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Which of the following is not part of the project management plan?

a) The staffing plan.
b) The work breakdown structure.
c) Performance measurement baselines for schedule and cost.
d) The project team members' contribution plan.
D) Section 4.2.3 Integration Management

Know the purpose and content of the project management plan.
2) Projects are typically initiated as a result of any of the following Except:

a) The recommendation of the project manager.
b) The business need that will increase the organization's revenue.
c) A market demand for more technologically advanced projects.
d) A social need identified by a feasibility study.
A) Section 4.1 Integration Management

A project should not be initiated for personal gain. Projects are formally initiated after some sort of needs assessment or feasibility analysis has been completed.
3) Once the network diagram is laid out, the project manager will conduct a forward pass and a backward pass through the network. This will provide information on the ______ and identification of the ______.

a) Slack for each activity, critical path.
b) Slack for each activity, high risk activities.
c) Resource shortages, slack times.
d) High-risk activities, noncritical paths.
A) Section 6.5 Time Management

The forward path yields early start and early finish dates and the backward pass yields late starts and late finish dates. Float or slack is calculated from late finish minus early finish. The path with zero float is the critical path.
4) The majority of firms utilizing project management may typically experience any of the following Except:

a) Better control and customer relations.
b) Improved coordination and a reduction in organizational complexity.
c) Additional costs in rework and warranties.
d) Greater adherence to organizational policy and procedure.
C) Section 1 Introduction.

In general, project management is supposed to increase the quality of the products of projects, so costs for rework and warranties should be reduced.
5) The project manager reviews work results of completed project scope activities and measures these against the:

a) Requirements.
b) Project management plan.
c) Scope management plan.
d) Work breakdown structure.
B) Section 4.4 Integration Management.

The monitoring and controlling project work process is concerned with comparing actual project performance against the project management plan.
6) Of the six tools and techniques for the Control Cost process, which one integrates cost and schedule information as a key element of its approach?

a) Earned value management.
b) Variance analysis.
c) To-complete performance index.
d) Performance reviews.
D) Section 7.3.2.1 Cost Management

Earned value performance compares the baseline plan to the actual schedule and cost performance and is part of the performace review tool and technique.
7) When one large project has several smaller projects within it, these are known as:

a) Projects or subprojects.
b) Program or projects.
c) Operations or project portfolios.
d) Project life cycles or product life cycles.
A) Section 3.2 Introduction

Subprojects are typically referred to as projects and managed as such. They can utilize a less-experienced project manager.
8) One of the major problems facing project managers in acquiring staff it that functional manager are not willing to give up their best people, and even when they do, they do not give up control such as salary and promotion over their people. This is a disadvantage of the ______ organizational structure.

a) Weak Matrix
b) Projectized.
c) Virtual
d) Strong Matix
A) Section 2.4.2 Introduction

Unlike functional organizations in which each employee has a clear supervisor, employees in martix organizations have two bosses. This is often a source of conflict.
9) One key general management skill all project managers must have is good conflict management skills. Conflict within a team can be ______.

a) One-sided.
b) An unnatural result of change.
c) Easy to address in any situation.
d) Postive or negative.
D) Section 9.4.2.3
10) The sequence of activities that cannot be delayed during the course of the project is referred to as the:

a) Critical path.
b) Selection of people to serve on the project team.
c) Getting to know the project's client.
d) Claims administration.
A) Section 6.2.2.1 Time Management.

The crtitical path consists of activities with zero float that cannot be delayed without impacting the project schedule.
11) Initial task(s) required to be performed by the project manager include all of the following Except:

a) Budget and schedule preparation.
b) Selection of people to serve on the project team.
c) Getting to know the project's client.
d) Claims administration.
D) Section 12.3 Procurement Management

Claims administration is a tool and technique under procurement management Administer Procurement process and will only be performed on projects in which items are being procured.
12) Cost of changes in requirements tend to:

a) Increase as the project starts up and progresses.
b) Decrease as the project starts up and progresses.
c) Increase or decrease depending on the scope of the change.
d) Always requires the project sponsor's approval.
A) Section 2.1.1 Project Life Cycle and Organization.

Know the common characteristics of project life cycles. Cost of changes and error correction generally increase as the project continues.
13) One purpose for risk management is:

a) To make sure the schedule is met.
b) To increase the probability and impact of positive events.
c) Assessment of schedule change impacts.
d) Contingency planning.
B) Section 11 Risk Management

Although risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing and responding to project risk, it includes minimizing the probability and consquences of adverse events to project objectives and increasing the probabiltiy and impact of positive events.
14) ______ is a bar chart that shows a distribution of values.

a) Pareto.
b) Histogram.
c) Ishikawa.
d) Flowchart.
B) Section 8.3.2.4 Quality Management.

