm in various stages of development.
what is the pathway of a sperm from its site of spermination to the ductus deferens?
seminiferous tubules -->
rete testis -->
efferent ducts -->
epididymis -->
ductus deferens
what are the four major functions of the epididymis?
1. transport - via hydrodynamic flow and muscular contractions
2. maturation of sperm
3. concentration - > 90% of tubule fluid id resorbed; compacted sperm lose their motility
4. storage
what morpholical change does the sperm chromosome undergo during spermatogenesis and why does this happen?
histones are replaced with protamines to make it more compact and flat
why do protamines cause a greater chromatin copndensation than histones?
they have more S-S bonds
what is the function of Leydig cells?
located in the testes, to synthesize androgens.
How to LH and FSH, respectively, act on the testes?
- LH upregulates the production of androgens
- FSH stimulates the synthesis of androgen binding protein, causing spermiation
how is the rate of spermination controlled?
by secretion of inhibin by the Sertoli cells, which effects a negative feedback on FSH secretion in the anterior pituitary
where do sperm first acquire their motile capibility?
in the body of the epididymis (corpus epididymis)
after intromission, where is the sperm directly deposited in the following species?
- primates
- pigs
- rodents
- cats
- horses
- dogs
- ruminants
- primates: vagina
- pigs: uterus
- rodents: vagina
- cats: vagina
- horses: cervix
- dogs: uterus
- ruminants: vagina
what is the major barrier to sperm transport?
the cervix
(except pigs and dogs, where sperm is deposited into the uterus)
what are the two phases of cervical sperm transport?
1. rapid phase: from the force of ejaculation
2. slow phase: sperm swim through channels in the cervix
once in the uterus, where do sperm collect and by what process does this happen?
they collect at the utero-tubal juncation by estrogen-induced peristaltic contractions of the uterus
what is the major function of the urteo-tubal junction?
to act as a sperm reservior, to gradually release sperm into the oviduct
the physiological changes that sperm undergo in the female tract to gain the capacity to undergo the acrosome reaction
sperm capacitation
in general, why are sperm not capacitated before they are in the female repro tract?
because a capacitated sperm has a much shorter lifespan than a non-capacitated sperm; requirement for capacitation stretches out the fertilizing lifespan of an ejaculate
at what point to sperm initiate the acrosomal reaction?
when it binds to the zona pellucida
how does the surface of a sperm-head change from the epididymis, during ejaculation, and after capacitation?
epididymis - surface binding sites are free

ejaculate - vesicular secretions block surface binding sites by adding a protein called caltrin, which blocks Ca2+ transport

capacition - calitrin is removed, re-exposing the surface binding sites and allowing Ca2+ transport. Surface factors are bound to the sperm-head, including AC/cAMP modulators (calcitonin, FPP, adenosine, angiotensin II), Ca2+ influx modulators (progesterone, GABA), and adhesion molecules (e.g. SPAM1). Increased membrane fluidity by loss of cholesterol.
What are the two types of motility of a capacitated sperm?
1. progressive motility - swimming
2. hyperactive motility
How many signal transduction pathways have been identified to activate sperm capacitation?
three:
1. cAMP/PKA
2. receptor tyrosine kinase pathway
3. non-receptor protein tyrosine kinase pathway
what are the six major steps in the acrosome reaction?
1. sperm binds to zona pellucida via ZP3
2. calcium influx into the sperm
3. F-actin converted to G-actin
4. Ca2+ induces the outer acrosomal membrane and sperm cell membrane to fuse
5. hyaluronidase is released and acrosin is exposed on the inner acrosomal membrane
6. inner acrosomal membrane binds to ZP2 on the zona pellucida
what are the specific functions of hyaluronidase and acrosin?
- hyaluronidase digests hyaluronic acid secreted by the cumulus cells

