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533 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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What is pathology? ***
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a branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes and effects of disease
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What is disease? ***
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the unhealthy state of a body part, a physiological system, or the body as a whole.
there is a disordered structure of function |
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What is a cause of many types of diseases? ***
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abnormal growth patterns
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What is hyperplasia? ***
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an increased number of cells, resulting in tumor formation
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What is hypoplasia? ***
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incomplete development or underdevelopment of an organ or tissue
(e.g., a child with cerebral palsy that presents with an underdeveloped limb or muscle tissue) |
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What is aplasia? ***
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the absence of a structure of tissue
(e.g., plastic anemia, where the bone marrow fails to produce erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets and the patient is unable to fight infection |
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What is metaplasia? ***
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the conversion of normal tissue cells into an abnormal form following chronic stress or injury
(e.g., cancer) |
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What is dysplasia? ***
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abnormal development of a structure
(e.g., congenital heart defect, or hip dysplasia in a dog) |
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What is etiology? ***
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the study of the causes of diseases
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What are the sources of infectious diseases? ***
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- bacteria
- fungi - parasites - viruses |
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What is the source of hereditary diseases? ***
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defective gene(s) or genetic disease
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What is a congenital birth defect? ***
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an error in development of the fetus
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What can cause congenital birth defects? ***
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- maternal infection during pregnancy (e.g., rubella)
- use of certain drugs or excessive alcohol intake during pregnancy - industrial waste exposure during pregnancy - accident at time of delivery (e.g., interference with oxygen supply |
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What types of environmental factors can cause disease? ***
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- sun exposure (e.g.,, skin cancer)
- radiation exposure - asbestos exposure - chemical exposure |
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Diseases of malnutrition may be caused by: ***
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- lack of adequate food supply
- patient's inability to digest properly/absorb nutrients properly |
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What are some degenerative causes of disease? ***
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- arthritis
- normal aging |
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Name an endocrine disturbance that may cause disease. ***
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altered thyroid function due to improper hormone secretion as seen in thyroid disease
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Name a disease caused by obstruction of a hollow organ. ***
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coronary artery disease
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What is a neoplasm? ***
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a new growth of cancer (actually, a new and abnormal growth of tissue in some part of the body, but especially as a characteristic of cancer)
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List the various etiologies of disease. ***
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- congenital birth defects
- hereditary disease - environmental factors - malnutrition - infectious disease - degenerative factors - endocrine disturbances - obstruction of hollow organs - neoplasm - trauma or injury - idiopathic |
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The cause of disease is known as its ________. ***
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etiology
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What is a diagnosis? ***
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the use of scientific and/or clinical methods to determine the nature of a disease
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What factors are considered in making a diagnosis? ***
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- signs
- symptoms - lab tests - diagnostic imaging (e.g., MRI, X-ray, etc.) - patient history |
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As a PTA, why must you know how to report your patient's signs and symptoms? ***
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you will need to know when even minute changes occur, to determine whether treatment should be discontinued or modified
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What is a sign? ***
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OBJECTIVE evidence of disease observed on physical examination
(e.g., fever, elevated pulse rate, pallor) |
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What is a symptom? ***
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a SUBJECTIVE indication of disease perceived by the patient
(e.g., pain, dizziness, itching) |
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What is a syndrome? ***
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certain signs and symptoms that tend to occur concurrently in some diseases
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A skin rash is an example of a _____. ***
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sign
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What is a prognosis? ***
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the predicted course and outcome of the disease, as made by a physician after examining all the signs and symptoms and deriving a diagnosis
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The predicted outcome of a disease is its _______.
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prognosis
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A fever is an example of a:
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sign
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What disease type has a slow and long-lasting course?
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chronic
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The recurrence of a disease’s signs and symptoms is known as:
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relapse
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Normal health and non-disease conditions represent:
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homeostasis
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A chronic aftermath of an initial disease is known as:
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sequela
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Which of the following is not a disease?
tuberculosis polio common cold fatigue |
fatigue
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The overall study of disease may be called:
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pathology
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What is the opposite of idiopathic?
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etiology
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An objective or measurable disease feature is called:
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sign
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Simultaneous signs and symptoms of a disease are called:
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syndrome
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The cause of a disease can be identified as idiopathic, which means unknown. (T/F)
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true
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A traumatized tissue has an abnormal gene. (T/F)
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false
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Homeostasis means the maintenance of the body in an unchanging state. (T/F)
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false
(it is maintaining within normal limits, not completely unchanging) |
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The severe scars left after a serious burn injury represent a sequela. (T/F)
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true
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A syndrome is an inherited disease. (T/F)
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false
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An abnormally high red blood cell count is always a sign of a disease condition. (T/F)
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false
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Pathogenesis is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease. (T/F)
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false
(pathogenesis is the cause of the disease, together with its development; pathology is the study of disease in general; pathophysiology is the study of the physiological processes leading up to disease) |
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When a patient complains of pain in the chest and a feeling of dizziness, she is describing symptoms. (T/F)
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true
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Alternating periods of remission and exacerbation are characteristics of acute disease. (T/F)
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false (this is characteristic of chronic disease)
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Diseases always are the result of some infections agent such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. (T/F)
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false
(diseases can be infectious, but they can also be caused by: - congenital birth defects - heredity - environmental factors - malnutrition - infection - degenerative factors - endocrine disturbances - obstructions in hollow organs - neoplasm - trauma/injury - idiopathic origin |
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Pallor means:
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abnormal paleness
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________ cannot be treated successfully by antibiotics.
Strep Throat Tuberculosis Influenza Salmonella |
influenza
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A(n) ______ is reduced size or function of a tissue.
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atrophy
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When a diabetic patient experiences kidney failure, he has developed a(n)
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complication
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_________ refers to the permanent damage remaining after a disease has run its course.
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sequela
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Development of an increased number of cells in a tumor is called _______.
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hyperplasia
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During fetal development, the roof of the mouth (palate) sometimes fails to form completely. This is an example of __________.
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hypoplasia
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Prediction of the course of a disease is the ________.
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prognosis
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An area of abnormal tissue or function is called ________
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lesion
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Bacteria may develop their own ________ and thus resist antibiotics through multiple or constant exposure.