Choice A is a specific type of histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence; choice C is a fishbone or cause-and-effect diagram; choice D is a graphical representation of a process.
15) Why use risk management?

a) Some projects are easily delivered.
b) Planning only focuses on the past.
c) Uncertainty is often explicit and formal.
d) Projects can contain many surprises.
D) Section 11 Risk Management

The inherently temporary nature of projects invites uncertain events or conditions to occur; if these events do occur, they could have a positive or negative effect on the project objectives.
16) To ensure control over the incidence and frequency of change requests, the project manager establishes a:

a) Work breakdown structure
b) Change control system.
c) Risk log.
d) Work procedure schedule.
B) Section 4.5 Integration Management

The project manager needs to coordinate change requests across the knowledge area; e.g., a scope quality and staffing requirements.
17) A project in an endeavor with a well-defined purpose that is:

a) Ongoing and repetitive.
b) Unique and temporary.
c) A combination of interrelated activities.
d) Started and ended on certain days during each month.
B) Section 1.2 Introduction

A project has a definite beginning and a definite end to create a unique product, service or result.
18) You have just been notified that your customer has money problems and will not be able to pay for upcoming milestone deliverables. As project manager you should:

a) Tell everyone to stop working.
b) Release 90% of the project team.
c) Reduce the scope and begin administrative closure.
d) Shift these deliverables to the next phase to give the customer additional time to obtain funds.
C) Section 4.6 Integration Management and Professional Responsiblilty.

The best choice is to give the customer some value for the money spent and close out the project.
19) When planning a project, the team should take into account:

a) Technical training requirements.
b) The overall strategic goals of the organization.
c) Project requirements, resources and schedules only.
d) The project manager's experience.
B) Section 4.1 Integration Management.

Although choices A, C, and D can be considered correct, they are only a subset of the project. A project should be initiated to address a specific need of the organization.
20) Which of the following is the proper activities for a project?

I. Status report description.
II. Detailed task description.
III. Project deliverables decomposition.
IV. Product acceptance criteria.
V. Budgets and schedules.

a) III, V, I, II, IV.
b) III, V, I, IV, II.
c) IV, III, II, I, V.
d) IV, II, V, I, III.
C) Section 3. Project Management Processes for a Project.

See Figure 3-7 of the PMBOK Guide. Acceptance criteria are part of the scope statement. The WBS feeds activity definition, communications planning and cost budgeting, which all feed schedule development.
21) Which organizational structure provides the project manager with the highest degree of authority?

a) Projectized.
b) Strong matrix
c) Balanced matrix.
d) Functional.
A) Section 2.4.2. Project Life Cycle and Organization.

A project-based organization derives its revenues from performing projects.
22) In a fixed price contract, who bears the greater burden of risk?

a) The seller organization.
b) The buyer organization.
c) The project sponsor.
d) Both the buyer and the seller share the risk
A) Section 12.1.2.3 Procurement Management

Although the PMBOK Guide does not go into the burdens of risk, it is important to know that the seller bears the heaviest burden of risk in fixed price contracts and the buyer bears the heaviest burden of risk in cost reimbursable contracts.
23) The information from the work breakdown structure is used to derive all of the following Except:

a) The project master schedule.
b) The project budget.
c) The project objectives.
d) Work package descriptions.
C) Section 5.3.3.1 Scope Management

Project objectives should already have been defined as part of the scope statement, an output of the Plan Scope process. Defining the scope precedes the Create WBS process, where the WBS is created.
24) A subcontractor is two weeks late in his deliverables and asks the project manager to accept these late deliverables in exchange for a reduction in his fee. This is an example of the ______ technique of conflict resolution.

a) Forcing.
b) Problem solving.
c) Compromising.
d) Withdrawal.
C) Section 9.4.2.3 Human Resources Management

Both parties give up something; therefore, it is a compromise.
25) As project manager, you notice a team member is not performing well because he is inexperienced in the technology being utilized. What should be your best solution?

a) Report the team member's bad performance to his functional manager.
b) Co-locate the team member right next to your office so you can check on his work.
c) Discuss a reward mechanism with the team member to encourage him to work harder.
d) Arrange for the team member to get training in the required technology.
D) Section 9.3 Human Resources Management.

The project manager's responsibilities include obtaining project-specific training for the development of team members.
26) Primary objectives of project management include:

a) Ensuring profitability, competitive advantages and gaining a leadership position.
b) Meeting project objectives in performance, time, cost and quality.
c) Upgrading the system, implementing new technology and facilitating operational change.
d) Solving business problems.
B) Section 1.3 Introduction.