- acrosin digests a pathway through the zona pellucida
what are the four basic steps in sperm-egg binding after it breaks through the zona pellucida?
1. entire sperm enters the perivitelline space
2. motility diminishes or ceases
3. post-acrosomal membrane of sperm membrane binds to oocyte membrane
4. sperm ligand (fertilin) binds to oocyte surface receptor (integrin)
what part of the sperm binds to the oocyte cell membrane?
the post-acrosomal region (the side of the sperm)
what two major events prevent spolyspermy?
1. depolarization of the oocyte membrane ("fast block")
2. corticle granule exocytosis changes ZP3 to ZP2 in the zona pellucide ("slow block")
when does an oocyte resume meiosis II and exocytose its second polar body?
after sperm-egg binding
the space between the zona pellucida and the oocyte membrane
perivitelline space
how does the cortical reaction ("slow block") prevent polyspermy?
it changes the zona pellucida protein ZP3 to ZP2, which is indigestible by acrosin
what parts of the sperm are endocytosed into the oocyte after sperm-egg binding?
the entire sperm
what is meant by the term "sperm nucleus decondensation?"
protamines are replaced with histones, allowing the chromatin to relax its conformation
after fertilization and completion of oocyte meiosis, what is the term used to describe the independent structures containing the female and male chromatin?
pronuclei
immediately before the fusion of pronuclei in the zygote, what is the chromosome number of chromosomes that each pronucleus have?
both are 2N, having undergone duplication.
fusion of the pronuclei in the zygote
syngamy
what is the chromosome number of the one-celled zygote in which the pronuclei have fused?
4N
what happens next after syngamy?
Metaphase and the first cleavage
what is the term used to describe the totipotent cells of the early embryo (e.g. <12 cells)?
blastomeres
an early embryo (8-16 cells) where the blastmoeres have formed tight junctions
morula
a ball of cells representing the first differentiation of enbryonic versus placental tissues
blastocyst
what are the three major components of a blastocyst?
1. trophoblast - cells that will become placental tissues and extra-embryonic membranes
2. inner cell mass - will become the embryo
3. blastocoele - the fluid-filled cavity inside the blastocyst
how is the zona pellucida ruptured in the early blastocyst to free the conceptus?
by increasing pressure of the blastocoel fluid
name reproductive hormones of the following classes:
- peptide:
- protein:
- steroid
- fatty acid:
- peptide: GnRH, oxytocin
- protein:FSH, LH
- steroid: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone
- fatty acid: prostglandin F2a
what three organs in the body are capable of synthesizing steroids from cholesterol?
gonads, adrenal glands, placenta
what is the precursor molecule for prostaglandins?
arachadonic acid
in repro endocrinology, what activates the adenyl cyclase signal pathway, what is its second messenger, and what does it activate in the cell?
- adenyl cyclase is activated in response to binding of a peptide/protein hormone to its receptor.

- AC catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP

- cAMP activates protein kinase A, which stimulates gene expression and protein synthesis
what are the two major functions of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?
1. primary reproductive regulatory system (puberty, seasonality, cyclicity)

2. balance of negative and positive feedback systems (hypothalamus, pituitary, gonads)
where is GnRH produced, what are its target organs, and how does it get to these target organs?
- GnRH is produced by the hypothalamus

- it is secreted into the pituitary via the hypophyseal portal system

- it also travels systematically to the gonads via the general circulation
what are the two gonadotropins, where are they made, what is their structure, and what is their general overall function?
- FSH and LH
- made in the anterior pituitary "gonadotroph" cells
- they are glycoproteins
- gonadotropin = "gonad" + "growth"
what two major hormones are made in the testes and what specific cell types makes them?
- Inhibin - Sertoli cells
- Testosterone - Leydig (interstitial) cells
What three major hormones are produced by the ovary and what structures produce them?
- Estrogen - follicle
- Inhibin - follicle
- Progesterone - follicle and/or corpus luteum
what is the "ovulation hormone?"
LH
what happens to a mature follicle under the influence of LH?
the follicle
describe the feedback effects of estrogen, inhibin, and progesterone
- Estrogen at low levels: negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, LH
- Estrogen at high levels: positive feedback on GnRH, FSH, LH
- Inhibin: negative feedback on FSH
- Progesterone: Negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, LH
why is it possible for estrogen to have a negative feedback at low concentrations but a positive feedback at high concentrations?
because there are different receptors that affect positive and negative feedback. The negative feedback receptor is sensitive to low levels of estergen; the positive feedback receptor needs large concentrations of estrogen, but overrides the negative feedback loop when stimulated.
Prostaglandin F2a:
- primary source
- primary action
- clinical use
- secondary action
- general action (if given systemically)
Prostaglandin F2a:
- primary source: endometrium
- primary action: luteolysis
- clinical use: shorten cycle, eliminate progesterone production, evacuate the uterus (e.g. in pyometra)
- secondary action: myometrial contractions
- general action (if given systemically): systemic contraction of smooth muscle
why does gonadectomy lead to high levels of serum gonadotropins?
because there are no steroid hormones being released to have a negative feedback on gonadotropin release
one estrous per year
monestrous
regular estrous cycles throughout the year
polyestrous
estrous cycling dependent on season
seasonally polyestrous
what are the two types of seasonal polyestrus?
short-day breeder: when days are shorter (e.g. fall)