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immunity
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Unknown disease cause
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idiopathic
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A pimple is a representative form
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lesion
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Known cause of disease
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etiology
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Measurable disease observation
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sign
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Number of new disease cases in a population
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incidence
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Developmental cause of disease
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pathogenesis
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Predictable outcome for a disease
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prognosis
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Number of disease cases in a population
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prevalence
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Perceived criterion of disease
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symptom
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Follows diagnosis
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treatment
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What is inflammation? ***
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a protective response to injury or invasion by disease-producing organisms
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What are some causes of inflammation? ***
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- foreign substances (e.g., splinter)
- allergies - chemical agents (e.g., poison, venom) - trauma or injury - pathogenic organisms (e.g., bacteria, virus, fungus) - physical agents (e.g., radiation, temperature extremes) |
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Are inflammation and infection the same thing? ***
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no
you can have inflammation without infection (e.g., sunburn) but you can't have infection without inflammation |
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What causes infection? ***
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invading pathogenic organisms
(e.g., bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites) |
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How do invading organisms cause disease? ***
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- by local infection
- by secretion of a toxin - by initiating an allergic response |
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What vascular changes occur with inflammation? ***
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- local blood vessels, arterioles, and capillaries dilate, resulting in increased blood flow
- increased blood flow causes heat and redness associated with the inflammatory process - with increased blood flow, more leukocytes (WBCs) reach the injury or infection - specialized WBCs called neutrophils or polymorphs line up within capillary walls - damaged tissue releases histamine, which causes capillary walls to become more permeable - increased permeability allows plasma and neutrophils to pass in and out of blood vessels easily - phagocytic neutophils engulf and digest bacteria and cellular debris - escaping plasma and WBCs comprise inflammatory exudate, which causes swelling associated with inflammation - increased fluid in the tissues (edema) puts pressure on sensitive nerve endings, causing pain |
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What is hyperemia? ***
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increased blood flow
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What substance is released by damaged tissue, causing capillary walls to become more permeable? ***
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histamine
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What is inflammatory exudate? ***
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a mixture of plasma and white blood cells that causes the swelling associated with inflammation
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What is edema? ***
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swelling
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What is a phagocyte? ***
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a cell that consumes and digests other cells
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What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation? ***
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- redness
- heat - swelling - pain |
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How is a scar formed? ***
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- connective tissue cells called fibroblasts produce collagen fibers that contract and close the gap between cut edges of injured tissue
- scar tissue is the fibroblasts and their collagen fibers that heal the cut |
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What is a fibroblast? ***
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a connective tissue cell that produces collagen fibers to aid in healing/scar formation
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What is an adhesion? ***
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occurs when connective tissue fibers anchor adjacent tissues together
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What is a keloid? ***
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occurs when connective tissue fibers are laid down in an irregular network
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What is an antigen? ***
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a foreign element that triggers an immune response
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What substances are created by the body to fight against antigens and render them harmless? ***
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antibodies and activated lymphocytes
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What types of material normally comprise an antigen? ***
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they are normally a protein or large polysaccharide (complex carbohydrate)
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What is immunity? ***
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the ability of the body to defend itself against infectious agents, foreign cells, and abnormal body cells
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What two types of immunity do we have? ***
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- innate immunity (nonspecific defenses), and
- acquired immunity (specific defenses) |
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What six elements comprise our innate immunity (nonspecific defenses)? ***
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- Fever
- Interferon (group of substances that stimulate immune system) - Physical or chemical barriers (skin & secretions) - Phagocytosis - Inflammation - Natural killer cells (leukocyte that recognizes body cells with abnormal membranes) |
FIPPIN |
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What are the two types of acquired immunity (specific defenses)? ***
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- humoral immunity
- cell-mediated immunity |
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What is humoral immunity? ***
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- circulating antibodies capable of destroying foreign invaders
[B lymphocytes, which comprise memory cells and plasma cells (immunoglobulins)] |
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What is the difference between an immunoglobulin and an antibody? ***
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none, they mean the same thing
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What is cell-mediated immunity? ***
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activated lymphocytes responsible for resistance to infectious diseases caused by certain bacteria and viruses
(T lymphocytes, processed by the thymus gland into activated lymphocytes, comprise the cytotoxic, helper, and suppressor T lymphocytes) |
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What structures comprise the lymphatic system? ***
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- lymph vessels
- lymph nodes - spleen - thymus gland - tonsils |
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What is lymph and of what is it comprised? ***
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it is the fluid within lymphatic vessels
it is comprised of water, WBCs, nutrients, hormones, salts, carbon dioxide, oxygen, and urea |
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Antibodies and lymphocytes (WBCs) are formed in the: ***
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- lymph nodes
- spleen - bone marrow - tonsils - adenoids |
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Lymph nodes and lymph tissue are strategically placed in the body to: ***
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intercept invading organisms
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What two types of lymphocytes provide immunity? ***
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T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes |
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What are cytotoxic T cells? ***
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- killer cells capable of killing invading organisms
- important in destroying cells invaded by viruses and cancer - a.k.a. CD8 T lymphocytes |
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What do helper T cells do? ***
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- they increase the activity of killer cells, B lymphocytes, and suppressor T cells by secreting lymphokines
- also activate macrophages that destroy invading organisms by phatocytosis |
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What do suppressor T cells do? ***
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- they slow down the cytotoxic (CD8 T/killer) lymphocytes
- help stop the immune response (homeostasis--so the response doesn't go too far) |
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Some activated B lymphocytes are transformed into: ***
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plasma cells which divide rapidly and produce a large number of cells that secrete antibodies into lymph
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Some B lymphocytes do not become plasma cells and instead remain ______ ***
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dormant until reactivated by the same antigen (memory cells)
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What is a memory cell? ***
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A B lymphocyte that remains dormant until reactivated by a subsequent exposure to the same antigen.
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Why are booster shots so effective? ***
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because memory cells produce a more potent and longer lasting antibody response
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What is a retrovirus? ***
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a virus that carries its genetic code on the RNA instead of teh DNA
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Why is HIV infection so devastating? ***
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it causes severe immunodeficiency of T-cell functions
it attacks helper (CD4) T lymphocytes and destroys their ability to fight infection and renders them incapable of stimulating the B-lymphocytes and cytotoxic (CD8/killer) T cells |
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What is Chronic Fatigue Syndrome? ***
|
- it manifests as an immune response consistent with a viral infection
- no known cause or cure - generally affects young professionals ("Yuppie flu") |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome? ***
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- severe and persistent fatigue
- muscle and joint pain - fever - difficulty with concentration and memory/retention |
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What is immune tolerance? ***
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the ability of the immune response to recognize the difference between the individual's own body cells and cells of an invading pathogen
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What happens when immune tolerance fails? ***
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autoimmune disease
activated T-cells and antibodies attack the body's own tissues |
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What are the four types of lupus? ***
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- systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
- discoid/cutaneous lupus - drug-induced lupus erythematosus - neonatal lupus |
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Which is the most severe type of lupus? ***
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systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
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Why is systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) so deadly? ***
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autobodies against RNA and DNA can attack any body cell and threaten the organs, especially the heart, lungs, kidneys, liver, and blood
also can affect joints and muscle tissue |
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What are the signs and symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)? ***
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- rash
- skin overly sensitive to sunlight - joint and muscle pains - hypertrophy of joints (appear similar to RA) - fever - enlarged lymph nodes and spleen - fatigue - Raynaud's phenomenon - periods of exacerbation and remission |
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What is the typical treatment for discoid/cutaneous lupus? ***
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NSAIDs/corticosteroids to relieve inflammation
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What is the typical treatment for systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)? ***
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no specific treatment except corticosteroids to control inflammatory symptoms of redness, heat, swelling, and pain
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What is the usual prognosis for systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)? ***
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fatal
usually due to organ (renal/heart) failure or pneumonia |
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What are the two types of artificial immunity? ***
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- active immunity
- passive immunity |
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What is active immunity? ***
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person is given a vaccine or toxoid as antigen, and he/she then forms antibodies to counter it
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What is a vaccine? ***
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a low dose of inactivated (dead) or attenuated (weakened) bacteria or viruses used to induce immunity
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What is a toxoid? ***
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a chemically altered poisonous material/toxin
(toxin--the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism) |
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Is active immunity long- or short-lived? ***
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long-lived
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What is passive immunity? ***
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a situation where a person is given doses of “preformed antibodies” from the immune serum of an animal, usually a horse
it is used in situations where there is not time to vaccinate the patient and develop active immunity (e.g., snake bite--hospital administers antivenin) |
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Is passive immunity long- or short-lived? ***
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short-lived
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What is an allergic reaction? ***
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a malfunction of the immune system in which it (over)reacts to one or more substances that do not bother most people
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The immune reaction is ______ rather than defensive in the individual who is hypersensitive or allergic to an antigen. ***
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destructive
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What is the cause of the sensitivity in an allergic reaction? ***
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abnormally formed antibodies
the system overproduces IgE immunoglobulins instead of IgG |
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What is the chain of events that produces an allergic reaction? ***
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- body forms IgE vice IgG
- IgE attaches to mast cells containing histamine, heparin, serotonin, and bradykinin - allergen binds with other end of IgE - mast cells break down and release their chemical loads of histamine, etc. - blood vessels dilate and release plasma into tissues - tissues swell |
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How can allergic reactions be countered? ***
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- allergy shots can desensitize
- oral antihistamines can relieve minor reactions |
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What are the steps the body goes through during anaphylactic shock? ***
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- large quantities of antigens are introduced to the body when large numbers of antibodies are already present
- antigens and antibodies interact - cellular damage triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils throughout the body - blood vessels dilate - capillaries become more permeable and leak plasma into tissues - blood pressure drops - hypotension causes poor return of venous blood to the heart - cardiac output is reduced - blood pools in body instead of circulating - person goes into shock - smooth muscle contraction in respiratory tract can occur as well |
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What are some less-severe signs of anaphylactic shock? ***
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- skin flush
- hives - swelling of lips/tongue - wheezing - abdominal cramps |
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What are the signs and symptoms of life-threatening anaphylactic shock? ***
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- profound weakness
- collapse due to low blood pressure - decreased cardiac output - inability to breathe or labored breathing - seizures |
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The inflammatory response includes:
Histamine release Dilation of blood vessels Increased permeability of blood vessels Answers 1 and 2 All of the above |
all of the above
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Which cells are associated with production of antibodies?