Strong project management can assist an organization in profitability, competitive advantage, etc., but its main purpose is to meet project requirements and deliver per the project objectives.
27) Projects sometime get authorized, even though they may not be profitable when fully costed, because the project can serve any of the following Except:

a) As a means to develop new technology.
b) To improve the organization's competitive position.
c) As a means to broaden a product line or a line of business.
d) The personal interests of the executive team.
D) Section 4.1 Integration Management.

The project management process does not assume that projects are fiscally sound. Projects are initiated to support organizational strategies. Projects should not be initiated for personal interests or gains.
28) The Estimate Costs process includes identifying and considering various costing alternatives; it requires you to use as inputs all of the following Except:

a) Market conditions
b) The work breakdown structure.
c) Resource rates.
d) Parametric estimating.
D) Section 7.1.1. Cost Management.

Parametric estimating is a tool or technique used in calculating cost estimates.
29) Good project objectives must be:

a) General rather than specific.
b) Established without considering resource bounds.
c) Realistic and attainable.
d) Measurable, intangible and verifiable.
C) Section 4.1.3.1 Integration Management

Objectives should be SMART (specific, measurable, attainable or assignable, realistic and time based).
30) A project is fully complete when:

a) All work has been completed.
b) The customer has formally accepted the project results and deliverables.
c) Financial records for the project have been added to the project archives.
d) The project manager has arranged the project closure celebration.
B) Section 4.6.3 Integration Management

An important output of the close project process is the confirmation that the project's product has met customer requirements and there is formal acceptance by the customer.
31) For effective communication, the message should be oriented to the ______.

a) Sender.
b) Receiver.
c) Media.
d) Corporate culture.
B) Section 10 Communications Management.

Communication skills are an important part of general management as well as project management. Effective communication only occurs if the receiver has decoded and understands the message.
32) Slack or float is calculated by taking the difference between:

a) Late finish and early finish of an activity.
b) Late finish and duration of an activity.
c) Early start and late finish of an activity.
d) Early start and late start of an activity.
A) Section 6.5.2 Time Management

Critical path method requires calculating slack or float to determine the path with least scheduling flexibility.
33) A work package is a:

a) Deliverable at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure.
b) Task with a unique identifier.
c) Required level of reporting.
d) Task that can be assigned to one or more organizational units.
A) Section 5.3 Scope Management

A work package can be scheduled, monitored and controlled.
34) ______ is present in all projects.

a) Knowledge
b) Uncertainty.
c) Capital investment.
d) Contract closure.
B) Section 11 Risk Management

Not all projects are capital projects or require procurement processes to be executed.
35) In the precedence diagramming method (PDM), common dependencies include:

a) Start-to-node
b) Finish-to-start
c) Arrow-on-node
d) Start-to-finish
B) Section 6.5.2 Time Management

Precedence diagramming method is an example of a schedule networking technique.
36) Resource leveling is used when shared resources are available at certain times in limited quantities. It often results in:

a) Project duration that is longer than the preliminary schedule.
b) Project duration that is shorter than the preliminary schedule.
c) No change to the project duration as the critical path is unchanged.
d) Fast tracking.
A) Section 6.5.2.4 Time Management.

Resource leveling smoothes out resource requirements from period to period, often resulting in an extension of the schedule
37) Your project has fallen behind schedule and you are trying to get it back on track so you decide to crash some tasks. You will be most successful in completing the project on time and within budget by:

a) Asking the customer which tasks could be crashed.
b) Crashing all tasks that are estimated to take more than five days.
c) Evaluating the risk impact of crashing tasks on the critical path.
d) Evaluating the cost and risk of crashing tasks with one or more days of float.
C) Section 6.5.2.7 Time Management

Since the critical path is the longest amount of time to complete a project, only the tasks on the critical path should be crashed in order to shorten the project schedule. Crashing usually results in higher costs.
38) The output of the Perform Quality Control process that determines the correctness of deliverables is called:

a) Recommended defect repair.
b) Quality control measures.
c) Validated defect repair.
d) Validated deliverables.
D) Section 8.3.3.3 Quality Management

In addition to validated deliverables, an output of the Perform Quality Control process is validated change requests.
39) The customer has asked for major changes that will incur significant costs. If the project is near completion, the project manager should:

a) Ask the customer for a description of and reason for the change.
b) Say no to the customer as the project is almost complete and less cost flexibility exists.
c) Meet with the project sponsor and determine if the changes should be made.
d) Meet with the project team to determine who can work overtime.
A) Section 5.5 Scope Management

The project manager must first determine if the requested changes impact the business need the project was undertaken to address. If the project justification, product, deliverables or objectives are impacted, the request is valid and the project sponsor must be notified.
40) Collecting information on how resources are being used to achieve project objectives is part of the ______ process.

a) Report Performance.
b) Distribute Information
c) Plan Communications.
d) Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
A) Section 10.4 Communications Management

As part of the Report Performance process, the project manager should know how resources are being utilized in order to complete work that is scheduled.