long day breeder: when days are longer (e.g. spring)
coming into heat
proestrus
in heat, where the female will stand to breed with the male
estrus
going out of heat; no progesterone present
metestrous
progesterone phase of the estrus cycle
diestrus
not going through estrus cycles
anestrus
describe some physiological and behavioral characteristics of proestrus
- CL is undergoing regression/lysis (P4 levels fall below 1 ng/mL)
- female shows interest but will not stand to be bred
- follicular growth and rising estrogen levels - dominant follicles
- internel repro tract softens or becomes toned for sperm transport and fertilization
describe some physiological and behavioral characteristics of estrus
- female will stand to be bred
- follicular dominance with max estrogen production: induces LH surge (note: bitch needs estrogen and progesterone to stand to be bred)
- estrogen prepares uterus and uterine tube for sperm transport and fertilization
- the pre-ovulatory LH surge stimulates oocyte maturation and ovulation occurs 24-30 hours later
- following ovulation, LH stimulates granulosa and thecal cells from the ovulated follicle wall to become luteal cells
- following ovulation, a second increase in FSH occurs to stimulate a new wave of follicular development
what is the two major effects of LH in the female?
1. stiumulates oocyte maturation and ovulation
2. stimulates ovulated follicle to become a CL
what is the major effect of FSH in the female?
to stimulate follicular development
describe some physiological and behavioral characteristics of metestrus
- early diestrus period where CL is developing from a corpus hemorrhagicum
- progesterone levels increase and prepare uterus for embryo and pregnancy maintenance
- embryo partially develops in uterine tube
which hormones open and close the cervix?
estrogen opens the cervix; progesterone closes the cervix
describe some physiological and behavioral characteristics of diestrus
- progestrone is the dominant hormone
- female will reject the male (headache)
- luteal phase: maximum CL size
- prolonged if there is pregnancy
- progesterone dominance that ends with luteal regression occurs if there is no pregnancy
describe some physiological and behavioral characteristics of anestrus
- exhibits indifference to the male
- relative reproductive inactivity
- mainly seasonal breeders (exception is the bitch)
- low gonadotropin levels
describe four major effects of progesterone during diestrus
1. inhibits estrus behavior (e.g. rejects male)
2. stimulates endometrial secretion of nutrients
3. closes cervix
4. inhibits myometrial contractions
at what serum progesterone concentration is an animal generally said to be in diestrus?
> 1 ng/mL
Cow:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- behavior
- estrus length
- time of ovulation
- length of diestrus
Cow:
- Type of cycling: polyestrous
- Cycle length: 21 days
- behavior: increased riding activity
- estrus length: 7-18 hr
- time of ovulation: 28 hr after onset of estrus
- length of diestrus: 16-17 days
Mare:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- estrus length
- time of ovulation
- length of diestrus
Mare:
- Type of cycling: seasonal polyestrous (long daylight breeder; winter anestrous); approx 20% of mares cycle year-round
- Cycle length: 21 d
- estrus length: early spring, 7-9 d; as season progresses, 3-5 d
- time of ovulation: 1-2 d before the end of estrus
- length of diestrus: 14-16 d
Ewe/Doe:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- estrus length
- behavior
Ewe/Doe:
- Type of cycling: seasonal polyestrous (short-day breeder; anestrus summer)
- Cycle length: ewe 17 d; doe 21 d
- estrus length: ewe 20-48 h; doe 24-72 h
- bleeding, tail swishing, cloudy cervical mucous, seeks male
Sow:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- estrus length
- behavior
- length of diestrus
- time of ovulation
Sow:
- Type of cycling: polyestrous
- Cycle length: 21 d
- estrus length: 1-3 d
- behavior: mounting, back-pressure test in the presence of a boar
- length of diestrus: 16-18 d
- 35-45 hr after onset of estrus
Bitch:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- time of ovulation
- behavior
Bitch:
- Type of cycling: monestrous (1-3 cycles per year)
- Cycle length: 9 day proestrus; 9 day estrus; 63 day diestrus; variable anestrus (total ~ 6 mo)
- 1-2 days after onset of estrus
- receptive to mating when progesterone and estrogen are present
- diestrus is a pseudopregnancy
Queen:
- Type of cycling
- Cycle length
- estrus length
- time of ovulation
- length of diestrus
Queen:
- Type of cycling: seasonal polyestrous (long day breeder: Feb - November)
- Cycle length: proestrus, 1.5 d; follicular phase every 2-3 weeks; 8-10 days if no ovulation
- estrus length: 4-7 days
- time of ovulation: 1-3 days after mating
- length of diestrus: INDUCED OVULATOR; diestrus only occurs if induced to ovulate and lasts 40-45 days as pseudopregnancy; 60 days if pregnant
An embryo or fetus with all its membranes and accessory structures
conceptus
An embryo that has completed organogenesis – recognizable as a member of its species
fetus
what are the four requirements and sequence for the establishment of pregnancy?
1. fertilization
2. early embryonic development
3. maternal recognition of pregnancy
4. placentation
what facilitates embryonic growth before it attaches to the maternal endometrium?
histotrophe (uterine milk)
in the cow and ewe, what determines which uterine horn in which the embryo will grow?
needs to be on the same side as (ipsilateral to the) the corpus luteum
what is essential for embryonic survival for litter-bearing species?
uterine migration resulting in equidistant spacing of embryos
what four major events happen during the first trimester of pregnancy?
1. maternal recognition - prevents luteolysis
2. attachment to endometrium
3. formation of extraembryonic membranes
4. organogenesis
For the following species, list the gestation length in days
- cow
- mare
- ewe
- sow
- bitch
- queen
- cow: 278-293 (about 9 mo)
- mare: 330-345 (11 mo 11 d)
- ewe: 144-151 (about 5 mo)
- sow: 112-115 (3 mo 3 wk 3 d)
- bitch: 65 (about 2-2.5 mo)
- queen: 58-70 (about 2-2.5 mo)
for the following species, what are the litter sizes?