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Plasma cells
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Synonyms for antibodies include:
Immunoglobulins Gamma globulins Lymphokines Answers 1 and 2 both are correct All three of these choices are correct |
answers 1 and 2 are both correct
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Long-lived lymphocytes, which remain dormant until reactivated after an immune response are the:
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memory cells
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The secondary response to invasion by the same microbe will be:
Faster Stronger Longer-lasting Answers 1 and 2 All of the above |
all of the above
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Passive immunity is achieved artificially by injection of:
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preformed antibodies
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Which are associated with humoral immunity?
T lymphocytes B lymphocytes Killer cells Two of the above All of the above |
B lymphocytes
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The most damaging aspect of AIDS is
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suppression of the immune system
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What type of allergic reaction creates the rash of poison ivy?
Bonding of ivy oil to IgE Release of histamine from mast cells Hypersensitive responses of the cellular immune system Answers 1 and 2 All of the above |
hypersensitive responses of the cellular immune system
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Anaphylactic shock develops as a result of a:
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systemic release of histamine, which drastically lowers blood pressure
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The reaction of tissues to local injury, foreign invasion, or irritation is an infection. (T/F)
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false
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An inflammation is an undesirable reaction to injury. (T/F)
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false
|
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Cell-mediated immunity depends on the activities of B lymphocytes. (T/F)
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false
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Antibodies provide humoral immunity. (T/F)
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true
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Injection of toxoids produces a long-lived active type immunity. (T/F)
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true
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Failure of immune tolerance creates an autoimmune disease. (T/F)
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true
|
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Inflammation is another name for infection. (T/F)
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false
|
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The release of histamine increases the permeability of capillary walls. (T/F)
|
true
|
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Anaphylactic shock is a moderately serious allergic reaction. (T/F)
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false
(it is very serious) |
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Persons with severe allergy reactions to bee stings should carry a supply of epinephrine that can be self-injected during outdoor activities. (T/F)
|
true
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Attraction of erythrocytes for a blood typing action is called ________.
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agglutination
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Bacteria that cause pus formation are called _______ bacteria.
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pyogenic
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Which defense cell contains heparin, histamine, and serotonin?
Mast cell Lymphocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils |
mast cell
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A substance that triggers an immune response is an _________.
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antigen
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_______ disease may result when the body’s immune tolerance fails.
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autoimmune
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Excess fluid within tissues puts pressure on sensory nerves to cause:
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pain
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________ are antigens responsible for causing allergies.
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allergens
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Allergic reactions occur in ________ individuals susceptible to the allergy-causing agent.
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hypersensitive
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_________ shock is a serious reaction that is potentially lethal.
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anaphylactic
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The _______ immunoglobulin spikes high in allergic reactions
|
E
(IgE) |
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Natural hormone and inhalant medication:
|
epinephrine
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Pathogen invasion
|
infection
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Stimulates vascular permeability
|
Histamine
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allograft
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Most common form of transplant
|
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Hypersensitivity type II
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blood incompatibility
|
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Injection medication for Rh- mothers
|
RhoGam
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Lupus and scleroderma
|
autoimmune diseases
|
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A retrovirus (the only one we discussed)
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HIV
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Pus-forming reaction
|
suppurative
(by pyogenic bacteria) |
|
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Eating cell
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phagocyte
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What causes infectious disease? ***
|
invading pathogenic microorganisms
|
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How are infectious diseases transmitted? ***
|
- human-to-human (contagious/communicable)
- by other elements in environment (e.g., rabies from rat bite, cholera from fouled water) (noncommunicable) |
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A disease that passes readily from human to human is: ***
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contagious or communicable
|
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A disease that is not directly transmitted by humans is: ***
|
noncommunicable
|
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What are the causes/pathogens of infectious disease? ***
|
- bacteria
- viruses - fungi - helminths - protozoa - arthropods - prions (proteinaceous infectious particle) |
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What are the characteristics of bacteria? ***
|
- microscopic single-celled organisms
- no nucleus or membranous organelles - grow rapidly and split in half through binary fission (in as little as 30 minutes) - some produce endospores |
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How do bacteria multiply? ***
|
they grow rapidly and split in half through binary fission (in as little as 30 minutes)
|
|
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What are the five shapes of bacteria cells we discussed? ***
|
bacilli - rod-shaped
cocci - round/spherical spirilla - spiral-shaped spirochetes - corkscrew-shaped vibrios - comma-shaped |
|
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What are the characteristics of a bacterial infection? ***
|
- swelling
- redness - pain - fever - pus |
|
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What are endospores? ***
|
- basically, a stripped-down, dormant bacteria waiting for better conditions to reactivate
- contains genetic material of the cell/bacteria - resistant to desiccation, acid, temperature extremes, radiation - germinate and form growing cells - contaminate food, water, wounds |
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What is a virus? ***
|
- infectious particles made of a core genetic material (either RNA or DNA)
- wrapped in a protein coat (capsid) - may have a lipid membrane around the capsid - may have spikes for attachment - not a living organism; needs a host to grow and replicate |
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Certain viruses infect and grow in only: ***
|
certain types of cells
cold virus - respiratory epithelium herpes virus - nervous tissue HIV - T- cells |
|
|
Some viruses, like HPV, may cause: ***
|
abnormal cell growth
cancer |
|
|
What are protozoa? ***
|
single-celled microorganisms with complex internal structures (nucleus, organelles, etc.--eukaryotic)
|
|
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Do most protozoa cause disease? ***
|
no
|
|
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What are the four classes of protozoa? ***
|
- amoeboids
- flagellates - sporozoans - ciliates (very few are pathogens) |
|
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How do amoeboids move? ***
|
using cell membrane extensions called pseudopodia
|
|
|
What is caused by the amoeboid Entamoeba histolytica? ***
|
Amoebic dysentary--an intestinal infection from feces-contaminated food or water
|
|
|
How do flagellates move? ***
|
they swim by using their whiplike appendages (flagella)
|
|
|
What do the following flagellates cause: ***
Trypnosoma Giardia |
- African sleeping sickness
- giardiasis - an intestinal infection |
|
|
What is one of the characteristics of the sporozoan? ***
|
non-mobile
|
|
|
What does the Plasmodium sporozoan cause? ***
|
malaria (transmitted by mosquito bite)
|
|
|
What are the characteristics of fungi? ***
|
- single- or multicelled
- can move easily - readily infect damaged tissue (more so than healthy tissue) - cause disease by producing toxins that interfere with normal organ structure/function or induce inflammation/allergy - reproduce via spores (which are allergens) |
|
|
What are some fungal diseases? ***
|
Candidiasis - yeast infection/thrush
Histoplasmosis - lung infection from bird/bat-dropping contaminated soil Microsporum - causes ringworm Trichophyton - athlete's foot |
|
|
What are the characteristics of helminths? ***
|
- parasitic worms
- complex multicellular organisms (roundworms and flatworms) - well developed reproductive systems - complex lifecycles and infection strategies |
|
|
What is an infection with helminths called? ***
|
an infestation
|
|
|
What are some common roundworms? ***
|
- ascaris
- pinworms (Enterobius vermicularis) - hookworms (Necator americanus) |
|
|
What are the two major types of helminths discussed? ***
|
- roundworms
- flatworms |
|
|
What is the most common worm infection in the U.S.? ***
|
pinworms (Enterobius vermicularis)
|
|
|
What worm infection is a leading cause of anemia and protein malnutrition? ***
|
hookworms (Necator americanus)
|
|
|
How do helminths cause disease? ***
|
- using the host’s nutrients
- feeding on blood and causing anemia - blocking or perforating the intestines - inducing severe inflammatory responses |
|
|
What are arthropods? ***
|
animals with jointed legs and hard exoskeletons
|
|
|
What are some examples of arthropods? ***
|
- ticks
- mites - lice - flies - mosquitoes - fleas |
|
|
What is a vector? ***
|
transmitter of a pathogenic organism
(e.g., mosquito transmits Plasmodium when it feeds on humans) |
|
|
What is a reservoir? ***
|
- the source of an infectious agent
- can be human, animal, insect, soil, water |
|
|
Define incidence ***
|
the number of new cases of a disease in a population
|
|
|
Define prevalence ***
|
the number of existing cases of a disease in a population
|
|
|
Define endemic ***
|
when a disease is always present at low levels in a population
|
|
|
Define epidemic ***
|
when a disease occurs in unusually large numbers over a specific area
|
|
|
Define pandemic ***
|
when an epidemic has spread to include several large areas worldwide
|
|
|
Define outbreak ***
|
when a disease suddenly occurs in unexpected numbers in a limited area and then subsides
|
|
|
Define standard/universal precautions ***
|
- the precautions taken to prevent spread of disease
- assumption that all bodily fluids are contaminated - use of any/all available protective equipment and procedures to prevent contact with such substances |
|
|
What is epidemiology? ***
|
study of transmission, occurrence, distribution and control of disease
|
|
|
What is horizontal transmission? ***
|
transmission from infected human to uninfected human
|
|
|
What is vertical transmission? ***
|
transmission from one generation to the next
|
|
|
Upon what does effective treatment of infectious disease depend? ***
|
type of pathogen
|
|
|
How are bacterial infections treated? ***
|
antibiotics
(some act on the cell wall, especially in gram-positive bacteria; others target the cell membrane and cause lysis; others target the protein synthesis of the cell, interfere with metabolism, or DNA or RNA synthesis) |
|
|
Are viruses susceptible to antibiotics? ***
|
no
|
|
|
How are viral infections treated? ***
|
antiviral drugs can interfere with
- replication, or - attachment of virus to host |
|
|
How are fungal infections treated? ***
|
- treatment includes antifungal drugs that attack cell walls and membranes
- they are difficult to treat because the cells are similar to human cells and both are often destroyed by the treatment (topical agents aren't as dangerous as systemic agents) |
|
|
What are re-emerging infectious diseases? ***
|
infections once considered under control, but are again becoming health threats
|
|
|
What is causing re-emergence of some infectious diseases? ***
|
- increased antibiotic resistance
- changes in climate (alter arthropod vector breeding) - urbanization/crowding - rapid world travel - disruption of social and governmental structure (e.g., war) - human demographics and behavior |
|
|
What are some of the re-emerging infectious diseases? ***
|
- tuberculosis
- cholera - malaria - mumps - strep throat/impetigo - pneumonia/meningitis |
|
|
All diseases caused by microorganisms are properly called:
|
infectious
|
|
|
Examples of communicable diseases include:
|
measles, mumps, tuberculosis
(anything transmitted from human to human) |
|
|
Animals that transmit an infectious microbe from one person to another are referred to as:
|
vectors
|
|
|
All bacteria have in common:
|
absence of a nucleus
|
|
|
Viruses are:
Smaller than bacteria Basically micro-parasites Probable infectious agents All of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
|
bacilli
|
|
|
Viruses are capable of reproducing in:
|
a specific host tissue
|
|
|
Some people in all parts of the world have the common cold at any one time. This is properly described as:
|
endemic
|
|
|
Vertical transmission of disease occurs in which of the following:
Influenza Lyme disease Syphilis Pneumonia |
syphilis
|
|
|
Contraction of an infection during a hospital stay would be:
|
a nosocomial infection
|
|
|
Epidemiology is the study of the cause of diseases. (T/F)
|
false
(epidemiology is the study of the transmission, occurrence, distribution, and control of disease) |
|
|
Vaccines reduce or prevent bacterial or viral infections. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
The re-emergence of some diseases can be traced to changes in climate. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Infectious disease mortality has decreased significantly in the past two decades. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Having chicken pox is usually a prelude to having shingles. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Yeast infections are routinely controlled by penicillin. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Helminths include both roundworms and flatworms. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Having a high susceptibility means less chance for infection. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Antifungal drugs can cause serious side effects, since fungal cells have many similarities to human cells. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Vaccination is injection of antibodies from a microorganism in order to provoke an immune response and prevent future infection by that microorganism. (T/F)
|
false
(injection of an ANTIGEN, not an antibody) |
|
|
Normal flora live mainly in the ________ and on the _______.
|
intestines, skin
|
|
|
The simple act of _______ helps reduce infectious spread. It is the single most important means of preventing spread of infections.
|
hand washing
|
|
|
A chemical method to characterize bacteria is the _________.
|
gram stain
|
|
|
Ig__ helps keep body surfaces antiseptic.
|
D
(IgD) |
|
|
An example of a vector is the:
Deer Tick Mouse Bird |
tick
|
|
|
Elephantiasis is caused by a:
|
roundworm
|
|
|
Bacillus forms of bacteria are shaped like ________.
|
rods
|
|
|
An organism that is a reservoir for disease is a(n):
|
animal
|
|
|
A worldwide outbreak of a disease is said to be ________.