- cow
- mare
- ewe
- sow
- bitch
- queen
- cow: 1
- mare: 1
- ewe: 1-3
- sow: 8-13
- bitch: 7 (average)
- queen: 4 (average)
Maternal recognition, from an endocrine standpoint:
- why is it important?
- when does it happen?
- what happens to achieve maternal recognition?
- prevents natural luteolytic mechanisms
- it happens prior to the release of uterine PGF2a (myometrial contraction)
- a signal from the embryo (hormone and/or protein) is recognized by the mother
What is the maternal recognition signal for the following species?
- cow
- mare
- ewe
- sow
- bitch/queen
- cow: bovine interferon-τ (bovine trophoblastic protein 1)
- mare: none IDed; embryonic motility plays an important role
- ewe: ovine interferon-τ (ovine trophoblastic protein 1)
- sow: estradiol
- bitch/queen: unknown
how many embryos are required for maintenance of the pregnancy of the sow and why?
at least four embryos are required because they must release enough estradiol to prevent intravenous passage of PGF2a
what is the main hormone of pregnancy, where is it produced, and what are its four main functions?
- progesterone
- ovarian (early) and placental (mid to late) origins
- closes cervix
- endometrial gland proliferation
- uterine quiescence
- mammary development
during pregnancy, where is estrogen produced, when is it produced, and what are its three major functions?
- produced by ovaries, placenta, and/or fetal gonads
- gradually increases, with peak around time or parurition
- dilates the cervix at parturition
- stimulates production of myometrial oxytocin receptors
- primer for progesterone and PRL for mammary development
Describe the hypothalamic gonadotropin levels and their effects during pregnancy
- progesterone has a negative feedback on the hypothalamic secretion of LH and FSH
- low levels of LH do exist during pregnancy and are luteotropic early on.
- FSH waves may continue
Describe the placental gonadotropin levels and their effects during pregnancy
the equine produces equine chorionic gonadotropin (eCG) from the endometrial cups during pregnancy, which act like LH during pregnancy. Similar hormones act like FSH in other species
what is a luteal-dependent versus a luteal-independent pregnancy?
luteal-dependent means that a CL of ovulation is required for the entire duration of pregnancy; luteal independent only needs the CL at the beginning of pregnancy because the placenta makes P4 later on.
classify the following species as having luteal-dependent or luteal-independent pregnancies:
Doe
Cow
Bitch
Queen
Sow
Mare
Ewe
Doe - dependent
Cow - independent
Bitch - dependent
Queen - dependent
Sow - dependent
Mare - independent
Ewe - independent