|
a pandemic
|
|
|
A re-emerging disease with increased antibiotic resistance is:
Smallpox Tuberculosis Polio Measles |
tuberculosis
|
|
|
Local or regional spread of disease
|
epidemic
|
|
|
Transmitted from human to human
|
contagious
|
|
|
Mode of bacterial reproduction
|
binary fission
|
|
|
Round and flat worms like nematodes or tapeworms
|
helminths
|
|
|
Infectious disease harbored and transmitted by bats
|
rabies
|
|
|
Kills bacteria
|
antibiotic
|
|
|
One method of disease prevention
|
vaccination
|
|
|
One type of mosquito-borne disease
|
malaria
|
|
|
A simple fungus infection
|
yeast
thrush |
|
|
Tick-borne infectious disease
|
Lyme disease
|
|
|
What is neoplasia? ***
|
new and abnormal formation of tissue
|
|
|
What are two classes of neoplasia? ***
|
- benign
- malignant |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a benign neoplasm? ***
|
- not usually dangerous (but may grow to a size that impedes function)
- not spreading by metastasis or infiltration of tissue - cells adhere together - generally encapsulated, with clearly defined edges - non-cancerous - grow as a single mass within tissue - can grow within an organ causing considerable damage (e.g., brain tumor) |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a malignant neoplasm? ***
|
- grows worse
- metastasizes - often recurs after attempts at surgical removal - irregularly shaped - harmful and usually life-threatening - typically larger than benign neoplasia |
|
|
Which class of tumors are growing worse, benign or malignant? ***
|
malignant
|
|
|
What are five types of benign tumors? ***
|
adenoma - glandular tumor
angioma - red birth mark (a.k.a. port wine stain) lipoma - fatty tumor nevus - mole papilloma - wart |
|
|
Which is commonly referred to as a wart? ***
papilloma lipoma adenoma nevus |
papilloma
|
|
|
What is the second leading cause of death in the U.S.? ***
|
malignant tumors
|
|
|
How do cancer cells spread (metastasize)? ***
|
via
lymph fluid (carcinoma) or blood (sarcoma) |
|
|
Which grow faster, benign or malignant neoplasms/tumors? ***
|
malignant
|
|
|
What are the three classifications of malignant tumors? ***
|
carcinoma
sarcoma melanosarcoma |
|
|
What is the most common type malignant neoplasm/tumor? ***
|
carcinoma
|
|
|
Where do carcinomas originate? ***
|
epithelial tissue
|
|
|
By which system do carcinomas spread? ***
|
lymphatic system
|
|
|
Where are the most common sites for carcinoma? ***
|
skin, mouth, lungs, breast tissue, stomach, colon, and uterus
(all of which open or are exposed to the outside of the body) |
|
|
What is the second most common type of malignant neoplasm/tumor? ***
|
sarcoma
|
|
|
Where are sarcomas found? ***
|
in the connective tissues, bones, muscles, cartilage
|
|
|
How do sarcomas spread? ***
|
via blood circulation
|
|
|
Where is the most common site of metastases related to sarcoma? ***
|
lungs
(since all blood eventually goes through your lungs) |
|
|
Where is melanosarcoma found? ***
|
skin
|
|
|
From what does melanosarcoma originate? ***
|
a nevus or melanoma
|
|
|
What are the characteristics of a Grade 1 tumor? ***
|
- high survival rate
- tumor tissue differentiated and closely resembles parent tissue |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a Grade 2 or 3 tumor? ***
|
- moderate survival rate
- cells moderately or poorly differentiated |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a Grade 4 tumor? ***
|
- low survival rate
- cells so undifferentiated that tissue origin not easily recognized |
|
|
What are the three phases in development of a neoplasm? ***
|
- initiation
- promotion - progression |
|
|
What occurs during the initiation phase of neoplasm development? ***
|
the cell undergoes genetic changes due to altering of DNA by agents such as chemicals, radiation, or oncogenic viruses
|
|
|
What occurs during the promotion phase of neoplasm development? ***
|
the altered cells proliferate and look benign; the mass may:
- regress (immune system handles it), or - evolve into cancer (it's possible to prevent at this stage) |
|
|
What occurs during the progression phase of neoplasm development? ***
|
- a change from a precancerous lesion to a malignant lesion
- growth rate increased - malignancy invades and metastasizes |
|
|
List some types of carcinogenic agents. ***
|
- environmental agents (air/water/soil/food pollutants)
- radiation (X-ray, UV light) - chemical carcinogens - use of tobacco products (30% of all cancer) - genetic predisposition - hormonal imbalances (e.g., prostate cancer) - viruses (invade cells and alter DNA) |
|
|
What causes nearly a third (30%) of all cancers? ***
|
use of tobacco products
|
|
|
What important steps can one take to help prevent development of cancer? ***
|
- stop using tobacco products
- improve diet and nutrition - decrease UV/sun exposure - caution with chemical usage - regular preventive health examinations |
|
|
What are some signs and symptoms of cancer? ***
|
- pain at late stage or if infection is present
- abnormal bleeding or discharge - blood in urine, stool, vomit or sputum - unusual thickening or lumps - persistent cough or hoarseness - change in bowel or bladder habits - increased healing time of cuts, lesions or ulcerations - moles or skin discolorations that change color, darken, enlarge, or become raised, crusty, scaly, or itchy - unexplained rapid weight loss - severe anemia |
|
|
What does the American Cancer Society's CAUTION acronym stand for? ***
|
- Change in bowel or bladder habits
- A sore that does not heal - Unusual bleeding or discharge - Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere - Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing - Obvious change in wart or mole - Nagging cough or hoarseness |
|
|
What are some means used to diagnose cancer? ***
|
- X-ray - use of contrast dyes to show site of tumor/mass
- biopsy - small sample of suspected tissue collected and examined microscopically - exfoliative cytology - microscopic examination of scrapings, washings, or secretions from suspected area |
|
|
What are some means of treating cancer? ***
|
- surgery
- radiation therapy - hormone therapy - chemotherapy |
|
|
How is surgery used to treat cancer, and for what types is it most effective? ***
|
abnormal tissue is removed, as well as some of the surrounding tissue
effective for early stages of breast and uterine cancer; radiation often follows |
|
|
Increased healing time of cuts or lesions is: ***
sign of adenoma symptom of grade 2 tumor necessary to diagnose cancer sign of possible cancer |
sign of possible cancer
|
|
|
How is radiation used to treat cancer, and for what types is it most effective? ***
|
used for treatment of fast-growing, undifferentiated tumors
the destructive effects are greater on fast-growing cells than on normal cells effective treatment for leukemia and Hodgkin's disease; usually combined with chemotherapy |
|
|
How is hormone therapy used to treat cancer, and on what types of cancer is it most effective? ***
|
hormone therapy is a type of chemotherapy used to treat prostate cancer by either:
- removing the androgen source which stimulates the cancer growth, or - administering estrogen to inhibit the growth of the tumor |
|
|
Any new and abnormal growth is properly called:
|
a neoplasm
|
|
|
Within a tumor, development of changes that transform cells into cancer is:
|
progression
|
|
|
CAUTION is an acronym used for remembering the common:
|
warning signs of cancer
Change in bowel or bladder habits A sore that does not heal Unusual bleeding or discharge Thickening or lump in the breast or any other part of the body Indigestion or difficulty swallowing Obvious change in a wart or mole Nagging cough or hoarseness |
|
|
A malignant growth of glandular tissue is named:
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
Sarcomas are tumors involving what tissues?
|
bone and muscle
|
|
|
Benign growths are usually:
Encapsulated Non-spreading Removed by surgery All of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
A malignant tumor:
May block the lumen of an organ May have an ulcerated and bleeding surface Is always fatal Two of the above are true |
two of the above are true
(not always fatal) |
|
|
The development of a cancer begins with a genetic change in a cell, which may be caused by:
A chemical Radiation A virus All of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a possible carcinogenic type of radiation?
X-rays The radiation from atomic bombs UV radiation from the sun and tanning booths All of the above are dangerous, carcinogenic types of radiation |
all of the above are dangerous, carcinogenic types of radiation
|
|
|
What behavioral trait may cause lung, stomach, and colorectal cancer?
Eating a low-fat diet Smoking Drug abuse Skipping breakfast |
smoking
|
|
|
Cancer has a basic genetic foundation/origin. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
The key identifying characteristic of malignant tumors is metastasis. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
The edges of a malignant tumor are well defined. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Benign tumors generally are encapsulated. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Benign tumors, especially cranial ones, are as risky as malignant tumors. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
There are two types of neoplasms, malignant and benign. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Living in a certain geographic area of a country may increase one’s chance of developing a particular type of cancer. (T/F)
|
true
|
|
|
Carcinoma and sarcoma are two names describing the same type of cancer. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
A tumor biopsy is a lengthy procedure performed well in advance of surgery. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Tumor and cancer are synonymous. (T/F)
|
false
|
|
|
Past age 50, men are prone to _______ cancer.
|
prostate
|
|
|
Carcinoma spreads primarily using the _________ system.
|
lymphatic
|
|
|
A(n) ________ is a type of polyp.
Myoma Adenoma Papilloma Angioma |
papilloma
|
|
|
The virus causing _________ also seems to be the cause of uterine cervical cancer.
|
genital warts
|
|
|
__________ is a method of estimating how much a tumor has spread.
|
staging
|
|
|
Coughing up blood is a major sign of _______ cancer.
|
lung
|
|
|
Once carcinogenesis has reached the ______ stage, the development of a malignant tumor is a certainty.
|
progression
|
|
|
Cervical cancer is often attributed to the _______ virus.
|
human papilloma
|
|
|
Surgery is the initial primary treatment for most ______ cancers.
|
skin
|
|
|
Cancer develops when ______ are turned on.
|
oncogenes
|
|
|
Cancer of blood cells
|
leukemia
|
|
|
Bladder cancer symptom
|
change in urination control
|
|
|
Skin cancer symptom
|
sore that will not heal
|
|
|
Respiratory cancer symptom
|
nagging cough
|
|
|
Laryngeal cancer symptom
|
hoarseness
|
|
|
Colon cancer symptom
|
change in bowel habits
|
|
|
Melanoma symptom
|
black color in mole
|
|
|
Most adult tumors of the central nervous system are derived from:
|
glial cells
|
|
|
Uterine or cervical cancer symptom
|
bloody (non-menstrual) vaginal discharge
|
|
|
Hodgkin’s disease symptom
|
Reed-Sternberg cells
|
|
|
The steady state the body attempts to maintain is called ______.
|
homeostasis
|
|
|
A significant disturbance in the homeostasis of the body triggers a variety of responses that often produce _______.
|
disease
|
|
|
Disease can be defined as a state of _____ _______.
|
functional disequilibrium
( a change in function or structure considered to be abnormal) |
|
|
The study of disease in general
|
pathology
|
|
|
The study of the physiological processes leading up to disease
|
pathophysiology
|
|
|
What factors are analyzed to create a diagnosis?
|
- patient history
- physical exam - signs - symptoms - laboratory data - diagnostic (imaging) tests |
|
|
What characterizes an acute disease?
|
- sudden onset
- short duration |
|
|
What characterizes a chronic disease?
|
- slower, less severe onset
- long duration |
|
|
What is a remission?
|
a period of time in which the signs and symptoms of a disease subside
|
|
|
What is an exacerbation?
|
the period in which the signs and symptoms of a disease recur in all their severity
|
|
|
What is a relapse?
|
when a disease returns weeks or months after its apparent cessation
|
|
|
What is a complication?
|
a disease or other abnormal state that develops in a person already suffering from a disease
|
|
|
What is the aftermath of a disease called?
|
the sequela
|
|
|
How is the mortality of a disease defined?
|
as a measure of the number of deaths attributed to a disease in a given population over a given period of time
|
|
|
How is the morbidity of a disease defined?
|
as a measure of the disability and extent of illness caused by a disease
|
|
|
What is a lesion?
|
it could be
- a damaged gene or enzyme; or - abnormal cells, tissues, or organs |
|
|
At the root of most causes of disease is _______ of some sort.
|
a lesion
|
|
|
What are the (six) major causes of disease?
|
stress
heredity inflammation/autoimmunity/allergy neoplasm infection malnutrition |
|
|
Treatment includes procedures for the ____ or ______ of disease.
|
- cure
- reduction of symptoms |
|
|
Treatments designed to relieve and manage the symptoms of incurable diseases are called _____ or _____
|
- palliative
- symptomatic |
|
|
Type of treatment depends on:
|
- nature of the disease
- characteristics of the patient - goals of the patient and physician |
|
|
Types of treatments include:
|
- medical (pharmacologic)
- surgical - psychiatric/psychological - combination of any/all of the above |
|
|
What is the body's immunological first line of defense?
|
intact skin
|
|
|
What are the body's innate (nonspecific) chemical barriers?
|
tears
saliva sweat oil mucus |
|
|
How do natural killer cells work?
|
they recognize and destroy body cells with abnormal membranes
|
|
|
How is fever created?
|
when phagocytes find and destroy foreign invaders, they release substances that raise body temperature
|
|
|
How does fever aid the immune system?
|
it stimulates phagocytosis, increases metabolism, and inhibits multiplication of some organisms
fever is a sign of the normal interplay between the immune system and microorganisms |
|
|
What is interferon?
|
a group of substances that stimulate the immune system by interfering with viral multiplication
virus-infected cells and other agents produce interferon often used to treat infections and cancer |
|
|
Inflammation is a _____ _____ ______ to injury or invasion.
|
protective tissue response
|
|
|
Hyperemia
|
increased blood flow to an inflamed area
|
|
|
What is a neutrophil?
|
a leukocyte (WBC) that defends the body against invading microorganisms and speeds healing by engulfing cell debris in injured tissues
|
|
|
What substance is released by injured tissue during the inflammatory response?
|
histamine
|
|
|
What does histamine do in the inflammatory reaction?
|
causes the cell walls to become more permeable
|
|
|
After histamine causes increased permeability of the capillary walls, what occurs next in the inflammatory response?
|
plasma and neutrophils move out of the blood vessels and into the tissues
|
|
|
What is chemotaxis?
|
the attraction of the WBCs to the site of inflammation
|
|
|
What is inflammatory exudate?
|
plasma and WBCs that escape from the capillaries to the site of inflammation
|
|
|
In the inflammatory process, what causes the:
redness and heat? swelling and pain? |
hyperemia
inflammatory exudate |
|
|
To increase effectiveness of inflammatory and immune response, the ____ ____ and ____ _____ release very large quantities of leukocytes.
|
bone marrow
lymph nodes |
|
|
How is the normal white cell range of 4,000 - 10,000 per cubic microliter of blood affected when infection or inflammation is present?
|
it may rise to 30,000 or more
|
|
|
The excessive production of white cells
|
leukocytosis
|
|
|
How is pus created?
|
the neutrophils die soon after ingesting the bacteria and toxins and release substances that liquefy the surrounding tissue
|
|
|
Of what is pus comprised?
|
liquefied tissue
dead neutrophils inflammatory exudate |
|
|
What other phagocytic cells are involved in the inflammatory process?
|
monocytes or macrophages
|
|
|
What is fibrin?
|
a plasma protein carried in the inflammatory exudate
helps create clots in damaged tissue and walls off infection to prevent its spread |
|
|
Bacteria that cause pus formation
|
pyogenic
|
|
|
Inflammation associated with pus formation
|
suppurative inflammation
|
|
|
Examples of suppurative inflammation:
|
abscesses
boils styes |
|
|
By what two ways can wound healing occur?
|
regeneration
fibrosis |
|
|
What is regeneration?
|
replacement of destroyed tissue with the same type of cells
|
|
|
What is fibrosis?
|
fibroblasts (a type of connective tissue cell) produce collagen fibers that contract and draw the cut surfaces together
|
|
|
What is scar tissue?
|
a meshwork of collagen fibers created from fibroblasts during fibrosis
|
|
|
What is keloid healing?
|
A scar that is raised and hard
it is actually a benign tumor |
|
|
What happens when collagen fibers anchor together adjacent structures?
|
adhesions
|
|
|
How is lymph created?
|
due to high pressure of cardiovascular system, fluids leak from capillary beds into tissues
most fluid is reabsorbed, but about 3 liters per day stays in the tissues this must be returned to the bloodstream or it will cause swelling and low blood volume |
|
|
How does the lymphatic system function?
|
the lymph circulates through the lymph vessels and is filtered in the lymph nodes, where macrophages phagocytize bacteria, viruses, etc.