5 species are dependent; 3 are independent
litter bearing
polytocous
bearing a single offspring
monotocous
never carried a pregnancy
nulliparous
having a first pregnancy
primaparous
having had multiple pregnancies
multiparous
how do the fetus and the dam each play a role in determining the onset of parturition?
- the fetus initiates its own parturition by stress-induced hormonal changes
- the dam can only control "when" it will happen, as in the morning or evening
what hormones secreted by the fetus initiate parturition?
ACTH, corticosteroids, and prostaglandin
what is the Ferguson reflex and how is it a positive feedback mechanism?
- dilation of the cervix causes oxytocin release
- oxytocin release causes myometrial contraction (push!)
- contraction causes the cervix to dilate further and the cycle repeats until birth
what is the function of relaxin?
relaxes the cervix and ligaments to assist with parturition
what is the role of prostaglandin-E in parturition and how can it be used clinically?
PG-E opens the cervix, and initiates parturition via the Ferguson reflex

it can be used clinically to induce labor
what seven major roles does cortisol have in the periparturient period?
stimulates:
1. parturition
2. production of lung surfactant
3. liver and cardiac glycogen storage
4. maturation of insulin secretory mechanisms

5. increases conversion of T4-->T3 (higher metabolism)
6. increases deposition of brown fat
7. stimulates erythropoiesis
what hormone is responsible for mammary development and milk secretion?
PRL
***how does cortisol alter endocrine function in the placenta?
activates the placental enzymes that convert progesterone to estrogen
what hormonal effects does estrogen have in the periparturient period?
- increases myometrial oxytocin receptors
- increases prostaglandin production
what effect does prostaglandin F2a have in the periparturient period?
- lysis of the luteal tissues in the CL-dependent species, causing a decline in progesterone levels and decreased cervical tone

- stimulates uterine contractions
what five significant physiological events happen just prior to parturition?
1. pelvic limbs soften (estrogens and relaxin)
2. cervix softens and secretes mucus (estrogens and relaxin)
3. vulva relaxes (collagenase)
4. udder swells (first edema, then with milk)
5. fetus moves into proper position (in cow sternal recumbancy with front limbs extended and head facing cervix)
What are the three stages of parturition?
1. Dilation of the cervix
2. Expulsion of the fetus
3,. Expulsion of the fetal membranes
what major events occur during the first stage of parturition?
Stage I - dilation of the cervix

- variable clinical signs
- entry of fetus into cervical canal --> Fergusson's reflex
- ends with rupture of the chorioallantois (water breaks)
what major events occur during the second stage of parturition?
Stage II - expulsion of the fetus

- active labor
- Fergusson's reflex
- peak oxytocin --> forceful contractions
- abdominal contractions - the PUSH
- amnion ruptures to lubricate the birth canal
- ends with delivery of the fetus(es)
what major events occur during the thirs stage of parturition?
Stage III - expulsion of the fetal membranes

- variable in duration
- continued uterine contractions
- passage of placenta
- in polytocous species, placentas are usually passed during labor or shortly after birth of the first offspring
- mare: 3 hours; ruminants: 12 hours
the period extending from delivery until the maternal organism has returned to normal non-pregnant state
puerperium or postpartum period
what happens during and at the end of the puerperium (postpartum period)?
- uterine involution
- first estrus after parturition
how does postpartum cyclicity occur among the foillowing species?

- mare
- cow
- small ruminants
- sow
- queen
- bitch
- mare - first heat at 7-9 days; best fertility of ovulation >/= day 10
- cow - lochia passed after 1-2 weeks; 1st ovulation 10-20 days; low fertility; 45 day mandatory waiting period in dairy cattle; lactational anestrus in beef cattle
- small ruminants: not until next season
- sow: 5-7 days after weaning
- queen: 5-7 days after weaning
- bitch: long cycle length
which extra-embryonic membranes contribute to the formation of the placenta?
chorion and allantois
what fetal membrane is critical for vascular supply to and from the placenta?
allantois
how are the following substances transferred across the placenta?