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Lymphocyte
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WBC produced by lymph nodes
responds to bacteria, viruses, and foreign material in lymph |
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_______ play a critical role in specific immunity
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lymphocytes
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What roles do B lymphocytes play in humoral immunity?
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- some interact with antigens and become activated
- some are transformed into plasma cells which divide rapidly and produce large numbers of antibodies |
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What are antibodies?
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plasma proteins which are
gamma globulins called immunoglobulins (Ig) |
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How do antibodies work?
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they bind to antigens and tag them for destruction by the immune system
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IgA
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IgA - local protection at mucosal surfaces
found in mucosal secretions and colostrum |
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IgG
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IgG - produced in primary and secondary immune responses; neutralizes toxins, bacteria, and viruses
found in blood plasma, crosses placenta |
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IgE
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IgE - allergy
found in trace amounts in serum secreted by sensitized plasma cells in tissues and locally attached to mast cells |
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IgM
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IgM - protects newborns
bound to B lymphocytes in circulation usually the first to increase in the immune response |
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IgD
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IgD - activates B lymphocytes
found attached to B lymphocytes |
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Types of T lymphocytes
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- cytotoxic (CD8 or killer) T lymphocytes
- helper (CD4) T lymphocytes - suppressor T lymphocytes |
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How do cytotoxic (CD8 or killer) T lymphocytes work?
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they have receptor proteins on their surfaces which bind tightly to cells or organisms that contain a specific antigen
once bound, they release poisonous substances into the attacked cell |
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Against what types of cells are cytotoxic (CD8 or killer) T lymphocytes particularly effective?
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- cells invaded by viruses
- cancer cells |
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Memory T lymphocytes
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some T lymphocytes that participate in an immune response remain as memory T lymphocytes that can rapidly mobilize should the same antigen be encountered again
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Hypersensitivity diseases or allergic diseases may manifest themselves ______ or ______
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locally (confined areas such as skin or mucous membranes)
systemically (anaphylaxis) |
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How do allergy shots work?
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they cause an increase of IgG in the bloodstream
IgG coats the allergen in the blood, blocking it from binding to IgE in the tissues and reducing the amount of tissue damage |
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How is anaphylaxis treated/countered?
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epinephrine
glucocorticoids cortisone derivatives |
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Types of hypersensitivities:
Type I |
allergic or anaphylactic hypersensitivity
triggered by allergen binding to IgE on mast cells, which produces either local severe or systemic severe inflammation |
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Types of hypersensitivities:
Type II |
cytotoxic or cytolytic
involve IgM or IgG interacting with foreign cells to cause their destruction |
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What happens during an incompatible blood transfusion?
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the RBCs agglutinate (clump together)
massive hemolysis (rupture) of RBCs occurs |
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Types of hypersensitivities:
Type III |
immune complex
antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes which deposit in tissues and blood vessels and cause inflammation and tissue destruction (e.g., glomerulonephritis after strep, or farmer's lung from inhaling mold spores) |
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Types I, II, and III hypersensitivities are all ______ hypersensitivities, which _________________
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immediate
develop within about 30 minutes of exposure to antigens or allergens |
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Types of hypersensitivities:
Type IV |
cell-mediated or delayed
initial exposure activates T lymphocyte-mediated immune response which is slow to develop first exposure leads to sensitization, thereafter, the T lymphocytes will release cytokines that damage tissue at point of exposure (e.g., contact dermitits or TB test) |
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What organs can be transplanted?
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heart
lung kidney liver intestine pancreas |
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autograft
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tissue graft from one site to another in the same patient
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isograft
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tissues from identical twin
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xenograft
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tissues from different species
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allograft
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most common
from another donor not an identical twin |
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How are allografts matched?
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blood type must match
cell membrane antigens must be at least 75% match |
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What type of hypersensitivity are tissue and organ rejections?
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Type IV or delayed hypersensitivity
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Scleroderma is an autoimmune disease of the:
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connective tissue
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Two classes of scleroderma
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- localized (skin and underlying muscle)
- systemic (skin, tissues under skin, blood vessels, major organs) |
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Localized scleroderma types
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morphea (local patches or generalized patches)
linear scleroderma (single line or band) |
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Types of systemic scleroderma
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limited cutaneous scleroderma (gradual onset, mostly limbs)
diffuse cutaneous scleroderma (sudden onset, much of body) |
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Sjögren's is an autoimmune disease of
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the glands and other tissues
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Two types of Sjögren's
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- primary (occurs alone)
- secondary (occurs with lupus, scleroderma, RA, etc.) |
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Sjögren's can affect
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the entire body (kidneys, GI system, blood vessels, lungs, liver, pancreas, nervous system)
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Sjögren's patients should be aware:
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incidence of lymphoma (cancer of the lymph nodes) is significantly higher in Sjögren's patients
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What portion of new HIV infections are heterosexual?
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two-thirds
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To move from HIV-positive to AIDS diagnosis requires:
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- patient to have one of the AIDS indicator diseases, and
- helper (CD4) T-lymphocyte count less than 200 |
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HAART
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- highly active antiretroviral therapy
- targets HIV replication and can render the viral load almost undetectable |
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How does stress affect immunity?
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- causes increased production of cortisol
- cortisol decreases production of antibodies and substances released by leukocytes that stimulate other immune system cells |
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Because of the reduction in antibody production in older people, vaccines _______
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are less likely to produce immunity
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What is a pathogen?
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an infectious agent or disease-causing organism
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What is a notifiable disease?
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a disease under constant surveillance in the US
physicians are required to report cases to the CDC |
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What are some notifiable infectious diseases?
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measles
mumps polio tuberculosis tetanus Legionnares' disease chlamydia |
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What is microbiota?
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the normal flora in and on our bodies that comprises about 100 trillion microorganisms
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opportunistic pathogen
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normal flora of the body that take advantage of an opportunity to become harmful
not a problem in a healthy person, but may cause disease if host is weakened or immunocompromised |
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What is a carrier?
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one who harbors an infectious agent but does not have signs or symptoms of the disease
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What is the easiest and most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?
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the respiratory tract
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What are some other portals of entry for pathogens?
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- gastrointestinal
- genitourinary |
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What is the parenteral route of entry for microorganisms?
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through a puncture, injection, bite or surgery
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What is transmission by direct contact?
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individual is infected by contact with the reservoir
(e.g., touching/kissing/having sex with infected person; bitten by animal/insect; inhaling infectious respiratory droplets) |
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How does disease transmission by indirect contact occur?
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when the pathogen can withstand the environment outside the host for a long period of time before infecting another individual
(e.g., airborne transmission - longer hang time than respiratory droplets, which are considered direct contact) |
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What is a fomite?
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an inanimate object that is contaminated by direct contact with the reservoir
(e.g., used syringe, kleenex, ingesting contaminated food/water) |
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What is a prion?
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- proteinaceous infectious particle
- causes spongiform encephalopathies (holes in the brain) by inducing abnormal folding of brain proteins |
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What is a latent infection?
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viruses insert themselves in cells and do not reproduce
later, a trigger, such as stress, infection with another pathogen, or weakened immunity allows the virus to activate (e.g., herpes infection) |
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What is a glycocalyx?
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a sticky sugar coat on a bacteria
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What is a capsule? What does it do?
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a glycocalyx that is organized and firmly attached to the cell wall of a bacteria
capable of protecting bacteria from phagocytosis |
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What is a slime layer? What does it do?
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a glycocalyx that is unorganized and loosely attached to the cell wall of a bacteria
helps bacteria attach to surfaces |
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What are fimbrae? What do they do?
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short, hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces
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What are pili? What do they do?
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longer (than fimbrae) hair-like appendage bacteria use to join together to transfer DNA from one cell to another (sex pili)
most bacteria only have one or two |
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Transfer of DNA between bacteria can aid in ______ ______
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antibiotic resistance
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What is an endotoxin? What damage can it cause?
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a toxin released into tissues when gram-negative cells die
causes life-threatening shock |
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What is a plasmid? What do they do?
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small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule contained in many bacteria along with the bacterial chromosome
they replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome and contain genetic information for antibiotic resistance, production of toxins, tolerance to toxic metals, and synthesis of enzymes |
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How are protozoa infectious?
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most do not cause disease, however, they may invade and destroy certain tissues or provoke damaging inflammatory responses
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What is chitin?
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a special polysaccharide contained in the cell walls of fungi
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What are mycelia?
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specialized filaments fungi use to absorb nutrients from their surroundings
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What are mycoses?
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another term for fungal infection
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Sources of microorganisms that cause nosocomial infections:
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- patient's normal flora
- contact with healthcare staff - contaminated instruments/needles - healthcare environment |
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What are the principle routes of transmission of nosocomial infections?
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- direct contact transmission from healthcare staff to patient
- indirect contact transmission through fomites and hospital's ventilation system |
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How are infections with protozoa treated?
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with drugs that interfere with protein synthesis and metabolism
some antibiotics are used to treat protozoal infections |
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How are helminth infestations treated?
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they are susceptible to drugs that
paralyze their muscles or interfere with their carbohydrate metabolism |
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What is the best choice for long-term control of certain diseases? Why?
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preventive measures
because treatment can result in - resistant microorganisms - toxic side effects - allergies |
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What are emerging infectious diseases?
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- outbreaks of previously unknown diseases
- known diseases whose incidence in humans has significantly increased in the past two decades (emerging diseases have been identified at the unprecedented rate of one or more per year since the 1970s) |
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Measles is caused by:
Mumps is caused by: German measles is caused by: |
the rubeola virus
the paramyxovirus the rubella virus |
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What are Koplik spots?
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grayish spots that develop in the mouth before the rash of measles appears
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What is orchitis?
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inflammation of the testicles
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What are parotid glands?
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the largest of the salivary glands, and the ones that swell in the case of the mumps
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What is the leading cause of death worldwide?
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cancer
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What four factors regulate cell growth?
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- growth factors
- growth inhibitors - cell cycle proteins (cyclins) - programmed cell death (apoptosis) |
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What is apoptosis?
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programmed cell death
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Carcinogenesis is a multistep process that involves a complex sequence of _____ _______
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genetic mutations
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A mutation is:
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a change in the biochemistry of a gene, resulting in the production of abnormal cells
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Most invasive cancers develop only when:
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several genes are mutated
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Generally, mutations in three classes of genes are responsible for the development of cancer:
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- oncogenes
- tumor suppressor genes - DNA repair genes |
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What is an oncogene?
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a gene that when mutated or expressed at abnormally high levels contributes to converting a normal cell into a cancer cell
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Oncogenes are derived from:
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protooncogenes, or growth-promoting genes and are activated genetic alterations induced by retroviruses
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Normally oncogenes encode for proteins that regulate:
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cell growth,
differentiation, and apoptosis |
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Activation or overproduction of an oncogene leads to:
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dysregulation of cell growth,
increased proliferation, loss of apoptosis |
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Transformation of a normal cell to a malignant cell takes place not only by activation of oncogenes, but also:
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by inactivation or deletion of tumor suppressor genes
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Inactivation or loss of tumor suppressor genes by mutation or deletion leads to:
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loss of function,
reduced restrictions on cell growth and division, genetic instability, loss of apoptosis, and enhanced possibility of malignant behavior |
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DNA repair genes are also called:
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caretaker genes
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DNA repair genes are responsible for:
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repair of errors in normal DNA replication
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Mutations in DNA repair genes result in:
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persistent DNA damage and
consequent further mutations and genetic instability this may result in loss of tumor repair genes and conversion of a protooncogene to an oncogene and an increased susceptibility to cancer |
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In vitro
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in the laboratory
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Endogenous etiology of cancer
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genetic makeup (sex, heredity, hormones, immunity, etc.)
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The major cause of cancer throughout the world:
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smoking
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Most common causes of occupational cancer:
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asbestos exposure (mesothelioma)
radon chemical compounds such as benzene, benzidine, arsenic, soot, coal tars, wood dust |
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Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause:
Exposure to UV radiation can cause: |
leukemia (cancer of WBCs)
breast cancer thyroid cancer skin cancer |
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Second largest contributor to cancer deaths after smoking:
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diet and obesity
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Cancer-causing chronic infections:
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hepatitis B/C
HPV HIV Helicobacter pylori bacteria |
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Most common malignant disease worldwide:
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lung cancer
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Two types of lung cancer:
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non-small cell lung cancer
small cell lung cancer |
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Most common type of lung cancer
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adenocarcinoma
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Most frequently diagnosed cancer in women
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breast cancer
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Fourth most common malignancy in the world:
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stomach cancer
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Second most commonly involved organ in metastasis, after the lymph nodes:
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liver
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What is ascites?
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accumulation of fluid in abdominal cavity
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Second most common cancer in women
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cervical
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Metrorragia
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uterine bleeding
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Dysuria
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difficult urination
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Dysphagia
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difficulty speaking
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Leading risk factor for prostate cancer:
|
age
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Cryptorchidism
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undescended testes
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Hematuria
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blood in the urine
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Lymphoma is a heterogeneous group of neoplasms of:
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lymphoid tissue
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Lymphomas are classified as either ________ or ________
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Hodgkin's disease or
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma |
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Hodgkin's is linked to the _____ ______ virus.
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Epstein-Barr (EBV)
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Hodgkin's disease is distinguished from non-Hodgkin's lymphoma by the presence of:
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Reed-Sternberg cells
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What are the risk factors for developing non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
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HIV/AIDS
immunosuppresive therapy viral infections with HTLV1 or Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Helicobacter pylori infection (gastric lymphoma) |
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Indolent
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slow-growing
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Leukemia causes:
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massive proliferation of immature forms of WBCs
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Leukemia is classified on the basis of malignancy involving either _____ or _____ cells
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lymphoid (B cells or T cells in lymph tissue)
myeloid (bone marrow cells) |
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Melanocyte
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pigment-producing cell
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Erythrocytosis
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elevated RBC count
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Paresis
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slight paralysis
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Meninges
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membranes covering the brain
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Cancer is the ____ leading cause of death in children.
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second
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The majority of childhood cancers are _______
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leukemia
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