- gases
- urea
- iron
- glucose
- amino acids
- gases: simple diffusion
- urea: simple diffusion
- iron: facilitated diffusion
- glucose: non-insulin-dependent glucose transporters
- amino acids - primary active transport (and secondary)
what role does placental progesterone play in pregnancy?
- the primary gestational hormone
- promotes endometrial growth
- suppresses myometrial contraction
- promotes alveolar development in the mammary glands
- once established, makes enough to maintain pregnancy
what promotes the alveolar and ductal growth of the mammary glands during pregnancy?
alveolar growth: progesterone
ductal growth: estrogen
where is estrogen made in the pregnant mare?
fetal gonads
how does estrogen production during pregnancy affect the kidneys?
causes increased Na (and water) reabsorption
what is the function of placental lactogen (or chorionic somatomammotropin)
- increases glucose delivery to the fetus
- maybe lactogenic
what are the four major methods for classification of the placenta "type?"
1. by degree of uterine tissue at implantation
2. by presence or absence of fusion of amnion and chorion
3. gross shape
4. histological structure
how does a superficial (non-deciduate) placenta differ from an interstitial (deciduate) placenta? Which species have which types?
superficial - no loss of maternal tissue after parturition. pigs, horses, part of ruminant's placenta

interstitial - fetal tissues fuse with maternal, so there is loss of maternal tissue after parturition. most carnivores, rodents, primates, part of ruminant's placenta
in what species do the anmion and chorion fuse and in what species do not? How does the appearance of the neonates differ in these two circumstances?
- does not fuse: carnivores, horses; these species may be born covered with amnion

- does fuse: ruminants; may be born free of amnion
what are the four types of placentas as classified by gross shape?
1. diffuse: modified area covers entireplacenta (horse, pig)
2. cotyledonary: plecentomes in ruminants
3. zonary: ring shaped (dog and cat)
4. discoid: disc shaped (primates, rodents)
name the six potential epithelial layers from outside to inside of the placenta and which layers can be missing depending on placenta type
- maternal endothelium
- maternal connective tissue
- maternal epithelium
- fetal epithelium
- fetal connective tissue
- fetal endothelium

the three maternal layers can be lost depending on placenta type. The three fetal layers are maintained.
what are the five major components of milk?
1. water
2. fat (emusified)
3. protein (colloidal)
4. milk sugar (dissolved)
5. minerals and vitamins (dissolved)
Name the number of and distribution of mammary glands for the following species:
- cow
- pig
- rabbit
- small ruminants
- carnivores
- mare
- rodent
- deer
- guinea pig
- cow: 2 pairs, inguinal area
- pig: 4-8 pairs, thoracic and abdominal wall
- rabbit: 4-8 pairs, thoracic and abdominal wall
- small ruminants: one pair, inguinal region
- carnivores: 4-8 pairs, thoracic and abdominal wall
- mare: one pair, inguinal region
- rodent: 4-8 pairs, thoracic and abdominal wall
- deer: 2 pairs, inguinal area
- guinea pig: one pair, inguinal region
a functional opening in the teat of a mammary gland
galactophore
give number of glactophores for the following species:
- cow
- bitch
- queen
- pig
- mare
- small ruminant
- mouse
- rabbit
(functional openings per teat)
- cow: 1
- bitch: 8-20
- queen: 4-7
- pig: 2-4
- mare: 2-4 (usually 2)
- small ruminant: 1
- mouse: 1
- rabbit: 8-20
what are seven histological parts of a lactational lobule
1. arteriole
2. myoepithelial cells
3. capillaries
4. venules
5. lumen
6. epithelial cells
7. ducts
a single layer of epithelial cells surrounding a central lumen in a mammary gland
alveolus
a cluster of alveolus in a mammary gland
alveoli
a group of alveoli in a mammary gland
lobule
a group of lobules in a mammary gland
lobe
in a mammary gland, name the four secretory structures from smallest size to largest
1. alveolus
2. alveoli
3. lobule
4. lobe
immediately from the lobe, through what does milk travel and where is it stored?
travels through the mammary ducts and is stored in the gland cistern
in the cow, what separates the gland cistern from the teat cistern?
cricoid fold
in the cow, through what does milk exit the udder and what is its functional importance other than an orifice?
passes through the streak canal.

the streak canal has smooth muscle to keep it closed, keratin, and antibacterial secreting cells to prevent microbes from entering the udder
in the cow, how much protein, fat, and sugar are contained in the total solids?
approximately 1/3rd, 1/3rd, and 1/3rd
among various species, what determines the dry matter content of milk?
suckling intervals and physiological maturity. Those that suckle less frequently will tend to have more concentrated milk
what is the main protein in milk?
casein
when rennin or acid is added to milk, it will curdle. What are the solid proteins and what proteins are still dissolved in the whey?
- casein is curdled out
- beta lactalbumin and alpha lactoglobulin remain dissolved
what is the most important nutrient for the production of milk?
glucose
what minerals does milk contain:
- in high concentration
- moderate concentration
- low to deficient
- high: Ca, P, K, I
- moderate: Na, Cl
- low to deficient: Fe (pigs), Se, other microminerals
in which species does placental transfer of immunoglobulins occur in addition to colostrum?
dog and cat
what nutrients tend to be high in colostrum versus normal milk?
- globulins and other protein
- vitamin A and beta carotene
- vitamin E
- some B vitamins
what are the two major immunoglobulins in milk?
IgG1 and IgM
what property does colostrum have to prevent enzymatic digestion of imunoglobulins?
antitrypsin activity
a milk duct with no alveoli
atrophic ducts
what are the four main stages of growth of a milk-secreting gland and the hormones responsible?
1. atrophic ducts --(estrogen + somatotropin + corticoids)-->
2. duct growth --(estrogen + PRL + somatotropin + corticoids)-->
3. lobule-alveolar growth --(PRL + corticoids)-->
4. milk secretion
if an animal is ovarioectomized when young, what three species-dependent groups can an animal be divided into?
1. mammary duct growth only (rodents, cat)
2. mammary duct growth and loubuloalveolar system (ruminants)
3. no mammary growth (dogs)
what two hormones are responsible most for mammogenesis?
estrogen and progesterone
the biosynthesis of milk
glactopoiesis
what is the most important hormone in milk production? milk letdown?
production - PRL
letdown - oxytocin
how does milk production change over time from parturition?
rises and peaks between 30-60 days for most species and tails off until weaning.
how do the mammary lobules respond physiologically in response to oxytocin to achieve milk ejection?
- contraction of myoepithelial cells of the alveolus
- concurrent relaxation of the muscle surrounding the large alveolar ducts
how does dry period affect milk production in cows?
cows will produce the most milk when allowed to dry off, the least milk when continuously milked, and somewhere in between these two values if not completely dried off.
in cows, how does milk production correlate with number of milkings per day?
increases. 3x per day results in a 10-20% increase versus 2x per day
if the testes are inside the body of birds, who tend to have high body temperatures, how does spermatogenesis occur?
the body temperature drops at night
comment on the assymmetry of the avian gonads
males have paired testes
females have only one functional ovary, usually on the left
what are the sex chromosomes of the male and female bird, respectively?
male: ZZ (homogamete)
female: ZW (heterogamete)
what four major effects does testosterone production have on the bird?
1. vocalization
2. courtship
3. aggression
4. nest building
what is hyperostotic periostosis?
extreme bone loss in the female bird to produce her eggs
in birds, what structure in the cloaca designates the termination of the ductus deferens?
cloacal protuberance or ejaculatory papilla
what types of birds have a phallus?
anseriformes (ducks and geese) and rattites
what are the five regions of the avian oviduct?
1. infundibulum
2. magnum
3. isthmus
4. uterus
5. vagina
where in the avian oviduct is most of the albumin deposited into the egg?
magnum
where in the avian oviduct are the inner and outer shell membranes added?
isthmus
where in the avian oviduct is the shell and pigment added to the egg?
uterus
where does a female bird store sperm?
in spermatic fossulae at the junction between the uterus and vagina
what is the difference between an altricial and precocial chick?
altricial - immature and requires nursing by parents

precocial - self-reliant shortly after hatch
how does light affect the endocrine regulation of the breeding season in birds?
light passes through the skull and directly hits the pineal gland. Also the eye plays a role.
in males, what is the effect of FSH?
growth of seminiferous tubules
in males, what is the function of LH?
promotes testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells
to what is the avian egg shell permeable?
- gas (O2, CO2)
- slow water loss
what are the two functions of the yolk in the bird egg?
- nourishment
- maternal antibodies
describe how the air cell in the top of the egg is important in hatching?
the chick breathes in the air in the air cell, which is high in CO2. This stimulates breathing. To get its first real breath, the bird needs to poke through the egg shell.